query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
A 16-year-old girl is in your office for a preparticipation sports examination. She plans to play soccer in the fall, and needs her form filled out. Which of the following history or physical examination findings is usually considered a contraindication to playing contact sports? | The preparticipation sports physical examination is important in that it allows the physician to screen patients for potential risks associated with the sport they intend to play. That said, there are few real contraindications to sports participation. Having one eye is typically seen as a contraindication to playing contact sports like football or soccer. There are eye shields available, but in general these children are advised to avoid contact sports. Stable, repaired congenital heart disease; obesity; girls with a single ovary; and controlled diabetics are routinely allowed to participate. Other reasons to recommend against contact sports participation include hemophilia, single kidney, and unexplained syncope (until evaluated). | 159,400 | medmcqa_train |
All contribute to postpaum hemorrhage, except: | Small for date | 159,401 | medmcqa_train |
A patient has prottitetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible Is | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:161 Infective Endocarditis (IE) It is the colonisation of the hea valves with microbiologic organisms, leading to the formation of friable, infected vegetations and frequently valve injury. Types 1. Acute infective endocarditis: Caused by highly virulent organisms mainly S. aureus (20-30%), seeding a previously normal valve. 2. Subacute infective endocarditis: Caused by organisms of moderate or low virulence mainly Streptococci (60-70%), seeding an abnormal or previously injured valve. 3. Endocarditis occurring in IV drug abusers: Caused predominantly by organisms found on the skin (S. aureus, Candida) and affecting the valves on the right side of the hea. 4. Prosthetic valve endocarditis: This may be early (symptoms appearing within 60 days of valve inseion), due to intraoperative infection of the valve or inseion of an infected valve or late (symptoms appearing after 60 days of valve inseion), due to late bacteraemia or earlier infection with microorganisms having a long incubation period. Prosthetic aoic valve is more prone for infective endocarditis than the mitral valve. Right sided IE has a more ourable prognosis than the left sided IE. However, when right sided IE vegetation size exceeds 2 cm, the moality increases. | 159,402 | medmcqa_train |
Common presenting manifestations of Meniere's disease are all except: | (d) Loss of consciousness(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 2, 819)The patient is fully conscious and oriented during an attack of Meniere.Meniere being a disturbance of peripheral vestibular system is therefore not characterised by any focal (such as diplopia, dysarthria, paresthesia, etc.) or generalised neurological symptoms like loss of consciousness, seizures, etc.The neurological symptoms accompany a central vestibular disturbance.However, vertigo of Meniere may be associated with vagal symptoms i.e. diaphoresis, pallor, nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhoea and bradycardia. | 159,403 | medmcqa_train |
What is the T/t of pt with carcinoid tumor of appendix of size more than 2 cm - | Carcinoid tumours * Neuroendocrine tumors - comprise a broad family of tumors, the most common of which are ; - carcinoid tumors (most commonly arising in the lungs and bronchi (so-called bronchopulmonary), small intestine, appendix, rectum, and thymus) and - pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors. - Other less common neuroendocrine tumors include those arising in the parathyroid, thyroid, adrenal, and pituitary glands) . TREATMENT OF CARCINOID SYNDROME Diuretics -- hea failure Bronehodilators -- wheezing Antidiarrhoeal agents, niacin supplementation Somatostatin analogues nwtreolide) -- 100 mg sk 8 hourly -- 3000 mg/ day Before surgery -- 150-250 nig sk 6-8 hrly 24-48 hrs prior to anaesthesia Inhibitors of serolonin synthesis are emerging as a new dam of age. to treat eareinoid syndrome. Telotristat etiprate Right hemicolectiomy Ref: Sabiston 20th Ed. ; Schwaz 11th Ed. | 159,404 | medmcqa_train |
Which parts of cell cycle are fixed in durationa) GIb) G2c) Sd) M | The time taken for S, G2 and M phases are similar for most cell types, occupying about 6, 4 and 2 hours respectively whereas the duration of G1 shows considerable variation as short as 2 hours in rapidly dividing cells i.e., embryonic tissue or longer than 12 hours in some adult tissue. | 159,405 | medmcqa_train |
Infant body weight is tripled by age of – | The average birth weight of neonates is about 3 Kg.
During first few days after birth, the newborn loses extracellular fluid equivalent to about 10% of the body weight.
Most full term infants regain their birth weight by the age of 10 days.
Subsequently, they gain weight at a rate of approximately 25 to 30 gm per day for the first 3 months of life.
Thereafter they gain about 400 gm of weight every month for the remaining part of first year. | 159,406 | medmcqa_train |
Which type of anemia is seen in Rheumatoid ahritis? | Anemia of chronic illness traditionally encompassed any inflammatory, infectious, or malignant disease of a long-standing nature. Includes rheumatoid ahritis, severe trauma, hea disease, or diabetes mellitus. There is primarily a decreased availability of iron, relatively decreased levels of erythropoietin, and a mild decrease in the lifespan of RBCs to 70-80 days. Early onset rheumatoid ahritis with positive rheumatoid factor is more likely to have normocytic normochromic anemia. | 159,407 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most common urethral injury? | Rupture of the bulbar urethra There is a history of a blow to the perineum, usually due to a fall astride injury. The bulbar urethra is crushed upwards onto the pubic bone, typically with significant bruising. Extravasation of urine is common if the urine is not diveed and the extravasated urine is confined in front of the mid-perineal point by the attachment of Colles' fascia to the triangular ligament and by the attachment of Scarpa's fascia just below the inguinal ligament. The external spermatic fascia stops it getting into the inguinal canals. Extravasated urine collects in the scrotum and penis and beneath the deep layer of superficial fascia in the abdominal wall. CLINICAL FEATURES The signs of a ruptured bulbar urethra are perineal bruising and haematoma, typically with a butterfly distribution. There is usually bleeding from the urethral meatus and retention of urine is also typically present. MANAGEMENT If the diagnosis is suspected, the patient should be treated with appropriate analgesia and antibiotics should be administered. He should be discouraged from passing urine. A full bladder should be drained with a catheter placed by percutaneous suprapubic puncture using a Seldinger technique . This reduces urinary extravasation and allows investigations to establish the extent of the urethral injury. Diagnosis is made by urethrography using water-soluble contrast. If there is significant extravasation, then the perineal collection should be drained. The suprapubic catheter should remain in situ while the bruising and extravasation settle down and a stricture will typically develop at the site of the injury. The optimal treatment is delayed anastomotic urethroplasty after the swelling and bruising have settled down (typically 8-12 weeks later), with excision of the traumatised section and spatulated end-to-end reanastomosis of the urethra. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1479 | 159,408 | medmcqa_train |
Strawberry appearance is seen in | Rhinosporidiosis caused by rhinosporidium seeberi, mostly affects nose and nasopharynx, other sites such as lip, conjunctiva, epiglottis, larynx, trachea, bronchi, skin, vulva and vagina. In the nose, the disease is presented as leafy, polypoidal mass, pink to purple in colour and attached to the nasal septum or lateral wall.
