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The pectoralis major is classifies as a | Pectoralis major muscle is typically classified as a spiral Muscle. Muscles with spiral or twisted fasciculi are found in Trapezius, Pectoralis major, Latissimus dorsi, and supinator. Spiral or Twisted: The muscle fibers undergo a twist of approximately 180 degrees between their medial and lateral attachement. Spiral or Twisted Muscle: Pectoralis major Latissimus dorsi Trapezius Supinator Some skeletal muscles may be classified into more than one category. Pectoralis Major muscle has been classified both as convergent (or Triangular muscle) and Spiral Muscle in different textbooks. Note that Pectoralis major has been classified as &;Spiral &; in Gray&;s text and hence this has been selected as the single best answer of choice for this question. Convergent may be selected as the correct answer if spiral is not provided amongst the options. Ref: Gray&;s anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 113 | 159,300 | medmcqa_train |
Non-vitamin coenzyme is | Vitamins are organic molecules that function in a wide variety of capacities within the body. The most prominent function of the vitamins is to serve as cofactors (co-enzymes) for enzymatic reactions. The distinguishing feature of the vitamins is that they generally cannot be synthesized by mammalian cells and, therefore, must be supplied in the diet. The vitamins are of two distinct types, water soluble and fat soluble Alpha-lipoic acid, LA, (chemical name: 1,2-dithiolane-3-pentanoic acid; also known as thioctic acid), is a naturally occurring dithiol compound synthesized enzymatically in the mitochondrion from the medium-chain fatty acid octanoic acid. Because LA can be synthesized in the body it is not technically considered a vitamin but because of its vital role in overall cellular metabolism, it is considered as an impoant, but not necessary, dietary supplement. Given that LA is a necessary cofactor for mitochondrial a-ketoacid dehydrogenases, it thus serves a critical role in mitochondrial energy metabolism. In addition to de novo synthesis, LA is also absorbed intact from dietary sources, and it transiently accumulates in many tissues | 159,301 | medmcqa_train |
Fondaparinux is an anticoagulant that acts by inhibiting | Fondaparinux is a synthetic congener of Heparin containing only active pentasaccharide unit and inhibits only Xa. It doesn't inhibit thrombin (factor II a). | 159,302 | medmcqa_train |
CD-10 is seen in- | In acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, immunophenotyping pre B cell type: typically positive for pan-B cell markers CD19,CD10,CD9a. Reference textbook of Pathology 7th edition author Harsha Mohan page number 354 | 159,303 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about Berry aneurysm except: | Berry aneurysm Most common type of intracranial aneurysm Most common site is anterior communicating aery-anterior cerebral junction in Circle of Willis Rupture of aneurysm usually occurs at the apex or dome Endovascular coil occlusion is preferred over Surgical clipping | 159,304 | medmcqa_train |
Lymphatics from the spongy urethra drain into which of the following lymph nodes: | Lymphatics from glans penis, prostatic urethra, spongy urethra and superficial inguinal nodes drains into deep inguinal lymph nodes. Ref: Grant's Atlas of Anatomy By A M R Agur, 13th Edition, Page 233 | 159,305 | medmcqa_train |
X-rays findings of Fibrous Dysplasia is: | Ground glass density | 159,306 | medmcqa_train |
Pigbel is caused by: | Pigbel is caused by by Clostridium perfringens. C. perfringens produces clinical syndromes as follows: a) Necrotizing enteritis/Pigbel Due to contaminated meat products. Incubation Period- 8-24 hrs. Involves Heat labile enterotoxin but spores are heat resistant. (b) Food poisoning (c) Soft tissue infections (d) Septicemia NOTE Clostridium perfringens causes stormy fermentation of lactose in litmus milk | 159,307 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are Preleukemic conditions, Except: | Answer is B (Paroxysmal Cold Haemoglobinuria (PCH)) Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH) is a benign self-limiting autoimmune hemolytic anemia. PCH does not undergo leukemic transformation and is hence not considered a Preleukemic condition. Recovery is the rule in Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria. Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria may be considered a Preleukemic condition PNH may evolve into Aplastic anemia and PNH may manifest itself in patients who previously have Aplastic Anemia. Rarely (estimated 1-2% (Ian cases) PNH may terminate in Acute Myeloid Leukemia'. - Harrison 18th/883 Myelodysplasia (Myelodysplastic Syndrome) is a Preleukemic condition Myelodysplastia is a clonal hematopoietic stem cell disorder leading to impaired cell proliferation and differentiation Cvtogenetic abnormalities are found in approximately one half of patients and some of the same specific lesions are also seen in frank leukemia. The type and number of cytogenetic abnormalities strongly correlate with the probability of leukemic transformation and survival' Aplastic Anemia may be considered a Preleukemic condition `Recent studies have shown that long term survivors of acquired aplastic anemia may be at high risk of subsequent malignant diseases or late clonal hematological diseases often years after successful immunosuppressive therapy. One Hypothesis has postulated that aplastic anemia is a Preleukemic condition'. | 159,308 | medmcqa_train |
Carcinoma cervix presents with: | Ans. D. All of the aboveCarcinoma cervix has a bimodal peak one at 30-35 yrs and a second peak at 50-55 yrs. Presentation is typically abnormal vaginal bleeding -- in reproductive age group with metrorrhagia and in postmenopausal women with postmenopausal bleeding. There can be a cervical growth which can lead to postcoital bleeding. It undergoes necrosis then there can be purulent discharge per vaginam. Sometimes cancer cervix can present with VVF and with also with features of uremia. | 159,309 | medmcqa_train |
Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with: | A i.e. Autonomic Hyperactivity & tremors | 159,310 | medmcqa_train |
H pylori - | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Obligate parasite on gastric mucosa H. pylori, though initially infects the gastric mucosa only, may later on infect the duodenal mucosa. the process is as follows : Infection of gastric mucosa leads to hypergastrinemia and acid hypersecretion. Acid hypersecretion leads to metaplasia in the duodenal mucosa. "This duodenal metaplasia allows H. pylori to colonize the duodenal mucosa and in these patients, the risk of developing a duodenal ulcer increases 50 fold" - Schwaz | 159,311 | medmcqa_train |
The bowel can get strangulated in all of the following space except - | Omental bursa, Paraduodenal recess and ileocolic recess are Peritoneal recesses.
Peritoneal recesses
These are small pockets of the peritoneal cavity enclosed by small, inconstant folds of the peritoneum. These are best observed in fetuses and are mostly obliterated in adults.
