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A 20 year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anaesthetic induction agent of choice ? | Propofol is considered the anaesthesia of choice for day care surgery (out patient surgery) as induction is smooth & pleasant and recovery is rapid. | 2,100 | medmcqa_train |
Precocious puberty in girl age limit - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 8 year o precocious puberty is defined as appearence of secondary' sexual character before 8 year of age in girl and 9.5 year of age (Nelson says 9 year) in bodys.o Thelarche = Isolated breast development.o Premature, Pubarche/Adrenarche - Appearance of sexual hair before age of 8 year in girl and before 9 year is boys without other evidence maturation.o Premature menarche - Isolated uaginal bleeding in the absence of other secondary sexual charater. | 2,101 | medmcqa_train |
Longest acting cephalosporin: | Ans: a (Ceftriaxone) Ref: Tripathi, 6th ed, p. 706 10th ed, p. 735- Ceftriaxone has a long duration of action with half life of 8 hrs- Ceftazidime has half life of 1.5-1.8 hrs- Cefaperazone has half life of 2 hrs- Cefotaxime has half life of 1 hrFirst-generation cephalosporinsThird- generation cephalosporinsCefadroxil (PO)Cefotaxime (IV)Cephalexin (PO) Cephradine (PO)Ceftazidime (IV)Cefazolin (IV)Ceftriaxone (IV) Ceftizoxime (IV) Cefoperazone (PO)Second-generation cephalosporinsCefixime (PO)Cefoxitin (IV)Cefpodoxime proxetil (PO)Cefotetan (IV)Cefdinir (PO)Cefuroxime (TV)Ceftamet pivoxil (PO)Cefuroxime axetil (PO) Fourth-generation cephalosporins Cefepime (IV) Cefpirome (IV)Cephalosporins are not active against enterococci and L monocytogenes.Cefazolin penetrates well into most tissues. It is a drug of choice for surgical prophylaxisCeftriaxone and cefotaxime are the most active cephalosporins against penicillin-resistant strains of pneumococci and are recommended for empirical therapy of serious infections that may be caused by these strains.Cephalosporins that contain a methylthiotetrazole group (e.g., cefamandole, cefmetazole, cefotetan, cefoperazone) frequently cause hypoprothrombinemia and bleeding disorders | 2,102 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presents with Ahritis, hyperpigmentation of skin and hypogonadism, likely diagnosis is. | Answer is A (Hemochromatosis):The association of Ahritis, hyperpigmentation of skin and hypogonadism suggests the diagnosis of hematochromatosis. | 2,103 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is common cause for transverse lie | Most common causes of transverse lie are:
Multiparity
Preterm fetus
Abnormal uterine anatomy
Hydramnios
Contracted pelvis. | 2,104 | medmcqa_train |
Habitat of hookworm is - | The adult worms live in the small intestine of infected persons mostly in the jejunum,less often in the duodenum, and infrequently in the ileum Ref : panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 187 | 2,105 | medmcqa_train |
What is the percentage of patients with disseminated discoid lupus erythematosus who develop SLE? | The risk is higher in patients with disseminated DLE (22%) than in DLE confined to the head and neck (1.2%). Females developing DLE before the age of 40 years,with HLA-B8 in their histocompatibility type, have an increasedrisk of 'conveing' to SLE. Neither immunological nor biochemical abnormalities appear to alter the patient's progress. Note: Carpet tack/tin tack sign is positive in DLE lesions. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, Edition-8, Page 51.20. | 2,106 | medmcqa_train |
Pineal gland forms ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Posterior wall of thrid ventricleBoundries of third ventricle are :-Anterior wall : Lamina terminal, anterior commissure, anterior columns of fornix.Posterior wall : Pineal body, posterior commissure, cerebral aqueduct.Roof : Ependyma lining of under surface of tela choroidea of r ventricle. The choroid plexus of third ventricle projects downwards from roof.Floor : Optic chiasma, tuber cinereum, infundibulum (pituitary stalk), mammillary body, posterior perforated substance and tegmentum of midbrain.Optic recess is seen at the junction of floor with anterior wall.Lateral wall : Medial surface of thalamus, hypothalamus and hypothalamic nuclei. Interventricular foramen (of Monro) is seen at the junction of roof with anterior and lateral wall. | 2,107 | medmcqa_train |
Stage of contraction of family stas at - | -family is a group of biologically related individuals living together and eating from a common kitchen. - the stage of contraction of family begins when the first child leaves the home and ends when the last child leaves the home of parents. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:683 <\p> | 2,108 | medmcqa_train |
A child presents with "freckles" all over his body, including the buccal mucosa, lips, palms, soles, and skin not exposed to sun. Which of the following additional findings would most likely be present? | The widespread "freckles" (spots of melanin pigmentation) described in this case are associated with hamaomatous colonic polyps in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. The polyps in Peutz-Jeghers syndrome do not progress to colon cancer. Interestingly, Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with an increased potential to develop carcinomas of the pancreas, breast, ovary, uterus, and lung. All of the other features listed are components of Gardner's syndrome, a variant of familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome, which carries a greatly increased risk of colon cancer. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 20. Dermatopathology. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | 2,109 | medmcqa_train |
All the above loud S1 caused by | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1447 The intensity of S1 is determined by the distance over which the ante- rior leaflet of the mitral valve must travel to return to its annular plane, leaflet mobility, left ventricular contractility, and the PR interval. S1 is classically loud in the early phases of rheumatic mitral stenosis (MS) and in patients with hyperkinetic circulatory states or sho PR inter- vals | 2,110 | medmcqa_train |
Autism is characterised by all EXCEPT | (C) High intelligence # AUTISM is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impaired social interaction, verbal and non-verbal communication, and by restricted and repetitive behavior.> Autistic infants show less attention to social stimuli, smile and look at others less often, and respond less to their own name.> Sensory abnormalities are found in over 90% of those with autism, and there is no good evidence that sensory symptoms differentiate autism from other developmental disorders.> 60%-80% of autistic people have motor signs that include poor muscle tone, poor motor planning, and toe walking, deficits in motor coordination are pervasive across ASD and are greater in autism proper. | 2,111 | medmcqa_train |
A 60-year old patient underwent renal aery doppler which shows narrowing and turbulence in right renal aery. If radius of the aery is reduced by 1/3rd, resistance to blood flow in right kidney would have increased by: | "Fouh power law" of radius ~ Blood flow varies directly and resistance inversely with the fouh power of the radius (r 4). If the radius is changed by a factor of 3 (reduced by 1/3rd), resistance would change by (34). | 2,112 | medmcqa_train |
In starvation, the gall bladder may be - | PM appearance in death due to starvation
Complete disappearance of body fat.