The mass is very vascular and bleeds too easily to touch. Its surface is studded with white dots representing the sporangia of fungus. hence giving it a "strawberry " appearance. | 159,409 | medmcqa_train |
Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by a doctor, staff or hospital is | Therapeutic misadventure is a mischance or an accident or a disaster. Therapeutic misadventure is a case in which n individual has been injured or had died due to some unintentional act by a doctor or agent of the doctor or hospital. Vicarious liability is liability for act of others i.e. an employer is responsible not only for his own negligence but also for the negligence of his employee by the principle of respondent superior (let the master answer), provided there (1) Must be employer-employee relationship, (2) While on job, (3) Employee conduct within the job of employment. Therapeutic privilege is an Exception to the rule of 'full disclosure' i.e. the doctor can use his discretion as to the facts that he discloses or of not telling the patient about the risks involved in treatment or about the diagnosis, e.g. in cases where patient is fearful, emotionally disturbed, psychotic or psycho-neurotic. The doctor should carefully note his decision in the patient's records mentioning the reasons. Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology; 5th ed; Page no: 189 | 159,410 | medmcqa_train |
Following protein is not found in organ of coi ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Microtubule associated protein 4 Proteins present in cochlea Actin-binding and microtubule-associated proteins regulate microfilament and microtubule number, length, organization and location in cells. In freeze-dried preparations of the guinea pig cochlea, both actin and tubulin are found in the sensory and suppoing cells of the organ of Coi. Fodrin (brain spectrin) co-localized with actin in the cuticular plates of both inner and outer hair cells and along the lateral wall of the outer hair cells. Alpha-actinin co-localized with actin in the cuticular plates of the hair cells and in the head and foot plates of the suppoing cells. It was also found in the junctional regions between hair cells and suppoing cells. o Profilin co-localized with actin in the cuticular plates of the sensory hair cells. Myosin was detected only in the cuticular plates of the outer hair cells and in the suppoing cells in the region facing endolymph. Gelsolin was found in the region of the nerve fibers. Tubulin is found in microtubules in all cells of the organ of Coi. In suppoing cells, microtubules are bundled together with actin microfilaments and tropomyosin, as well as being present as individual microtubules arranged in networks. An intensely stained network of microtubules is found in both outer and inner sensory hair cells. The microtubules in the outer hair cells appear to course throughout the entire length of the cells, and based on their staining with antibodies to the tyrosinated form of tubulin they appear to be more dynamic structures than the microtubules in the suppoing cells. The microtubule-associated protein MAP-2 is present only in outer hair cells within the organ of Coi and co-localizes with tubulin in these cells. No other MAPs (1,3,4,5) are present. Tau is found in the nerve fibers below both inner and outer hair cells and in the osseous spiral lamina. | 159,411 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is the commonest site of fracture of mandible? | The commonest site of the mandible is condylar process followed by angle, body and symphysis of mandible (Mnemonics - CABS). | 159,412 | medmcqa_train |
A 59-vear-old man with type 2 diabetes goes for a screening eve examination. The ophthalmologist reports that the patient has developed non-proliferative retinopathy. (List the findings.)For the above patient with a complication of diabetes, select the most likely diagnosis or findings. | Background retinopathy is present in about 90% of diabetes after 25-30 years of disease. Microaneurysms, dilated veins, dot and blot hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates are common findings. | 159,413 | medmcqa_train |
P4 pf vagina during reproductive life is | Vaginal secretion is acidic during reproductive life which is oestrogen dependent, and inhibits growth of pathogenic organisms. | 159,414 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are not true with respect to erythema multiforme except ? | Erythema multiforme Known cause MC- Viral infection, commonly Herpes simplex > Mycoplasma Drugs : antiepileptic, antibiotics,anti gout, anti retroviral etc. Other : (antimalarial >Leukemia) Unknown cause : Idiopathic C/f: Target/ iris /bulls eye lesion are seener CAUTION : ALL ARE NOT TRUE ; MEANS ALL ARE FALSE EXCEPT i.e TRUE STATEMENT IS !!! | 159,415 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest cause of hirsutism in a teenage girl : | Ans. is a i.e. Ovarian disease As explained earlier PCOD is the most common cause of hirsutism. PCOD most common affects teenage girls (15 - 25 years). Therefore, In teenage girls most common cause of hirsutism is PCOD. | 159,416 | medmcqa_train |
Most common pattern of Joint involvement in psoriatic arthropathy | Asymmetrical inflammatory Oligoarthritis - Most common pattern. | 159,417 | medmcqa_train |
In transmission of malaria, mosquito bite transfers? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sporozoite Sporozoites are infective to man. Human infection begins when a female anopheline mosquito inoculates plasmodial sporozoites from its salivary gland during a blood meal. | 159,418 | medmcqa_train |
Osteoradionecrosis occurs at a dose of: | Life-Long threat:
Hyposalivation
Radiation caries
Occurs 3 months after expose (PG1)
Trismus
Osteoradionecrosis > 70 Gy | 159,419 | medmcqa_train |
Antigen binding site in immunoglobulin is | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypervariable region | 159,420 | medmcqa_train |
Which is true about Sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG): | And. A. Binds testosterone with a higher affinity than estradiolSex hormone-binding globulin binds to both testosterone and estradiol, but it binds with higher affinity to testosterone. The bioactivity of testosterone is reduced by SHBG because testosterone cannot bind to its receptor when bound by SHBG. SHBG increases the circulating half-life of testosterone by slowing the clearance and metabolism of testosterone. SHBG does not alter the secretion of inhibin or androgen-binding protein, area | 159,421 | medmcqa_train |
Sq. cell tumor of urinary bladder is due to -a) Stoneb) Schistosomiasisc) Chr. cystitisd) Diabetes mellitus | Risk factors for squamous cell ca of bladder
Schistosoma haematobium
it's a risk factor for both TCC & sq. cell ca, but more for sq. cell ca.
