query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
Absense of taste sensation is termed as: | (B) Ageusia # Ageusia is the loss of taste functions of the tongue, particularly the inability to detect sweetness, sourness, bitterness, saltiness, and umami (the taste of monosodium glutamate). It is sometimes confused for anosmia--a loss of the sense of smell. Because the tongue can only indicate texture and differentiate between sweet, sour, bitter, salty, and umami most of what is perceived as the sense of taste is actually derived from smell. True aguesia is relatively rare compared to hypogeusia--a partial loss of taste--and dysgeusia--a distortion or alteration of taste.> Causes of Ageusia:> Neurological damage: Tissue damage to the nerves that support the tongue can cause ageusia, especially damage to the lingual nerve and the glossopharyngeal nerve.> Neurological disorders such as Bell's palsy, Familial dysautonomia, and Multiple sclerosis cause similar problems to nerve dam- age, as do certain infectious conditions like primary amoeboid meningoencephalopathy. The lingual nerve (which is a branch of the trigeminal V3 nerve, but carries taste sensation back to the chorda tympani nerve to the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve) can also be damaged during otologic surgery, causing a feeling of metal taste.> Problems with the endocrine system:> Deficiency of vitamin B3 (Niacin) and zinc can cause problems with the endocrine system, which may cause taste loss or alteration. Disorders of the endocrine system, such as Cushing's syndrome, hypothyroidism and diabetes mellitus, can cause similar problems.> Ageusia can also be caused by medicinal side-effects from antirheumatic drugs such as penicillamine, antiproliferative drugs such as cisplatin, ACE inhibitors, and other drugs including azelastine, clarithromycin and zopiclone.> Other causes:> Local damage and inflammation that interferes with the taste buds or local nervous system such as that stemming from radiation therapy, glossitis, tobacco abuse, and denture use also cause ageusia. Other known causes include loss of taste sensitivity from aging (causing a difficulty detecting salty or bitter taste), anxiety disorder, cancer, renal failure and liver failure. | 2,400 | medmcqa_train |
Hutchinsons secondaries In skull are due to tumors in | Adrenal neuroblastomas are malig8nant neoplasms arising from sympathetic neuroblsts in Medulla of adrenal gland Neuroblastoma is a cancer that develops from immature nerve cells found in several areas of the body.Neuroblastoma most commonly arises in and around the adrenalglands, which have similar origins to nerve cells and sit atop the kidneys. | 2,401 | medmcqa_train |
NiTi alloy shows superelasticity through: | Superelasticity and shape memory of NiTi alloys is because of phase transformation in their crystal structures when cooled from the stronger, high temperature form (Austenite) to the weaker low temperature form (Martensite). | 2,402 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly house wife lost her husband who died suddenly of Myocardial infarction couple of years ago. They had been staying alone for almost a decade with infrequent visits from her son and grandchildren. About a week after the death she heard his voice clearly talking to her as he would in a routine manner from the next room. She went to check but saw nothing. Subsequently she often heard his voice conversing with her and she would also discuss her daily matters with him. This however, provoked anxiety and sadness of mood when she was preoccupied with his thought. She should be treated with: | D i.e. HaloperidolThe diagnosis of this lady is morbid grief When there is an exaggeration of one or more symptoms of normal grief or the duration becomes prolonged beyond 6 months without recovery, it is k/a morbid grief.Preoccupation with the memory of deceased is a characteristic featureQ.Idealization of deceased (ignoring his negative qualities).Sense of presence of deceased in the surroundings & misinterpretation of voices or faces of others as that of lost person. Rarely fleeting hallucinations may occur.Treatment - In morbid & complicated grief, medication depends on presenting clinical features.As this lady is mainly having problem of auditory hallucination (1/t sadness & anxiety) - antipsychotic like haloperidol is needed to treat her. | 2,403 | medmcqa_train |
All endothelial cells are involved in the production of thrombomodulin EXCEPT those found in: | Endothelium of the blood vessels plays an active role in preventing the extension of clots into blood vessels. All endothelial cells except those in the cerebral circulation produce thrombomodulin. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology By Ganong, 22nd Edition, Page 543; Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 120 | 2,404 | medmcqa_train |
Heme is conveed to bilirubin mainly in: | C i.e. Spleen Breakdown of heme to bilirubin occurs in macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system mainly in the spleenQ also in the liver and bone marrow. | 2,405 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following cause osteonecrosis except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above o Osteonecrosis is a pathologic process that has been associated with trauma, with numerous atraumatic conditions, and with therapeutic interventions, most commonly corticosteroid use and excessive alcohol intake. o Compromise of the bone vasculature, leading to the death of bone and marrow cells (bone marrow infarction), and ultimate mechanical failure appears to be the common etiologies shared by the varied proposed causes. o The mean age at diagnosis is less than 40 years. Etiologicfaetqrs associated with osteonecrosis Traumatic o Femoral neck fracture o Dislocation or fracture-dislocation o Minor trauma Nontraumatic o Corticosteroid administration, rarely hypersecretion of cortisol o Alcohol use o Sickle cell hemoglobinopathies o Caisson (dysbarism) disease o Systemic lupus erythematosus o Gaucher's disease o Chronic renal failure or hemodialysis o Pancreatitis o Pregnancy o Hyperlipidemia o Radiation o Organ transplantation o Disseminated o Intravascular coagulation o Thrombophlebitis o Cigarette smoking o Hyperuricemia/gout o Human immunodeficiency virus infection o Idiopathic Clinical features o Early diagnosis of osteonecrosis may provide the opportunity to prevent collapse and the need for joint replacement. o However, most patients present late in the course of the disease, and a high index of suspicion is necessary for those with risk factors, particularly high-dose corticosteroid use. o The most common presenting symptom of osteonecrosis is pain, although a small proportion of patients are asymptomatic. Radiological features on X-ray o Changes in bone density (earliest feature) o Cysts and sclerosis o Crescent sign (Subchondral radiolucency) due to subchondral collapse o The subsequent loss of sphericity or collapse of the femur. o Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is far more sensitive than plain radiographs or radionuclide bone scanning and is preferred for diagnostic use in patients with nondiagnostic plain radiography. o A clinical diagnosis is appropriately made in an asymptomatic patient when imaging findings are compatible with this disease and when other causes of pain and bony abnormalities either are unlikely or have been excluded. | 2,406 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anti-tubercular drug is avoided in a HIV positive patient on zidovudine, lamivudine and indinavir therapy who develops TB? | RIFAMPACIN: Powerful enzyme inducer of the Hepatic Cytochrome P450 system. It increasesmetabolism of many drugs and as a consequence, can make them less effective, or even ineffective in some cases, by decreasing their levels in the plasma. Rifampicin can induce the metabolism of Indinavir and can result in therapeutic failure. Therfore rifampicin is avoided in the above patient. ISOENZYMES INDUCED BY RIFAMPACIN: CYP2C9 CYP2C19 CYP3A4 CYP1A2 | 2,407 | medmcqa_train |
