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Non immunized susceptible diphtheria contacts should receive: | Non immunized contacts should receive prophylactic penicillin or erythromycin. They should also be given 1000 to 2000 units of antitoxin and actively immunized against diphtheria. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 151. | 1,900 | medmcqa_train |
In emergency tracheostomy following structures are damaged except: | Structures which lie below the midline viz. isthmus of thyroid and thyroid ima aery can be damaged in emergency tracheostomy. Inferior thyroid veins emerge at the lower border of the isthmus form a plexus in front of the trachea and drains into brachiocephalic vein can be damaged during tracheostomy but inferior thyroid aery, a branch of thyrocervical trunk of subclan aery lies laterally away from midline and can thus escape injury. | 1,901 | medmcqa_train |
Intrinsic factor is required for absorption of ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitamin B12 | 1,902 | medmcqa_train |
After a normal prenatal period, a lady developed sudden HTN and bleeding from all places. Diagnosis is: | (A) DIC# Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC), also known as disseminated intravascular coagulopathy or less commonly as consumptive coagulopathy, is a pathological process characterized by the widespread activation of the clotting cascade that results in the formation of blood clots in the small blood vessels throughout the body. This leads to compromise of tissue blood flow and can ultimately lead to multiple organ damage. In addition, as the coagulation process consumes clotting factors and platelets, normal clotting is disrupted and severe bleeding can occur from various sites.> DIC can occur in the following conditions: Solid tumors and blood cancers (particularly acute promyelocytic leukemia) Obstetric complications: abruptio placentae, pre-eclampsia or eclampsia, amniotic fluid embolism, retained intrauterine fetal demise, septic abortion, post partum haemorrhage Massive tissue injury: severe trauma, burns, hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, extensive surgery Sepsis or Severe infection of any kind (infections by nearly all microorganisms can cause DIC, though bacterial infections are the most common): bacterial (Gram-negative and Gram-positive sepsis), viral, fungal, or protozoan infections Transfusion reactions (i.e., ABO incompatibility haemolytic reactions) Severe allergic or toxic reactions (i.e. snake or viper venom) Giant haemangiomas (Kasabach-Merritt syndrome) Large aortic aneurysms> Liver disease, HELLP syndrome, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura/Haemolytic uremic syndrome, and malignant hypertension may mimic DIC but do not occur via the same pathways. | 1,903 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the best test to diagnose bleeding in DIC? | Fibrin degradation product (FDP) is the best test to diagnose bleeding in DIC. D-Dimer assay is for screening | PT & | aPTT seen in a lot of conditions - so not best. | 1,904 | medmcqa_train |
Inferior border of scapula lies at the level of which rib? | ANSWER: (C) 7thREF: Gray's Anatomy 40th Ed Ch: 49Indirect repeat Anatomy 2012 Session II, 2013 Session 1The inferior angle overlies the seventh rib or intercostal space and T7 | 1,905 | medmcqa_train |
Marble bone disease, characterized by increase in bone density is due to mutation in the gene encoding: | Ans. B. Carbonic Anhydrase IIIn osteoporosis, also called as marble bone disease there is increased bone density. It is due to mutation in gene encodingcarbonic anhydrase II enzyme. The deficiency of this enzyme in osteoclasts leads to inability of bone resorption. | 1,906 | medmcqa_train |
Hemorrhagic fever is caused by - | kyasanur forest disease a hemorrhagic fever found in Karnataka. It is an arboviral disease. a new arbovirus genetically related to RSS isolated REF:ANANTHANARYANAN TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.524 | 1,907 | medmcqa_train |
Initial stage of clinical union of bone is equivalent to | The first signs of union are seen in stage of hard callus formation A. Clinical sign:fracture is no more mobile B. Radilogical sign :callus is seen on X ray *hard callus is immature woven bone* Ref: Maheshwari 9th/e p 12 | 1,908 | medmcqa_train |
A two-year-old child presents with persistent diarrhea, acidic stools and presence of one percent of reducing substance in the fresh stools. What is the most probable diagnosis? | Presence of acidic stools with reducing substance positive, suggests a diagnosis of lactose intolerance. | 1,909 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for mycoplasma pneumonia is | Treatment options for acute M.pneumoniae infection include macrolides (e.g., oral azithromycin, 500 mg on day 1, then 250 mg/d on days 2-5), tetracyclines (e.g., oral doxycycline, 100 mg twice daily for 10-14 days), and respira-tory fluoroquinolones Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 585 | 1,910 | medmcqa_train |
A 6 year old female patient complains of pain due to a decayed lower right 2nd molar. During the treatment, patient becomes uncooperative and throws a tantrum. The dentist then asks the mother to step out of the operatory, after which the child begins to cooperate. The example demonstrated by the dentist falls under which type of conditioning, as described by Skinner? | Omission (also called time-out), involves removal of a pleasant stimulus after a particular response. For example, if a child who throws a temper tantrum has his favorite toy taken away for a short time as a consequence of this behavior, the probability of similar misbehavior is decreased. | 1,911 | medmcqa_train |
Desks provided with table top to prevent neck problems in an example of | Specific protection comes under Primary prevention. It prevents risk factor from progressing to disease. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition; Page 42 | 1,912 | medmcqa_train |
Glutamine synthetase is a - | Ans. is 4b' i.e., Ligase /Ref Essential of biochemsitry p. 186]o All synthases are ligases.o All digestive enzymes are hydrolases.o Lyases are:DecarboxylasesAldolasesHydratasesEnolaseFumaraseArginosucinaseEnzyme classImportant enzymesOxidoreductaseOxidases, Dehydrogenases, Hydroperoxidases, (catalase, peroxidase), oxygenases.TransferaseAmino transferase or transaminase, e.g., SGOT (AST) and SGPT (ALT), kinases (HexokinaseQ glucokinase, pyruvate kinase etc), Transketolases, transaldolases, transcarboxylases.HydrolasesAll digestive enzymes (Pepsin, trypsin, lipases, esterases), lysosomal enzymes, urease, and phosphataseLyasesDecarboxylasesQ, aldolases, hydratases, enolase, fumaraseQ, ArginosuccinaseIsomerasesRacemases, epimerases. cis- trans- isomerases, mutasesLigasesSynthatasesQ, Carboxylases, DMA ligase | 1,913 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not an accepted method of randomization- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Odd/even day hospital admission Methods of Randomization o Randomization is accomplished in a number of classic ways 1. Lottery method Suppose 10 patients are to be put in a control group or the trial group out of 100 available. The serial numbers of patients are noted on 100 cards and then shuffled well. The cards are drawn one by one and thus patients are allocated into trial and control groups. 2. Table of Random Numbers Published tables of Random numbers are used. This is considered to be the best method of randomization. A computer program is used for randomization o Randomization methods , which may at first seem reasonable (odd-even day randomization or daytime-nighttime convenience randomization), may actually suppo bias, paicularly if the study is open-label or the operator or subject are not blinded as to the nature of the intervention. For example, if the study involves a procedure such as wound irrigation and the patients are randomized to have wounds irrigated with sterile saline on even days and tap water on odd days, a patient may present on an even day and the treating clinical investigator may elect not to enroll the patient in the study or to break the randomization, because they "just think that this paicular wound needs saline irrigation." This is a very common error in otherwise well-designed clinical studies. | 1,914 | medmcqa_train |
A 23 year old profession footballer sufferd a twisting injury to his right ankle. On examination there is a lot of swelling around the medial malleolus but xray doesn't show any fracture. The structure injured could be - | Answer- A. Deltoid LigamentDeltoid ligament injuries involve the deltoid ligament that forms the medial pa of the anHe joint.It attaches the medial malleolus to multiple tarsal bones.It occurs due to eversion and/orpronation injury, or can be associated with lateral ankle fractures. | 1,915 | medmcqa_train |
Von Willebrand&;s factor is synthesized in which one of the following - | The Von willebrand factor is synthesized in the endothelial cells ,megakaryocytes and platelets While the principal site of synthesis of factor VIII is the liver Reference :textbook of Pathology ,7th edition ,Author: Harsha Mohan, page number 314. | 1,916 | medmcqa_train |
Persistence of Moro's reflex is abnormal beyond the age of – | "In a normal infant, the Moro's reflex begins to fade at three months of age and gradually disappears at 4-6 months.