Chronic irritation from urinary calculi, long term indwelling catheters, chronic urinary infections
Bladder diverticula | 159,422 | medmcqa_train |
The important fatty acid present in breast milk which is important for growth is – | Up to 5-10% of fatty acids in human milk are polyunsaturated. Most of these are linoleic acid with smaller amounts of linolenic acid.
Linoleic acid → gives rise to Arachidonic acid
Linolenic acid → gives rise to Docosahexaenoic acid
Docosahexaenoic acid is found in human milk and brain lipids and is required for the development of our nervous system and visual abilities during the first six months of life.
Lack of sufficient Docosahexaenoic acid may be associated with impaired mental and visual functioning as well as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. | 159,423 | medmcqa_train |
Lesion is Alzheimer's disease are commonest at | Nucleus basalis of Meyne for Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease dementia. The nucleus basalis of Meyne (NBM) is a large source of cholinergic innervation to widespread coical areas. There have been two repos of DBS of the NBM for either AD or PD. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | 159,424 | medmcqa_train |
Untrue about articular cartilage is | In synovial joints (like temporomandibular and sterno-clavicular) the articular surfaces are lined by fibro-cartilage instead of hyaline cartilage.
Hyaline cartilage loses the tendency to ossify with age as it takes the role of articular cartilage
Hyaline cartilage also loses the perichondrium, as it becomes articular cartilage | 159,425 | medmcqa_train |
Smoking is not a risk factor for ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alzhiemers disease Smoking is not a risk factor for the development of alzhiemers disease | 159,426 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is true about Caplan's syndrome? | Caplan's syndrome also known as rheumatoid pneumoconiosis or rheumatoid lung. It occurs in patients with both rheumatoid ahritis (usually seropositive patients) and pneumoconiosis related to mining dust (coal, asbestos, and silica) exposure and consists of multiple rounded nodules in the lung. Ref: Harrison's 17th ed chapter 314 ; Rheumatology and Immunology Therapy: A to Z Essentials edited by Larry W. Moreland, 2004, Page 186. | 159,427 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is an anaerobic bacteria? | Corynebacterium diphtheriae is an aerobic and facultative anaerobic gram positive rod that appear club shaped. They are arranged in V or L shaped formations. The rods have a beaded appearance and the beads consist of granules of highly polymerized polyphosphate. These granules stain metachromatically. It is transmitted through airborne droplets. It can also infect the skin at the site of a preexisting skin lesion. It produces a toxin which inhibits protein synthesis by ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (EF-2). It can be cultured on Loeffler's medium, a tellurite plate, and a blood agar plate. The typical gray-black color of tellurium in the colony is a telltale diagnostic criterion. Methylene blue staining shows tapered, pleomorphic gram-positive rods and it can also reveal the typical metachromatic granules. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 17. Gram-Positive Rods. In W. Levinson (Ed),Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | 159,428 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest presentation of Hodgkin's lymphoma is - | Most patients present with palpable lymphadenopathy that is nontender; in most patients, these lymph nodes are in the neck, supraclavicular area, and axilla. More than half the patients will have mediastinal adenopathy at diagnosis, and this is sometimes the initial manifestation. Subdiaphragmatic presentation of Hodgkin's disease is unusual and more common in older males." - Harrison | 159,429 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not included in the SAFE strategy? | In order to deal with the blindness caused by trachoma, the WHO has declared the SAFE strategy which includes the following: S - Surgery A - Antibiotics F - Facial hygiene ( Face washing) E - Environmental modification Surveillance is not included in the SAFE strategy. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 19th edition; pages 258 - 260; Parson's Textbook of Ophthalmology 19th Edition, Page 595 | 159,430 | medmcqa_train |
A 42-year-old man with sexual interest in children (pedophilia) is given an electric shock each time he is shown a videotape of children. Later, he feels tense around children and avoids them. Which of the following management techniques does this example illustrate? | The management technique described here is aversive conditioning, in which a maladaptive but pleasurable stimulus (for this man, sexual interest in children) is paired with painful stimulus (e.g., a shock) so that the two become associated. Flooding - Type of behavioral therapy in which maximum stimulus is given in first exposure. Biofeedback - Uses principle of operant conditioning Useful in disorders which are caused by autonomic dysfunction such as tension headache Eg use of EMG to control muscle tone in disorders such as Bruxism. | 159,431 | medmcqa_train |
Compared to conventional amalgams, spherical amalgams: | Amalgams made from lathe-cut powders or admixed powders tend to resist condensation better than amalgams made entirely from spherical powders. Since freshly triturated amalgams from spherical powders are very plastic, one cannot rely on the pressure of condensation to establish a proximal contour for a class II restoration. Spherical alloys require less mercury than typical lathe-cut alloys because spherical alloy powder has a smaller surface area per volume ratio than does the lathe-cut powder. Amalgams with low mercury content generally have better properties. Spherical alloys also require less compaction forces and have lower setting times.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 343 | 159,432 | medmcqa_train |
A patient has the pink papules and plaques over genital. What serotype of human papilloma virus (HPV) is the most likely cause? | C/o of Anogenital was- cause by HPV 6 HPV type Associated clinical conditions 1 (m/c) Deep plantar and palmar was 2 (m/c) Superficial plantar was 3 Plane was 4 Common was, plantar was 5 Epidermo dysplasia verruciformis 6 (m/c) Laryngeal was, Anogenital was 7 (m/c) Butcher wa Mnemonic: DSP- CELB | 159,433 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following factors evaluate the chances of amputation in a limb, except | D i.e. Presence of infection Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) can be used as predictor of eventual amputation versus limb salvageQ. Higher the score lower the chances of salvage i.e. higher score has higher chances of amputation. However recent studies have shown it to be inaccurate in predicting the functional outcome for mangled limb patient* Factors in evaluation of MESS are : Mn- " Shocked SIA" | 159,434 | medmcqa_train |