TRUE about RU - 486 is : | Used for inducing aboion in early week of pregnancy | 2,408 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is sign of severe Dehydration in a child | Sunken eyes, mouth and tongue very dry , condition lethargy ,skin pinch goes back very slowly The patient has 2 / more signs there is severe dehydration Ref: Ghai pediatrics eighth edition pg no 293 | 2,409 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements about contrast in radiography is true - | option A is correct : Ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per two paicles in solution Ionic dimers and non ionic monomers have three iodine atoms per one paicle in solution Non ionic dimers have six iodine atoms per one paicle in solution option B is incorrect : High osmolar agents (ionic monomers) are only ionic low osmolar agents may be ionic or non ionic iso osmolar agents are only non ionic option C is incorrect : Gadolinium does not cross Blood brain barrier (BBB) option D is incorrect : Iohexol is low osmolar (non ionic monomer) | 2,410 | medmcqa_train |
A 6-year-old child presents with lesions on face, covered with honey colored crusts. Pruritus is present. The possible cause can be: | Ans. a. ImpetigoNon bullous impetigo or impetigo contagiosa lesions have golden yellow, honey coloured crusting | 2,411 | medmcqa_train |
Spigelberg criteria is used in: | Ans. is a, i.e. Ovarian pregnancySite of ectopicCriteria for diagnosisOvarian ectopicAbdominal ectopicCervical ectopicSpigelberg criteriaStuddiform ectopicRubin criteria/ Palmann criteria | 2,412 | medmcqa_train |
Calculate degree of freedom Material Location X Y Glass 8 23 Cupboard 56 3 Metal 1 14 | Degree of freedom = (C-1) (R-1) Given rows = 3 ; columns = 2 DOF = (2-1) (3-1) = 1x2 = 2 | 2,413 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzyme of TCA cycle is analogous to Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex? | Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase catalyses an oxidative decarboxylation reaction similar to that of pyruvate dehydrogenase. uses the same coenzymes as the PDH complex (their E3 components are identical). Like PDH complex, its E2 is inhibited by arsenic. | 2,414 | medmcqa_train |
Auditory area located in which lobe: | Most of the primary auditory cortex is in the temporal lobe, but the association auditory cortices extend over much of the insular lobe and even onto the lateral portion of the paritetal lobe | 2,415 | medmcqa_train |
Classical symptom of endocervical polyp is | Intermenstrual bleeding is classical symptom of endocervical polyp. | 2,416 | medmcqa_train |
For teletherapy, isotopes commonly used are | C i.e. Co-60 | 2,417 | medmcqa_train |
The most likely inheritance pattern depicted in the following pedigree is: | . X-linked dominant | 2,418 | medmcqa_train |
Afferents to basal ganglia rests in | The main inputs to the basal ganglia terminate in the striatum. They include the excitatory coicostriate pathway from M1 and premotor coex. There is also a projection from intralaminar nuclei of the thalamus to the striatum (thalamostriatal pathway).Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, Twenty-Third Edition. | 2,419 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum contraction of gall bladder is seen with: | A i.e. CCK Most potent stimulus for causing gall bladder contraction is CCK-PZQ. | 2,420 | medmcqa_train |
The most impoant stimulant of respiratory centre is: | Response to Co2, PaCO2 is most impoant factor in control of ventilation under normal conditions. PCo2 is most impoant input regulating magnitude of ventilation under resting conditions. Changes in alveolar ventilation have immediate, pronounced effect on aerial Pco2 (unlike Po2). Even slight alterations from normal Pco2 induce significant reflex. Increased Pco2 increases ventilation. Blood Brain Barrier is permeable to Co2, so increased aerial Pco2 increases brain ECF Pco2 and , it stimulates central chemoreceptors which increases ventilation by stimulating respiratory centers. Regulation of respiration: The rhythmic discharges from the brain that produce spontaneous respiration are regulated by alterations in aerial Po2, PCo2, and H+ concentration. There are numerous factors that affect and control ventilation. Chemical control Co2 ( CSF and brain interstitial fluid H+ concentration) o2 ( carotid and aoic bodies) H+ ( carotid and aoic bodies) Nonchemical control Vagal afferents from receptors in the airways and lungs Afferents from the pons, hypothalamus, and limbic system Afferents from proprioceptors Afferents from baroreceptors: aerial, atrial, ventricular, pulmonary Preipheral (Carotid & Aoic) Chemoreceptors: The carotid bodies are located at the bifurcation of common carotid aery. They send afferents in the carotid sinus nerve to the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) the aoic bodies are located between the arch of aoa and pulmonary aery afferents ascend in the recurrent laryngeal nerves to the vagus (X). Stimulation results from a decrease in carotid and aoic body tissue PO2. Central Chemoreceptors: situated near (beneath) the ventral surface of the medulla, near the origins of the vagi and glossopharyngeal nerves these are anatomically separate from the respiratory centres, and are bathed in brain ECF. This is impermeable to both H+ and HCO3 -, however CO2 diffuses readily and decreases pH of CSF within a few minutes, which subsequently increases ventilation. Ref: A Concise Textbook Of Physiology, By S. And Kutty, K.M., Page 101. | 2,421 | medmcqa_train |
An 80-year-old woman presents with a 4-hour history of fever, shaking chills, and disorientation. Her blood pressure is 80/40 mm Hg. Physical examination shows diffuse purpura on her upper arms and chest. Blood cultures are positive for Gram-negative organism. Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in the pathogenesis of direct vascular injury in this patient with septic shock? | Septicemia (bacteremia) denotes the clinical condition in which bacteria are found in the circulation. It can be suspected clinically, but the final diagnosis is made by culturing the organisms from the blood. In patients with endotoxic shock, lipopolysaccharide released from Gram-negative bacteria stimulates monocytes/macrophages to secrete large quantities of TNF-a. | 2,422 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg presents with pronounced cyanosis. Blood drawn from peripheral veins is observed to be chocolate brown in colour. The most likely diagnosis is: | Answer is A (Methaemoglobinemia) Pronounced cyanosis together with chocolate brown colour of 'freshly drawn blood suggests a diagnosis of methaemoglobinemia Methaemoglobinemia * * * Methaemoglobinemia is an uncommon but distinct cause of central cyanosis in the absence of hypoxemia or cardio vascular compromise Methaemoglobinemia occurs when a significant concentration of hemoglobin (Hb) is oxidized to methaemoglobin (Met Hb) When the haem moety (iron atoms) of' Hb molecule encounter a strong oxidizing agent iron loses an electron and switches from the Ferrous (2+) to Ferric (3+) state turning Hb to 'Met Hb' Methaemoglobin has such high oxygen affinity that viually no oxygen is delivered Presentation * * Methaemoglobinemia most commonly presents as cyanosis unresponsive to supplemental oxygen The most notable physical examination finding is generalized cyanosis which can manifest as muddy brown dark mucus membranes before proceding to global skin discolaration 'The charachteristic muddy appearance (chocolate brown) of freshly drawn blood can be a critical clue'-*Blood appears dark brown, brownish, muddy or chocolate in colour immediately after withdrawal. In contrast to normal venous blood, the color does not change with addition of oxygen or agitation in the air'- Diffirential diagnosis in Internal Medicine Methaemoglobinemia > 15% cause symptoms of cerebral ischaemia Methaemoglobinemia > 60% is usually lethal Diagnosis * The hest Methaemoglobinomia is * Methaemoglohin Assay' Treatment * The most effective emergency management for methaemaglobinemia is administration of Methylene bluee which serves as an antidote (intravenous) Methylene blue is not effective in patients with methaemoglobinemia due to Hemoglobinopathy MQ (Haemoglobin M) Methylene blue is contraindicated in patients with G6 PD deficiencyQ since it can cause severe hemolysis due to its potential for oxidation Outline of The Four Main Pathways to MetHb Production 1. Congenitally abnormal hemoglobin: Hemoglobin M Hemoglobin M is passed as an autosomal dominant trait affecting either the alpha or beta chain of hemoglobin; homozygous Hb M affecting both alpha and beta chains is incompatible with life. Amino acid substitution (often a tyrosine for histidine) near the heme iron facilitates iron oxidation. 2. Inherited enzyme deficiencies: NADH-dependent cytochrome b5 -reductase and cytochrome bc deficiency. Deficiency of either cytochrome b5 or its reducing enzyme, cytochrome b5-reductase, decreases reduction of MetHb back to Hb 3. Nitrite (NO2), other oxidants and oxygen-reducing compounds Nitrites are a common oxidizing source of MetHb production. Reducing agents paradoxically produce methemoglobinemia by reducing oxygen to a free radical or water to 1-1,O2, which then oxidizes hemoglobin. 4. "Sensitive" hemoglobin: Blue baby syndrome Bacteria in the immature gastrointestinal tracts of infants conve nitrate (NO3) to the powerful oxidant nitrite (NO,). Infants have a relative NADH-dependent reductase deficiency (only 50% of adult levels) and are more susceptible to oxidative injury. | 2,423 | medmcqa_train |