When it persists beyond 6 months it indicates a delay in CNS development." ---------- Tachdjian
"Moro's reflex disappears by six months in a normal infant." ------------ Ghai | 1,917 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements regarding live vaccines is false | When 2 live vaccines are required they should be given either simultaneously at different sites or with an interval of at least 3 weeks.In case of live vaccines,protection is generally achieved with a single dose of vaccine (refer pgno:103 park 23 rd edition) | 1,918 | medmcqa_train |
All are alkylating agents, except ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5 Fluorouracil | 1,919 | medmcqa_train |
True about VSD are all except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reverse spliting of S2 Hemodynamics of VSD o A VSD results in shunting of oxygenated blood from left to right because left ventricle has more pressure than right Left to right shunt. o Blood flow from left to right ventricle due to high pressure gradient --> Pansystolic murmur and systolic thrill. o Because left ventricle stas contracting before Right ventricle, pansystolic murmur stas early --> Masking of SI. o This pressure gradient is maintained throughout the systole pansystolic murmur lasts long --> Masking of S2. o Towards the end of systole, the declining left ventricular pressure becomes lower than aoic Early closure of A2. o Left to right shunt occurs during systole at a time when the right ventricle is also contracting, therefore left to right shunt streams to pulmonary aery more or less directly --> No volume overload --> Right ventricle size remains normal. Increased blood flow through pulmonary valve --> Pulmonary ejection systolic murmur and delay & accentuated P2. o Early closure of A2 and delayed closure of P2 cause --> Widely split S2 (But this is usually masked by pansystolic murmur). o Larger volume reaches the left atrium -3 Left atrial hyperophy o Increased blood flow through mitral valve -3 Accentuated Si (But it is masked by pansystolic murmur) and delayed diastolic murmur. Note : o Ejection systolic murmur of pulmonary valve can not be separated from pansystolic murmur. o The effect of ejection systolic murmur is a selective transmission of pansystolic murmur to the upper left sternal border (pulmonary valve area) In this area ejection characteristic of this murmur can be recognized since it does not mask the aoic component of S2. For the same reason second hea sound (S2) can be heard in the pulmonary area where it is not masked by pansystolic murmur. | 1,920 | medmcqa_train |
The most common causative organism for external otitis in adults is: | Otitis externa is an inflammatory and infectious process of the external auditory canal. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Staphylococcus aureus are the most commonly isolated organisms. Less commonly isolated organisms include Proteus species, Staphylococcus epidermidis, diphtheroids, and Escherichia coli. | 1,921 | medmcqa_train |
Insulin is secreted along with the following molecule in a 1: 1 ratio: | D i.e. C - PeptideInsulin has two interchain (A7 - B7, & A20 - B19) and one intrachain (A6 - All) disulfide bridges with in AB hetrodimeric structureQ.Insulin is synthesized as pre-pro-hormone (MW 11, 500), which makes it difficult to synthesize insulin in laboratory even after synthesizing A, B chains. This pre prohormone is directed by hydrophobic 23 aminoacid pre or leader sequence into cisternae of endoplasmic retinaculum, which is then removed to form 9000 MW proinsulin.Staing from amino terminal, the chain sequenc of proinsulin is. | 1,922 | medmcqa_train |
A 20 year old boy c/o hearing of voices, aggressive behavior since 2 days. He has fever since 2 days. When asked to his family, they says that he has been muttering to self and gesticulating. There is no h/o of psychiatric illness. Likely diagnosis is | Acute psychosis ??? [Ref: Kaplan and Saddock synopsis of Psychiatry 10/e p 516-5171We are unable to reach a conclusive diagnosis with the information provided in the question.Acute onset, presence of fever, no history of psychiatric illness suggests delirium.But, the diagnosis of delirium cannot be made definitively in the absence of disorientation.In the question there is no definite comment on orientation of the patient.May be, that suggests, the patient is not disoriented.Acute onset, presence of perceptual disturbances (hallucination and other symptoms point towards acute psychosis.But acute psychosis seems unlikely because:-- Absence of cognitive dysfunction or thought disorders.- Absence of H/o psychiatric illness or substance abuse disorders.Psychotic disorders cannot be diagnosed only in the presence of perceptual disturbances. Some disorder in cognitive dysfunction or thought disorders is also required.May be this is a case of acute transient psychosis- These disorders do not give the classical manifestations of psychotic disorders.- They are characterized by the predominance of perceptual disturbances, and they do not fulfil the criteria of psychotic disorders.Acute and Transient Psychotic disordersA large number of psychiatrists especially from the developing countries like India, repoed that many patients developed an acute psychotic disorder that neither followed the course of schizophrenia nor resembled mood disorders in the clinical picture and usually had a better prognosis than schizophrenia.Acute and transient psychosis as a descriptive entity was recognized only with the advent of 1CD-10 in 1992. Where it is included under psychotic disorder.- The key features that characterize the disorder are an -- acute within (2 weeks) onset in all the cases presence of typical syndrome which are described as rapidly changing variables, polymorphic states and typical schizophrenic symptoms evidence ,for associated acute stress in a substantial number of cases and complete recovery in most cases within 2-3 months.A pa from these criteria ICD-10 also provides diagnostic guide- lines which include- Not meeting the criteria for manic or depressive episodes although the affective symptoms may be prominent - Absence of organic causation although perplexity confusion and inattention may he present. - Absence of obvious intoxication by drugs or alcohol.It is evident that ICD 10 intends to "clearly differentiate" the concept of acute transient psychosis .from those of affective psychosis, organic psychosis and drug induced psychosis.This is the point which is creating doubt in our minds.The ICD wants to clearly differentiate it from organic psychosis.- The boy presents with "fever" therefore the organic cause for the psychosis cannot be ruled out. - May be the psychosis is due to fever (some C.N.S. infection)- If fever had not been mentioned the diagnosis would have been clear. But the presence of fever prevents us from diagnosing this as acute transient psychosis.- The correct option would have been "organic psychosis" or "psychosis due to general medical condition". - Acute psychosis cannot be diagnosed without addressing the organic basis of the disease.Four subtypes of acute transient psychosis are described in ICD 10 -Acute polymorphic psychotic disorder without symptoms of schizo- phrenia - Acute polymorphic psychotic disorders with symptoms (?f schizo- phrenia - Acute schizophrenia like psychotic disorder- Acute predominantly delusional psychotic disorderOverall, duration of total episode should not exceed 3 months and that .for schizophrenic symptoms should not exceed 1 month. There is provision for change of diagnosis to schizophrenia. | 1,923 | medmcqa_train |