Loss of mesenteric and omental fat, atrophic digestive tract, empty stomach no wider than colon, thin and transparent small intestine.
Distension of gallbladder due to the accumulation of bile from lack of stimulation. | 2,113 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true for pseudopelade of brocq except? | Pseudopelade of brocq Scarring Alopecia Inflammation is absent Absence of pustules Foot print in snow appearance is seen | 2,114 | medmcqa_train |
The main cause of minimal change ds is | Etiology of minimal change ds is unknown. Electron microscopy reveals the primary injury to the visceral epithelial cells, which may be caused by:- A) immunological mechanism: Lack of immune deposits in the glomerulus exclude the possibility of immune complex mechanism. But several features suggest immunological mechanisms like 1.H/o respiratory infection or routine prophylactic immunization 2.dramatic response to coicosteroids 3.asscoiated with allergies or atopic disorder 4.increased incidence in Hodgkin&;s lymphoma patient s. Immune dysfn _>increased cytokine production_these damage visceral epithelial cells _ increase glomerular permeability _proteinuria B) Non-immunological mechanism:- 1.mutations in structural proteins -nephrin(found in congenital nephrotic syndrome -Finnish type)& podocin. MCD is accompanied by loss of glomerular polyanions on GBM. Defects in charge barrier allows selective proteinuria-albumins. Ref: General and systemic pathology -Ramadas Nayak-First edition -page no: 521 | 2,115 | medmcqa_train |
MTP can be done upto | MTP act 1971, provides safeguards to the mother by authorizing only a Registered Medical Practitioner having experience in gynecology and obstetrics to perform aboion where the length of Pregnancy does not exceed 12 weeks Where the pregnancy exceeds 12 weeks and is not more than 20 weeks, the opinion of two Registered Medical Practitioners is necessary to terminate the pregnancy Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 506 | 2,116 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aoic regurgitation except : | Answer is D (Pansystolic murmur) | 2,117 | medmcqa_train |
All are about brucella except | 2ME is used to detect IgA Brucella is a wides pread zoonotic disease mainly seen in cattle sheep, goats, pigs and camels. - Brucella is strictly a parasite of animals. -No human to human transmission has been identified and infection in human occurs only by contact with infected animals or animal products. - The disease in the man is known as Malta fever, Mediterranean fever or undulant fever. | 2,118 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the definition of conscious sedation? | Conscious sedation is defined as a minimally depressed level of consciousness as opposed to deep sedation or general anesthesia. Remember that there are four stages of anesthesia (analgesia → delirium → surgical anesthesia → respiratory paralysis) and only in the first stage (analgesia) is the patient conscious. The patient should be able to maintain an airway and respond to stimulation and command. | 2,119 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements about amoebicide is least accurate | Ref-KDT 6/e p896,807 Paromomycin and diloxanide furoate are luminal ameobicamo | 2,120 | medmcqa_train |
What is the age limit for further developmental assessment in a child not reaching for objects | A developmental assessment for children under age 3 is an attempt to assess various aspects of the child's functioning, including areas such as cognition, communication, behavior, social interaction, motor and sensory abilities, and adaptive skills. Assessment of the family and the child's environment also provides important contextual information.
Topics covered in this section
This section covers the basic aspects of the general developmental assessment for young children with suspected developmental problems including possible autism. This section focuses on the general approach to the developmental assessment, including some specific components of such an assessment, but does not review information on specific autism assessment instruments.
Basis for guideline recommendations about the general developmental assessment
In the previous section on the use of autism assessment instruments, the guideline recommendations are based on the panel's interpretation of an extensive and systematic review of the scientific literature. The panel did not attempt to systematically evaluate the research evidence on effectiveness of the general developmental assessment methods discussed in this section as this was considered outside the specific scope of the guideline. Therefore, guideline recommendations in this section are based on the consensus opinion of the panel, using its collective knowledge and experience in assessing children with autism. In the panel's opinion, these recommendations reflect appropriate practices for assessing children with possible autism and are generally consistent with the scientific knowledge in this field. | 2,121 | medmcqa_train |
True about H. mole:a) Complete mole seen in human onlyb) Trophoblastic proliferationc) Hydropic degenerationd) Villus pattern absent | H mole:
Microscopically: It is characterised by :
Marked proliferation of the syncytial and cytotrophoblastic epithelium.
Thinning of the stromal tissue due to hydropic degeneration (edema of villous stroma).
Avascular villi.
Maintenance of villus pattern.