A pregnant woman with fibroid uterus develops acute pain in abdomen with low grade fever and mild leucocytosis at 28 weeks ,the most likely diagnosis is | Red degeneration of fibroid: It results from softening of surrounding connective tissue The capillaries tend to rupture and blood effused out into the myoma causing a diffuse reddish discoloration The tumor it self assumes a peculiar purple red colour and develops a fishy odour,if the tumor is carefully examined We may find some vessels and large veins in the capsule thrombosed This is the most common complication with fibroid during pregnancy . And the patient is usually febrile and with moderate leucocytosis and raised ESR, the condition is aseptic one. And ultrasound is useful for diagnosis Ref Shaw 16/e pg 395 | 2,424 | medmcqa_train |
Call Exner bodies are found in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Granulosa Ceil Tumour "The formation of Call - Exner bodies is a distinct feature of granulose cells and can be readily recognised in certain types of granulosa cell tumours. " | 2,425 | medmcqa_train |
Monteggia fracture is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fracture of the proximal ulna with radial head dislocation Eponymous injuries of forearmNameInjuryMonteggia fracture dislocationFracture of upper third of ulna with dislocation of the radial headGalleazi fractureFracture of distal third of radius with dislocation or subluxation of inferior (distal) radio-ulnar jointEssex Lopresti lesionFracture of the radial head with distal radioulnar joint injury with tear in the interosseus membrane | 2,426 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest cause of esophageal perforation: March 2007 | Ans. D: Instrumentation Instrumentation is by far the most common cause of perforation Boerhaave syndrome/Esophageal perforation, is rupture of the esophageal wall caused by excessive vomiting in eating disorders such as bulimia although it may rarely occur in extremely forceful coughing or other situations, such as obstruction by food. It can cause pneumomediastinum and/or mediastinitis (air or inflammation of the mediastinum) and sepsis. Boerhaave syndrome is a transmural perforation of the esophagus, distinct from Mallory-Weiss syndrome, a nontransmural esophageal tear also associated with vomiting. The term is useful for distinguishing it from iatrogenic perforation, which accounts for 85-90% of cases of esophageal rupture, typically as a complication of an endoscopic procedure, feeding tube, or unrelated surgery. It is associated with "Mackler's triad" which consists of vomiting, lower thoracic pain and subcutaneous emphysema which the later can be heard as Haman's crunch on physical examination. The most common anatomical location of the tear in Boerhaave syndrome is at left posterolateral wall of the lower third of the esophagus, 2-3 cm before the stomach. | 2,427 | medmcqa_train |
Sensory supply for skin over angle of jaw is | Cervial plexus supplies Skin over the angle of the jaw and over the parotid gland. Lower margin of the lower jaw | 2,428 | medmcqa_train |
Population covered by a community health centre? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 100,000 | 2,429 | medmcqa_train |
The fastest type of nerve fibers are | According to erlanger and gasser classification, A fibers are myelinated and has large diameter The conduction velocity is 120m per second Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:73 | 2,430 | medmcqa_train |
Form of vitamim D which is measured in serum ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 25 hydroxyvitamin DThough, 1, 25 dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol) is the active form of vitamin D, its serum measurement does not provide any information about vitamin D status because it is often normal or elevated due to secondary hyperparathyroidism associated with vitamin D deficiency...Measurement of 25 hydroxyvitamin D (calcifedial) in serum provides more accurate information of vitamin D status. The usual values are :-< 20 ng/ml - Deficiency20-29 ng/ml - Insufficiency30-100 ng/ml - Normal> 100 ng/ml - Toxicity | 2,431 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following factors are present in the final common terminal complement pathway? | C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9 are the factors present in common terminal pathway. The classic activation pathway, mannose-binding lectin activation pathway and alternative activation pathway converge on the final common terminal pathway. The cleavage of C3 by each pathway (classic activation pathway, mannose-binding lectin activation pathway and alternative activation pathway) causes activation of C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9 in the terminal pathway, resulting in the formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) that gets attached to the target cells or bacteria and lyses them. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 1913 & 1916. | 2,432 | medmcqa_train |
Peptic ulcer is caused by | A. i.e. (H. pylori) (594 - Basic pathology 8th)PEPTIC ULCER - two conditions are key for the development of peptic ulcers1. H. pylori infection(i) 70 - 90% persons with duodenal ulcer(ii) 70% persons with gastric ulcers2. Mucosal exposure to gastric acid and pepsin* NSAIDs are the major cause of peptic ulcer disease in persons who do not have H. pylori infection | 2,433 | medmcqa_train |
All are resected in whipples operation except: | Ans is 'c' ie Portal vein Whipple's operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy)is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of pancreas.It includes resection of: distal stomach - duodenumgall bladder - proximal jejunumCBD - regional lymphatics head of pancreasRestoration of gastrointestinal continuity requiresPancreaticojejunostomy choledochojejunostomy &. Gastrojejunostomy | 2,434 | medmcqa_train |
Prevalence of a disease depends upon the following? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Both of the above Prevalence = Incidence 'x mean duration | 2,435 | medmcqa_train |
The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Papillary type [Ref: Schwartz 9/e p1361 (8/e p1417); Harrison 17/e p.2242 (16/e, p.2122)\o "Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of ail thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." - Schwartzo Incidence of primaiy malignant tumors of thyroid gland (Harrison 17/e)Type of thyroid carcinomaApproximate PrevalencePapillary Carcinoma80-90%Follicular Carcinoma5-10%Medullary Carcinoma10%Anaplastic CarcinomaRareLymphomas1-2%o Also remembery Thyroid carcinoma is the most common malignancy of the endocrine system (Ref: Harrison, 17/e, p 2243) | 2,436 | medmcqa_train |
Transection of the brain stem at the mid-pontine level with bilateral vagotomy causes ______ | Transection of the brainstem at the midpoint level with bilateral vagotomy causes apneusis. At mid pontine level lesion, the apneustic centre is intact while the pneumotaxic centre is seperated. Concurrent removal of vagus inputs causes this kind of abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by deep, gasping inspiration with a pause at full inspiration followed by a breif insufficient release. Effect of various Lesions and Brainstem Transection Label Level of transection Vagi intact vagi cut A Complete transection above pons Regular breathing continues Regular breathing continues but depth of inspiration increases B Mid-pontine level section Regular breathing continues Apneusis develops C Transection midway between pons and medulla Irregular but rhythmic respiration Irregular but rhythmic respiration D Complete transection below medulla Spontaneous respiration ceases Spontaneous respiration ceases Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 25th edition Pgno: 645-657 | 2,437 | medmcqa_train |