Sometimes they persist to form potential sites for an internal hernia and strangulation.
These are :
A) Lesser sac or omental bursa
B) Duodenal recesses
Superior duodenal recess
Inferior duodenal recess
Para duodenal recess
Retroduodenal recess
Duodenojejunal (or mesocolic) recess
Mesenterico-parietal fossa (of Waldeyer)
Superior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess)
Inferior ileocaecal (or ileocolic) recess)
Retrocaecal recess
C) Caecal fossa
D) Intersigmoid recess | 159,312 | medmcqa_train |
Embrasure clasp are usually used in cases of | In the fabrication of an unmodified Class II or Class III partial denture, there are no edentulous spaces on the opposite side of the arch to aid in clasping. Mechanically, this is a disadvantage. However, when the teeth are sound and retentive areas are available or when multiple restorations are justified, clasping can be accomplished by means of an embrasure clasp. | 159,313 | medmcqa_train |
Several of the older patients in your practice intend to pursue exercise programs. They have no cardiac symptoms, but some do have vascular risk factors such as diabetes or hypertension. In these patients, which of the following is true about exercise electrocardiography? | Exercise electrocardiography represents an increasingly popular noninvasive method for early detection of latent ischemic heart disease. As with other diagnostic tests, the exercise ECG is of most clinical value when the pretest probability of disease is moderate (i.e., 30-70%). In men over 40 and women over 50 who plan to start vigorous exercise, use of exercise ECG is possibly, but not definitely, supported by the evidence (class IIb). | 159,314 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding PPH | Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Type B lynch suture used; With new advances both atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced; More common in multipara; and Associated with polyhydramnios PPH is more common in multipara due to laxed abdomen and associated factors like adherent placenta and anemia . Overdistension of uterus as in multiple pregnancy, hydraminos and large baby also lead to PPH . Incidence of atonic and traumatic PPH can be reduced with new advances or rather by intelligent anticipation, skilled supervision, prompt detection and effective institution of therapy. B lynch suture are used for management of PPH . Mifepristone is not used in the management of PPH . | 159,315 | medmcqa_train |
A 60–year old diabetic patient has an uneventful phacoemulsification with IOL implantation. He presented with pain, diminished vision, redness, watering and a greyish yellow pupillary reflex on the third postoperative day. Examination revealed circumcorneal congestion, aqueous cells 4+, hypopyon in the anterior chamber with posterior synechiae and retrolental flare. The most likely diagnosis is – | Painful red eye with diminution of vision along with evidence of aqueous flare, hypopyon and loss of normal red reflex, three days after cataract surgery suggests a diagnosis of Acute Postoperative Endophthalmitis. | 159,316 | medmcqa_train |
vWF is used as a marker for | Ans. A. AngiosarcomaExplanationThe vWF is the least sensitive of the vascular markers and is positive in 50% to 75% of vascular tumors.von Willebrand factor (vWF):It is a glycoprotein produced uniquely by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes, is routinely used to identify vessels in tissue sections.Vessel density in tumor specimens, as determined by immuno-histochemical staining for vWF or other endothelial cell markers, is a negative prognostic factor for many solid tumors.vWF is heterogeneously distributed throughout the vasculature, transcriptional control in response to the tissue microenvironment being responsible for local variations in endothelial cell levels of vWF.Fibroblast growth factor-2 and vascular endothelial growth factor, potent angiogenesis inducers expressed in a variety of tumors, up-regulate expression of vWF mRNA and protein in cultured endothelial cells with a synergistic effect.Measurement of vWF mRNA in tumors detect activated endothelium or angiogenesis. | 159,317 | medmcqa_train |
An ectopic pregnancy is shed as | The endometrial lining of the uterus is called decidua during pregnancy, If there is feilization and pregnancy occurs, the decidua differentiated intoDecidua basalis - becomes the maternal poion of the placentaDecidua - capsularis - the thin layer covering the ovumDecidua vera or parietalis - which is the rest of the decidua lining the uterine cavity outside the site of implantation. | 159,318 | medmcqa_train |
A type of teiary waste water treatment process is - | Sewage treatment Primary treatment : Physical treatment to remove solids (from the liquid) Secondary treatment : Bilogical treatment brought about by aerobic and anaerobic bacteria Teiary treatment : Improving fuher the quality of effluent (advanced waste treatment process), sludge (stabilisation and dewatering), assist sedimentation and sludge treatment (chemical treatment by the addition of coagulants) Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 800 | 159,319 | medmcqa_train |
How many days took to form 1mm layer of enamel: | Mean of daily rate of enamel formation – 3.5µm/day to 4µm/day
So to form 1mm thickness total approximately 240 days needed. | 159,320 | medmcqa_train |
Asthma is which type of hypersensitivity? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type -1 hypersensitivity HypersensitivityType I (IgE mediated)Type II (IgG IgM and complement mediated)o Eczemao Blood transfusion reactionso Hay fevero Erythroblastosis fetaliso Asthmao Autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia or agmulocytosiso Atopyo Pemphigus vulgariso Urticariao Good pasture syndromeo Anaphylactic shocko Bullous pemphigoido Acute dermatitiso Pernicious anemiao Theobald smith phenomenono Acute rheumatic fevero Prausnitz Kusnter (PK) reactiono Diabetes mellituso Casonistesto Graves diseaseo Schultz-Dale phenomenono Myasthenia gravisType III (IgG IeM. complement and leucocyte mediated)Tvpe IV (Cell mediated)o Local-Arthus reactiono Tuberculin testo Systemic-serum sicknesso Lepromin testo Schick testo Sarcoidosiso Polyarteritis nodosa (PANo Tuberculosiso Rheumatoid arthritiso Contact dermatitiso SLEo Granulomatous inflammationo Acute viral hepatitiso Type I lepra reactiono Penicillamine toxicityo Patch testo Hyperacute graft rejectiono Temporal arteritiso Type 2 lepra reaction (ENL)o Jones mote reaction (cutaneous basophilic HSN)o Hypersensitivity pneumonitiso Graft rejectiono R.Ao Fairleys testo Infective endocarditiso Frie's testo Henoch schonlein purpura o Glomerulonephritis | 159,321 | medmcqa_train |
This is which Endotracheal tube:- | LASER TUBE USED FOR LASER SURGERY Laser Resistant Endotracheal Tubes The most frequent laser related complication is airway fire. Laser Resistant ETTs are used to prevent airway fires during laser surgery of the airway. Initially, fires are located on surface of ETT and cause thermal injury to tissues. If the fire burns through to interior of ETT, O2 and positive pressure ventilation create a blow torch effect, blowing heat and toxic products down into lung. Cuff puncture allowing O2 enriched atmosphere can also increase chance of fire after laser burst. | 159,322 | medmcqa_train |