The most impoant prognostic factor in breast carcinoma is | Stage I and II has got better prognosis. Spread to axillary nodes is the most impoant prognostic indicator. Age: Younger the age worser the prognosis. Sex: Carcinoma male breast has got worser prognosis compared to female breast. Because of early spread in carcinoma male breast. Atrophic scirrhous has got best prognosis. Medullary carcinoma has got better prognosis than scirrhous carcinoma because of lymphocytic infi ltration. Invasive carcinoma has got worser prognosis. Inflammatory carcinoma breast has worst prognosis. Ref; (page no;559 ) 5th edition of SRB&;S manual of Surgery | 1,924 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is associated with > 20% risk of chromosomal anomalies? | Omphalocele is a midline abdominal wall defect. The abdominal viscera (commonly liver and bowel) are contained within a sac composed of peritoneum and amnion from which the umbilical cord arises at the apex and center. When the defect is less than 4 cm, it is termed a hernia of the umbilical cord; when greater than 10 cm, it is termed a giant omphalocele. Associated abnormalities occur in 30-70% of infants and include, in descending order of frequency, Chromosomal abnormalities (trisomy 13, 18, 21) Congenital hea disease (tetralogy of Fallot, atrial septal defect) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome (large-for-gestational-age baby; hyperinsulinism; visceromegaly of kidneys, adrenal glands, and pancreas; macroglossia; hepatorenal tumors; cloacal extrophy) Pentalogy of Cantrell Prune belly syndrome (absent abdominal wall muscles, genitourinary abnormalities, cryptorchidism) Ref: Albanese C.T., Sylvester K.G. (2010). Chapter 43. Pediatric Surgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | 1,925 | medmcqa_train |
Multiple myeloma most common part involved is- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bone marrow Multiple mveiomao Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell neoplasm characterized by involvement of the skeleton at multiple sites,o Plasma cells proliferate abnormally and the proliferated plasma cells infiltrate various organs, particularly bone marrow, but can also spread to lymph nodes and extranodal sites like skin,o The proliferation and survival of myeloma cells are dependent on several cytokines, IL-h Is particularly important.o The neoplastic plasma cells secrete abnormally large amounts of immunoglobulin.o The immunoglobulin secreted by neoplastic plasma cells are quiet different form the immunoglobulin normally present in the blood.o The normal immunoglobulin consists of two heavy and two lights chains molecules and the production of both chain is tightly balanced.o The immunoglobulin secreted in this condition may be : -Isolated light chain or heasy chain.May be an intact antibody molecule of any heavy chain subclass.May be an altered antibody or fragment. | 1,926 | medmcqa_train |
All are the causes of neovascular glaucoma except: | Ans. Central serous retinopathy | 1,927 | medmcqa_train |
False about Corona viruses? | Corona viruses are enveloped. | 1,928 | medmcqa_train |
Copper sulfate poisoning manifests with | COPPER Poisonous Compounds: (1) Copper sulphate (blue vitriol) occurs in large, blue crystals. (2) Copper subacetate (verdigris), occurs in bluish-green masses or powder. Signs and Symptoms: Increased salivation, burning pain in the stomach with colicky abdominal pain, thirst, nausea, eructations and repeated vomiting. The vomited matter is blue or green. There is diarrhoea with much straining; motions are liquid and brown but not bloody. Oliguria, haematuria, albuminuria, acidosis and uraemia may occur. In severe cases haemolysis,haemoglobinuria, methaemoglobinaemia, jaundice, pancreatitis and cramps of legs or spasms and convulsions occur. The breathing is difficult, cold perspiration and severe headache occur. In some cases, paralysis of limbs is followed by drowsiness, insensibility, coma and death due to shock. Later deaths occur due to hepatic or renal failure or both. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-547 | 1,929 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzyme is associated with the conversion of androgen to oestrogen in a growing ovarian follicle is: | Aromatase enzyme: In a normal ovary, LH acts on the theca interstitial stromal cells, whereas FSH acts on granulosa cells. In response to LH the thecal cells secretes androgen, and the produced androsendione is conveed in the granulosa cells to estrogen by the action of aromatase enzyme. Ref: Physiology By James N. Pasley 2nd Edition, Page 145 ; Androgens in health and disease By William J. Bremne Page 84 ; Pade approximation and its applications: Diagnosis and management of PCOS, Issue 765, By Luc Wuytack, Page 107 | 1,930 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following may occur in Noonan syndrome except: | c. Infertility in females(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2744-2746, Ghai 8/e p 640-641)Turner syndromeNoonan syndromeKaryotype 45, XOKaryotype normalInfertileFertile but delayed pubertySeen only in femalesMay be seen in males or femalesIntelligence normalIntellectual disability present | 1,931 | medmcqa_train |
Gas gangrene is caused by all except | Gas gangrene is rapidly spreading, edematous myonecrosis occurring characteristically in association with a severe wound of extensive muscle mass contaminated by pathogenic clostridia. Most frequently encountered is clostridium perfringes. Also caused by clostridium novyi, Clostridium septicum and clostridium histolyticum. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 261 | 1,932 | medmcqa_train |
60 yrs old, air in biliary tree, colicky abdominal pain hyper-peristaltic abdominal sounds diagnosis - | Answer- A. Gall stone ileusPresence in air in biliary tract along with sign of intestinal obstruction is characteristic of gall stone ileus. | 1,933 | medmcqa_train |
The term applied when it is doubtful whether there will be space for all the teeth in mixed dentition analysis is: | Space supervision
It is a term applied when it is doubtful, according to the mixed dentition analysis, whether there will be room for all the teeth.