All are vectors except - | Ticks are the vectors of Q fever, relapsing fever, KFD, Tularemia Mosquito are the vectors of malaria, filaria, Japanese encephalitis, dengue, chikungunya Flies are the vectors of typhoid, diarrhoea,dysentery, cholera, gastroenteritis, anthrax, yaws. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 833,834 | 159,435 | medmcqa_train |
'STEPS' is recommended by WHO as a method for: | From 2005, WHO introduced stepwise approach to surveillance of noncommunicable disease risk factors termed STEPS, as a pa of global surveillance strategy aiming to monitor emerging patterns and trends worldwide and contain and reduce noncommunicable diseases. Ref: Commonwealth Health Ministers Update, 2011 By Philip D Ose, Page 43; Epidemiology and Demography in Public Health By Japhet Killewo, Pages 99-100 | 159,436 | medmcqa_train |
Twelve elderly residents living in an assisted care facility suffered from sinusitis, otitis media, and mild pneumonias during midwinter. Despite the fact that they had all received the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine recently licensed for adults, S. pneumoniae was isolated from 10 of the patients. Which of the following is the best explanation for the pneumococcal infections? | There are more than 90 capsular immunotypes of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Immunity to S. pneumoniae is conveyed by antibodies against the specific capsular type. Vaccines have been formulated to contain the most commonly isolated capsular types. Originally, the S. pneumoniae conjugated vaccine contained seven serotypes. Unfortunately, the serotype replacement phenomenon occurred in which a nonvaccine strain began to cause disease among the vaccinated population. Over time this lead to the licensing of a 13-valent pneumococcal conjugated vaccine (PCV-13), which was recommended for children. A 23-valent nonconjugated vaccine (PV-23) was developed for children over age 2 and adults who are at risk for the disease. Recent research showed that older adults vaccinated with PCV-13 elaborated higher protective antibody titers than those immunized with PV-23. PCV-13 has now been licensed for adults 50 and older. The failure of the vaccine to protect these individuals is most likely due to the replacement phenomenon-the capsular type responsible was not present in the vaccine (c). Elderly patient do mount good immune responses to vaccines so (a) is not the likely cause. Some patients will not respond to the vaccine (b), but the effectiveness of the vaccine is higher than 17% (10/12, the number of patients who became infected). In fact, recent analyses of strains causing illness in those over 65 suggest that over 70% of the cases of invasive pneumococcal disease are covered by PCV-13. It is unlikely that the vaccine was defective (d), although this can occur. | 159,437 | medmcqa_train |
Most number of false positives by a screening test is because of? | ANSWER: (D) Low prevalenceREF: Park 20ch edition page 128More prevalent disease gives less is the number of false positiveLess prevalent disease gives more is the number of false positiveHighly specific screening test gives few false positiveHighly sensitive screening test gives few false negative | 159,438 | medmcqa_train |
Residual chlorine of water should be: | Principles of chlorination:
The "chlorine demand" of the water should be estimated. The chlorine demand of the water is the difference between the amount of chlorine added to the water and the amount of residual chlorine remaining at the end of a specific period of contact at a given temperature and pH of the water.
The minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5 mg/liter for one hour. The free residual chlorine provides a margin of safety against subsequent microbial contamination which may occur during storage and distribution.
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
Soben Peter
5th edition | 159,439 | medmcqa_train |
The cardiac marker that is elevated the earliest in a case of Myocardial Infarction, among the following is - | Ans- C Myoglobin | 159,440 | medmcqa_train |
luorescence is used in assessment of levels of which hormone commonly - | (A) (Thyroid) (Internet)Fluoroscopy is used in assessment of all the hormones.Fluorescence spectroscopy aka fluorometry or spectrofluorometry, is a type of electromagnetic spectroscopy which analyzes fluoescence from a sample. It involves using a beam of light, usually ultraviolet light that excites the electrons in molecules of certain compounds and causes them to emit light; typically, but not necessarily, visible light. A complementary technique isabsorption spectroscopy.Although the RIA technique is extremely sensitive and extremely specific, requiring specialized equipment, it remains among the least expensive methods to perform such measurements. It requires special precaution and licensing, since radioactive substances are used. The unique ability of RIA to measure small molecules can nowadays be achieved in many cases by non-radioactive methods such as ELISA, where the antigen-antibody reaction is measured using colorimetric, such as absorbance, fluorescence intensity or polarization. This, combined with the usual sandwich configuration of ELISA requiring two domains of an analyte to be present to generate a signal, has led to many assays being developed for ELISA instead of RIA or for RIA assays to be replaced by ELISA. | 159,441 | medmcqa_train |
How do you manage an established freys syndrome? | MANAGEMENT OF ESTABLISHED FREY'S SYNDROMEAntiperspirants, usually containing aluminium chloride;Denervation by tympanic neurectomy;The injection of botulinum toxin into the affected skin.PreventionTechniques described to prevent Frey's syndrome following parotidectomy. These include:Sternomastoid muscle flap;Temporalis fascial flap;Inseion of aificial membranes between the skin and the parotid bed.Ref: Bailey and love, page no: 795 | 159,442 | medmcqa_train |
Combination of fixed dilated pupil with iris atrophy and secondary glaucoma following penetrating keratoplasty is: | Typical symptoms of Urrets zavalia, after corneal transplant in keratoconus surgery. URRETS ZAVALIA SYNDROME * Fixed dilated pupil unresponsive to pilocarpine * Iris atrophy due to iris ischemia Multiple posterior synechiae * Seen in post corneal transplantation in Keratoconus * Elevated IOP a risk factor Use of mydriatics is also considered as a risk factor | 159,443 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for Pneumocystis Pneumonia | Cotrimoxazole is Doc for Pneumocystis Pneumonia. | 159,444 | medmcqa_train |
Most common type of shock in surgical practice:- | Most common type of shock in surgical practice is hypovolemic shock. HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK Causes of hypovolemic shock: Blood lossQ(Trauma, bleeding) Loss of plasma due to extravascular fluid sequestration in burnsQ Loss of body sodium & water (diarrhea & vomitingQ) | 159,445 | medmcqa_train |
Extremely pruritic excoriation & papules on buttocks with autoantibodies against epidermal transglutaminase and IgA deposition in dermis on immunohistological examination of normal perilesional skin. Diagnosis is – | Following information suggest the diagnosis of dermatitis herpetiformis.