Oral evidence is more impoant than written testimony as: | Oral evidence is more superior to documentary evidence, as the witness can be cross examined. Doctor's repo is accepted only when he comes and deposes oral evidence in the cou ( S. 45 IEA). Exceptions to oral evidence: Dying declaration. Expe opinion given in a book or treatise. Evidence of doctor recorded in a lower Cou. Evidence by witness in a previous judicial proceedings. Repos of chemical examiner, explosives expe, fingerprint expe, serologist etc. Public records like death, bih ceificate. Hospital records | 159,323 | medmcqa_train |
Most common anterior mediastinal tumour? | The designation "thymoma" is restricted to tumors of thymic epithelial cells. Such tumors typically also contain benign immature T cells. The tumors usually occur in adults older than 40 years of age; thymomas are rare in children. Males and females are affected equally. Most arise in the anterior superior mediastinum, but sometimes they occur in the neck, thyroid, pulmonary hilus, or elsewhere. | 159,324 | medmcqa_train |
Tumor suppressor gene is not involved in ? | o Multiple endocrine neoplasia involves RET protooncogene (not tumor suppressor gene). | 159,325 | medmcqa_train |
A person was found dead with bluish green frothy discharge at the angle of mouth and nostrils. What is the diagnosis? | Clinical Features Acute Poisoning Ingestion: * Metallic taste,* Increased salivation * Colicky abdominal pain * Nausea and vomiting. Vomitus is bluish or greenish in color * Diarrhea * Myalgia * Pancreatitis * Methemoglobinemia * Hemolysis * Jaundice * Oliguria and renal failure * Convulsions * Delirium * Coma. Inhalation of Copper Fumes or Dust Causes * Respiratory tract irritation * Cough * Conjunctivitis * Metal fume fever. Chronic Poisoning * Abdominal pain * Greenish line on dental margins of gum (Clapton's line) * Vineyard Sprayer's lung disease: Copper sulphate is used as an insecticide spray in vineyards. During spraying, chronic inhalation of copper sulphate causes this disease. * Greenish hair discolouration * Wilson's disease. REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 309 | 159,326 | medmcqa_train |
Near double stranded DNA among the following | (B) Hepatitis B # Genome of HBV is made of circular DNA, but it is unusual because the DNA is not fully double-stranded.> One end of the full length strand is linked to the viral DNA polymerase.> The genome is 3020-3320 nucleotides long. | 159,327 | medmcqa_train |
Voyeurism is punished under | Refer the byte "Legal sections". | 159,328 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzymes unwind DNA? | Helicases are enzymes that bind and may even remodel nucleic acid or nucleic acid-protein complexes. There are DNA and RNA helicases. DNA helicases are essential during DNA replication because they separate double-stranded DNA into single strands allowing each strand to be copied Ref-Sathyanarayana 4/e p401 | 159,329 | medmcqa_train |
NOT a feature of trachoma: | Clinical features of trachoma - Lacrimation Photophobia Red eyes Hall mark - Sago grain follicles Herbe's pits seen Arlt's line on upper palpebral conjunctiva seen - sub conjunctival line of fibrosis Arlt's triangle seen in anterior uveitis - lower 1.3rd of the corneal endothelium where Keratic Precipitates settle due to the normal aqueous flow dynamics Pannus seen (nonspecific sign) Chalazion are not associated with trachoma- chronic inflammatory granuloma of the meibomian gland Seen in people with Oily skin Ocular rosacea | 159,330 | medmcqa_train |
All are given for management of burns EXCEPT? | Ans. (a) Hypotonic solutionsRef: Sabiston 19th ed. /530-33 | 159,331 | medmcqa_train |
Most common site of Curling's ulcer | Duodenum [Ref Robbins 7/e p819; Curling's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of the duodenum described in 1842 by Curling as a complication of burns. Cushing's ulcer is acute peptic ulcer of stomach, duodenum and esophagus seen in intracranial injury, operations or tumor. | 159,332 | medmcqa_train |
Parts of some human skeletal remains are brought to you. The pelvis is complete, yet the individual bones of the pelvis, the ilium, ischium, and pubis have just staed to fuse together. The subpubic angle you estimate at 60deg and the pelvic brim has a distinctive hea shaped appeareance. On the basis of this information, you guess the remains are of which of the following? | Because the sub- pubic angle is about 60deg and the pelvic brim is hea shaped, you are look ing at a male. The bones of the pelvis arise from three different centers of ossification and generally fuse together at about pubey through the twenty-third year, thus you know you have to be looking at a 14-year-old male, not a 3-year-old or an 80-year- old male. | 159,333 | medmcqa_train |
Nodular glomerulosclerosis is pathognomic for: September 2009 | Ans. D: Diabetic nephropathy The constellation of renal changes attributed to Diabetes mellitus are- Armanni-Ebstein lesion, aerionephrosclerosis, aeriolonephrosclerosis, chronic interstitial nephritis, diabetic glomerulosclerosis, fatty changes in renal tubules, glomerulonephritis, Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease--focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis, nephrotic syndrome, papillary necrosis, and pyelonephritis. | 159,334 | medmcqa_train |
Fluid levels are not visible in - | Answer is 'a' i.e. Meconeum ileus In meconium ileus meconium is so thick that it is unable to form air-fluid level desptie complete small intestinal obstruction (Note the multiple air-fluid level is a feature of mechanical small bowel obstruction & paralytic ileus). | 159,335 | medmcqa_train |
A neonate with doughy soft lump in neck causing distortion of face and audible grunt. Diagnosis is: | Ans. (a) Cystic hygroma.* Cystic hygroma is a form of Lymphangioma caused by benign aberrant development of lymphatics and presents at birth with airway obstruction.* Imaging with USG, CT scan or MRI can identify the extent of lesion and surgery is required. (EXIT Procedure). Doxycycline, ethanol and sildenafil are Sclerosants and sclerotherapy can be done.* Sternocleidomastoid tumor is seen after a traumatic birth and leads to lump in neck with torticollis.* Brachial cyst is small and located on anterior border of sternocleidomastoid and does not cause respiratory compromise.Image source. style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; color: rgba(0, 0, 0, 1); font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0"> | 159,336 | medmcqa_train |
Minimum antenatal visit as per MCH is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 4 | 159,337 | medmcqa_train |
What is the treatment of Choice for Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura? | Ans. (a) SteroidsRef: Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition page 724Medical Treatment of ITP* The treatment of choice is medical- oral prednisolone 1mg/kgproduces dramatic response in 50-70% cases.* Intravenous immunoglobin is indicated for internal bleeding.Refractory ITP* Failure of initial therapy mentioned above.* Rituximab given IV* Thromboplastin Receptor antagonists - Eltrombopag and RomiplostimSplenectomy* Most common indication for elective splenectomy* For patients with low platelet count should have platelets available at surgery but should be infused only after ligating the pedicle.* Should not be given preoperatively | 159,338 | medmcqa_train |
Normal value of tear film break-up time | Tear Film break-up time:
It is the interval between a complete blink and appearance of first randomly disributed dry spot on the cornea.