Absence of villus pattern is characteristic of choriocarcinoma and not H mole: | 2,122 | medmcqa_train |
Endemic ascites is associated with the following ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pyrrolizidine Endemic ascites o Endemic ascites is caused by a hepatotoxin - pyrralizidine alkaloid found in weed seeds of Crotolariu (Jhunjhunia). o These weed seeds of Jhunjhunia contaminate the millet seeds Panicum ',Ware (locally k/a Gondhli) o Endemic ascites presented in Sarguja district of Madhya Pradesh during 1973 & 1976 as outbreak of rapidly developing ascites and jaundice with high moality. Preventive measures Educating the people Deweeding of Jhunjhunia plants which grow along with the staple food-millet. o Sieving to separate out the Jhunjhunia seeds from millet seeds. | 2,123 | medmcqa_train |
Gandy gamma body is typically seen in chronic venous congestion of which of the following? | Gamna-Gandy bodies in chronic venous congestion (CVC) of the spleen is characterized by calcific deposits admixed with haemosiderin on fibrous tissue. | 2,124 | medmcqa_train |
A patient is passing stones recurrently in urine for past few years. All are due to be restrlcted in diet except- | The inverse relationship between low dietary calcium intake and an increase in stone formation is likely due to a secondary increase in urinary oxalate. While urinary calcium levels decreased in both groups, urinary oxalate levels increased in men on the low calcium diet and decreased in men on the normal calcium diet Ref Harrison20th edition pg 277 | 2,125 | medmcqa_train |
Cholestasis may lead to the following complications except - | Ans-D | 2,126 | medmcqa_train |
Not a cause of objective tinnitus ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Presbyacusis Tinnitus Tinnitus is ringing sound or noise in the ear. The characteristic feature is that the origin of this sound is within the patient. | 2,127 | medmcqa_train |
Hexose sugar is not present in: | Hexose sugar is present in:Glucose, "blood sugar", the immediate source of energy for cellular respirationGalactose, a sugar in milk (and yogu), andFructose, a sugar found in honeyRibose is a pentose sugar | 2,128 | medmcqa_train |
EAC rosette formation is the property of one of the following type of immune cells - | Erythrocyte antibody complement rosetting (EAC-rosetting), occurs when the antibody in the presence of complement is bound to the surface of a red blood cell. The complement binds to the tail region (Fc region) of the antibody. Finally, T-cells with a complement receptor are added and the T-cells bind to the complement on the antibody completing the rosette | 2,129 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following tumor is most commonly associated with superior vena cava syndrome: | Answer is B (Small cell carcinoma): Current Critical Care Diagnosis & Treatment 3ra /465 The incidence of superior vena caval syndrome is highest with small cell carcinoma. Superior vena caval syndrome (SVC syndrome) SVC syndrome results from an impedance in outflow from superior vena cava due to external compression The most common cause of SVC syndrome is external compression by a malignant tumoure The most common malignant tumor causing SVC syndrome is bronchogenic carcinomas The most common histological type of bronchogenic carcinoma causing SVC syndrome is small cell carcinomas Etiologies of Superior Vena Cava Obstruction: Malignancy 95% Lung Cancer 65% Lymphoma 15% Breast cancer 5% Germ-cell 2% Thymic cancer 2% Other cancer 4% Benign 5% Central venous device related Mediastinal fibrosis 1% 3% | 2,130 | medmcqa_train |
Hemosiderin contains - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron Hemosiderino It is hemoglobin derived, golden yellow to brown, granular or crystalline pigment in which form iron is stored in cells. When there is local or systemic excess of iron, ferritin forms hemosiderin granules. Thus hemosiderin pigment represents aggregrates of ferritin micelles. Under normal conditions small amounts of hemosiderin can be seen in the mononuclear phagocytes of the bone marrow, spleen and liver, all actively engaged in red cell breakdown. | 2,131 | medmcqa_train |
Blanket consent is consent taken: NEET 14 | Ans. At the time of admission to do any surgery | 2,132 | medmcqa_train |
The early changes in coicosteroid-induced cataract are in the form of: | Ans. Central posterior subcapsular lens changes | 2,133 | medmcqa_train |
Anthracosis is caused by - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Coal dust * Anthracosis- Coal dust* Silicosis- Silica* Siderosis- Iron* Byssinosis- Cotton dust (textile industry)* Farmer's lung- Hay or grain dust (micropolyspora faeni)* Sequousis- Moldy red wood saw dust* Suberosis- Moldy cork dust* Detergent workers lung- Enzyme additives* Baggassosis- Sugarcane dust (thermoactinomyces sacchari) | 2,134 | medmcqa_train |
Pseudocholinesterase is synthesized by | Pseudocholinesterase which metabolizes succinylcholine is synthesized by liver and is present in plasma. True cholinesterase which metabolizes acetylcholine is synthesized by muscle end plate. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | 2,135 | medmcqa_train |
Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone is: | Area postrema | 2,136 | medmcqa_train |
Parenteral nutrition is not used in: | Ans is d i.e. Pancreatitis | 2,137 | medmcqa_train |
The most common side effect of IUD inseion is- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bleeding | 2,138 | medmcqa_train |
The difference between a typical cervical and thoracic veebrae is, which of the following: | The transverse process of cervical veebrae is pierced by a foramen called foramen transversarium. It is not seen in thoracic and lumbar veebrae.Ref: Human Anatomy, B D Chaurasia, 4th Edition, Volume 3, Chapter 1, Page 40, 41; Textbook of Anatomy with Colour Atlas, Inderbir Singh, 4th Edition, Chapter 6, Page 84. | 2,139 | medmcqa_train |
A person with defective blue color appreciation is called ? | Ans. is `d' i.e., Tritanomalous | 2,140 | medmcqa_train |
MC side effect of lithium: March 2003 | Ans. B i.e. Fine tremors | 2,141 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not an ophthalmic emergency: | Ans. Macular hole | 2,142 | medmcqa_train |
An 5 year old male patient complains of multiple decayed teeth and has a history of frequent snacking and consumption of sugar containing beverages. Intraoral examination shows multiple interproximal carious lesions. Which of the following caries management protocol is not suitable for this child? | Caries-Risk Assessment Form for Children 6 Years Old or Younger | 2,143 | medmcqa_train |
Most common presenting feature of adult hypopituitarism is | In adults decreased pituitary function is first shown by hypogonadism. | 2,144 | medmcqa_train |
Which of following is/are not the feature of Henoch?Schonlein Purpura (HSP) | C. i.e. Thrombocytopenia | 2,145 | medmcqa_train |
A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 -- bisphosphates in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6 -- bi-phosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except: | Ans. A. Level of fructose 1,6--biphosphate is higher than normalFructose 2,6 - biphosphate acts to decrease the activity of fructose 1,6 - bisphosphates. When the enzyme becomes less sensitive to regulation, the inhibitory effect is lost and the enzyme activity increases. The following effects are observed:a. Level of fructose 1,6 -- biphosphate decreasesb. Pyruvate is used up for glucose synthesisc. ATP is used up for glucose synthesis | 2,146 | medmcqa_train |
Which point in the below natural history of disease marks the onset of symptoms? | (c) C* Point A marks the entry of infectious agent into the host* Point B marks the subclinical phase where symptoms and signs are not visible, but the disease agent induces tissue and physiological changes* Point C marks the Clinical horizon when symptoms and signs appear* Point D is present inside the Clinical phase after the Clinical horizon.ALSO REMEMBERNATURAL HISTORY OF DISEASE* Prepathogenesis phase* Pathogenesis phase:Begins with the entry of disease agent into the hostFinal outcome of the disease may be Recovery, Disability or DeathPathological changes are essentially below the level of Clinical horizonClinical stage begins when signs and symptoms appear | 2,147 | medmcqa_train |
Verocay bodies are seen in | Schwannoma are well circumscribed encapsulated masses that abut the associated nerve without invading it | 2,148 | medmcqa_train |
The fibers of the coicospinal tract pass through which structure? | Coicospinal fibers pass through the Medullary Pyramid Extra edge Tracts Function Lateral coicospinal and rubrospinal tracts Control distal limb muscles for fine motor and skilled voluntary movements. Anteriorcoicospinal tract and tectospinal, reticulospinal, and vestibulospinal tracts Control the postural adjustments and gross movements | 2,149 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the "Least common" complication of measles - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., SSPE o Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare complication of measles, which develops many years after the initial infection - PSM | 2,150 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following facilitates comparison between different radiations? | EQUIVALENT (RADIATION-WEIGHTED) DOSE:
The equivalent dose (HT) is used to compare the biologic effects of different types of radiation on a tissue or organ. Particulate types of radiation have a high LET and are more damaging to tissue than radiation with low LET, such as x rays. This relative biologic effectiveness of different types of radiation is called the radiation-weighting factor (WR).