Prognosis for supervision is always questionable, where as prognosis is always good for regaining space and for space maintenance.
Space supervision cases are those that will have a better chance of getting through the mixed dentition with clinical guidance than they will without.
Handbook of orthodontics Moyers 4th Ed P-364 | 1,934 | medmcqa_train |
Absence seizures are seen in: | Ans. is 'c' Petit mal epilepsy "Absence seizures or (Petit mal epilepsy is characterized by sudden, brief lapses of unconsciousness without loss of postural control line seizures typically lasts for only seconds, consciousness return as suddenly it was lost, and there is no postictal confusion.Absence seizures are usually accompanied by subtle, bilateral signs such as rapid blinking of eyelids, chewing movements or small amplitude clonic movements of the hand" | 1,935 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzymes contain manganese as its cofactor? | Manganese: Cofactor for enzymes, e.g., arginase, pyruvate carboxylase.
Enzymes that require a metal ion cofactor are termed metal-activated enzymes to distinguish them from the metalloenzymes for which bound metal ions serve as prosthetic groups.
Reference-Satyanarayana Pg- 405 | 1,936 | medmcqa_train |
Ergometrine is not used for initiation of labour because - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Fetal hypoxia | 1,937 | medmcqa_train |
A 60-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain described as retrosternal chest pressure radiating to the jaw. The symptoms started at rest and coming and going, but never lasting more than 15 minutes. He has a prior history of hypertension and smokes 1 pack/day. He is currently chest-pain free and on physical examination the blood pressure is 156/88 mmHg, pulse 88/min, and O2 saturation 98%. The heart and lung examination is normal.His ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V1 to V4 that is new, and the first set of cardiac enzymes is negative. He is diagnosed with unstable angina pectoris, admitted to a monitored unit, and started on low molecular weight heparin, aspirin, nitroglycerin, and beta- adrenergic blockers. He continues to have ongoing chest pain symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | A period of 24-48 hours is usually allowed to attempt medical therapy. Cardiac catheterization and angiography may be followed by bypass surgery or angioplasty. For those who do settle down, some form of subsequent risk stratification (e.g., exercise ECG) is indicated. | 1,938 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following statements about the gap junction is true? | The gap junction channel regulates the passage of ions and small molecules from cell to cell, excluding those having a molecular weight greater than 1200 Da. The tight junction is the zone of adhesion around the apical perimeter of adjacent cells. The other statements are characteristics of desmosomes. | 1,939 | medmcqa_train |
The muscle responsible for falsetto voice of puber phonia is | Cricothyroid is the main tensor responsible for the falsetto voice in puberphonia. There is hyperkinetic function and spasm of cricothyroid muscle. Ref:- TB of ENT Hazarika; pg num:- 636 | 1,940 | medmcqa_train |
The virus, which spreads by both hermatogenous and neural route is - | The virus multiplies initially in the epithelial cells of the alimentary canal and the lymohatic tissues from tonsil to peyer's patches. It then spreads to the rwgiinal lymoh node and enters blood stream. Direct neural transmission ti the CNS may also occur. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:486 | 1,941 | medmcqa_train |
The esophagus crosses the diaphragm at the level of: | The oesophagus is a muscular tube 25 cm (10 in) long, which connects the pharynx to the stomach. It begins in the neck, level with the lower border of the cricoid cailage and the sixth cervical veebra. It descends largely anterior to the veebral column through the superior and posterior mediastina, passes through the diaphragm, level with the tenth thoracic veebra, and ends at the gastric cardiac orifice level with the eleventh thoracic veebra. | 1,942 | medmcqa_train |
Constriction of the afferent aeriole to the kidney glomerulus results in: | The kidney is innervated primarily by the sympathetic nervous system, and as such, regulates the contraction of the smooth muscle surrounding the afferent and efferent aerioles of the glomerulus. Sympathetic stimulation to the efferent glomerular aerioles causes their constriction and increases the filtration rate, leading to an increase in urinary output. Similarly, with the loss of sympathetic innervation, such as due to sympathectomy of the kidney, relaxation of tone of the afferent aeriole occurs and the filtration rate increases, which results in an increased urine output. Decreased urine output may result from the constriction of the afferent aerioles, leading to a decrease in glomerular filtration rate. Also Know: Factors affecting the GFR: Changes in renal blood flow Changes in glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure Changes in systemic blood pressure Afferent or efferent aeriolar constriction Changes in hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's capsule Ureteral obstruction Edema of kidney inside tight renal capsule Changes in concentration of plasma proteins: dehydration, hypoproteinemia, etc (minor factors) Changes in Kf Changes in glomerular capillary permeability Changes in effective filtration surface area Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 37. Renal Function & Micturition. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | 1,943 | medmcqa_train |
During the following procedure, optimum interval between uterine incision and delivery should be less than ______ seconds. | Ans. D 90 secondsRef: Datta, 8th ed. pg. 673The image shows LSCS being performed, with the head being delivered by hooking fingers carefully between the lower uterine flap. The head is delivered by elevation and flexion using the palm as fulcrum and the optimum time between the uterine incision and delivery should be less than 90 seconds. | 1,944 | medmcqa_train |
Ivermectin is indicated in all of the following except: | Ans: C (Malaria) Ref: The Pharmacological basis of therapeutics by Goodman dc Gilman - 12th edition, page no. 1455-1456 & Malaria Journal 2013: 12:153Explanation:Ivermectin has a beneficial therapeutic effect inOnchocerciasisLvmphatic filariasisStrong lyloidiasisAscariasisEnterobiasis.Ivermectin is also effective in head lice infection, cutaneous larva migrans and scabiesIt does not have any proven beneficial effect in malaria.Since ivermectin can act on the GABA receptors in the CNS, it should be avoided in patients with meningitis and African trypanosomiasis that are associated with breached blood brain barrier.Ivermectin should not be given to pregnant and lactating women, children less than 5 years of age and severely ill patient.Note:However ivermectin has been recently found to have a beneficial effect in reducing the risk of malaria transmission by its vector control activity by targeting the anopheles mosquito.However this is still needs to be verified with the help of large studies. (Ref: Malaria Journal 2013; 12:153) | 1,945 | medmcqa_train |
Reinsch test is used in diagnosis of poisoning due to: UP 11; COMEDK 12 | Ans. Arsenic | 1,946 | medmcqa_train |