Normal value - 15-35 seconds. | 159,339 | medmcqa_train |
Not a diagnostic/defining criteria for amnestic disorder | A i.e. Visual hallucination; B i.e. Transient delusion; C i.e. Impaired concentration/attention For diagnosis DSM IV requires Development of memory impairment as manifested by impaired ability to learn new information or the inability to recall previously learned informationQ. Memory disturbance causes significant impairment in social & occupation functioning & represents a significant decline from a previous level of functioning. Memory disturbance does not occur exclusively during the course of a delirium & dementia. May be d/t general medical condition (including trauma) or substance induced (alcohol, hypnotic, sedative etc) . ICD-10 criteria for organic amnesic syndrome A. Memory impairment, manifest in both Defect in recent memory (impaired learning of new material i.e. antegrade amnesia)Q. Reduced ability to recall past experiences (retrograde amnesia)Q. B. Absence of (or there is no) Defect in immediate recall (tested by digit span) Clouding of consciousness & disturbance of attentionQ (delirium) Global intellectual decline (dementia)Q C. Objective evidence (history, examination or lab test) of an insult to or disease of brain especially involving b/I diencephalic & medial temporal structures (but other than alcoholic encephalopathy) . * Confabulation, emotional change (apathy & lack of initiative) & lackof insight are addition pointers to diagnosis but are not invariably present. | 159,340 | medmcqa_train |
The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute inflammation, except? | Granuloma formation occurs in chronic inflammation. | 159,341 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a maker of Paget's disease of the mammary gland? | Neoplastic cells in Paget's disease of mammary glands express markers CEA, CK 7 and GCDFP 15. The neoplastic cells also express androgen receptors and HER2/neu. Paget's disease of the nipple is a superficial manifestation of an underlying breast carcinoma. In most cases tumor cells have spread to the skin of the nipple and areola from underlying invasive ductal carcinoma or ductal carcinoma in situ. Ref: Harrison's Principles Of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 439, 563; Skin Cancer - A World-Wide Perspective By Reinhard Dummer, page 129; Bailey and Love's Sho practice of surgery 24th edition , page 837. | 159,342 | medmcqa_train |
Rigor mois appears last in: March 2012 | Ans: D i.e. Toes Rigor mois first appears in the involuntary muscles; the myocardium. It begins in eyelids, neck and lower jaw and passes upwards to the muscle of the face, and downwards to the muscles of the chest, upper limbs, abdomen and lower limbs and lastly in the finger and toes | 159,343 | medmcqa_train |
Superior oblique muscle performs action of: | A i.e. Intoion | 159,344 | medmcqa_train |
Centriole is absent in | (Liver) (37-Ganong 23rd), Centrioles in hepatocytes cellular and molecular life sciences vol-24, Number 11, 1157-59, DOI 10; 1007/BFO 214785Centrioles which are small cytoplasmic bodies of about 150-200 nm in diameter and 300-350 nm in length concerned with organization in the spindle during cell division have rarely been reported in adult mammalian liver cellsCENTROSOMES - Near the nucleus in the cytoplasm of eukaryotic aniimal cells is a centrosome. The centrosome is made up of two centrioles and surrounding amorphous pericentriolar material* The centrosomes are microtubule - organizing centers (MTOCs) that contain y- tubulin* Centrioles are responsible for the movement of chromosomes during cell divisions (10.K. Sembulingum 5th)* If there is no centriol in the cell, the cell cannot divide. Neurons of postnatal life have no centrioles hence they cannot divide; hence in the post natal life no new neuron formation can occur. But throughout life, death of individuals neurons continue Hence in old age, there is considerable loss of brain mater (8- S.K chaudhari 6th) | 159,345 | medmcqa_train |
True statements about local anaesthesia – a) It inhibits the generation of action potentialb) Unmyelinated thin fibers are most susceptible than myelinated large fibersc) Toxicity is reduced by addition of vasoconstrictord) Blocks all modalities of sensation at the same time | Local anesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse (action potential).
Myelinated fibers are more susceptible than nonmyelinated fibers and small fibers are more sensitive than large fibers.
Addition of vasconstrictor decreases systemic absorption and toxicity.
All modalities of sensation are not blocked at the same time because different sensory fibers have different sensitivity.
