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Erysipelas is caused by ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Strep pyogenes Erysipelas - is due to S. pyogenes and - is characterized by an abrupt onset of fiery-red swelling of the face or extremities. the distinctive features of erysipelas are well-defined indurated margins, paicularly along the nasolabial fold; rapid progression; and intense pain. extension to deeper soft tissues is rare. treatment with penicillin is effective | 159,600 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is the least common cause of infective endocarditis? | Among the following, ASD is the least common cause of infective endocarditis. Here the low turbulence is responsible for decreased incidence of IE. | 159,601 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a new ILI antagonist used in rheumatoid ahritis? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anakinra | 159,602 | medmcqa_train |
The liquid component of hybrid ionomer cements usually contains a water solution of: | The liquid component of hybrid ionomer cements usually contains a water solution of polyacrylic acid, HEMA, and polyacrylic acid modified with methacrylate.
The powder component contains fluoroaluminosilicate glass particles of a conventional GIC plus initiators, such as camphorquinone, for light curing and/or chemical curing. The acid-base reaction begins upon mixing and continues after polymerization at a much slower rate than for conventional GICs, because less water is present and the reaction is much slower in the solid phase than in the liquid phase.
Ref: Phillip’s Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 326 | 159,603 | medmcqa_train |
Rorschach test measures : | C i.e. Personality | 159,604 | medmcqa_train |
Colour of urine in phenol poisoning: | Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010. Pg: 478Explanation:Phenol poisoning can lead to green or black urine due to carboluria.Carboluria is due to oxidation of phenol to hydro- quinone and pyrocatechol.Poisonings affecting Urine ColorRed Coloured Urine - CausesMyoglobinuria- there will be a brownish-red colour. Often associated with ischemic muscle damage, crush injuries, and after vigorous exercises and toxinsGreen Coloured Urine - CausesOxalate Poisoning Phenol poisoning.Black Coloured Urine - CausesCarbolic acid poisoning.Phenol poisoningBlue Coloured Urine - CausesPresence of indigo or of methylene blue (used as an antidote to certain types of poisoning). | 159,605 | medmcqa_train |
A child can Count 4 pennies accurately by the age of ? | Emerging patterns for language behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Jargon Follows simple commands May name a familiar object (e.g., ball) Responds to his/her name 18months 10 words (average) Names pictures Identifies 1 or more pas of the body 24months Puts 3 words together (subject, verb, object) 30months Refers to self by the pronoun "I" Knows full name 36months Knows age and sex Counts 3 objects correctly Repeats 3 numbers or a sentence of 6 syllables Most of the speech intelligible to strangers 48months Counts 4 pennies accurately Tells story 60months Names 4 colours Repeats sentence of 10 syllables Counts 10 pennies correctly Ref: Nelson paediatrics; Table 11-1 | 159,606 | medmcqa_train |
Coiled spring appearance - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Intusseption Radiological investigations and signs seen in IntussusceptionPlain filmo Features of small intestinal obstruction o Abdominal soft tissue density in some cases which may showTarget sign - soft-tissue mass with concentric area of lucency due to mesenteric fatMeniscus sign - crescent of gas within colonic lumen that outlines the apex of intussusceptionBarium EnemaClaw sign - rounded apex of intussusception protrudes into the contrast column Coiled spring sign - edematous mucosal folds of returning limb of intussusceptum outlined by contrast material.Ultrasoundo Target signo Bull's eye signo Pseudokidney signAlso knowo Dance sign - feeling of emptiness in rt. iliac fossa on palpation | 159,607 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the best indicator of long term nutritional status - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Height for age Stunting (deficit in height for age) generally points towards a chronic course of malnutrition. Ghai "Height is a stable measurement of growth as opposed to body weight. Whereas weight reflects only the present health status of the child, height indicates the events in the past also". | 159,608 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice for entrapment neuropathy is ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., EMG NCV The diagnosis of mononeuropathy in entrapment neuropathy is based on electrodiagnostic studies (EMG/ NCV) and Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Entrapment neuropathy is a medical condition caused by entrapment and compression of a peripheral nerve wherever it traverses fibro-osseous tunnels. Sites of entrapment neuropathy are : - Carpal tunnel :- Median nerve (carpal tunnel syndrome) Cubital tunnel :- Ulnar nerve (cubital tunnel syndrome) Guyan's canal :- Ulnar nerve (Guyan's canal syndrome) Tarsal tunnel :- Posterior tibial nerve (Tarsal tunnel syndrome) Inguinal ligament :- Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh (meralgia paraesthetica). Suprascapular notch :- Suprascapular nerve Neck of fibula :- Common peroneal nerve Fascial tunnel of superficial peroneal nerve :- Superficial peroneal nerve Arcase of Frohse :- Posterior interosseous syndrome Thoracic outlet :- Lower trunk of brachial plexus Compression in the foot :- Digital nerve (Moen's metatarsalgia) | 159,609 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following takes place during the stationary phase of growth curve? | Growth curve:Lag phase: maximum cell size is obtained towards the end of the lag phaseLog phase: cells are smaller and stain uniformlyStationary phase: cells are frequently Gram-variable and show irregular staining due to the presence of intracellular storage granules. Sporulation occurs at this stage. Also, many bacteria produce secondary metabolic products such as exotoxins and antibioticsPhase of decline: involution forms are common Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p22-23 | 159,610 | medmcqa_train |
Ramesh met an accident with a car and has been in &;deep coma&; for the last 15 days. The most suitable route for the administration of proteins and caloriesis by? | Unless the GI tract is non-functional, its use for nutritional suppo is preferable as compared to TPN. In a patient who is comatose either NG feeding or feeding through a gastrostomy tube may lead to vomiting and aspiration. This can be avoided by using a nasoenteric tube with the tip placed in jejunum under fluoroscopic guidance or endoscopic control. Alternatively, a catheter may be placed directly into the proximal jejunum through a small upper abdominal incision. Enteral Nutrition Enteral feeding means delivery of nutrients into the GIT. The alimentary tract should be used whenever possible. This can be acheived with oral supplements (sip feeding) or with a variety of tube-feeding techniques delivering food into the stomach, duodenum or jejunum. Advantages of Enteral route over Parenteral route Maintains integrity of gastrointestinal tract. Reduces translocation of gut bacteria that may lead to infection. Reduces levels of pro inflammatory cytokines generated by the gut that contribute to hypermetabolism. Enteral Nutrition Indication Contraindication Protein-energy malnutrition with inadequate oral intake Dysphagia except for fluids Major trauma (Or surgery) when return to required dietary intake is prolonged Inflammatory bowel disease Distal, low-output (<200 ml/day) enterocutaneous fistula To enhance adaptation after massive enterectomy Small bowel obstruction or ileus Severe diarrhoea Proximal small intestinal fistula Severe pancreatitis Ref: Sabiston 27th edition Pgno: 112 | 159,611 | medmcqa_train |
If only one terminal aldehyde group of glucose is oxidized, the product is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gluconic acid Oxidation of sugaro When aldose sugars are oxidized they may form three different sugar acid, depending upon oxidation of aldehyde group (at C-l) or terminal alcohol group (at C-6).i) Aldonic acid:- Oxidation of an aldose with hypobromous acid (HOBr) oxidises only aldehyde group and convert it to carboxyl group to form aldonic acid. For example, glucose is oxidized to gluconic acid.ii) Saccharic acid:- Oxidation of aldoses with nitric acid convert both aldehyde and terminal primary alcohol groups to carboxyl group, formic saccharic acid. For example, glucose is oxidize to glucosaccharic acid.iii) Uronic acid:- When an aldose is oxidized in such a way that the terminal primary alcohol is converted is to carboxyl without oxidation of aldehyde group, a uronic acid is produce. For example, glucose is oxidized to glucuronic acid. | 159,612 | medmcqa_train |