Groove sign is seen in – | Groove sign of Greenblatt' is pathognomonic of LGV → when inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged, they are separated by Poupart's ligment, producing a groove. | 1,947 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for absence seizures: March 2011 | Ans. C: Valproate Sodium valproate is effective in absence/petit-mal seizures, combined grand mal and petit mal, myoclonic epilepsy, paial epilepsy, maniac depressive psychosis and as a prophylactic in febrile convulsion Absence seizures/Petit mal seizures (from the French for "little illness", a term dating from the late 18th century). Absences seizures are brief (usually less than 20 seconds), generalized epileptic seizures of sudden onset and termination. They have 2 essential components: - Clinically the impairment of consciousness (absence) - EEG generalized spike-and-slow wave discharges Absence seizures are broadly divided in typical and atypical absence seizures. Typical absence seizures usually occur in the context of idiopathic generalised epilepsies and EEG shows fast >2.5 Hz generalised spike-wave discharges. Atypical absence seizures: - Occur only in the context of mainly severe symptomatic or cryptogenic epilepsies of children with learning difficulties who also suffer from frequent seizures of other types such as atonic, tonic and myoclonic - Onset and termination is not so abrupt and changes in tone are more pronounced - Ictal EEG is of slow less than 2.5 Hz spike and slow wave. - The discharge is heterogeneous, often asymmetrical and may include irregular spike and slow wave complexes, fast and other paroxysmal activity. - Background interictal EEG is usually abnormal. Treatment of patients with absence seizures only is mainly with sodium valproate or ethosuximide, which are of equal efficacy controlling absences in around 75% of patients. Sodium valproate as a single drug is the DOC if tonic clonic seizures are also present or emerge during the therapy with ethosuximide Lamotrigine monotherapy is less effective with nearly half of the patients becoming seizure free. | 1,948 | medmcqa_train |
Least common cause of pericarditis/pericardial effusion in children: | b. Sarcoidosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2269-2271, Ghai 8/e p 433-443)Important causes of pericarditis/pericardial effusion in children:Infectious* Viral (Coxsackie virus B, EBV, Influenza, Adenovirus); Fungal (Histoplasmosis, Actinomycosis)* Bacterial (TB, Streptococcus, Pneumococcus, Staphylococcus, Meningococcus, Mycoplasma, Tularemia, Listeria, Leptospirosis)* Immune complex (Meningococcus, Hemophilus influenzae)* Parasitic (Toxoplasmosis, Echinococcosis) Connective tissue diseasesMetabolic-endocrineRheumatoid arthritisRheumatic feverSystemic lupus erythematosusSystemic sclerosisSarcoidosisWegener granulomatosisUremiaHypothyroidismChylopericardiumOut of the causes given in the options, Sarcoidosis is the least common. | 1,949 | medmcqa_train |
Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following, EXCEPT: | Kinins cause marked bronchoconstriction and not bronchodilatation. Their effect on other smooth muscles is not prominent. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 455 - 456; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Pages 181, 290, 399, 552, 725, 742. | 1,950 | medmcqa_train |
The lack of ability of an individual to do his routine activity is - | Disability defined as lack of ability of an individual to do his routine activity Disease defined as a condition in which body health is impaired, a depaure from a state of health, an alteration of human body interupting the performance of vital functions Impairment is defined as any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological,or anatomical structure or function Handicap defined as a disadvantage for a given individual,resulting from an impairment or disability , that limits or prevents the fulfilement of a role that is normal for that individual ref ;(page no;44) 23rd edition of PARK&;s textbook of Preventive and Social medicine | 1,951 | medmcqa_train |
Most common affected tissue in cysticercosis is: | Ans. is 'c'Rarely neurocysticercosis happens and most common site is Parenchymal and associate with Ingestion of infected eggs of Taenia solium with food and water. | 1,952 | medmcqa_train |
A child is taken to a pediatrician because his mother notices that his eyes appear very puffy. The mother said that the boy's eyes appeared normal two days ago, and pa of what caused her concern was that her child seemed to be rapidly becoming ill. On physical examination, the boy is noted to have generalized edema. No hypeension or jaundice is noted. Blood urea nitrogen and serum creatinine are within normal limits. A urine sample is collected, and the nurse notices that the top of the urine has a small amount of foam at the top. Urinalysis is negative for glucose, red cells, white cells, casts, crystals, and bacteria. A 24-hr-urine specimen is collected, which demonstrates proteinuria of 55 mg/h/m2. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Proteinuria greater than 40 mg/h/m2 in a child or 3.5 g/d/1.73 m2 in an adult produces nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by generalized edema, often most noticeable in the face. The condition develops when large amounts of protein are spilled through the glomeruli into the duct system of the kidneys. In contrast, nephritic syndrome is accompanied by lower levels of proteinuria, together with microscopic or macroscopic hematuria (red cells and blood in urine). Acute and chronic renal failure are characterized by rising serum levels of BUN and creatinine. The findings seen do not suggest lower urinary tract disease, which is typically due to a lower urinary tract infection (which would show bacteria and white cells), calculi (crystals would likely be present), or tumor (which would show abnormal bladder epithelial cells). | 1,953 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum regenerative capacity is of ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intestinal epitheliumCells with good regenerative capacityi) Surface epithelium (stratified squamous) of skin, oral cavity, vagina and cervix.ii) Lining mucosa of all excretory ducts of glands (Salivary gland, pancreas, biliary duct).iii) Columinar epithelium of GIT (Intestinal mucosa) and uterus.iv) Transitional epithelium of the urinary tract.v) Bone marrow cells and hematopoietic cells.vi) Basal cells of epithelia.Cells with limited regenerative capacity i) Parenchymal cells of liver, kidney and pancreas.ii) Mesenchymal cells, e.g., fibroblast and smooth muscles.iii) Vascular endotheliumiv) Osteoblast, chondroblastv) Resting lymphocytes and other leukocytes.Cells with no regenerative capacity i) Neuronsii) Cardiac muscleiii) Skeletal muscle. | 1,954 | medmcqa_train |
Drugs used for anaesthesia in hypotensive is | Ketamine raises the BP, therefore is the induction agent of choice in hypotensive states and shock.(Refer: stoelting's pharmacology and physiology in anaesthetic practice, 5th edition, pg no.294) | 1,955 | medmcqa_train |
Syncytium formation is a propey of ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Measles virus | 1,956 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is most common type of congential cardiac cyanotic anamoly? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tetralogy of Fallot o TOF is the commonest cyanotic congenital heart disease. | 1,957 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest cranial nerve palsy in tabes dorasalis is: | Ans. III nerve | 1,958 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest cancer of oral cavity is | Ans. (d) Squamous cell carcinomaRef: Devita 9th edition, page 729* Most common site oral Cancer: Carcinoma Tongue > Carcinoma Lip* Most common histological type: Squamous Cell Cancer* Most common site of oral Cancer in India: Cancer of Buccal Mucosa* Max Risk of L.N. Metastasis: Carcinoma Tongue* Min Risk of L.N Metastasis: Carcinoma lip > hard palate* Most common age: 50-60 years | 1,959 | medmcqa_train |