Order of block of sensory modalities :-
Temperature > Pain > touch > deep pressure > Proprioception. | 159,346 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about clofazamine ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Used in DLE o Clofazimine interferes with template function of DNA, is used in lepra reaction and can cause icthyosis and hyperpigmentation. | 159,347 | medmcqa_train |
Rinsing of eye with water causes blurring of vision. Which of the following is the TRUE cause of blurring? | Corneal refractive power is substantial in air but viually eliminated when the eye is under water. Under water, the divergent refraction by the cornea is small since the media on its both sides (water outside and anterior chamber liquid inside) have refractive indices not greatly different from that of the cornea itself. Ref: The Sensory Physiology of Aquatic Mammals By Alexander Ya, Page 232 | 159,348 | medmcqa_train |
In a pregnant lady with hyperthyroidism , the safest drug to be used is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Propylthiouracil * Propylthiouracil is the DOC for hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Methimazole and carbimazole used in early pregnancy have been associated with esophageal and choanal atresia, aplasia cutis, and fetal agranulocytosis.* Graves' disease is the MC cause of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.* Hashimoto's thyroiditis is the MC cause of hypothyroidism in pregnancy.* Complications associated with both hypo- and hyperthyroidism in pregnancy:1) Recurrent first trimester abortions2) IUGR3) Increased risk of preeclampsia4) Abruption5) Stillbirths, hydrop fetalis6) Preterm labor* Hypothyroidism is also associated with cretinism. | 159,349 | medmcqa_train |
S4 is seen in all of the following, Except: | Answer is C (Atrial Fibrillation) Atrial contraction must be present for production of' S4. It is absent in atrial fibrillation. Thyrotoxicosis. Acute MI, and Hyperophic cardiomyopathy are all associated with pathological fouh Hea sound (S4). Fouh Hea Sound (S4): Low frequency sound (low pitched)Q It is a diastolic hea sound that occurs sholy before S1 Q It occurs during the phase of ventricular filling and is associated with an effective atrial contraction Atrial contraction must be present for production of an S4Q It is best heard at the apex in the left lateral position It is better heard with the bell of the stethescopeQ Causes of Pathological Fouh Hea sound Fouh Heah Sound (S4), Atrial Diastolic gallop, and Presystolic Gallop: Decreased ventricular compliance Ventricular hyperophy - Left or right ventricular outflow obstruction - Systemic or pulmonary hypeension - Hyperophic cardiomyopathy Ischemic hea disease - Angina pectoris - Acute myocardial infarction - Old myocardial infarction - Ventricular aneurysm Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy Excessively rapid late diastolic filling secondary to: Vigorous atrial systole Hyperkinetic states - Anemia - Thyrotoxicosis Aeriovenous fistula Acute atrioventricular valve incompetence Arrhythmias Hea block Physiologic S4 may be recordable, but is rarely audible | 159,350 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a prion disease | Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy is a human infection caused by a papova virus. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition. | 159,351 | medmcqa_train |
Chemotherapeutic drug effective in the treatment of epithelial ovarian cancer is:a) Carboplatinb) Paclitaxelc) Cyclophosphamided) Methotrexate karnatka | Role of Chemotherapy in Epithelial ovarian tumors | 159,352 | medmcqa_train |
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 19-month-old girl who presented with a 1-week history of an ascending erythematous eruption? | Answer C. Herpes zosterThe results of a scraping from the base of several vesicles were positive for the varicella-zoster virus. The lesions resolved within 2 weeks of treatment with acyclovir. Herpes zoster is unusual in persons younger than 10 years of age, and when it does occur in this age group, the lesions have a predilection for dermatomes supplied by the cervical and sacral nerves. | 159,353 | medmcqa_train |
A 42-year-old man presents with central, crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw. The pain occurred while jogging around the local park. The pain was alleviated with rest. The ECG is normal. Diagnosis is? | Ans. A Angina pectorisRef CMDT 2019 pg. 369The patient is having chest pain on jogging which is a presentation of chronic stable Angina. It is aggravated by cold, by anxiety, and by exercise. In the case of a normal resting ECG, an exercise ECG should be obtained. All other choices present with chest pain on rest. | 159,354 | medmcqa_train |
Alopecia areata is a/ an - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autoimmune disorder Pathogenesis of alopecia areata1. Autoimmunityo Current evidence suggests that alopecia areata is caused by an abnormality in the immune system. This particular abnormality leads autoimmunity. As a result, body's own immune system attacks the hair follicles and disrupts normal hair formations. Autoimmune pathogenesis is supported by -The germinative zones of hair follicles are surrounded by T-lvmphocytes, where they are not normally present.Sometimes alopecia areata is associated with other autoimmune disorders, e.g. vitiligo, IL4, ulcerative colitis, hypothyroidism.# Frequency of type 1 DM is increased in relative of patients with alopecia areata but not in patient themselves --> alopecia areata may be protective against type 1 DM.2. Genetic factorso Besides autoimmunity genetic factors also have pathogenic role10-20% Patients give family historyfThere is polygenic inheritenceStrong association between alopecia areata and MHC class II, i.e. HLA-DR4, HLA DR-5, HLA DQ-3Genetic disorders like autoimmune polyglandular syndrome type I and Down s syndrome have high incidence of alopecia areata. | 159,355 | medmcqa_train |
Allergic BPA which kind of hypersensitivity reaction - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Type I {Ref: Robbia's 9th/ep. 683] | 159,356 | medmcqa_train |
Cerebellar connection to other parts of the brain is projected through which cell - | The axons of purkinje cells are the only output through cerebellar cortex.
However, it should be kept in mind that the output from the cerebellum is through deep nuclei, purkinje cells axons generally pass to deep nuclei. | 159,357 | medmcqa_train |
All the following occur in hemostasis except ? | Ans. is None o All the processes from vosoconstriction to dissolution of clot are the pa of hemostasis. | 159,358 | medmcqa_train |
Insulinoma is most commonly located in which pa of the pancreas | Viually,all insulinomas are located in the pancreas and tumors are equally distributed with the gland Bailey & Love ,26th,788. | 159,359 | medmcqa_train |
Difference between acute and chronic pancreatitis is? | ANSWER: (A) Acute pancreatitis has reversible changesREF: Harrison's 18th ed chapter 313Chronic pancreatitis is a disease process characterized by irreversible damage to the pancreas as distinct from the reversible changes noted in acute pancreatitis. The condition is best defined by the presence of histologic abnormalities, including chronic inflammation, fibrosis, and progressive destruction of both exocrine and eventually endocrine tissueAlcohol is implicated in both acute and chronic pancreatitis and both can occur in young adults. | 159,360 | medmcqa_train |