Extremely pruritic
Paulo - excoriation
Buttock involved
Antibodies against epidermal transglutaminase
IgA deposition in dermis | 159,446 | medmcqa_train |
The most definitive clinical sign of pregnancy is : | Fetal hea sounds | 159,447 | medmcqa_train |
Conservative surgical treatment of PPH includes | Ans. a (Internal iliac artery ligation). (Ref. Dutta, Obstetrics 4th/ 447, Williams, Obstertrics, 21st/620, 635)Traditionally, postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) has been defined as the loss of 500 mL of blood or more after completion of the third stage of labor. This is unreasonable, because nearly half of all women who are delivered vaginally shed that amount of blood or more when measured quantitatively. After the first 24 hours it is designated late postpartum hemorrhage.Scheme for the management of true PPH:# If uterus is flabby:- Massage uterus- IV methergin (Drug of choice) - MH 2006- Oxytocin- Bladder catheterization- Examine expelled placenta# Bleeding Unresponsive to Oxytocics: Following management should be initiated immediately:- Use bimanual uterine compression- Begin blood transfusions- Explore the uterine cavity manually for retained placental fragments or lacerations.- If still flabby, hot uterine douche and intrauterine packing and- If this fails, either hysterectomy or bilateral ligation of anterior division of internal iliac arteries (in exceptional cases as an alternative to hysterectomy). | 159,448 | medmcqa_train |
A patient is suspected to have vestibular schwannoma the investigation of choice for its diagnosis is: | Ans. B (Gadolinium enhanced MRI) Vestibular schwannoma (VS) - arise from inferior vestibular division of eight nerve as from the auditory division a. MRI with gadolinium is the current standard for screening for suspected vestibular schwannomas because of the high false negative rate associated with BSERA Treatment Under 65 years - small intracranial tumors (within the internal auditory canal) may be surgically removed through the transmastoid labyrinthine route a. Larges tumors (> 3 cm) are associated with increased incidence of hearing loss, dysequilibrium, headache facial numbness, and diplopia are removed a suboccipital craniotomy b. Huge ones can only be removed combined suboccipital and translabyrinthine approach Over age 65 with slowly growing tumors, observation is the proffered treatment. | 159,449 | medmcqa_train |
Sudden painful diminition of vision in
Anterior Uveitis is due to | Due to ciliary muscle spasm, convexity of lens increases leading to blurred vision and pain due to spasm. | 159,450 | medmcqa_train |
In poal hypeension the sites of poosystemic anastomosis includes | In poal hypeension the sites of poosystemic anastomosis includes lower end of esophagus, around umbilicus, lower third of rectum and anal canal, posterior abdominal wall, bare area of liver Poosystemic anastomosis Location Poal component Systemic component Esophagus(lower end) esophageal varices Left gastric vein Azygous vein and accessory hemiazygous vein Rectum and anal canal hemorrhoids Superior rectal vein Middle and Inferior rectal vein Umbilicus caput medusae Left branch of poal vein(paraumbilical branches) Superficial (superior and Inferior) epigastric veins Posterior abdominal wall Colic and omental veins Retro peritoneal veins of abdominal wall, renal capsule, splenic and hepatic flexure Bare area of liver Hepatic venues, right branch of poal vein Phrenic and intercostal veins, Retro peritoneal veins draining into lumbar, Azygous and hemiazygous veins Liver(rarely) Patent ducts venous, Left branch of poal vein Inferior vena cava | 159,451 | medmcqa_train |
In case of rape victim vaginal swab is taken within? | According to the Guidelines (given by Ministry of Health and family welfare for rape victim examination): Vaginal swab should be taken within 72hrs , after this time period chances of demonstration of sperm (which might be a potential evidence) are very less. | 159,452 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a manifestation of 22q11 mutation syndrome? | Chromosome 22q11.2 deletion syndrome encompasses a spectrum of disorders that result from a small deletion of band q11.2 on the long arm of chromosome 22. It is also called as Velocardiofacial syndrome or DiGeorge syndrome It is characterized by Dysmorphogenesis of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches resulting in following features: C: Cardiac anomaly/cono-truncal anomaly A:Abnormal facies T: Thymic hypoplasia/T cell abnormality C: Cleft palate H: Hypocalcemia 22: Chromosome 22 | 159,453 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about medulloblastoma except? | Medulloblastoma occurs exclusively in the cerebellum. | 159,454 | medmcqa_train |
A 40-year-old man complains of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and cramping abdominal pain. His temperature is 38degC , blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse rate 90/minute. On physical examination, the patient appears dehydrated, with sunken eyeballs, dry tongue, and poor skin turgor. Hyperpigmentation is noted in the palmar creases and the gingival margins. Laboratory results include fasting serum glucose of 62 mg/dL, BUN of 27 mg/dL, Na of 122 mEq/L, and K of 6.5 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms? | - Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of Primary chronic adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease). - MCC of addison disease in developed countries - Autoimmunity - MCC of addison disease in developing countries like India - Tuberculosis - It is fatal wasting disorder caused by failure of adrenal glands to produce glucocoicoids, mineralocoicoids & androgens. - If untreated, Addison disease is characterized by weakness, weight loss, gastrointestinal symptoms, hypotension, electrolyte disturbances & hyperpigmentation. | 159,455 | medmcqa_train |
Internucleosomal cleavage of DNA is characteristic of: | . Apoptosis | 159,456 | medmcqa_train |