The ureteric bud develops from ? | Development of kidneys - The definative human kidney arises from two distinct sources, 1). The secretory pa , I.e., excretory tubules or (nephrons) are derived from the lowest pa of the nephrogenic cord this pa is the metanephros, the cells of which form the metanephric blastema 2). The collecting pa of the kidney is derived from a diveiculum called the ureteric bud which arise from the lower pa of the mesonephric duct. Ref : Inderbir singh's Human Embryology, eleventh edition , pg. no., 265. | 2,438 | medmcqa_train |
True about treatment of carcinoma left colon with acute obstruction | Ans. is ' a ' , ' b ' , ' c ' | 2,439 | medmcqa_train |
Superantigens true is - | Superantigens are a class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release. Superantigens bind first to the MHC Class II and then coordinate to the variable alpha or beta chain of T-cell Receptors . Reff: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:90 | 2,440 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true about colour vision | Opponent theory for colour vision is proposed by Hering This theory states that the three primary colours red, blue and green oppose one another so that the opponent processing cells can't detect the presence of both colours at the same time Neurotransmitter stored in rods and cones is glutamate Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 191 | 2,441 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following ahritis erosion are not seen | Ref Semantischolar.org | 2,442 | medmcqa_train |
Alvarado score is used for | Answer- B. Acute appendicitisScoring system for Acute Appendicitis: Alvarado Score:The diagnosis of appendicitis is based primarily on clinical history and physical examination assisted by blood counts. A number of clinical and laboratory based scoring systems have been devised to assist diagnosis.The most widely used scoring system is Alvarado score. | 2,443 | medmcqa_train |
Indication of fetal distress is: | Ans: d | 2,444 | medmcqa_train |
AED stands for? | ADE is automated external defibrilater An automated external defibrillator (AED) is a poable electronic device that automatically diagnoses the life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias of ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia,and is able to treat them through defibrillation, the application of electricity which stops the arrhythmia, allowing the hea to re-establish an effective rhythm Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 445 | 2,445 | medmcqa_train |
Which cardiovascular change is physiological in last trimester of pregnancy? | Ans. is c, i.e. Shift of apical impulse laterally and upwards in the left 4th intercostal spaceRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 52; Williams Obs. 25/e, p 60-62, 119, 960Clinical findings related to cardiovascular changes occuring during pregnancy:Heart rate (resting) increases by about 10-15 bpm. QApex beat shifts to the 4th intercoastal space, 2.5 cm outside the mid clavicular line (as heart is pushed upwards, outward, with slight rotation to left). QSlightly enlarged cardiac silhouette. Q (marked enlarged cardiac silhouette is not normal in pregnancy)Exaggerated splitting of the first heart sound (both components loud). QSecond heart sound : Normal QThird heart sound : Loud and easily auscultated. QMurmurs: - Grade II systolic ejection murmur is audible in aortic or pulmonary area at about 10-12 weeks due to expanded intravenous volume. It diappears in the beginning of postpartum period.- Continuous hissing murmur Q audible over tricuspid area in left 2nd and 3rd intercoastal spaces known as Mammary murmur.ECHO - Shows increased left atrial and ventricular diameters. QECG - Shows left axis deviation QChest X-ray - Straightening of left heart border.Note: None of the arrhythmia are normal during pregnancy, rather their presence indicates heart disease during pregnancy. | 2,446 | medmcqa_train |
Na-K ATPase | Na+-K+ATPase, which actively moves Na+and K+ against their electrochemical gradient. The electrogenic Na K ATPase plays a critical role in cellular physiology by using the energy in ATP to extrude 3 Na+ out of the cell in exchange for taking two K+ into the cell. (REF.GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY 23rd EDITION page no.85.) | 2,447 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease? | The complications of IVRA is mainly attributable to the use of the tourniquet. On inflation of the touniquet there is physiological deoxygenation. In patients with sickle cell disease this might lead to sickling crisis. In these patients IVRA causes stasis, local acidosis and hypoxia. Hence IVRA is best avoided in sickle cell disease patients. Adequate oxygenation of the patient would be prudent. Ref: Complications of regional anesthesia By Brendan T. Finucane, Page 216; Essentials of Regional Anesthesia By Alan David Kaye, Richard D. Urman, Nalini Vadivelu; McGlamry's comprehensive textbook of foot and ankle surgery, 3rd ed, Vol 2 By Alan S. Banks, E. Dalton MacGlamry, Page 180; Surgery and anesthesia in sickle cell disease (By M Koshy, SJ Weiner, ST Miller, LA Sleeper, E Vichinsky, AK Brown,Y Khakoo, and TR Kinney). | 2,448 | medmcqa_train |
Raynaud's phenomenon seen in all EXCEPT: | Juvenile rheumatoid ahritisREF: Schwaz's Principles of Surgery 9' edition Chapter 23. Aerial Disease, Harrison's Internal Medicine 17th edition Chapter 243 Table 243-1 "Raynaud's phenomenon is seen in Rheumatoid ahritis not Juvenile Rheumatoid ahritis" The term Raynaud's phenomenon applies to a heterogeneous symptom array associated with peripheral vasospasm, more commonly occurring in the upper extremities The majority of patients are young women <40 years of age and is often bilateral. There is no cure for Raynaud'ssyndrome, thus all treatments mainly palliate symptoms and decrease the severity and, perhaps, frequency of attacks. The majority (90%) of patients will respond to avoidance of cold and other stimuli. The remaining 10% of patients with more persistent or severe syndromes can be treated with a variety of vasodilatory drugs. Calcium-channel blockers such as diltiazem and nifedipine are the drugs of choice. Raynaud's phenomenon is broadly separated into two categories: the idiopathic variety, termed Raynaud's disease, and the secondary variety, which is associated with other disease states or known causes of vasospasm CLASSIFICATION OF RAYNAUD'S PHENOMENON Primary or idiopathic Raynaud's phenomenon: Raynaud's disease Secondary Raynaud's phenomenon Collagen vascular diseases: scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid ahritis, dermatomyositis, polymyositis Aerial occlusive diseases: atherosclerosis of the extremities, thromboangiitis obliterans, acute aerial occlusion, thoracic outlet syndrome Pulmonary hypeension Neurologic disorders: interveebral disk disease, syringomyelia, spinal cord tumors, stroke, poliomyelitis, carpal tunnel syndrome Blood dyscrasias: cold agglutinins, cryoglobulinemia, cryofibrinogenemia, myeloproliferative disorders, WaldenstrOm's macroglobulinemia Trauma: vibration injury, hammer hand syndrome, electric shock, cold injury, typing, piano playing Drugs: ergot derivatives, methysergide, Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers, bleomycin, vinblastine, cisplatin | 2,449 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following can cause osteoporosis, except - | Osteoporosis It refers to reduction ofbone mass per unit volume (loss of matrix and defective mineralisation) (Fig. 9.47). Aetiology 1.Involutional 2.Endocrinological 3.Gastrointestinal 4.Haematological 5.Rheumatological 6.Collagen vascular Normal bone Type I (postmenopausal) and Type II (senile) Hypehyroidism Hyperparathyroidism Diabetes mellitus Hypogonadism Cushing's syndrome Malnutrition Malabsorption Anorexia nervosa Multiple myeloma Mastocytosis Rheumatoid ahritis Marfan's syndrome Ehler-Danlos syndrome Osteogenesis imperfecta Osteoporosis Fig. 9.47 Anticonvulsants Steroids Vitamin A Alcohol Heparin Furosemide Thyroid hormone in excessive doses Lithium GnRH agonist Cyclosporin Cytotoxic drugs 8.Cigarette smoking 9.Glucocoicoid therapy 10.Hypogonadism 11.Alcoholism 12.Renal disease 13.GI/Hepatic disorders. Bone forming agents a.Fluoride--75 mg/day b.Anabolic steroids: Testosterone is used in the treatment of osteoporotic man with gonadal deficiency. R ALAGAPPAN MANUAL OF PRACTICAL MEDICINE FOUH EDITION PAGE NO-690 | 2,450 | medmcqa_train |