The unit of equivalent dose is the sievert (Sv). For diagnostic x-ray examinations, 1 Sv equals 1 Gy.
The traditional unit of equivalent dose is the rem (roentgen equivalent man); 1 Sv equals 100 rem.
Oral Radiology, Principles and Interpretation / Stuart C. White, Michael J. Pharoah - 7th ed - pg - 15 | 2,151 | medmcqa_train |
Mean head circumference at birth is | Head circumference:-
Measured with a nonstretchable tape passing through the maximum point of occipital protuberance posteriorly and at a point just above the glabella anteriorly.
Head circumference must be compared with that of mother to know any familial variations.
If the head circumference is more than expected, always measure the both parents' head circumference, for benign familial megalencephaly is common.
At birth , it is around 34 cm.HC increases 2cm/ month for the first 3 months, 1cm/month for next three months and 0.5 cm per month for next 6 months. | 2,152 | medmcqa_train |
A farmer presents with pustules, which show Gram Positive Cocci on smear. Culture shows Beta hemolysis, and organisms are Catalase negative. To show that the identified organism is group A streptococci, which of the following test should be done? | Streptococci are catalase negative and beta hemolytic. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci can be differentiated from other beta hemolytic streptococci by bacitracin sensitivity. Streptococcus pyogenes is bacitracin sensitive whereas streptococcus agalactiae is bacitracin resistant. Both are beta hemolytic. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker, 7th Edition, Chapter 23, Page 203-205. | 2,153 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not seen in haemolytic anemia? | Ceain changes are seen in hemolytic anemias regardless of cause or type. Anemia and lowered tissue oxygen tension trigger the production of erythropoietin, which stimulates erythroid differentiation and leads to the appearance of increased numbers of erythroid precursors (normoblasts) in the marrow. Compensatory increases in erythropoiesis result in a prominent reticulocytosis in the peripheral blood. The phagocytosis of red cells leads to hemosiderosis, which is most pronounced in the spleen, liver, and bone marrow. If the anemia is severe, extramedullary hematopoiesis can appear in the liver, spleen, and lymph nodes. With chronic hemolysis, elevated biliary excretion of bilirubin promotes the formation of pigment gallstones (cholelithiasis). Ref: Robbins 8th edition, Chapter 14. | 2,154 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following propeies make pyridostigmine different from neostigmine | Ref-KDT 7/e p108 Pyridostigmine acts for 3 to 6 hours as compared to 0.5 to 2 hourshours dur of action of neostigmine. It is less impoant than neostigmine Rest of the propeies are similar to neostigmine | 2,155 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are features of Cardiac muscle Except | Some Differences among Skeletal, Cardiac, and Smooth MuscleNoSkeletal MuscleCardiac MuscleSmooth Muscle1StriatedStriatedNonstriated2No syncytiumSyncytialSyncytial3Small T tubulesLarge T tubulesGenerally rudimentary T tubules4Sarcoplasmic reticulum well developed andCa2+ pump acts rapidlySarcoplasmic reticulum present andCa2+ pump acts relatively rapidlySarcoplasmic reticulum often rudimentaryand Ca2+ pump acts slowly5Plasmalemma contains few hormonesreceptorsPlasmalemma contains a variety ofreceptors (eg, a- and b-adrenergic)Plasmalemma contains a variety ofreceptors (eg, a- and b-adrenergic)6Nerve impulse initiates contractionHas intrinsic rhythmicityContraction initiated by nerve impulses,hormones, etc7Extracellular fluid Ca2+ not impoant forcontractionExtracellular fluid Ca2+ impoant forcontractionExtracellular fluid Ca2+ impoant forcontraction8Troponin system presentTroponin system presentLacks troponin system; uses regulatoryhead of the myosin9Caldesmon not involvedCaldesmon not involvedCaldesmon is impoant regulatory protein10Very rapid cycling of the cross-bridgesRelatively rapid cycling of the cross bridgesSlow cycling of the cross-bridges permitsslow, prolonged contraction and lessutilization of ATPRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 51; Muscle & the cytoskeleton; Table 51-3 | 2,156 | medmcqa_train |
All correlates with USG findings of congenital pyloric stenosis except: | D i.e. High gastric residuesUltrasonography is the investigation of choice to confirm diagnose of hyperophic pyloric stenosis with accuracy > 95% (approching almost 100%)Q. USG visualizes thickened and elongated pyloric canalQ. USG criteria for diagnosis include >16 mm pyloric length and >4mm pyloric muscle wall thicknessQ. Gastric residues are low b/o recurrent emesisQ.The hyperophied muscle project into gastric antrum. There is a constant assocaition with hyperplasia of antral mucosa.- It is a common developmental condition (3 in 1000 live bihs), affecting boys more than girls (M:F = 4/5 :1)Q. There is a familial predisposition.Affected infant usually presents between 2-6 weeks of age, with projectile non bilious vomiting (D/D include pylorospasm, hiatus hernia & preampullary duodenal stenosis). HPS is never seen beyond 3 months of age except in premature infants in whom enteral feeding has been staed late.- Despite the recurrent vomiting, child has a voracious appetite that leads to cycle of feeding & vomiting that invariably results in severe dehydration, hypochloremichypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with eventual decrease in urine PHDiagnosis can be made clinically on the basis of history and palpation of an olive mass in the subhepatic region (right upper quadrant) and presence of visible gastric (antral peristaltic) wavesQ.Diagnosis of the HPS can be established (confirmed) by either USG (method of choice)Q or barium study.Pyloric signs includeString sign, is passing of thin barium streak through narrowed & elongated pyloric canal. It is most specific sign.Pyloric canal is almost always curved upward posteriorlyDouble/triple track sign or double string sign is produced by barium caught between crowded mucosal folds in pyloric canal overlying the hyperophied muscle & parallel lines may be seen.Diamond sign or twining recess is transient triangular tent like cleft/niche in midpoion of pyloric canal with apex pointing inferiorly secondary to mucosl bulging between two seperated hyperophied muscles on the greater curvature side of pyloric canal.Apple core lesion, pyloric segment looks like apple core with under cutting of distal antral & proximal duodenal bulb.Antral signs includePyloric teat sign is out pouching along lesser curvature b/o disruption of antral peristalsis.Shoulder sign is impression of hyperophied muscle on distended gastric antrum.Antral beaking is noted as thick muscle narrows the barium column as it enters the pyloric canal.Olive pit sign is impression of pyloric muscle upon antrum seen as tiny amount of barium at orifice.Caterpillar sign is gastric hyperperistaltic waves.Kirklin mushroom sign is indentation of base of duodenal bulb.Ultrasonography (USG)It is the method of choice to directly