Point Prevalence is defined as- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Number of total cases at a given point of time * Prevalence refers specifically to all current cases (old and new) existing at a given point in time or over a period of time in a given population.* Prevalence is of two types: (i) Point prevalence, and (ii) Period prevalencei) Point prevalence# Point prevalence is defined as the number of all current cases (old and new) of a disease at one point of time, in relation to a defined population.Point prevalence =No. of all current cases (old & new) of a specified disease existing at a given in time------------------------------------Estimated population at same point in timex 100# When the term prevalence rate is used, without any further qualification it is taken to mean "point prevalence"ii) Period prevalence# It measures the frequency of all current cases (old 8c new) existing during a defined period of time (e.g. annual prevalence) expressed in relation to a defined population.# It includes cases arising before but extending into or through to the year as well as those cases arising during the year.Period prevalence =No. of existing cases (old 8c new) of a specified disease during a given period oftime interval------------------------------------------Estimated - mid - interval population at riskx 100* Prevalence is a proportion.* Prevalence is determined by cross sectional study. | 1,960 | medmcqa_train |
In Post radical neck dissection shoulder syndrome, all are seen except: | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Normal electromyographic finding In Radical neck dissections the most crippling complication is the "Shoulder Syndrome" arising from denervation and atrophy of the trapezius muscle due to sacrifice of the spinal accessory nerve (SAN).Shoulder syndrome is characterized by:inability to abduct the shoulder beyond 90 degrees cephaladlong standing pain in the shoulderdeformity of the shoulder girdle drooping of the shoulder and shoulder abduction, and external rotation | 1,961 | medmcqa_train |
Lysosomal transpo defect is seen in | Answer- A. CystinosisTwo disorders are caused by a proven defect in carrier-mediated transpo of metabolites: cystinosis end the group of sialic acid storage disorders (SASD). | 1,962 | medmcqa_train |
An 18-year-old man moves from sea level to an elevation of 2,400 m to train as a skier. The increased requirement for oxygen delivery to tissues at the higher elevation stimulates the synthesis of a renal hormone (erythropoietin), which targets hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. Erythropoietin promotes the survival of early erythroid progenitor cells primarily through which of the following mechanisms? | - Recent studies indicate that erythropoietin promotes survival of early erythroid progenitor cells through inhibition of default apoptosis pathway. - Thus, this hormone rescues stem cells that are otherwise fated to undergo programmed cell death. - None of the other choices are known to control the expansion of hematopoietic stem cell colonies in bone marrow. | 1,963 | medmcqa_train |
Sunflower cataract is caused by | Chalcosis is copper alloy in the eye Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 194 | 1,964 | medmcqa_train |
Notochord develops from - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Epiblast cells o Notochord is a bud like structure formed by epiblast cells extending from cranial end of primitive streak to caudal end of prochordal plate, in between the ectoderm and endoderm.o Siginificances of notochord includes followingi) It defines the axis of embryoii) It functions as the primary inductor, inducing the overlying ectoderm to develop into neural plate (the primordium of CNS).iii) It serves as the basis for development of axial skeleton. The notochord is an intricate structure around which vertebral column is formed and indicates future site of vertebral bodies. However, the notochord does not give rise to vertebral column, after development of vertebral bodies, the notochord degenerates and disappears, but parts of it persist as the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc. | 1,965 | medmcqa_train |
Scalp and face are involved in ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Infantile scabies Type Feature o Infantile scabies Scalp, face, palms and soles are involved o Norwegian scabies Crusted hyperkeratotic lesions on face , palms, soles, nails. Itching is not prominent. Mites are found in thousand, most severe form of scabies Crusted scabies Extensive crusts Nodular scabies Extensive crusts Genital scabies Extensive crusts Animal scabies History of contact with cat or dog. Atypical presentation | 1,966 | medmcqa_train |
Muscle forming anterior and posterior faucial folds of tonsillar fossa, respectively | Palatoglossus-palatopharyngeus form the boundary of the tonsillar fossaReference: Chaurasia; 6th edition | 1,967 | medmcqa_train |
GTT in pregnancy is indicated when if fasting blood sugar is above- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 95gm/100ml Indications of GITo Fasting glycosuria on one occasion before 20th week & 2 or more occasions thereafter,o Following a positive screening test.o If fasting blood sugar exceeds 95mg / 100ml or if that after 2 hours of ingestion of lOO'gm (WHO-75) glucose is more than 120mg/100ml.o However if plasma glucose value is 126mg / 100 ml or more & is confirmed on repeated test, there is no need to perform GTT as the woman is diabetic. | 1,968 | medmcqa_train |
Patient came with complaints of Polydipsia, hypercalciurea, nephrolithiasis, metabolic alkalosis. Possible cause is | Answer- A. Baters syndromeBater syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation in gene coding for basolateral chloride channel (ClC-kb). There is loss of sodium, chloride, potassium and calcium in urine.The major clinical findings are hyponatremia, hypokalemia, polyurea, polydipsia, metabolic alkalosis, normal to lowBP, hypomagnesemia (only in some patients), hypochloremia, hypercalciuria (causing nephrocalcinosis), and growth | 1,969 | medmcqa_train |
Clathrin is used in: | Clathrin and megalin are associated with endocytosis Endocytosis is a vesicular transpo system, it is an active process | 1,970 | medmcqa_train |
Hockey stick appearance on echo is a feature of | Echocardiographic features of mitral stenosis:-Thickened and calcified mitral leaflets and subvalvular apparatus -Decreased E-F slope (M-mode)-Hockey stick appearance of the anterior mitral leaflet in diastole(long axis view)-Immobility of the posterior mitral leaflet (a similar appearance can be seen in hypereosinophilia or ergot use)-Fish mouth orifice in the sho axis view-Increased LA size, with the potential for thrombus formationDynamic CT: the Restricted opening of the thickened valve from commissural fusion (especially with rheumatic valve disease), valve calcification, or both results in a "fish-mouth" appearance on sho-axis images. Bowing of a thickened and fibrotic anterior leaflet during diastole may result in a "hockey-stick" appearance which is best seen on two- or four-chamber images(Ref: The echo manual by Jae K Oh; J B Seward; A Jamil Tajik, page no 202) | 1,971 | medmcqa_train |