Protein of muscle which helps in relaxation is | Titin Location: Reaches from the Z line to the M line.Function: Largest protein in the body. Role in relaxation of the muscle.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 51 Muscle & the Cytoskeleton | 2,451 | medmcqa_train |
Levamisole is used as all except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Immunodepressant in high doses Levamisol o Levamisole is an immunomodulator - restores depressed T cell function -3 Immunostimulant (not immunodepressant). o Single dose of levamisol can be used in ascariasis. Other uses --> A. duodenal (less active against N. americana). o It causes tonic paralysis (depolarization) by stimulating ganglia. | 2,452 | medmcqa_train |
Which of following is not absorbed in PCT: | D i.e. H+ | 2,453 | medmcqa_train |
IPD records of patients are preserved for how many years ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 years Medical Council recommends that the medical records of the indoor patient to be aintained for atleast a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of treatment. | 2,454 | medmcqa_train |
Auditory pathway passes through - | Ans-A | 2,455 | medmcqa_train |
Durck granuloma is seen in | Ans. (d) Cerebral malaria(Ref: Malaria - Page 76)In malignant cerebral malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum, brain vessels are plugged with parasitized red cells, causing ring hemorrhage which is accompanied by necrosis of surrounding parenchyma.The damage leads to formation of Durck's granuloma - collection of microglial cells surrounding area of demylienation | 2,456 | medmcqa_train |
All vaccines are given in disaster,except ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cholera Vaccines recommended in disasters o Following vaccines are recommended 1) Children < 10 years :- DPT, inactivated polio (IPV), H.influenzae type b (Hib), hepatitis B, pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV), measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), varicella vaccine, influenza, hepatitis A and rotavirus. 2) Children and adolescents (11-18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, peussis, meningococcal conjugate vaccine (MCV), Influenza. 3) Adults (>18 years):- Tetanus, diphtheria, peussis, pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23), and influenza. o Vaccination against typhoid and cholera is not recommended. | 2,457 | medmcqa_train |
The goal of NRR=1 can be best achieved by use of following contraceptive methods - | Sterilization is the most effective contraception to achieve NRR =1 Male sterilization Male sterilization or vasectomy being a comparatively* simple operation can be performed even in primary health centres by trained doctors under local anaesthesia. When carried out under strict aseptic technique, it should have no risk of moality. In vasectomy, it is customary to remove a piece of vas at least 1 cm after clamping. The ends are ligated and then folded back on themselves and sutured into position, so that the cut ends face away from each other. This will reduce the risk of recanalization at a later date. It is impoant to stress that the acceptor is not immediately sterile after the operation, usually until approximately 30 ejaculations have taken place. During this intermediate period, another method of contraception must be used. If properly performed, vasectomies are almost 100 per cent effective. Following vasectomy, sperm production and hormone output are not affected. The sperm produced are destroyed intraluminally by phagocytosis. This is a normal process in the male genital tract, but the rate of destruction is greatly increased after vasectomy. Vasectomy is a simpler, faster and less expensive operation than tubectomy in terms of instruments, hospitalization and doctor's training. Cost-wise, the ratio is about 5 vasectomies to one tubal ligation. Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 543 | 2,458 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following agents can be given for induction of anaesthesia in children, EXCEPT:1 | Morphine has pharmacokinetic differences in young individuals, that may predispose them to develop respiratory depression. So this drug should be used with caution in infants less than 6 months of age who are not ventilated. Drugs used in the induction of anesthesia in children are a mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide. Other drugs which are useful are sevoflurane or halothane. Sevoflurane is considered to be the agent of choice for inhalational induction rather than halothane, because sevoflurane has a wider therapeutic safety window in terms of cardiovascular depression and has no unpleasant smell. Ref: Synopsis of Pediatric Emergency Medicine By Gary Robe Fleisher, 4th Edition, Page 34 ; Textbook of Anesthesia for Postgraduates By T. K. Agasti, Page 799 | 2,459 | medmcqa_train |
A 6-year old child who presented with perianal pruritus, excoriation of skin and nocturnal enuresis was found to be infected with a parasite causing autoinfection. The causative agent is diagnosed by the - | The causative agent is Enterobius vermiculais & is diagnosed by NIH swab or perianal swab moistened with saline ie by applying the adhesive surface of cellophane tape to perianal skin in the morning & then this is examined on a glass slide inder microscope. Reference: Harrison20th edition pg 1102 | 2,460 | medmcqa_train |
A histological section of the left ventricle of a deceased 28-year-old male shows classic contraction band necrosis of the myocardium. Biological specimens confirm the presence of cocaine and metabolites. Activity of which of the following enzymes was most likely increased in the patient's myocardial cells sholy prior to his death? | Cocaine causes contraction band necrosis by blocking the reuptake of norepinephrine, resulting in excessive vasoconstriction of coronary vessels, leading to ischemia and infarction of hea tissue. Under these pathological conditions, myocardial cells switch to anaerobic metabolism and therefore glycolysis becomes the sole source of ATP substrate-level phosphorylations by phosphoglycerate kinase and pyruvate kinase. Phosphofructokinase-1 (PFK-1) is the rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis, and its activity would therefore be increased. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase is a regulatory enzyme in gluconeogenesis, which is induced by coisol, epinephrine, and glucagon. It functions in the hepatic synthesis of glucose when energy levels from beta-oxidation of fatty acids are adequate. Pyruvate dehydrogenase produces acetyl-CoA from pyruvate and coenzyme A, bridging glycolysis and the Krebs cycle. It requires 5 cofactors, including NAD and FAD, which would no longer be produced by the electron transpo under hypoxic conditions, decreasing its activity. Succinate dehydrogenase is a key enzyme of the Krebs cycle, producing a reduced equivalent of FAD to feed into the electron transpo chain. It is also known as Complex II. The Krebs cycle only functions if oxygen is in appropriate concentrations since it is regulated by the levels of NADH, which is only consumed by the electron transpo chain if there is enough oxygen. The absence of oxygen leads to an accumulation of NADH and a subsequent decrease in the enzyme activities of the Krebs cycle. Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 20. Gluconeogenesis & the Control of Blood Glucose. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | 2,461 | medmcqa_train |
All are hypercoagulable states, except : | Answer is B (factor V Leiden deficiency) Factor V Leiden mutation (or T Factor V Leiden levels) are associated with a hypercoaguable state and not a Factor V Leiden deficiency. Inherited Defective inhibition of coagulation factors Factor V Leiden (resistant to inhibition by activated protein C) - Antithrombin III deficiency (or resistance) - Protein C deficiency (or resistance) - Protein S deficiency (or resistance) - Prothrombin gene mutation (G20210A) Impaired clot lysis - Dysfibrinogenemia - Plasminogen deficiency - PA deficiency - PAI-I excess Unceain mechanism - Homocystinuria Acquired Diseases or syndromes Lupus anticoagulant/anticardiolipin antibody syndrome Malignancy - Myeloproliferative disorder - Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura - Estrogen treatment Hyperlipidemia - Diabetes mellitus Hyperviscosity - Nephrotic syndrome - Congestive hea failure - Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Physiologic states - Pregnancy (especially postpaum) - Obesity - Postoperative state - Immobilization - Old stage | 2,462 | medmcqa_train |