visualize the HPS. The examination is typically performed with a high frequency linear transducer (>5MH2) (as the pylorus & duodenum are very superficial in an infant) with infant in right posterior oblique position (to move any fluid present in fundus into antral & pylorus region. The stomach should not be emptied prior to examination as this makes identification of antropyloric area difficult. If fluid is administered to make visualization better, it should be removed at the end of examination to prevent vomiting/aspiration. Features include)Doughnut appearance/Bull's eye or target sign is hypoechoic (black) ring of hyperophied pyloric muscle around echogenic (reflective) mucosa & submucosa on cross /transverse section images.Shoulder/cervix-sign is indentation of hyperophied muscle on fluid filled gastric antrum on longitudinal section.Antral nipple sign is protrusion (evagination) of redundant pyloric mucosa into distended antrum.Double tract sign refers to fluid trapped in center of elongated pyloric canal is seen as two sonolucent streaks in center.Exaggerated peristattic waves & delayed gastric emptying of fluid into duodenumElongated pylorus with thickened muscles (most specific) is indicated by Length > 15mm, muscle thickness >3mm and transverse serosa to serosa diameter >15mm is consistent with HPS. At least 2 values should be positive. A thickness pylorospasm is transient & mostly resolve in 30 minutes and there is considerable variation in measurement or image appearance with time during thickness. (GI imaging) Pyloric canal length 16-17min, muscle wall thickness 2 3-3.2mmQ, pyloric volume > 1.4cm3, pyloric transverse diameter 13mm with pyloric canal closed and length (mm) + 3.64x + 3.64 x thickness (mm) >25 (Wolfgang) Pyloric length >16mm & muscle thickness > 4mm (Swaz) | 2,157 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about multiple myeloma except - | The chromosomal alterations in multiple myeloma include translocations in t(11;14) & t(4;14) & deletion of 13q.Reference : Harsh mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 381. | 2,158 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for obsessive - compulsive neurosis is : | SSRIs are the drugs of choice for OCD. However, amongst the given options no drug is SSRI. Amongst the tricyclic antidepressants, clomipramine is the DOC. | 2,159 | medmcqa_train |
What is diagnostic of fresh myocardial infarction In ECG- | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:184 ECG * May be normal initially and hence serial ECGs must be taken. * ST elevation and T-wave inversion with pathological Q-waves are typically seen in leads adjacent to the infarcted segment of myocardium. * Reciprocal ST depression or T-wave inversion in opposite leads. * A non-Q-wave infarct may occur and has a high risk of moality (as they are prone to develop dangerous arrhythmias and recurrent angina). | 2,160 | medmcqa_train |
Major hormone secreted by zona reticularis of adrenal coex ? | Ans. is `d i.e., AndrogensThe adrenal coex is divided into three zones (outer to inner) : Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata and zona reticularis.All three coical zones secrete coicosterone, but the active enzymatic mechanism for aldosterone biosynthesis is limited to the zona glomerulosa whereas the enzymatic machanisms for forming coisol and sex hormones are found in the two inner zones. Fuhermore, subspecialization occurs within the inner two zones, the zona fasciculata, secreting mostly glucocoicoids and the zona reticularis secreting mainly sex hormones. | 2,161 | medmcqa_train |
Which drug used in bronchial asthma needs monitoring- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Theophylline o Theophylline has low safety margin and therefore requires therepeutic drug monitoring. | 2,162 | medmcqa_train |
The most common extranodal site for non-hodgkin lymphoma is | *Lymphomas are divided broadly into Hodgkins and Non-Hodgkin&;s lymphomas. *Two-thirds of Non-Hodgkin&;s lymphoma present as generalized lymphadenopathy(Nodal sites).*One third of the cases present at an extranodal site. *Extra nodal sites include the gastrointestinal tract, upper aerodigestive tract, salivary glands, eye, mediastinum, lung, pleura, hea, spleen, liver etc. *The most common extranodal site is gastrointestinal tract, in which stomach is involved most often. | 2,163 | medmcqa_train |
Blindness in child is most commonly due to | Most common cause of childhood blindness is vitamin A deficiency Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 382 | 2,164 | medmcqa_train |
Bleuler's symptoms for schizophrenia are all except | Eugen Bleuler's Fundamental Symptoms of Schizophrenia (Also called as 4 A's of Bleuler) 1. Ambivalence: Marked inability to decide for or against 2. Autism: Withdrawal into self 3. Affect disturbances: Disturbances of affect such as inappropriate affect 4. Association disturbances: Loosening of associations; thought disorder Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 55 | 2,165 | medmcqa_train |
Stage of contraction of family stas at | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Leaving home of first child | 2,166 | medmcqa_train |
Phelp's sign is seen in: | Phelp's sign Phelp sign This sign is seen on CT scan In CT- in case of glomus jugulare tumor the normal crest between the carotid canal and jugulare tumor is absent whereas it is not so in case of glomus tympanicum | 2,167 | medmcqa_train |
Fastest acting receptor/transduction mechanism is | Ref-KDT 6/e p40 Drugs acting and ionotropic receptor are fast acting where as those acting through nuclear receptors are slowest in action | 2,168 | medmcqa_train |
A boy comes from Bihar with non-anesthetic hypopigmented atropic patch over face, diagonosis is | C i.e. Indeterminate leprosy Points in our of diagnosing indeterminate leprosy: - Epidermal atrophyQ Non scaly & AnesthesiaQ (if present) Resident of high leprosy prevelence state? (Bihar) | 2,169 | medmcqa_train |
Which structure is not transmitted by foramen ovale? | Ans. A Middle meningeal arteryRef: Netter's Clinical Anatomy, 3rd ed. pg. 460Structures transmitted via foramen ovale (M.A.L.E.)* Mandibular nerve-V3* Accessory meningeal artery* Lesser petrosal nerve* Emissary veinExtra edgeForamen rotundumMaxillary nerve V2Foramen LacerumInternal carotid arteryLesser petrosal nerveGreater petrosal nerveDeep petrosal nerveForamen spinosumMiddle meningeal arteryNervus spinosus (Meningeal Branch of mandibular nerve)Posterior trunk of middle meningeal veinCarotid canalInternal carotid arteryVenous and sympathetic plexus around the arterySince lots of questions are asked on the topic of base of skull, students are expected to memorise this diagram by drawing it yourself. | 2,170 | medmcqa_train |