Tinea incognito is seen with - | Tinea incognito- coicosteroid modified tinea. Clinical features: topical coicosteroids will suppress the inflammation , less visible lesions. Raised margins will be diminished scaling is lost and inflammation is reduced. Concentric rings with steroid induced erythema , atrophy telengiectasia are seen . Iadvl textbook of dermatology page 271 | 159,361 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following will be LEAST useful in treating Obsessive Compulsive Disorder? | (D) Systematic desensitisation # SSRIs are drug of choice. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline have been approved for OCD# Antidepressants: Some patients may improve dramatically with specific serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Clomipramine (75-300 mg/day), a non specific serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SRI), is the first drug used effectively in the treatment of OCD. The response is better in presence of depression, but many patients with pure OCD also improve substantially. Fluoxetine (20-80 mg/day) is a good alternative to clomipramine. Fluvoxamine (50-200 mg/day) is marketed as a specific anti-obsessional drug, while paroxetine (20-40 mg/day), and sertraline (50-200 mg/day) are also effective in some patients.> Antipsychotics: These are occasionally used in low doses (e.g. haloperidol, risperidone, olanzapine, pimozide) in the treatment of severe, disabling anxiety.> Buspirone has also been used beneficially as an adjunct for augmentation in some patients.# Second line drugs include> Valproate, lithium, or carbamazepine, venlafaxine, pindolol, & MAO inhibitors esp phenelzine, buspirone, 5 -hydroxy tryptamine (5-HT), L- tryptophan, & clonazepam.MANAGEMENT OF OCDBehavior therapyPharmacotherapyIs treatment of choiceSSRIs are drug of choice. Fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine, sertraline have been approved for OCDIncludes: Exposure and response prevention, desensitization, thought stopping, flooding implosion therapy and aversion conditioning.Clomipramine: of all the tricyclic and tetracyclic drugs, clomipramine is the most selective for serotonin reuptake exceeded in this respect only by SSRI> People with OCD who fear dirt and germs are encouraged to get their hands dirty and wait increasing amounts of time before washing them.> The therapist helps the person cope with the anxiety that waiting produces; after the exercise has been repeated a number of times, the anxiety diminishes.> Systematic desensitization techniques involve gradually exposing the client to ever-increasing anxiety-provoking stimuli.> It is important to note here, though, that such a technique should not be attempted until the client has successfully learned re- laxation skills and can demonstrate their use to the therapist.> Exposing a patient to either of these techniques without increased coping skills can result in relapse and possible harm to the client | 159,362 | medmcqa_train |
MC cause of intermittent stridor in a 10-day-old child sholy after bih is: | Laryngomalacia is the most common cause of inspiratory stridor in neonates. The stridor in case of laryngomalacia is not constantly present, rather it is intermittent. So laryngomalacia is also the M/C cause of intermittent stridor in neonates. | 159,363 | medmcqa_train |
The term "balanced anaesthesia" has been given by? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lundy Term 'balanced anaesthesia' was introduced by Lundy in 1926. Balanced anaesthesia The cardinal feature of general anaesthetics are : ? Loss of all sensations, especially pain Sleep (unconciousness) and amnesia Immobility and muscle relaxation Abolition of reflexes In modern practice of balanced anaesthesia these modalities are achieved by using combination of inhaled and iv.drugs. | 159,364 | medmcqa_train |
Focal and diffuse thickening of gall bladder wall with high amplitude reflections and 'comet tail' aifacts on USG suggest the diagnosis of: | C i.e. Adenomyomatosis - Adenomyomatosis of gall bladder is chracterized by diffuse (generalized), segmental (annular) or localized hyperplastic muscular wall thickeningQ, mucosal overgrowth and intramural diveicula/crypts/or sinus tracts (so called Rokitansky-Aschoff Sinuses). It characteristically pesents with comet tail aifacts/sign (on USG), pearl necklace sign (on oral cholecystogram or MR cholangiogr, am) and string of beads sign (on MRCP T2WI). Most thyroid carcinomas are hypoechoicQ. Whereas most thyroid adenomas are hyperechoic or isoechoic at ultrasound. Adenomyomatosis of Gall bladder *Adenomyomatosis is a special case of Gall Bladder cholesteatosis and belongs to the group of Hyperplastic Cholecystoses. *It appears as a hyperechoic tumerous thickening of the gall bladder wall (generalized or focal) originating from hyperophied Rokitanski-Aschoff Sinuses (Intramural Diveiculae). | 159,365 | medmcqa_train |
A 42-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department after a fall from the balcony of her apartment. During physical examination there is an absence of heart sounds, reduced systolic pressure, reduced cardiac output, and engorged jugular veins. Which condition is most likely characterized by these signs? | Cardiac tamponade is a condition in which fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity. It can result from pericardial effusion or from leakage of blood from the heart or proximal portions of the great vessels. The increased pressure within the pericardial sac leads to decreased cardiac filling during diastole and therefore reduced systolic blood pressure. Because of the reduced pumping capacity of the heart, there is increased pressure in the venous system, leading to the distension of the jugular venous system. Deep vein thrombosis often occurs in the lower limbs and increases the risk of pulmonary embolism. The other answers listed are conditions that affect pulmonary function rather than cardiac functions. | 159,366 | medmcqa_train |
CT findings of acute pancreatitis are all except: | Ans. Dilatation of pancreatic duct | 159,367 | medmcqa_train |
In considering the process of eruption, the pre-functional eruptive stage of a tooth begins when the: | The dental lamina serves as the primordium of ectodermal portion of deciduous teeth. The permanent molars arise directly from a distal extension of dental lamina. | 159,368 | medmcqa_train |
Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in: March 2005 | Ans. C: Buerger's disease Risks for superficial thrombophlebitis include: Chemical irritation of the area Disorders that involve increased blood clotting Infection Pregnancy Sitting or staying still for a prolonged period Use of bih control pills Varicose veins Superficial thrombophlebitis may be associated with: Abdominal cancers (such as pancreatic cancer) Deep vein thrombosis Factor V Leiden Prothrombin gene mutation Thromboangiitis obliterans | 159,369 | medmcqa_train |
Moschcowitz repair is done for | In Moschcowitz repair, several purse string sutures staing from below are used to obliterate the cul-de-sac of the pouch of Douglas. Care should be taken not to include the ureter in the stitch. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology,18th edition, p342. | 159,370 | medmcqa_train |
Bull's neck is characteristically seen in: | Faucial diphtheria : commonest type of diphtheria. Characterized by fever, sore throat, pseudo membrane over fauces. Cervical adenitis with sub-mandibular edema is called bull neck. | 159,371 | medmcqa_train |