Parasites not transmitted through soil: | Ans: (c) TapewormRef: K.D. Chatterjee, 13th edition, Page 212-222Nematodes based on mode of infection:Mode of InfectionOrganismsIngestionEggsEnterobius , Ascaris , Irichuris (EAT)Larva within intermediate hostDrancunculus medinensisEncysted larva in muscleTrichinella spiralisPenetration of skinStrongyloides, Ancylostoma ,Necator (SAN)Blood sucking insectsFilariaInhalation of dust containing eggsAscaris, Enterobius | 2,463 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following does not undergo phosphorylation by protein kinases? | Phosphorylation occurs at the hydroxyl groups of serine, threonine, and tyrosine. A protein kinase is a kinase enzyme that modifies other proteins by chemically adding phosphate groups to them (phosphorylation). Phosphorylation usually results in a functional change of the target protein (substrate) by changing enzyme activity, cellular location, or association with other proteins. The chemical activity of a kinase involves transferring a phosphate group from a nucleoside triphosphate (usually ATP) and covalently attaching it to one of three amino acids that have a free hydroxyl group.Most kinases act on both serine and threonine, others act on tyrosine, and a number (dual specificity kinases) act on all three. There are also protein kinases that phosphorylate other amino acids, including histidine kinases that phosphorylate histidine residues. | 2,464 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are indications for termination of pregnancy in an APH patient except | The definite management - comprises prompt delivery, this is considered when ever The patient has her first bout of bleeding after 37 completed weeks. Successful conservative treatment brings the patients upto 37 weeks. If the initial or a subsequent bout of bleeding is very severe Patient is in labour Evidence of maternal or fetal jeopardy Intrauterine fetal death | 2,465 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 weeks of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome : | Ans. is b i.e. Amniocentesis In a pregnant lady with H/0 previous Down syndrome, the chances of recurrence are increased. Extensive screening should be carried out in all such females. Now in the question given - female is presenting at 18 weeks and investigation of choice is being asked which will definately be amniocentesis. At 18 weeks Screening test : quad test I Triple test. Investigation of choice : Amniocentesis. In first trimester (or 1st screening test Combined test Investigation of choice chorionic villi sampling. Screening test selectior Women presenting to ANC clinic before 14 weeks. Nuchan translucency + free phCG +PAPP-A (k/a combined test) Based on result if | 2,466 | medmcqa_train |
Hypersensitivity angitis is seen in - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Henoch schonlein purpurao HSP is not hypersensitivity angitis. But the best answer amongst the given options is HSP because it is the most impoant differential of hypersensitivity angitis.Hypersensitivity angitis Hypersensitivity vasculitis or hypersensitivity angitis or leukocytoclastic angitis is a small vessel vasculitis due to hypersensitivity reaction.It is usually to a known drug, e.g. cefoperazone, autoantigens or infectious agents.Immune complexes lodge in the vessel wall, attracting polymorphoneuclear leukocytes who in turn release tissue-degrading substances leading to an inflammatory process.Hypersensitivity angitis usually present with skin manifestation, e.g. palpable purpura, but sometimes nerves, kidneys, joints and hea may also be involved.Diagnostic criteriao At least 3 out of the 5 criteria are requiredAge > 16Use of possible triggering drug in relation to symptoms.Palpable purpuraMaculopapular rashSkin biopsy showing neutrophil infiltrate around vessel.o Henoch-schonlein purpura is the most impoant differential. | 2,467 | medmcqa_train |
Train of four is characteristically used in concern with- | Train of four is used for monitoring neuromuscular block during anaesthesia. Fade on TO4 is the characteristic feature of non-depolarising neuromuscular blockage. | 2,468 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest site of lodgement of a pulmonary embolus is in the territory of - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lt. upper lobe | 2,469 | medmcqa_train |
Plummer vinson syndrome is characterised by all except | rare disease characterized by difficulty swallowing, iron-deficiency anemia, glossitis, cheilosis and esophageal webs.Treatment with iron supplementation and mechanical widening of the esophagus generally provides an excellent outcome. | 2,470 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug is an enzyme inducer? | (Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 59; KDT, 6th ed. pg. 27)Enzyme induction involves microsomal enzyme in liver as well as in other organ.It increases the rate of metabolism 2 - 4 fold. Therefore, effect of drug decreases.Enzyme inhibitors also involves microsomal enzyme.It inhibits the microsomal enzyme, which decreases drug metabolism rate and increases duration of drug action.Let us take an example of warfarin, which is used as an anti thrombotic agent.#Warfarin + enzyme inducer = Thrombosis (warfarin metabolism increases and action of warfarin diminishes rapidly and thrombotic condition arises).#Warfarin + enzyme inhibitor = Bleeding (warfarin metabolism decreases and duration of warfarin action increases and patient develops bleeding tendency)Drugs which are enzyme inducers and enzyme inhibitors Enzyme inducersEnzyme inhibitorsGriseofulvinPhenylbutazonePhenytoinErythromycinRifampicinAllopurinol, AmiodaroneSmokingCiprofloxacinCarbamazipineOmeprazolePhenobarbitoneCimetidineBarbiturateKetoconazoleDDTValproateRemembered as: GPRS Cell Phone Battery DeadMn: PEACOCK ValaMost of the anti epileptic are enzyme inducers except VALPROATE (an inhibitor)Most of the antimicrobial are enzyme inhibitors except GRISEOFULVIN (an Inducer) | 2,471 | medmcqa_train |
Trantas spots are seen in – | Tranta's spots (Horner tranta's spots) are discrete white raised dots along the limbus and are composed of degenerated eosinophils. | 2,472 | medmcqa_train |
Haversian system is seen in | * Microscopically, the bone is of five types, namely lamellar (including both compact and cancellous), woven, fibrous, dentine and cement. 1. Lamellar bone: Most of the mature human bones, whether compact or cancellous, are composed of thin plates of bony tissue called lamellae. These are arranged in piles in a cancellous bone, but in concentric cylinders (Haversian system or secondary osteon) in a compact bone. 2. Woven Bone: seen in fetal bone, fracture repair and in cancer of bone 3. Fibrous bone is found in young foetal bones, but are common in reptiles and amphibia. 4. Dentine and 5. Cement occur in teeth. * Compact bone ( coical bone) In shaft (diaphysis) of long bone - lamellae arranged to form Haversian system - Bone marrow Yellow which stores fat after pubey. It is red before pubey - Hard and ivory-like * Cancelled bone spongy, or trabecular bone - In the epiphyses of long bone - arranged in a meshwork, so Haversian systems are not present - bone marrow red, produce RBCs, granular series of WBC and platelets - spongy * Nails are made of a tough protective protein called keratin - consists of the nail plate, the nail matrix and the nail bed below it, and the grooves surrounding it (Reference : BDC Handbook of General Anatomy , 5th edition, pg 39) | 2,473 | medmcqa_train |
A 50-year-old woman presents with easy fatigability, a smooth sore tongue, numbness and tingling of the feet, and weakness of the legs. A complete blood count shows a megaloblastic anemia that is not reversed by folate therapy. Hemoglobin is 5.6 g/dL, WBC count is 5,100/mL, and platelets are 240,000/mL. This patient most likely has a deficiency of which of the following vitamins? | Except for a few rare situations, vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency is usually a result of pernicious anemia, an autoimmune disease of the stomach. Vitamin B12 is required for DNA synthesis, and its deficiency results in large (megaloblastic) nuclei.Diagnosis: Vitamin B12 deficiency, pernicious anemia | 2,474 | medmcqa_train |