A mother has been diagnosed with chicken pox. She delivered 7 days ago a term infant that appears to be healthy. The baby is afebrile. Which of the following is the most appropriate step in management? | If a normal full-term newborn is exposed to chickenpox 2 or more days after delivery, VZIG and isolation are not necessary because these babies appear to be at no risk for complications. VZIG should be given to the infant immediately after delivery if the mother had the onset of varicella within 5 days prior to delivery, and immediately upon diagnosis if her chicken pox staed within 2 days after delivery. Acyclovir may be used in infants at risk for severe varicella, such as those infants exposed perinatally. | 2,171 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not carried in dorsal column of spinal cord:March 2011 | Ans. C: Heat sensationLateral spinothalamic tract carries fibers of all type of pain and temperature impulses (both hot and cold)Spinothalamic tractIt transmits information to the thalamus about pain, temperature, itch and crude touch.The pathway decussates at the level of the spinal cord, rather than in the brainstem like the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway and coicospinal tract.Posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway/dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway/dorsal white column-medial lemniscus systemIt is the sensory pathway responsible for transmitting fine touch, vibration and conscious proprioceptive information from the body to the cerebral coex as well as tactile pressure, barognosis, graphesthesia, stereognosis, recognition of texture, kinesthesia and two-point discrimination.The name comes from the two structures that the sensation travels up: the posterior (or dorsal) columns of the spinal cord, and the medial lemniscus in the brainstem.Because the posterior columns are also called dorsal columns, the pathway is often called the dorsal column-medial lemniscus system, or DCML for sho. (Also called posterior column-medial lemniscus or PCML pathway).The PCML is pathway is composed of rapidly conducting, large, myelinated fibersThe pathway is tested with the Romberg's test.Lesions to the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway below the decussation of its fibers produce loss of sensation on the same side of the body as the lesion.Above the decussation produces loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body than the lesion | 2,172 | medmcqa_train |
Homonymous hemianopia may be seen in lesion of all of the following, EXCEPT: | Lesion of the optic chiasma result in bitemporal hemianopia not homonymous hemianopia. Lesions of the visual pathway and corresponding field defects: Lesion of optic nerve: Ipsilateral blindness Lesion through proximal pa of optic nerve: Ipsilateral blindness with contralateral quadrantanopia. Lesion of optic tract: Homonymous hemianopia Lesion of temporal lobe: Quadrantic homonymous defect Lesion of optic radiation: Homonymous hemianopia with occasional sparing of the macula Lesion in anterior pa of occipital coex: Contralateral temporal crescentic field defect Lesion of occipital lobe: homonymous hemianopia usually sparing of the macula Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology By H. V. Nema, page 340 | 2,173 | medmcqa_train |
Age related dementia has been associated with increased levels of | Identification of modifiable risk factors provides a crucial approach to the prevention of dementia.. The findings are consistent with moderately raised plasma total homocysteine (>11 mmol/L), which is common in the elderly, being one of the causes of age-related cognitive decline and dementia Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2445 | 2,174 | medmcqa_train |
All are true regarding brachial plexus injury, except: | Preganglionic lesions have a poor prognosis as these do not recover and are surgically irreparable. Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction | 2,175 | medmcqa_train |
Harpender's Callipers are used to; | Ans. A. Measure Skin fold thicknessSkin fold thickness is an indication of the subcutaneous fat. Triceps skin fold thickness is the most representative of the total subcutaneous fat upto 16 years of age. It is usually above 10mm in normal children whereas in severely malnourished children it may fall below 6mm. | 2,176 | medmcqa_train |
Fracture of necessity is used to describe - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Galleazzi fracture * "Closed reduction is usually not successful due to the deforming forces of the muscles. Hence, open reduction and internal fixation is the preferred method of treatment. Campbell noted this in 1941 and termed Galeazzi fracture as "Fracture of necessity". | 2,177 | medmcqa_train |
Aerobic oxidation of reduced cytochromes shows P/O ratio of | ADP:O or P:O Ratio: The NAD-dependant dehydrogenases such as malate, pyruvate, a-ketoglutarate, isocitrate, etc. produce three high energy phosphate bonds for each pair of electrons transferred to O2 because they have P: O ratio of 3. Thus P: O ratio is a measure of how many moles of ATP are formed from ADP by phosphorylation per gram atom of oxygen used. This is measured as the number of moles of ADP (or Pi) that disappear per gram atom of oxygen used. Phosphate group esterified P:O ratio = ___________________________________ Electron pairs transferred P:O ratio x 7.3 Efficiency = ______________________ x 100 51 K.Cal However, P:O ratio in case of FADH2 is 2 and therefore efficiency is lower in that case.Ref: MN Chatterjea Textbook of Medical Biochemistry, 7th Edition, Page no: 142 | 2,178 | medmcqa_train |
Glycine is useful in all of the following except | Spermine is a type of polyamine.This is aliphatic amine and it is synthesized from ornithine. Key enzyme is ornithine decarboxylase. REFERENCE : DM.VASUDEVAN.TEXTBOOK; SEVENTH EDITION ; PAGE NO : 229 | 2,179 | medmcqa_train |
A couple presents to a clinic for work-up of infeility after 5 years of unprotected intercourse. The wife denies any medical problems and notes regular menstrual cycles. The husband states that he has had chronic sinusitis and lower respiratory tract infections. Physical examination of the woman is unremarkable. Examination of the man is remarkable for dextrocardia. Fuher work-up of the husband will most likely reveal? | The husband is suffering from Kaagener's syndrome, an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by infeility, situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, and bronchiectasis. The underlying cause of these varied manifestations are defects in the dynein arms, spokes of microtubule doublets of cilia in the airways and the reproductive tract. Since sperm motility is dependent on the functioning of cilia, infeility frequently accompanies this disorder. Situs inversus occurs because ciliary function is necessary for cell migration during embryonic development. Azoospermia is not a feature of Kaagener's syndrome, as sperm production or survival is not affected in this disorder. Germinal cell aplasia, also known as Seoli only syndrome, is characterized by oligospermia or azoospermia. Isolated gonadotropin deficiency is characterized by delayed or incomplete pubeal maturation. Ref: Federico M.J., Stillwell P., Deterding R.R., Baker C.D., Balasubramaniam V., Zemanick E.T., Sagel S.D., Halbower A., Burg C.J., Kerby G.S. (2012). Chapter 19. Respiratory Tract & Mediastinum. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | 2,180 | medmcqa_train |