All the following features our ventricular tachycardia as the cause of broad-complex tachycardia, except - | Ventricular tachycardia can be classified based on its morphology: Monomorphic ventricular tachycardia means that the appearance of all the beats match each other in each lead of a surface electrocardiogram (ECG). Scar-related monomorphic ventricular tachycardia is the most common type and a frequent cause of death in patients having survived a hea attack, especially if they have weak hea muscle. RVOT tachycardia is a type of monomorphic ventricular tachycardia originating in the right ventricular outflow tract. RVOT morphology refers to the characteristic pattern of this type of tachycardia on an ECG. The source of the re-entry circuit can be identified by evaluating the morphology of the QRS complex in the V1 lead of a surface ECG. If the R wave is dominant (consistent with a right bundle branch block morphology), this indicates the origin of the VT is the left ventricle. Conversely, if the S wave is dominant (consistent with a left bundle branch block morphology, this is consistent with VT originating from the right ventricle or interventricular septum. Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia, on the other hand, has beat-to-beat variations in morphology. This may appear as a cyclical progressive change in cardiac axis, previously referred to by its French name torsades de pointes ("twisting of the spikes"). However, at the current time, the term torsades de pointes is reserved for polymorphic VT occurring in the context of a prolonged resting QT interval. Another way to classify ventricular tachycardias is the duration of the episodes: Three or more beats in a row on an ECG that originate from the ventricle at a rate of more than 120 beats per minute constitute a ventricular tachycardia Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1423 | 1,972 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly patient complains of recurrent episodes of amaurosis fugax. This is attributable to microembolization of which of the following? | Amaurosis fugax, one type of TIA, is a manifestation of carotid bifurcation atherosclerotic disease. It is manifested by unilateral blindness, being described by the patient as a window shade across the eye, lasting for minutes or hours. It is caused by micro emboli from a carotid lesion lodging in the retinal artery, the first intracerebral branch of the internal carotid artery. | 1,973 | medmcqa_train |
A 44-year-old renal transplant patient develops severe cough and shortness of breath on exertion. On examination, he appears dyspneic, respirations 24/min, pulse 110/min, and oxygen saturation 88%. His lungs are clear on auscultation and heart sounds are normal. CXR shows bilateral diffuse perihilar infiltrates. Bronchoscopy and bronchial brushings show clusters of cysts that stain with methenamine silver. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | The patient is infected with Pneumocystis organisms invading an immunocompromised host. The treatment of choice is trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Alternate therapies include pentamidine (highly toxic) and trimetrexate plus folinic acid. | 1,974 | medmcqa_train |
A 21yrs. old pt. attended a party the previous night and gives the following symptoms pain in abdomen radiating to back, pulse 100/ min, BP 100/76temp 39deg C and vomiting before coming Most probable dx is : | Ans. is 'd' ie Acute Pancreatitis * The signs and symptoms exhibited by the pt. correlate with that of acute pancreatitis, most characterstic of which is - Radiation of pain to back and party in previous night (ie. h/o alcohol)Other imp. diagnostic clue (not given in question) is- Relief from pain on sitting in upright posture.*Some imp, points about Acute PancreatitisEtiology - Gall stones (50 - 70% i.e. MC cause)*Alcohol (25%) OthersGrey Turner sign or Cullens sign* :Bleeding into the fascial planes in acute pancreatitis can cause 1 discolouration of - flanks* in Grey Turner sign*Mnemonic : Cullen's -Umbilicusumbilicus* in Cullens sign* Plain abdominal x-ray findings -include a sentinel loop*a colon cut off sign*a renal 'halo ' sign * | 1,975 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following disease can be associated with sho QT interval on ECG ? | Sho QT syndrome (SQTS) is an inherited cardiac channelopathy characterised by an abnormally sho QT interval and increased risk for atrial and ventricular arrhythmias. Diagnosis is based on the evaluation of symptoms (syncope or cardiac arrest), family history and electrocardiogram (ECG) findings multiple myeloma shows sho QT interval Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1534 | 1,976 | medmcqa_train |
An indicator is said to valid if | Ans) b (It measures the thing.. ) Ref park 20th ed p 226The term validity refers to what extent the test accurately measures which it purports/ intended to measure.Validity expresses the ability of a test to separate or distinguish those who have the disease from those who do not have.Validity has two components - Sensitivity and specificitySensitivity and specificity together with "predictive accuracy" are inherent properties of a screening test. | 1,977 | medmcqa_train |
Presence of hemiplegia with diminution of vision in the contralateral eye suggests occlusion of: September 2012 | Ans. D i.e. Internal carotid aery | 1,978 | medmcqa_train |
In increased ICT, agent used for anesthesia | D i.e. Isoflurane | 1,979 | medmcqa_train |
Malignant cell in Hodgkin's lymphoma is | Reed-Sternberg cells (also known as lacunar histiocytes for ceain types) are distinctive, giant cells found with light microscopy in biopsies from individuals with Hodgkin's lymphoma (a.k.a. Hodgkin's disease, a type of lymphoma). They are usually derived from ,B lymphocytes classically considered crippled germinal center B cells, meaning they have not undergone hypermutation to express their antibody. Seen against a sea of B cells, they give the tissue a moth-eaten appearance. Reed-Sternberg cells are large (30-50 microns) and are either multinucleated or have a bilobed nucleus with prominent eosinophilic inclusion-like nucleoli (thus resembling an "owl's eye" appearance) | 1,980 | medmcqa_train |
PR interval in ECG shows? | Normal ECG waves and Intervals: ECG wave/Interval Characteristics 1. P Wave Reflects Atrial Depolarization (activation) 2. QRS complex Depolarization of ventricles 3. T Wave Repolarization of ventricles 4. PR Interval Atrial depolarization and conduction through AV node 5. QT Interval Total duration of Ventricular depolarization and repolarization 6. ST segment Plateau phase of ventricular action potential | 1,981 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a radiolucent stone? | Ans: a (Uric acid) Ref: Bailey and Love, 24th ed, p. 1317Pure uric acid stones are radiolucent and appear in an excretory urogram as filling defects.Uric acid stones if contain calcium, will cast a faint radiological shadow.Examples for radiolucent stones* Uric acid* Dihydroxy adenine* Orotic acid* Xanthine* Allopurinol* Triamterine and Indinavir induced stones. | 1,982 | medmcqa_train |
Pain of musculoskeletal origin is all except | Pain of musulo skeletal origin
MPDS
TMJ arthritis
Stylohyoid eagles’s syndrome | 1,983 | medmcqa_train |