An 8-year-old child has had abdominal pain and dark urine for 10 days. Physical examination shows blotchy purple skin lesions on the trunk and extremities. Urinalysis shows hematuria and proteinuria. Serologic test results are negative for MPO-ANCA (P-ANCA) and PR3-ANCA (C-ANCA). A skin biopsy specimen shows necrotizing vasculitis of small dermal vessels. A renal biopsy specimen shows immune complex deposition in glomeruli, with some IgA-rich immune complexes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | In children, Henoch-Schonlein purpura is the multisystemic counterpart of the IgA nephropathy seen in adults. The immune complexes formed with IgA produce the vasculitis that affects mainly arterioles, capillaries, and venules in the skin, gastrointestinal tract, and kidney. In older adults, giant cell arteritis is seen in external carotid branches, principally the temporal artery unilaterally. Polyarteritis nodosa is seen most often in small muscular arteries and sometimes veins, with necrosis and microaneurysm formation followed by scarring and vascular occlusion. This occurs mainly in the kidney, gastrointestinal tract, and skin of young to middle-aged adults. Takayasu arteritis is seen mainly in children and involves the aorta (particularly the arch) and branches such as coronary and renal arteries, with granulomatous inflammation, aneurysm formation, and dissection. Telangiectasias are small vascular arborizations seen on the skin or mucosal surfaces. | 159,457 | medmcqa_train |
A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of several weeks of fever, abdominal pain, weight loss, and lack of energy. Three days prior to the assessment, she developed a left foot drop. Her blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg, pulse 80/min, and the physical examination confirms left peroneal nerve damage and a bilateral sensory neuropathy in both legs. There are no skin rashes. Laboratory evaluation reveals an ESR of 105 mm/h, WBC of 14,000/mL, and negative serologic tests for antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) and ANA. The eosinophil count is normal, and urinalysis is negative for casts, protein, and red cells. A clinical diagnosis of polyarteritis nodosa is made. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism for renal injury in this condition? | This patient has polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) and in classic PAN, unlike microscopic polyangiitis, both small and medium vessels are involved. The renal lesions are ischemic secondary to fibrinoid necrosis of the vessels. In microscopic polyangiitis, a diffuse glomerulonephritis is frequently present. The most common organ systems involved are the kidneys, musculoskeletal system, and peripheral nervous system. | 159,458 | medmcqa_train |
Most common type of renal stone is: March 2013 (d) | Ans. A i.e. Calcium Phosphate | 159,459 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice in amoebic liver abscess is | (A) Metronidazole # Metronidazole acts directly on the trophozoites of E. histolytica. Because of high concentration in liver extensively small amounts of drug (800 mg, TDS X 5-10 days) effective in Amoebic Liver Abscess. | 159,460 | medmcqa_train |
WHO immunization evaluation coverage survey is normally done in what age group? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 12-23 months WHO used 30 x 7 technique (total = 210 children) for cluster sampling in which there are 30 clusters, each containing 7 childrenwho are 12 - 23 months old and are completely immunized for primary immunization (till measles vaccine at 9 month). | 159,461 | medmcqa_train |
Pseudokidney sign' on USG is seen in | Ans. CA stomach | 159,462 | medmcqa_train |
Robe Koch assistant advised him to use agar instead of gelatin for solidifying culture media for cultivation of bacteria because | Gelatin was the substance originally used to gel culture media. However, gelatin is liquid at 35oC., the optimum temperature for many bacteria. In addition, some bacteria are capable of liquifying the gelatin, making it an unsuitable solidifying agent. Agar has neither of these drawbacks. Agar is preferred over gelatin, as it is bacteriologically ine, melts at 98degC and usually solidifies at 42degC. | 159,463 | medmcqa_train |
Super imposition technique is used in : | A i.e. Skull | 159,464 | medmcqa_train |
True about citrate in ORS | In WHO ORS, sodium bicarbonate has been replaced by trisodium citrate: –
Makes the product more stable –
Results in less stool output (especially in high-output diarrhoea like cholera) as it increases intestinalabsorption of sodium and water | 159,465 | medmcqa_train |
Isolation period should be - | Isolation is defined as the period of communicability of infected person or animals from others in such places and such strict conditions as to prevent or limit the indirect transmission of the infectious agent from those infected to those who are susceptible or who may spread the agent to others (refer pgno:120 park 23 rd edition) | 159,466 | medmcqa_train |
Dangerous area of eye: | A i.e. Ciliary body | 159,467 | medmcqa_train |
Hummingbird sign in brain MRI is seen in ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Progressive supranuclear palsyHummingbird sign on brain MRI is a radiological sign of progressive supranuclear palsy. | 159,468 | medmcqa_train |
Earliest radiological change in RHEUMATOID AHRITIS is ? | REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | 159,469 | medmcqa_train |
Hypopigmented patches are seen in | Nevus anemicus presents as a single or multiple patches of hypopigmentation with ill-defined margins merging into normal skin present at bih or thereafter. Nevus anemicus presents as congenital hypopigmented patches with a well-defined border. They are asymptomatic and typically seen on the upper trunk, although they have also repoed on the face and extremities. The distribution of hair, formation of sweat, and skin sensation are unaffected by nevus anemicus (Ref: harrison.20th edition pg 1267 | 159,470 | medmcqa_train |
A premature infant is more likely than a full-term infant to – | The liver of premature (preterm) neonate is functionally immature that leads to hypoglycemia, hyperbilirubinemia (jaundice) and poor detoxification of drugs.