Watson and Crick are associated with - | They proposed the double hellical model of DNA | 159,372 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statements are TRUE about second generation antihistaminic agents EXCEPT: | 1st generation 2nd generation Cross BBB, cause sedation Donot cross BBB, no sedation Ach blockade, anticholinergic side effect occur No Ach blockade Useful for - Motion sickness - Drug induced parkinsonism - Muscular dystonias - Allergy Useful only for allergy Promethazine, diphenhydramine, diphenhydrinate, phenramine, Terfenadine, fexofenadine, loratidine | 159,373 | medmcqa_train |
Venous drainage of esophagus is into the: | Ans. b. Azygous, inferior thyroid and left gastric veins | 159,374 | medmcqa_train |
Example of multiphasic screening is | Multiphasic screening: It is the application of two or more screening tests to a large population at one time instead of carrying out separate screening tests for single diseases.Randomised control studies suggested that multiphasic screening has not shown any benefit accruing to the population in terms of moality and morbidity reduction. | 159,375 | medmcqa_train |
Least useful for a 800-m run in a competitive event would be | 800-m run would be over in about 2 min, and it would need a quick burst of activity of the muscle rather than a slow and sustained activity for prolonged periods. Option A: Oxidative phosphorylation generates ATPs in a slow and sustained manner for a low-intensity muscular activity that continues for prolonged periods (e.g., marathon). It will be the least useful of the energy systems for a sho-time event like 800-m run. Option C: LOHMANN REACTION: CREATINE PHOSPHATE - ADP - ATP - UTILIZED For such sho-duration intense muscular activity, pale fibers are more useful as they generate quick ATPs anaerobic glycolysis, using muscle glycogen as the source. Thus, options B and D are useful. | 159,376 | medmcqa_train |
Role of marijuana in AIDS-related cachexia? | Ans:C- Increases appetiteMarijuana or cannabis sativa contains the active principle tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), which has an appetite stimulant effect.While marijuana derivatives do not appear to reverse cachexia, they could potentially form pa of a combination treatment for wasting.For example, cannabinoid drugs might be used to boost patients' food consumption while they undergo physical therapy or take medications designed to increase the propoion of lean tissues in their bodies. | 159,377 | medmcqa_train |
Cytoprotectant among the following is | Amifostine:It is used as a cytoprotectant(Radioprotectant) in anticancer chemotherapy.Ref: Sharma and Sharma 3rd ed/pg 877 | 159,378 | medmcqa_train |
A 22 year old female presents with diy way papules in the seborrheic areas especially in the summer. Her father also gives a h/o similar lesions. What is the most probable diagnosis? | It is also known as Keratosis follicularis with autosomal dominant inheritance. | 159,379 | medmcqa_train |
Most commonly gas used in Laparoscopy is | B. i.e. (Carbon - dioxide) (560 - Dutta 4th) (217- Shaw's 14th)* Pneumoperitoneum - Most commonly used gas is carbon dioxide (1L - 4L)* For diagnostic purposes nitous oxide or room air or oxygen can be used* CO2 is safer than air and nitrous oxide which can cause air embolism and accidental explosion respectively* The flow rate of the gas is about 1 L/minutc with a pressure not exceeding 20 mm HgCONTRAINDICATIONS OF LAPAROSCOPY* Severe cardiopulmonary disease* Extensive peritoneal adhesion* Patient haemodynamically unstable* Large pelvic tumour* Generalized peritonitis* Pregnancy > 16 weeks* Significant haemoperitoneum* Previous periumbilical surgery (relative)* Intestinal obstruction* Extreme obesity | 159,380 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following amino acid is involved in the synthesis of ceramide? | Ceramide is synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum from the amino acid serine. Ceramide is an impoant second messenger regulating pathways such as apoptosis, cell cycle, cell differentiation and senescence. Sphingomyelins are formed when ceramide reacts with phosphatidylcholine to form sphingomyelin plus diacylglycerol. It occurs mainly in the golgi apparatus and to lesser extend in the plasma membrane. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 24. Metabolism of Acylglycerols & Sphingolipids. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | 159,381 | medmcqa_train |
True about Bidutamide is? | ANSWER: (D) All are trueREF: Cancer Chemotherapy and Biotherapy: Principles and Practice by bruce A. Chabner, Dan L. Longo Page 679, Goodman Gillman's 11th ed p. 1021ANDROGEN RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS(Flutamide, Bicalutamide, and Nilutamide)* Bicalutamide is an oral non-steroidal anti-androgen used in the treatment of prostate cancer and hirsutism.It was first launched as a combination treatment (with surgical or medical castration) for advanced prostate cancer and subsequently launched as monotherapy for the treatment of earlier stages of the disease.Bicalutamide is a teratogen and must not be handled by females who are or may become pregnantAdverse reactions include reproductive system and breast disorders, breast tenderness, gynecomastia, hot flushes, gastrointestinal disorders, diarrhea, nausea, hepatic changes (elevated levels of transaminases, jaundice), asthenia and pruritus | 159,382 | medmcqa_train |
Shoest acting skeletal muscle relaxant is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Suxamethonium Suxamethonium (succinylcholine) is the shoest acting skeletal muscle relaxant. o Mivacurium is the shoest acting nondepolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant. | 159,383 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug is not used in the management of lepra reaction? | Rifampicin is not used in the management of lepra reaction. Reversal reaction, or lepra type 1 reaction, is a delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction that arises when borderline leprosy shifts toward borderline lepromatous leprosy with treatment. The reaction is characterized by edema and erythema of existing skin lesions, formation of new skin lesions, neuritis, and additional sensory and motor loss. Treatment includes nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and high-dose steroids. Erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL), also known as lepra type 2 reaction, is a complication of lepromatous leprosy. It is characterized by the development of inflamed subcutaneous nodules accompanied at times by fever, lymphadenopathy, and ahralgias. Treatment includes prednisolone, clofazimine, thalidomide, or chloroquine. | 159,384 | medmcqa_train |
A-65 years alcoholic suffering from diabetes has a flexion deformity at the right little finger over the metacarpophalangeal joint of around 15 degrees. The ideal management for him would be - | The information in this question are:-
Patient is alcoholic and diabetic (both are risk factors for Dupuytren's contracture).
Flexion deformity at MCP joint of little finger.
Patient is old (65 years).
The Diagnosis is Dupuytren's contracture.
The only effective treatment is by operation; however, operation is not necessary in every case; a contracture that is not progressing rapidly is often better left alone, especially in an elderly patient.