Most common diaphragmatic hernia in children is: | (Through the f oramen of Bochdalek): Ref: 873 - LB (894-B & L 25th)Hernia through the foramen of Bochdolek - (Posterolateral) This is rarely the persistence of the pleuroperitoneal canal and the opening is in the dome of the diaphragm posteriorly* It is the most common diaphragmatic hernia in children* TRIAD of respiratory distress, apparent dextrocardia and a scaphoid abdomenHERNIA through the foramen of Morgagni: - (Anterolateral, retrosternal) This is an anteriorly placed hernia with the defect between the sternal and costal attachments of the diaphragm.The most commonly involved viscus is the transvere colon* Most frequent clinical presentation of congenital diaphragm hernia is respiratory distress due to severe hypoxemia | 2,181 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 year old male presents to emergency dept. following a road traffic accident. On examination there is pelvic fracture and blood at urethral meatus. Following are true about pt except - | Ans is (a) anterior urethra is most likely the site of injury The pa of urethra most likely injured in pelvic fracture is membranous urethra (a pa of post. urethra) - Post. Urethra includes -- Prostatic + membranous urethra - Anterior urethra includes -- Bulbar + penile urethra The anterior urethra (paiularly bulbar urethra) is injured due to direct blow to the perineum (straddle injuries*) About other options ? (d) Prostate is displaced superiorly (high lying prostate) in membranous urethral injury due to rupture of puboprostatic fascia. Pelvic hematoma is seen in membranous urethral injuries (Perineal hematoma is seen in bulbar urethral injury) (b) Once an urethral injury is suspected the pt. is instructed not to pass urine and a RGU or ascending urethrogram is performed to assess the injury. (c) Catheterisation is contraindicated and is passed only if the RGU is normal. | 2,182 | medmcqa_train |
Loss of foot processes of podocytes is characteristically seen in? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lipoid nephrosis * Effacement (loss) of foot process of perietal epithelial cells (podocytes) is most commonly noted in minimal change disease (lipoid nephrosis).* However, it may be seen other causes of nephrotic syndrome like membronous GN, FSGS, IgA nephropathy (a type of mesangioproliferative GN), and MPGN.Pathological findings of lipoid nephrosis1) Light microscopy - No abnormality2) Electron microscopy - Obliteration (loss) and fusion of foot processes of epithelial cells.3) Immunofluorescence - No deposits of immune reactants4) Serum complements - Normal levels* The basic pathogenesis of minimal change glomerulonephritis is loss of the basement membrane polyanion (Heparan sulfate proteoglycan).* Loss of the polyanion reduces the negative charge in membrane which allows anionic molecules of the plasma (Albumin) to pass through. | 2,183 | medmcqa_train |
A codon codes for a single amino acid. This characteristic is called ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Unambiguous Characteristics of genetic codes Genetic codes have following characteristics ? 1) Universal :- Each codon specifically codes for same amino acid in all species, e.g. UCA codes for serine and CCA codes for proline in all organisms. That means specificity of codon has been conserved from very early stages of evolution. Exception to the universality of genetic coder are found in human mitochondria, where the code :- a UGA codes for tryptophan instead of serving as a stop codon. AUA codes for methionine instead of isoleucine. CUA codes for threonine instead of leucine. LI AGA and AGG serve as stop codon instead of coding for arginine. 2) Unambiguous/Specific :- A paicular codon always codes for the same amino acid. For example CCU always codes for proline and UGG always codes for tryptophan. 3) Degeneracy/Redundancy :- A given amino acid may have more than one codon. For example, CCU, CCC, CCA and CCG all four codons code for proline. Therefore, there are 61 codons for 20 amino acids. 4) Stop or termination or nonsense codons:- Three of the 64 possible nucleotide triplets UAA (amber), UAG (Ochre) and UGA (opal) do not code for any amino acid. They are called nonsense codons that normally signal termination of polypeptide chains. Thus, though there are 64 possible triplet codons, only 61 codes for 20 amino acids (as remaining three are non-sense codons). 5) Non overlapping and nonpuntate (Comma less) :- During translation, the code is read sequentially, without spacer bases, from a fixed staing point, as a continuous sequence of bases, taken 3 at a time, e.g. AUGCUA GACUUU is read as AUG/CUA/GAC/UUU without "ponctation" (coma) between codons. | 2,184 | medmcqa_train |
Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to | VAPP - Vaccine associated paralytic polio is due to polio virus type 3
VDPV - Vaccine derived poliovirus is due to poliovirus type 2. | 2,185 | medmcqa_train |
Time period between entry of organism to body to maximum infectivity is - | Ans is 'c' i.e., Generation time * Generation time - Period from receipt of infection to maximal infectivity.* Serial interval - Gap between onset of primary case and secondary case. | 2,186 | medmcqa_train |
False about syphilis is : | Syphilitic ulcers(Chancre) are usually single in number, butter like, hard in consistency and typically painless. | 2,187 | medmcqa_train |
A 20 year old is found to have blood pressures of 134/82 and 136/83 on two separate occasions. He will be classified as: | When systolic and diastolic blood pressures fall in different categories, the higher category is taken to classify the individual's blood pressure. Classification of blood pressure measurements: Category Systolic BP Diastolic BP Normal <130 <85 High normal 130-139 85-90 Stage 1 hypeension 140-159 90-99 Stage 2 hypeension 160-179 100-109 Stage 3 hypeension >180 >110 Ref: Park 21st edition, page 344. | 2,188 | medmcqa_train |
Mitochondria of a sperm is seen in ? | Mitochondrial granules are seen enveloping the spiral threads around the axial filament present in the body of the sperm. Sperm: The human sperm possesses a head, a neck, a connecting piece or body, and a tail.Head is oval or elliptical, but flattened,its anterior two-thirds are covered by a layer of modified protoplasm, which is named the head-cap, which probably facilitates the, entrance of the spermatozoon into the ovum. The head contains a mass of chromatin, regarded as the nucleus of the cell surrounded by a thin envelope.Neck contains the anterior centriole, it is situated at the junction of the head and neck.Connecting piece or body is rod-like. The posterior centriole is placed at the junction of the body and neck, from this centriole an axial filament runs backward through the body and tail. The sheath of the axial filament is encircled by a spiral thread, around which is an envelope containing mitochondrial granules, and termed the mitochondrial sheath.Tail is of great length, and consists of the axial thread or filament, surrounded by its sheath, but mitochondria is absent.Ref: Gray's Anatomy of the Human Body, 20th Edition, Page 756 | 2,189 | medmcqa_train |