As per RCH, the community health centre is a ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., First referral unit First Referral Units (FRU) under the RCH programe 3 Community Health Cetres and Subdistric Hospitals that provide the following services can be declared as FRUs under the RCH programme. Three critical determinants for a facility to be declared as an FRU o Availibility of surgical interventions. o Availibility of new born care. o Availibility of blood storage facility on a 24 hour basis. o To be able to perform the full range of FRU functions a health facility (CHC or subdistrict hospital or otherwise) must have the followine facilities. Facilities required (not critical) to perform full range of FRU functions : a)A minimum bed strength of 20-30. However in difficult areas, as the Noh-East states and the under-served areas. this could initially be relaxed to 10-12 beds. b) A fully functional operation theatre c) A fully functional labour room d) An area equipped for new-born care in the labour room, and in the ward. e) A functional laboratory f) Blood storage facility g) 24-hour water supply and electricity supply h) Arrangements for waste disposal and i)Arnbulance facility | 159,613 | medmcqa_train |
Condom vending machine at petrol pump in high prevalence area is example of:- | Social marketing Concept: Seeks to develop and integrate marketing concepts with other approaches to influence behaviors that benefit individuals and communities for the greater social good - Social marketing seeks to influence social behaviors not to benefit the marketer, but to benefit the target audience and the general society Example: installation of condom vending machines at parks, pay and use toilets, railway stations, bus stations, petrol pumps, wine shops, bars, restaurants, STD/PCO booths, tea-shops, paan-shops. | 159,614 | medmcqa_train |
A 24-year-old male presented with a 4-year history of abdominal pain, periodic diarrhea, low-grade fever, and easy fatigability is found to have an entero-enteric fistula on contrast radiography. Colonoscopy shows "cobblestone" mucosa that has linear ulcerations with "skip areas" of normal bowel wall. Which of the following is most likely explanation of fistula formation in this patient? | - Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of Crohn's disease - Transmural inflammation explains 2 most common complications of Crohn's disease - i.e Strictures & fistulas. Necrosis of the intestinal wall causes ulcer formation which can penetrate entire thickness of affected intestinal wall, leading to formation of fistula Chronic inflammation causes edema & fibrosis leading to narrowing of intestinal lumen - strictures | 159,615 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding obesity syndromes, determine the true / false statements: a) Prader-Willi syndrome has normal stature with truncal obesity b) Laurence-Moon-Biedl is autosomal; polydactyly is seen c) Ahlstrom's syndrome patients has moderate mental retardation d) Cohen's syndrome- Patients will have craniofacial anomalies and delayed pubey e) Carpenter's syndrome have secondary hypogonadism | Prader-Willi syndrome is sporadic inheritance, sho statured with generalised obesity. Primary gonadism and moderate mental retardation is seen. Ahlstrom's patients will have normal intelligence. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 626 Table 77-2 A Comparison of Syndromes of Obesity--Hypogonadism and Mental Retardation. | 159,616 | medmcqa_train |
A 30 year old male presents with history of abnormal excessive blinking and grunting sounds. He has no control of these symptoms which have increased in frequency. Which of the following medications can be used for treatment of this person? | The history of the patient suggests the presence of the tic disorder. Treatment of Tic Disorder: *Dopamine depleter: Tetrabenazine (drug of choice) *Dopamine receptor blockers: Haloperidol,Fluphenazine, Pimozide *Atypical antipsychotics: Aripiprazole, Risperidone *Clonazepam *Carbamazepine *Botulinum toxin (Local injection) REF:KATZUNG 14TH ED. | 159,617 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following causes highest risk of nosocomial infection to a patient | While all hospitalized patients are at risk for HAI, ceain subpopulations are at increased risk. These include the elderly, the immune-compromised, the very young or premature, and burn and surgical patients. Ref: Ananthanarayana & panikers 9th edition | 159,618 | medmcqa_train |
Action of 1-2mcg/kg.min of dopamine is | Dopamine at dose 1-2mcg/kg.min- renal vasodilatation2-10mcg/kg/min : beta 1 stimulationMore than 10 mcg/kg/min - vasoconstriction - alpha stimulationRef: Harrison; 17th ed. Pg 1453 | 159,619 | medmcqa_train |
Number of Bones in adult skull are: | The skull at birth contains 45 bones.