Primary indication for surgery is fixed contracture of > 30° at metacarpophalangeal joint or > 15° at proximal interphalangeal joint. | 159,385 | medmcqa_train |
A 36 year old male presents with a complaint of passing dark-reddish urine. He states that yesterday he played basketball for 4 hours, which was the first time he had exercised in 4 months. He awoke this morning with sore muscles and discolored urine. Physical examination is unremarkable. The urine is reddish-brown in color; dipstick test for blood is positive, the pH is 5.1, the specific gravity 1.03. Microscopic examination of the urine reveals no red blood cells. What is the most likely etiology for this presentation? | The appearance of a dark-reddish urine is suggestive of a number of conditions, including hematuria; however, there are no red blood cells present on microscopic examination. Fuhermore, the dipstick test for blood is positive, which is suggestive of myoglobinuria. Myoglobin is a pigment that, if present in the urine, will produce a positive dipstick test, even in the absence of red blood cells. Myoglobinuria can be caused when an unconditioned individual paakes in intense physical exeion. This extreme physical activity leads to muscle cell breakdown and the release of myoglobin into the blood, which is then filtered by the kidneys and excreted into the urine. If there was hemolyzed blood in the urine , a few red blood cells should have been detected on urinalysis. Ingestion of foods that contained red dye can discolor the urine; however, it would not produce a positive dipstick test. Nephrolithiasis generally results in the appearance of blood cells in the urine. Ref: Kennelly P.J., Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 6. Proteins: Myoglobin & Hemoglobin. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | 159,386 | medmcqa_train |
Burkitts lymphoma shows which translocation- | Cytogenetic abnormalities in the tumor cells of Burkitt&;s lymphoma is t (8;14) ,and t (8;22) involving MYC gene on chromosome 8 witho overexpression of MYC protein having transforming activity. Reference textbook of Pathology 6th edition Author Harsha Mohan page number 378 | 159,387 | medmcqa_train |
Patient presented with fever, coughing, headache. He developed rash on 3rd day, what is probable diagnosis ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Measles Measles - Rash appears 3-4 days after onset of febrile illnessMumps - There is no rashSmall pox - Already eradicatedChicken pox - Rash appears on day 1 of febrile illness. | 159,388 | medmcqa_train |
Frieberg's disease involve - | *Frieberg's disease is osteochondritis of 2nd metatarsal head. Ref: Appley's 9th/e p.723 | 159,389 | medmcqa_train |
Childhood-obesity prevention is an example of which of the following types of prevention? (E. REPEAT 2007) | Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition, Pages 39, 40 Explanation: Preventing childhood obesity becomes primordial prevention for most of the non-communicable diseases. This is because the risk factor for other diseases is prevented, which means primordial prevention. Level of prevention Phase of disease Interventions Examples Primordial Prevention of risk factors Health education * School health education Health promotion * Lite style modification * Stop smoking * Stop alcoholism Primary Prevention of disease * Chemoprophylaxis * Condom usage * Wearing helmet * Seat belt Specific protection Secondary Prevention of spread of disease and complications Early diagnosis and prompt treatment * Screening lor any disease * Two weeks cough with sputum in ease of tuberculosis * Any fever case treated as malaria * MCR slipper in diabetes before complication Tertiary Limiting the occurred complication and rehabilitation Disability limitation * Appropriate tool cure in diabetes and leprosy Rehabilitation * Artificial limbafter road traffic accidents | 159,390 | medmcqa_train |
A patient has 2 months POP cast for tibial fracture of left leg. Now he needs mobilisation with a single crutch. You will use this crutch on which side: | B i.e. Right side | 159,391 | medmcqa_train |
Deformity in anterior dislocation of hip is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ext. rotation, abduction, flexion Anterior dislocation of hipo Anterior dislocation of the hip is much less common than posterior dislocation. Indeed, it is a very uncommon injury.o It is caused by forced abduction and lateral (external) rotation of hip, usually in a violent injury such as a motor accident on aircraft crash.o Clinically, the limb is in marked external (lateral) rotation, flexion and abduction.o There may be apparent lengthening due to abduction deformity,o Closed reduction under anaesthesia is the treatment of choice,o Complications are avascular necrosis, and secondary osteoarthritis. | 159,392 | medmcqa_train |
Epithelial granuloma is caused by - | Granuloma formation is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction mediated by helper T cells. This reaction is similar to caseating granuloma formation in TB Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.: 56 | 159,393 | medmcqa_train |
First line drug used for painful diabetic neuropathy is? | Ans. (b) DuloxetineRef: Harrison 18/e, chapter 384 | 159,394 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is required in the initial stage of the synthesis of haemoglobin? | Heme is synthesized in the mitochondria. Staing substances required in the synthesis of heme are succinyl CoA and glycine. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for activation of glycine. Globin the protein pa of hemoglobin is synthesized in ribosomes. | 159,395 | medmcqa_train |
S/E of OC pills is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Carbohydrate intolerance Adverse effects of OCPs c Nausea, vomiting, headache (migraine may be worsened). o Breakthrough bleeding or spotting, Amenorrhoea o Breast discomfo (mastalgia) o Weight gain, acne and increased body hair. o Cholasma, pruritus vulvae o Carbohydrate intolerance o Mood swing, abdominal distention (especially with minipill). o Leg vein and pulmonary thrombosis. Coronary & cerebral thrombosis --> MI, stroke u Estrogen component is responsible for venous thromboembolism. Both estrogen and progesterone are responsible for the aerial phenomena. o Mechanisms involved may be ? I. Increase in the blood clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) Decrease antithrombin III and plasminogen activator. Increased platelet aggregation. o Rise in BP T risk of breast and cervical carcinoma (risk of endometrial and ovarian carcinoma decreases) o Benign hepatoma - may turn into malignant. Gall stones. Remember o Estrogen increases the risk of endometrial cancer. o Progesterone component decreases this risk in OC pills. o Estrogen has orable effect on lipid profile, while progesterone has opposite effect. o Progesterone component is mainly responsible for MI. | 159,396 | medmcqa_train |
Following a head injury a man lost his tears from his both eyes. Absence of lacrimation is due to injury to: | The greater petrosal nerve exits the geniculate ganglion and ultimately innervates the lacrimal gland. The injury to the greater superficial petrosal nerve may cause reduction or absence of tear production. Unilateral loss of lacrimation suggests injury at or proximal to the geniculate ganglion. Ref: BDC, 4th edition, IIIrd volume, Page 23, 63. | 159,397 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are primary colours except | (D) Yellow > Blue, green and red are the primary colours but the cones with their maximal sensitivity in the yellow portion of sensitive enough in red portion to respond to red light at a lower threshold than green | 159,398 | medmcqa_train |
Most common nerve used conduction study in H reflex - | *The H reflex is basically an electrophysiologically recorded Achilles' tendon stretch reflex. *It is performed by stimulating the tibial nerve in popliteal fossa. *It is recorded over the soleus or gastrocnemius muscle. *It is used most commonly to evaluate S1 radiculopathy or to distinguish it from an L5 radiculopathy. REF:Ref: Text book of Neurology p.781 | 159,399 | medmcqa_train |
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