Increase in cytosolic calcium from intracellular storage, during smooth muscle contraction is/are due to: (PGI Dec 2008) | Ans : D (IP3-DAG) & E (Ca2+ channel) Source of Calcium Ions & in Smooth Muscle Contraction Mechanism InvolvedAlmost all the calcium ions that cause contraction enter the muscle cell from the extracellular fluid at the time of action potential or other stimulusSarcoplasmic reticulum (the source of intracellular Ca2+), which provides virtually all the calcium ions for skeletal muscle contraction, is only slightly developed in most smooth muscle.When an action potential is transmitted in caveolae (rudimentary' analogue of the transverse tubule system of skeletal muscle), this is believe to excite calcium ion release from the abutting sarcoplasmic reticulum tubules through opening of calcium channels (Guyton 11th/99, 90)Sometimes smooth muscle contraction or inhibition is initiated by hormone without directly causing any change in the membrane potential. In these circumstances, the hormone may activate a membrane receptor that does not open any ion channel but instead cause an internal change in the muscle fiber, such as release of Ca2+ from intracellular sarcoplasmic reticulum, the Ca2+ then induce contraction (Guyton 11th/98)IP3-DAG role (to favour as an ansiver)The acetycholine cause smooth muscle contraction by phospholipase C& IP.,, which increase the intracellular Ca2+ concentration-Gcrnong 22nd/83Role of CAMP & CGMP (Guyton 11th/98)CAMP & CGMP so called second messengers has many effects on smooth muscle, one of which is to change the degree of phosphorylation of several enzyme that indirectly inhibit contraction."An increase in CAMP dampens the contraction response of smooth muscle to a given elevation of sarcoplasmic Ca2+-Harper 2 7th/579 | 2,190 | medmcqa_train |
Reactivation tuberculosis is almost excusively a disease of the - | Secondary TB is due to reactivation and involves Lung particularly the apical and posterior segments of upper lobe. | 2,191 | medmcqa_train |
Whcih vesiculobullous diseaes is associated with enteropathy? | Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune blistering disease that is strongly associated with coeliac disease. Almsot all patient with dermatitis herpetiformis have evidence of villous atrophy on Intestinal biopsy, even if they have no gastrointestinal symptoms. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no : 1256. | 2,192 | medmcqa_train |
All are reversible injury of cell, except - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Karyorrhexis | 2,193 | medmcqa_train |
Pyramids are formed by | The pyramidal tracts include both the coicospinal and coicobulbar tracts. These are aggregations of upper motor neuron nerve fibres that travel from the cerebral coex and terminate either in the brainstem (coicobulbar) or spinal cord (coicospinal) and are involved in control of motor functions of the body.The coicospinal tract conducts impulses from the brain to the spinal cord. It is made up of a lateral and anterior tract. The coicospinal tract is involved in voluntary movement. The majority of fibres of the coicospinal tract cross over in the medulla, resulting in muscles being controlled by the opposite side of the brain. The coicospinal tract also contains Betz cells (the largest pyramidal cells), which are not found in any other region of the body.The nerves within the coicospinal tract are involved in movement of muscles of the body. Because of the crossing-over of fibres, muscles are supplied by the side of the brain opposite to that of the muscle. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:765,766,767 | 2,194 | medmcqa_train |
In which one of the following type of hernia do the abdominal viscera from a pa of the wall of hernial sac? | As a result of slipping of the posterior parietal peritoneum on the underlying retroperitioneal structures, the posterior wall of the sac in sliding hernia is not formed by peritoneum alone, but by the sigmoid colon and its mesentery on the left, the accident), is called magical thinking. This type of reasoning is typical of children in Piaget's preoperational stage (age 2-7 years). | 2,195 | medmcqa_train |
A 16-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea comes to OPD with bilateral inguinal swelling. She has normal breast development with no pubic hair. USG shows absent uterus. The diagnosis is: | Testicular feminization syndrome (androgen insensitivity syndrome): XY karyotype with a female phenotype androgens are present but do not act at a peripheral level due to a receptor defect. the embryological development, which is dependent on androgens in a male fetus, does not happen and hence by default a female form is made. breast development is seen due to peripheral conversion of androgens to estrogens The inguinal swellings described in the question are actually the testes | 2,196 | medmcqa_train |
Cause of vasodilation in spider nevi | B i.e. EstrogenIn chronic liver disease (especially cirrhosis) and pregnancy, impaired estrogen metabolism and consequent hyper estroenemiaQ leads to spider angiomata/nevi (superficial, toous aerioles, that unlike simple telangiectases, typically fill from the center outwards and occur invariably on upper half of body) and palmar erythema (mottled redness of thenar & hypothenar eminences). | 2,197 | medmcqa_train |
A 2 year old man presents with superficial gash on his forehead. The wound is bleeding profusely, but examination reveals no fracture. The physician suspects a hypersensitive cardiac reflex. The patient's epicranial aponeurosis (galea aponeurotica) is penetrated, resulting in severe gaping of the wound. The structure overlying the epicranial aponeurosis is which of the following? | A layer containing blood vessels * A mnemonic device for remembering the order in which the soft tissues overlie the cranium is SCALP: Skin, Connective tissue, Aponeurosis, Loose connective tissue, and Periosteum. * The scalp proper is composed of the outer three layers, of which the connective tissue contains one of the richest cutaneous blood supplies of the body. * The occipitofrontal muscle complex inses into the epicranial aponeurosis, which forms the intermediate tendon of this digastric muscle. This structure, along with the underlying layer of loose connective tissue, accounts for the high degree of mobility of the scalp over the pericranium. * If the aponeurosis is lacerated transversely, traction from the muscle bellies will cause considerable gaping of the wound. Secondary to trauma or infection, blood or pus may accumulate subjacent to the epicranial aponeurosis. Bone is too deep, as is the dural mater. | 2,198 | medmcqa_train |
On 5th postoperative day after laparoscopic cholecystectomy, a 50 years old lady presented with . upper quadrant pain with fever and 12 cm subhepatic collection on CT and ERCP shows cystic duct leak. The best management is - | Ans : (b) i.e. percutaneous drainage of fluid | 2,199 | medmcqa_train |
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