Milk ejection is facilitated by:March 2007, March 2013 | Ans. A: OxytocinHormonal control of Breast development and secretion and ejection of milkProgesterone -- influences the growth in size of alveoli and lobes.Oestrogen -- stimulates the milk duct system to grow and become specific.Follicle stimulating hormoneLuteinizing hormoneProlactin -- contributes to the increased growth of the alveoli during pregnancy and formation of milkOxytocin -- oxytocin contracts the smooth muscle layer of band-like cells surrounding the alveoli to squeeze the newly-produced milk into the duct system. Oxytocin is necessary for the milk ejection reflex, or let-down to occur.Human placental lactogen (HPL) --This hormone appears to be associated with breast, nipple, and areola growth before bih.Colostrum contains higher amounts of white blood cells and antibodies than mature milk, and is especially high in immunoglobulin A (IgA), which coats the lining of the baby's immature intestines, and helps to prevent germs from invading the baby's system. | 1,984 | medmcqa_train |
Following a myocardial infarct, a 40-year-old man is being treated prophylactically with propranolol. You would be concerned about the use of this drug if the patient also had what comorbid condition | Metabolic actions:- Propranolol inhibits glycogenolysis in hea, skeletal muscles and in liver, which occurs due to Adr release during hypoglycaemia--recovery from insulin action is delayed. Warning signs of hypoglycaemia mediated through sympathetic stimulation (tachycardia, tremor) are suppressed in patients taking beta blockers like propranolol, so it should be cautiously used in patients with diabetes. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-145,146 | 1,985 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following describes Satyriasis? | Ans. B. Increased sexual drive in male* Nymphomaniac: excessive sexual desire in females.* Satyriasis: excessive sexual desire in males | 1,986 | medmcqa_train |
Dose of Human anti-rabies immunoglobulin is | Management guidelines for rabies apa from vaccination Anti Rabies Serum Horse Rabies serum: 40 IU/Kg on Day 0 (50% in wound, 50% I'M) Human Rabies Immunoglobulin : 20 IU/Kg (Maximum in wound, rest IM gluteal) (Concentration 150 IU/ml) Serum sickness with Horse serum : 15-45% Person under Antirabic Treatment should avoid Alcohol (during and 1 month after treatment) Undue physical and mental strain and late nights Coicosteroids and other immunosuppressive agents Intramuscular injections of cell culture and purified Duck Embryo Vaccines : Deltoid (Not in Buttocks) Rabies Vaccine dosages Intramusculae dose of Rabies Vaccine for post exposure prophylaxis: 1ml Intradermal dose of Rabies Vaccine for Post-exposure prophylaxis : 0.1 ml Intramuscular dose of Rabies Vaccine for Pre-Exposure prophylaxis : 1 ml Intradermal dose of Rabies Vaccine for Pre-Exposure prophylaxis : 0.1 ml Rabies Immunoglobulin Dosages Dose of Human Rabies Immunoglobulin (HRIg): 20 IU/Kg body wt Dose of Equine Rabies Immunoglobulin (ERIg) : 40 IU/Kg body wt Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 297-298 | 1,987 | medmcqa_train |
Baroreceptors stimulation would result in | Baroreceptor stimulation results in
Inhibition of sympathetic activity
Excitation of parasympathetic activity
Decrease in heart rate
Decrease in blood pressure | 1,988 | medmcqa_train |
All are side effects of steroid EXCEPT | Mineralocoicoids cause cause edema, hypokalemia, sodium and water retention. Glucocoicoid cause Cushing's habitus, fragile skin, telangiectasis, hirsutism, hyperglycemia, muscular weakness, susceptible to infection, osteoporosis, HTN, poor wound healing, thin arms due to muscle wasting (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 286) | 1,989 | medmcqa_train |
Paul Bunnel test is done for? | EBV REF: Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology by Parija 2009 Page 504 Heterophil antibodies, which is an antibody against EBV cross reacts with red blood cells of different animal species. This can be used as a rapid screening test for mononucleosis (Monospot test and Paul Bunnell tests) The Paul-Bunnell test uses sheep erythrocytes; the Monospot test, horse red cells.blood cells. In infectious mononucleosis, IgM heterophil antibodies are usually detectable for the first 3 months of infection. | 1,990 | medmcqa_train |
The largest trematode infecting masn is - | large or giant intestinal fluke Largest trematode infecting humans Pig serves as reservoir of infection (refer pgno:127 baveja 3 rd edition) | 1,991 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding respiratory centre | The respiratory center is located in the medulla oblongata and is involved in the minute-to-minute control of breathing. Unlike the cardiac system, respiratory rhythm is not produced by a homogeneous population of pacemaker cells Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 371,372,373 | 1,992 | medmcqa_train |
Lymphadenopathy is seen is A/E | B i.e. Donovanosis | 1,993 | medmcqa_train |
Fluconazole differs from ketoconazole in all the following except (REPEAT) | Ketoconazole and fluconazole both are used in candidiasisRef: KDT 6/e p 762 | 1,994 | medmcqa_train |
Amount of chlorine needed to kill cyclops in drinking water is: September 2007 | Ans. C: 5 ppm Park's PSM, 21st ed., p- 723 states: Chlorine destroys cyclops and larvae of the guineaworm in a strength of 5 ppm Cyclops may be controlled by the use of the physical, chemical or biological methods: Physical methods - Straining - Boiling at 60 degree Celsius Chemical methods - Chlorine in a strength of 5 ppm - Lime - Abate Biological - Barbel fish and gambusia fish The most satisfactory and permanent method of controlling Cyclops in drinking water is to provide piped water supply or tube wells. Abolition of step wells and provision of sanitary wells should receive attention in rural areas. | 1,995 | medmcqa_train |
Type-1 hypersensitivity includes all of the following except: | Ans. (a) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia HSN involving blood components are usually Type II HSN. | 1,996 | medmcqa_train |
A 80 year old patient presents with a midline tumor of the lower jaw, involving the alveolar margin. He is edentulous. Rx of choice is: | Segmental mandibulectomy recommended for alveolar lesions, tumors adherent to the mandible, or for radiographic evidence of bone involvement. Ref: Craniomaxillofacial Reconstructive and Corrective Bone Surgery: Principles of Internal Fixation By Alex M. Greenberg, Joachim Prein, 2002, page 411. | 1,997 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a derivative of amino acid tyrosine | Melatonin and serotonin are derivatives of Tryptophan. | 1,998 | medmcqa_train |
A 28 Years old white female presents with a 15-day history of malodorous vaginal discharge and pruritus. She reports that the smell is worse after intercourse and is accompanied by a white discharge. No significant medical or gynecological history. She is in a stable monogamous relationship and has never been pregnant. Which of the following diagnostic features is consistent with Bacterial vaginosis? | Answer: b) Vaginal fluid pH > 4.5, presence of clue cells on the smear and fishy odor on KOH mountVAGINAL INFECTIONSDiagnosticCriteria Differential Diagnosis of Vaginal infectionsNormalBacterialvaginosisCandidiasisTrichomoniasisBacterial (strep, staph, E.coli)Vaginal pH3.8-4.2>4.5<4.5>4.5>4.5DischargeClear,FlocculentThin, gray or white, adherent HomogenousWhite, curdy, Cottage- Cheese likeYellow to green Frothy adherentPurulentAmine odor (KOH,"whiff" test)AbsentPresent(Fishy)AbsentAbsentAbsentMicroscopicLactobacilliClue cells, coccoid Bacteria, No WBCMycelia,buddingYeast,pseudohyphaeTrichomonads WBC> 10/hpfMany WBCsMain patient ComplaintsNoneDischarge, bad odour- possibly worse after intercourseltching\burningdischargeFrothy discharge, bad odour, vulval pruritis, dysuria & multiple small punctuate strawberry spots on the vaginal vault and portio vaginalis of the cervix (strawberry vagina)Thin, watery discharge,pruritus | 1,999 | medmcqa_train |
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