Problems of preterm Premature babies
Birth asphyxia
Hypothermia
Feeding difficulties
Infections
Respiratory distress
ARDS (Hyaline membrane dis)
Hyperbilirubinemia
Apenia
Intraventricular haemorrhage
Hypocalcemia
Necrotising enterocolitis
Metabolic acidosis
Hypoglycemia
Hypoproteinemia
Note - Problems of preterm small for date babies include problems of both i.e. problems of preterm and problems of small for date. | 159,471 | medmcqa_train |
Least post translational modification occurs in | D i.e. Prokaryotic mRNA | 159,472 | medmcqa_train |
In myasthenia gravis, antibodies are present against:September 2012 | Ans. B i.e. Nicotinic receptor proteinsMyasthenia gravisIt is an autoimmune neuromuscular disease leading to fluctuating muscle weakness and fatigability.It is an autoimmune disorder, in which weakness is caused by circulating antibodies that block acetylcholine receptors at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction, inhibiting the excitatory effects of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine on nicotinic receptors throughout neuromuscular junctions.Myasthenia is treated medically with acetylcholinesterase inhibitors or immunosuppressants, and, in selected cases,thymectomy. | 159,473 | medmcqa_train |
Mineral oils are used in mosquito control measure as - | Mineral oils are used as chemical control against mosquito larvae. The mineral oil application to water is the oldest method to control mosquito. oils used are diesel oil, fuel oil, kerosene oil, and crude oils. Special mosquito larvicidal oils are also available. Oil kills larvae and pupae within a sho time after application. When applied on water oil spreads and forms a thin film, which cuts off the air supply to mosquito larvae and pupae. Since the life cycle of a mosquito is about 8 days, its customary to apply oil once in a week on all breeding places. Other anti-larval measures include source reduction, using Paris green, and synthetic insecticides. Biological control with larvivorous fishes like Gambusia and Lebister. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 832 | 159,474 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with congenital nephrotic syndrome requires which of the following procedures? | Congenital nephrotic syndrome is a very rare form of nephrotic syndrome. It occurs predominantly in families of Finnish origin and manifests sholy after bih. It is an inherited disorder. The condition is caused by a defect in the protein nephrin. Requires renal biopsy for diagnosis. | 159,475 | medmcqa_train |
A woman presents with a thick curdy -- white vaginal discharge. The best treatment for her is : | Miconazole | 159,476 | medmcqa_train |
Iodised salt is given in an area endemic to Goiter. Type of prevention: | Ans. (b) Specific protectionRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 41, 370-73* Iodised salt is given in an area which has risk of developing goiter. This is a primary level of prevention done by specific protection.* Primordial prevention is done before the emergence of risk factor. | 159,477 | medmcqa_train |
Modified Ziehl-neelsen staining is used for: | Ans. is. 'd' i. e., All of the above | 159,478 | medmcqa_train |
Type of Collagen in Hyaline Cartilage is | Types of Collagen in different tissues
Type I - Bone, skin
Type II - Hyaline and elastic Cartilage
Type III - Skin, ligament, blood vessels
Type IV - Basement membrane in various tissue
Type V - Blood vessel wall, Synovium, corneal stroma | 159,479 | medmcqa_train |
Flaying is seen in which type of laceration - | The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s.narayan reddy ;28th edition ; Pg.no. 110 & 111 . Flaying comes under avulsion .The shearing & grinding force by a weight ,such as lorry wheel passing over a limb ,may produce seperation of skin from underlying tissue (avulsion ) over a relatively large area .This is called "FLAYING" .The underlying muscles are crushed and the bones are fractured . | 159,480 | medmcqa_train |
Site of action of vecuronium is - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Myoneural junction Vecuronium is a nondepolarizing (competitive) neuromuscular blocker. The site of action is the end plate of skeletal muscles (End plate is thickened poion of muscle membrane at neuromuscular junction). | 159,481 | medmcqa_train |
FALSE about Leprosy eradication programme is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Long term multidrug therapy o In leprosy eradication programme the multidrug therapy is not long term but sho term therapy. o Shoer therapy has added advantage of patient compliance, cost-effectiveness and decreased work load. | 159,482 | medmcqa_train |
The intermediate syndrome in organophosphorus poisoning refers to the occurence of which of the following? | Intermediate Syndrome: This has been repoed in some patients and is characterized by weakness of the upper extremities and neck musculature, cranial nerve palsies and secondary respiratory arrest. It may occur between 24 and 96 hours after ingestion.Delayed Neuropathy: May sometimes occur 1-4 weeks after exposure. The symptoms occur distally and progress proximally. The neuropathy is usually mixed with the patients complaining paraesthesias and motor weakness.Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg:533 | 159,483 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following inhalational agents has the maximum blood gas solubility coefficient? | Blood-gas paition coefficient, also known as Ostwald coefficient for blood-gas, is a term used in pharmacology to describe the solubility of inhaled general anesthetics in blood. The coefficient is defined as the ratio of the concentration in blood to the concentration in gas that is in contact with that blood when the paial pressure in both compaments is equal. It is inversely propoional to the induction rate. It determines the onset of induction and recovery. anesthetic blood gas solubility Nitrous oxide 0.47 Halothane 2.4 Isoflurane 1.4 Sevoflurane 0.65 Desflurane 0.45 Methoxyflurane 12 Enflurane 1.9 | 159,484 | medmcqa_train |
Blood form of folic acid is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Methyl THE Folic acid is absorbed in the jejunum. Following absorption, folic acid is transpoed in blood by two (3-globulins. The major circulating form is methyltetrahydrofolate and the normal concentration range is 5-15 ng/ml. Once it arrives in the liver, the methyl derivates are taken up by hepatocytes where various coenzyme are produced. o Folic acid is not stored in the body. Remembers Major circulating form of folic acid --0 methyl THE Major point of entery for 1 carbon transfer by substitued folate -4 methylene THE | 159,485 | medmcqa_train |
A female comes with normal breast development but scanty pubic hair. What is the most likely diagnosis ? | Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS), formerly known as testicular feminization, is an X-linked recessive condition resulting in a failure of normal masculinization of the external genitalia in chromosomally male individuals. Adolescent patients have no pubic and axillary hair, with otherwise scanty body hair, and lack acne, although breasts are normal as a result of conversion of testosterone to estradiol. Mullerian agenesis is characterized by a failure of the mullerian ducts to develop, resulting in a missing uterus and fallopian tubes and variable malformations of the upper poion of the vagina. An individual with this condition is hormonally normal; that is, they will enter pubey with development of secondary sexual characteristics including thelarche and adrenarche (pubic hair). Gonadal dysgenesis is characterized by a progressive loss ofprimordial germ cells on the developing gonads of an embryo.The accompanying hormonal failure also prevents the development of secondary sex characteristicsin either sex, resulting in a sexually infantile female appearance and infeility. Failure to develop secondary sex characteristics (sexual infantilism) is typical in Turner's syndrome. | 159,486 | medmcqa_train |