Quadrivalent Meningococcal vaccine is not used for? | Ans. (b) Serotype BRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1002* There are currently three vaccines available in the USA to prevent meningococcal disease, all quadrivalent in nature, targeting serogroups A, C, W-135, and Y.* Meningococcal polysaccharide or conjugate vaccines provide no protection against serogroup B disease and MenB vaccines provide no protection against serogroup A, C, W or Y disease. For protection against all 5 serogroups of meningococcus it is necessary to receive both vaccines.* Only recently vaccine targeting serogroup B has also been created and is protein based.TRADE NAMETYPE OF VACCINESEROGROUPS INCLUDEDYEAR LICENSEDAPPROVED AGESMenomunePolysaqccharideA, C, W, Y19812 year and olderMenactraConjugateA, C, W, Y20059 months-55 yearsMenveoConjugateA, C, W, Y20102 months-55 yearsMenHibrixConjugateC, Y, and Hib20126 weeks-18 monthsTrumenbaProteinB201410-25 yearsBexseroProteinB201510-25 years | 2,475 | medmcqa_train |
In systemic form of JIA, all are true EXCEPT: | RA factor may be positive in polyahritis, but not in systemic onset JIA. Systemic form of JIA: High fever with rash Hepatosplenomegaly Elevated ESR Types of JIA Systemic JIA- Systemic involvement seen Oligoaicular- Affects four or fewer joints, often the knee or ankle. Polyaicular ahritis, rheumatoid factor negative Polyaicular ahritis, rheumatoid factor positive Psoriatic ahritis Enthesitis-related ahritis Undifferentiated ahritis | 2,476 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true regarding IUGR ? | All of the above | 2,477 | medmcqa_train |
Duct of Bartholins gland opens | Duct of Bartholins gland opens on the inner side of Labium minus external of hymen. | 2,478 | medmcqa_train |
For shield (mould) in eye tumors which of the following is preferred? | Ans. D. Phosphorous-32Some useful radionuclides used in clinical radiotherapyRadionuclideEnergy Half-life Medical uses* Radium-2260.83mv1625 yearsfor brachytherapy but not used now a days* Cobalt-601.25mv5.4 yearsteletherapy & brachytherapy* Caesium-1370.666mv30 yearsteletherapy & brachytherapy* Iridium-1920.380mv72 daysbrachytherapy only* Iodine-1250.030mv60 daysbrachytherapy* Iodine-1310.61mv8 daysunsealed radioiodine for thyroid cancer Rx* Gold-1980.412mv 2.7 days brachytherapy* Strontium-902.24mv30 yearsfor shield (mould) in eye tumors* Phosphorous-321.71mv14 daysintraperitoneal | 2,479 | medmcqa_train |
Posterior limb of internal capsule is supplied by all except | Recurrent aery of Heubner does not supply posterior limb of internal capsule. Blood supply of internal capsule Anterior Limb Recurrent aery of Heubner Genu Recurrent aery of Heubner Charcot&;s aery (lenticulostriate aery or aery of cerebral hemorrhage) Posterior limb Charcot&;s aery (branch of middle cerebral aery) Anterior choroidal aery (branch of internal carotid aery) Posterolateral branches of posterior cerebral aery. Sublentiform pa Anterior choroidal aery Posterior cerebral aery Retrolentiiform pa Posterolateral branches of posterior cerebral aery Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 286 | 2,480 | medmcqa_train |
In prayer Willi syndrome, which of the following is increased | Ghrelin is a growth hormone secreatagogue and the only gut harmone with orexigenic propey It is primarily produced in the stomach. In children ,it's value is inversely related with body mass index and insulin values. robbins 8/e 441-2 9/e 444 | 2,481 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is associated with Madonna-Putana complex ? | Madonna-Putana complex Psychogenic male erectile disorder Can be organic or psychologic or both. Inability to have arousal towards a woman , the man desires. Men have arousal only with women whom they see as degraded. | 2,482 | medmcqa_train |
Ductus arteriosus closes in response to: | b. Indomethacin therapy(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2197, Ghai 8/e p 417)Indomethacin, a Prostaglandin inhibitor is used in medical closure of Ductus arteriosus. | 2,483 | medmcqa_train |
A person has unprotected sex 3 weeks back, To rule out HIV infection the best test is | Laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection
Laboratory diagnosis is made by:
A. Antibody detection
It is the most common method used for diagnosis of HIV infection.
ELISA is the most sensitive test and therefore is the screening test of choice.
Western blot is the most specific (Confirmatory) test and therefore is the’gold standard’ for diagnosis.
Antibodies test usually nucleic acid or antigen.
B. Detection of HIV nucleic acid or antigen
P24 antigen detection by ELISA can be done 16 days after infection (earlier than antibody detection).
Nucleic acid detection tests are the earliest to become positive (12 days after infection), Most commonly used test is reverse transcriptase PCR, (RT-PCR), other methods used are DNA-PCR, RNA-PCR, RNA-bDNA (branched DNA), and RNA-NASBA (nuclei acid sequenced based assay).
C. Virus isolation
Co-cultivation of the patient’s lymphocyte with uninfected lymphocytes in the presence of IL-2.
Not suitable as a routine diagnostic procedure.
In infected individual HIV can be isolated from
Blood
Semen
Saliva
Urine
Lymphocytes
Cervical secretions
Tears
Breast milk | 2,484 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about vocal cord nodule except: | Ans:B (Commonly occur at Junction of middle & posterior 1/3 ) VOCAL NODULES (SINGER'S OR SCREAMER S NODES)PL Dhingra 6th/303-04# Their size varies from tha t of pin-head to half a peaThey are the result of vocal trauma when person speaks in unnatural low tones for prolonged periods or at high intensitiesThey mostly affect teachers, actors, vendors or pop singers. They are also seen in school going children who are too assertive <PS# talkativePatients complains of hoarseness. Vocal fatigue & pain in the neck on prolonged phonation are other common symptomsEarly cases of vocal nodules can he treated conservatively by educating the patient in proper use of voice. With this treatment, many nodules in children disappear completelySurgery is required for large nodules or nodules of long standing in adults. They are excised with precision under operating microscope either with cold instruments or laser avoiding any trauma to the underlying vocal ligamentSpeech therapy & re-education in voice production are essential to prevent their recurrenceVocal nodules(Singer's or Screamer's nodes): They appear symmetrically on the free edge of vocal cord, at the junction of anterior one-third, with the posterior two-third, as this is the area of maximum vibration of cord & thus subject to maximum trauma P.L. Dhingra 6th/303Fig. .Vocal nodules. Typically, theyr form at the junction of anterior one- third with posterior two-thirds of vocal cards | 2,485 | medmcqa_train |
Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in | Brain abscesses in congenital cyanotic heart diseases occur due to hematogenous seeding of bloodborne bacteria. These blood borne bacteria bypass the pulmonary capillary bed d/t right to left shunt. They commonly infect parietal & frontal lobes (territory of middle cerebral artery). | 2,486 | medmcqa_train |
Beta blockers are indicated in - | Ans. is 'b' Anxiety Antianxiety Drugs areBenzodiazepinesB BlockersBuspironeMeprobamate & Hydroxyzine | 2,487 | medmcqa_train |
All are waterborne diseases except - | Fish tapeworm(Diphyllobothrium latum) Infection is acquired when the person eats undercooked fish containing the parasite and not by drinking water! Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition Ref: 25th Ed K.Park's Textbook Of Preventive and Social Medicine | 2,488 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about Fosphenytoin | Fosphenytoin, a more soluble phosphate prodrug of phenytoin, is well absorbed. Fosphenytoin sodium is available for intravenous or intramuscular use and replaces intravenous phenytoin sodium, a much less soluble form of the drug. Used in generalized Tonic-clonic seizures and paial seizures. Highly bound to plasma proteins.Reference: Katzung Pharmacology; 13th edition; Chapter 24; Antiseizure Drugs | 2,489 | medmcqa_train |