A patient came with dyspnea, elevated JVP and edema in the feet. Lungs are clear. There is a parasternal heave and S2 is palpable in the pulmonary area. Which one of the following is LEAST helpful in determining etiology? | * The findings of dyspnea, elevated JVP and pedal oedema are suggestive of right sided CHF * Parasternal heave and palpable S2 indicates pulmonary aery hypeension * This also explains why lungs are clear since pulmonary oedema is absent in PAH * Reduced RV compliance in RVH leads to elevated JVP and oedema in feet * The reason for dyspnea is less pulmonary flow due to PAH. Echo for mitral stenosis Useful for diagnosis as PAH is seen in long standing MS ELISA For HIV Useful for diagnosis of Group 1 PAH Urine and stool for Schistosoma Useful for diagnosis of Group 1 PAH WHO classification of PAH Group 1 Idiopathic PAH HIV Poal Hypeension (Schistosomiasis) Drugs Connective tissue disorders Pulmonary veno-occlusive disease Group 2 Pulmonary aery hypeension due to left hea disease Group 3 PAH due to lung disease like COPD, interstitial lung disease Group 4 PAH due to secondary thromboembolism with occlusion of proximal or distal pulmonary aeries Group 5 PAH due to Hematological disorders: Myeloproliferative disorders Systemic disorders: Sarcoidosis, Langerhans cell histiocytosis Metabolic disorders: glycogen storage disorders Miscellaneous: Tumor embolization | 159,487 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following clotting factors helps in bridging the fibrin in a clot and stabilizes the clot? | Factor XIII is also called as fibrin stabilizing factor. It is activated by thrombin. Activated factor XIII strengthens the fibrin reticulum. The fibrin monomer molecules are initially held together by weak non covalent hydrogen bonding, and the newly formed fibers are not cross linked with each other. Therefore as a result, the clot is weak and can be broken apa easily. The activated factor XIII acts as an enzyme to cause covalent bonds between more and more fibrin monomer molecules as well as multiple cross-linkages between adjacent fibrin fibers, adding strength to the fibrin mesh work. Ref: Competition Science Vision, Feb 2003, Pages 1628-9 ; Text Book of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Page 422 | 159,488 | medmcqa_train |
Mature defence mechanism is- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sublimation Defence mechanismo Narcissistic (Psychotic) :- Denial, disortion, projection.o Immature :- Blocking, introjection, passive-aggressive behavior, acting out, hypochondriasis, regression, schizoid fantasy, somatization.o Neurotic :- Controlling, Displacement, inhibition, extemalization, intellectualization, isolation, rationalization, dissociation, reaction formation, repression, sexualization, conversion, undoing, inhibition,o Mature :- Asceticism, suppression, altruism, sublimation, humor, anticipation. | 159,489 | medmcqa_train |
Best screening test for pheochromocytoma? | Ans: a (Urinary VMA estimation)Ref: Vasudevan & Sreekumari, 6th edi., Pg. 207Vanillyl mandelic acid (VMA) in urineVMA is the main urinary metabolite of the norepinephrine pathway. Metanephrine is acted upon by mono amine oxidase to form(VMA). Normal level of excretion of VMA is 2-6 mg/24 hr.lt is increased in pheochromocytoma and in neuroblastoma.Patient is asked to refrain from intake of chocolate, coffee, banana, vanilla ice creams, citrus fruits (lime & orange). These items contain vanillin, which produces very high value of VMA in urine. Patient should not take aspirin or drugs containing phenol ring.Homovanillic acid (HVA) in urine: HVA is the main urinary metabolite of dopa and dopamine pathway It is increased in neuroblastoma, malignant pheochromocytoma and ganglioneuroma.It is useful to predict prognosis of neuroblastoma. Drugs increasing the value are -L-dopa, disulfiram and reserpine. | 159,490 | medmcqa_train |
Oral medication used in the treatment of scabies. | Gama benzene hexachloride 1%lindane 12 -24 hrs a day/2hrs in children .used in caution in infants and children. Permethrin 5%cream -8-12 hrs at night. It act on the nerve cell membrane and disrupt sodium channel current . Used to treat scabies in pregnancy,lctation and infants more than 2 months of age. Benzoyl benzoate 25%emulsion left on body for 48hrs or 3 consecutive nights Crotamiton 10%lotion every night for 2days Malathion 0.5% liquid 6%precipitated sulphur daily night application for 3 days Oral Ivermectin 200ug/kg two doses at 10day interval GABA agonist and chloride channel opener. IADVL textbook of dermatology page 429 | 159,491 | medmcqa_train |
A 68-year-old male patient in the cardiology ward complains at each mealtime of difficulty in swallowing (dysphagia). Radiographic studies reveal significant cardiac hypertrophy. A barium swallow, followed by radiographic examination of the thorax, reveals esophageal constriction directly posterior to the heart. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient's dysphagia? | Mitral stenosis leads to left atrial dilation, which can exert a compressive effect on the esophagus. The pulmonary valve is located between the outflow tract of the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk. The aortic valve is located between the left ventricle and the aorta. Anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) and posterior interventricular (posterior descending) arterial occlusions can cause a myocardial infarction, but not dysphagia. In the normal position of the heart the left atrium lies most posteriorly. Therefore, a stenosis of the mitral valve (atrioventricular valve between left atrium and left ventricle) would lead to enlargement of the left atrium, which would in turn impinge upon the esophagus. A stenosis of the pulmonary valve would have no effect upon the esophagus because of the anterior position of the pulmonary trunk in the thorax. Regurgitation through any valve will ultimately decrease systemic blood flow. An occlusion of a coronary artery will lead to ischemia and possibly myocardial infarction. | 159,492 | medmcqa_train |
True about delusions is all except: | DELUSION: Delusion is a false belief in something which is not a fact It persists even after its falsity has been clearly demonstrated. A normal person can have a delusion, but is capable of correcting it by his reasoning power, by his past experience and by being convinced by others. It is primarily a disorder of thought | 159,493 | medmcqa_train |
Aggrecan in | Aggrecan is the major proteoglycan component of cartilage. It is composed of several glycosaminoglycans (hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfate and keratin sulfate) and both link and core proteins. | 159,494 | medmcqa_train |
Anterior mesentery gives origin to | The pa of the ventral mesentery that attaches to the stomach is known as the ventral mesogastrium. The lesser omentum is formed, by a thinning of the mesoderm or ventral mesogastrium, which attaches the stomach and duodenum to the anterior abdominal wall. The lower pa is dorsal mesentery. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg235 | 159,495 | medmcqa_train |
"Iris bombe" occurs due to | Posterior synechiae extending for 360 degrees around the pupil (seclusio pupillae), prevent the passage of aqueous from the posterior to the anterior chamber. This gives rise to forward bowing of the peripheral iris causing an 'iris bombe'. This may lead to elevation of IOP due to secondary angle closure by the peripheral iris. | 159,496 | medmcqa_train |
Neisseria infection are associated with ? | Ans. is `b' i.e., Deficiency of late complements | 159,497 | medmcqa_train |
Signs of graft rejection are all except | D i.e. Foster spot Foster-Fuchs spot, lacquer cracksQ, temporal crescent, lattice degeneration and peripapillary, macular & diffuse chorioretinal atrophy are seen in myopic chorioretinal degeneration. | 159,498 | medmcqa_train |
Exceptions for informed consent are the following, except | Exceptions for informed consent: Therapeutic privilege Emergency doctrine Therapeutic waiver Loco parentis Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 385 | 159,499 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.