All are duties of a medical practitioner except | Doctor should get informed consent from the patient or his relatives after explaining all procedures and risks before doing a surgery DUTIES OF REGISTERED MEDICAL PRACTITIONER TOWARDS PATIENT 1. Duty to exercise reasonable degree of skill and knowledge. 2. Duties in regard to attendance and examination. 3. Duty to furnish proper and suitable medicines. 4. Duty to give instructions. 5. Duties towards children and adults. 6. Consultation with a specialist. 7. Duties in regard to psychiatric patients. 8. Duties in regard to poisoning. 9. Duty to notify ceain diseases. to. Duties in regard to operative procedures. 11. Duties under Geneva convention. 12. Duties in convention with X-rays. 13. Professional Secrecy. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 377 | 2,490 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug's use alone is to be avoided in a patient with adrenaline producing pheochromocytoma? | Vasomotor Reversal Of Dale - Adrenaline has biphasic effect on blood pressure. - a1 - Strong receptor thus more effect. - b2 - Sensitive receptor thus stimulated at low dose too. When adrenaline is given IV at high doses 1st BP will increase due to stimulation of a1 > b2 & then BP will decrease due to b2 stimulation. When adrenaline is given IV at high dose with a blocker, exaggerated fall of BP occurs called as Vasomotor Reversal of Dale. In adrenaline producing pheochromocytoma, If person is treated by alpha blocker, then this phenomenon will occur and thus death can occur due to severe hypotension. Therefore alpha blocker is always combined with beta blocker in adrenaline producing tumor. | 2,491 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is an Aldosterone antagonist? | (A) Spironolactone > Spironolactone is a steroid chemically related to the mineralocorticoid aldosterone> Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist. | 2,492 | medmcqa_train |
Disinfection by autoclaving is NOT recommended for - | .sterilizers which operate at high temperatures and pressure are called autoclaves.they generate steam under pressure or saturated steam which is the most effective sterilizing agent.they fall in two categories,grvity displacement autoclaves and high speed pre-vaccum autoclaves.works on the same principle as that of a pressure cooker.widely used in the hospital and laboratry practice.it destroys all forms of life,including spores.most effective method for the sterilization of linen,dressings,gloves,syringes,and culture media.not suitable for sterilization of plastic and sharp instruments. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 120 | 2,493 | medmcqa_train |
During bilateral adrenalectomy, intraoperative dose of hydrocoisone should be given after | "Patients undergoing surgery for a primary adrenal adenoma secreting glucocoicoids require preoperative and postoperative steroids due to suppression of the contralateral adrenal gland. Duration of steroid therapy is determined by the ACTH stimulation test. Exogenous steroids may be needed for up to 2 years but are needed indefinitely in patients who have undergone bilateral adrenalectomy. This latter group of patients also may require mineralocoicoid replacement therapy." "Perioperative and postoperative glucocoicoid administration is obviously essential in the care of patients with Cushing's syndrome. For patients undergoing adrenalectomy for Cushing's syndrome, perioperative "stress dose" steroids (hydrocoisone, 100 mg IV every 8 hours for 24 hours) are recommended." | 2,494 | medmcqa_train |
Prolonged apnea may occur in patients with a genetically determined abnormal variant of cholinesterase following intravenous administration of | Both succinylcholine and mivacurium are completely and rapidly eliminated by plasma cholinesterase. Other nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers, such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, and atracurium, are eliminated by renal or hepatic mechanisms or by spontaneous hydrolysis (atracurium). Patients with genetically determined atypical cholinesterase may be detected by measuring the inhibition of cholinesterase by dibucaine, a local anesthetic. Dibucaine inhibits the normal enzyme about 80%, but the abnormal variant is inhibited only 20%. | 2,495 | medmcqa_train |
Which proton pump inhibitor can be used IV ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pantoprazole Pantaprazole - it is more acid stable and has higher oral bioavailability. It is also available for i.v. administration; paicularly employed in bleeding peptic ulcer and for prophylaxis of acute stress ulcers. | 2,496 | medmcqa_train |
A 25-year-old woman with amenorrhea has never had menarche. On physical examination, she is 145 cm (4 ft 9 in) tall. She has a webbed neck, a broad chest, and widely spaced nipples. Strong pulses are palpable in the upper extremities, but there are only weak pulses in the lower extremities. On abdominal MR imaging, her ovaries are small, elongated, and tubular. Which of the following karyotypes is she most likely to have? | The features described are those of classic Turner syndrome. Individuals who reach adulthood may have mosaic cell lines, with some 45, X cells and some 46, XX cells. A female carrier of the fragile X syndrome, X(fra), is less likely to manifest the disease than a male, but the number of triple repeat sequences (CGG) increases in her male offspring. The 47, XXY karyotype occurs in Klinefelter syndrome; affected individuals appear as phenotypic males. The "superfemale" karyotype (XXX) leads to mild mental retardation. Trisomy 16 is a cause of fetal loss early in pregnancy. | 2,497 | medmcqa_train |
ALL are true about Colles fracture except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Garden spade deformity' COLLES FRACTUREo Colles fracture is an extra-articular fracture at the distal end of radius, at its corticocancellous junction. It is the most common fracture in person over 40 years of age and especially in women after menopause (Postmenopausal females). The association of the fracture with osteoporosis is now well established and it is one of the fragility fracture, seen in osteoporosis. The fracture nearly always caused by fall on outstretched hand.Displacement in Colles fractureo The fracture line runs transversely at the corticocancellous junction.o In the majority of the cases, one or more displacements of the distal fragment occuri) Dorsal displacement (Dorsal shift)ii) Dorsal tilt (Dorsal angulation)iii) Lateral displacement (lateral shift)iv) Lateral tilt (lateral angulation)v) Supination (external rotation)vi) Impaction (proximal migration)Clinical features of Colles fractureo Pain and swelling at the wrist.o Typical deformity : There is a dorsal hollow or depression just proximal to the fracture and immediately distal to this there is a marked prominence caused by lower fragment being displaced backwards, carrying with it the whole of the carpus and hand. This gives appearance of a fork, So named dinner fork/ silver fork / spoon shaped deformity.o There is local tenderness.Treatment of colles fractureo Treatment of code's fracture is essentially conservative,o For undisplaced fracture below-elbow cast is given in-situ.o For displaced fractures, the standard method of treatment is to undertake manipulative reduction under local or general anaesthesia.o Technique of closed manipulation involves reversing the typical deformities of Colle's fracture (in following sequence)Disimpaction (by traction) to correct impaction.Palmar flexion & ulnar deviation to correct dorsal tilt / shift and radial tilt / shift.Pronation (internal rotation) :- to correct supination (external rotation),o After reduction below elbow cast is given. | 2,498 | medmcqa_train |
A 70 year old female with psychiatric symptoms diagnosed of having schizophrenia. Which is the poor prognostic factor in schizophrenia? | Predictors of poorer outcome in schizophrenia:Age below 20Dilated ventricles, brain atrophy in CT or MRINegative symptoms (e.g., flat affect, povey of thought, apathy, asociality); obsessive-compulsive symptomsIrregular occupational recordInsidious onsetSlow rate of progressionmalesYears of duration prior to assessmentCannabis useAbsence of precipitating factorsStressful lifeFamily history of schizophrenia (not affective disorder)Presence of other adverse social factorsPrenatal adverse eventsPresence of ceain gene polymorphism, e.g., COMT. NMDA2APRef: Meltzer H.Y., Bobo W.V., Heckers S.H., Fatemi H.S. (2008). Chapter 16. Schizophrenia. In M.H. Ebe, P.T. Loosen, B. Nurcombe, J.F. Leckman (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Psychiatry, 2e. | 2,499 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.