The adult skull consists of 22 bones (OR 28 bones including 3 paired ear ossicles).
Calvaria/brain box - 8 bones (OR 14 bones, including 6 ear ossicles).
Facial skeleton - 14 bones. | 159,620 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are modes to decrease pain on injection caused by propofol cxcept | Propofol is formulated as a lipid emulsion which causes pain during injection that can be decreased by using a large vein, avoiding veins in the dorsum of the hand, prior injection of lidocaine or by mixing lidocaine with propofol prior to injection (2 mL of 1% lidocaine in 18 mL propofol). prior injection of opioid Thicker vein decreases pain on injection caused by propofol. | 159,621 | medmcqa_train |
True about veebral aery | The veebral aery is one of the two principal aeries which supply the brain In addition,it also supplies the spinal cord,the meninges and the suurounding mscles and bones It arises from the posterosuperior aspect of the first pa of the subclan aery It runs a long course and ends in the cranial cavity by supplying the brain The veebral aery is divided in to four pas Ref BDC volume 3,sixth edition pg 162 | 159,622 | medmcqa_train |
Waves present in electroretinogram are all EXCEPT: | ANSWER: (D) d waveREF: Khurana 4th ed p. 489Electroretinogram is composed of:a wave : Rods and Conesb wave : Muller cellsc wave: Pigment epithelium | 159,623 | medmcqa_train |
Rapid diffusion of water across cell membranes depends on the presence of water channels, called aquaporins. Proximal convoluted tubule have: | Aquaporin-1 is localized to both the basolateral and apical membrane of the proximal tubules and its presence allows water to move rapidly out of the tubule along the osmotic gradients set up by active transpo of solutes, and isotonicity is maintained. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 37. Renal Function & Micturition. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | 159,624 | medmcqa_train |
E.H. Angle introduced his classification of malocclusion in: | ANGLE'S CLASSIFICATION OF MALOCCLUSION
In 1899, Edward Angle classified malocclusion based on the mesial-distal relation of the teeth, dental arches and jaws. He considered the maxillary first permanent molar as a fixed anatomical point in the jaws and the key to occlusion.
Ref: Textbook of orthodontics Gurkeerat Singh 2nd ed page no 163 | 159,625 | medmcqa_train |
How much is the probable bilirubin level of this neonate? | Yellow staining of palms & soles indicates a bilirubin level > 15 mg/dl Modified Kramer rule: | 159,626 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with glaucoma is being treated with systemic beta blocker. All of the foll,twing can be given to the patient except | Ans. c. Levobunolol Brimonidine, dorzolamide and prostaglandin are topical anti-glaucoma drugs. These drugs do not have systemic side effects, while levobunolol (beta-blocker) is systemic anti-glaucoma drug given orally, having systemic side effects. That is why in patients with glaucoma treated with systemic beta blockers, levobunolol may add on the side effects of beta-blockers, hence avoided in the above mentioned patient. Topical Anti-glaucoma Drugs Adrenergic agonist Non-selective: Epinephrine, Dipivefrine Alpha2-selective: Apraclonidine, Brimonidine Adrenergic antagonist Beta--blocker (Non-selective): Timolol, Levobunolol, Caeolol, Metipranolol, Adapralol Betal-blocker: Betaxolol Miotics (direct parasympatomimetics) Pilocarpine, Physostigmine Ecothiophate, Carbachol, Demacarium Prostaglandin analogues Latanoprost Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Dorzolamide Systemic Antiglaucoma Drugs Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors Acetazolamide Dichlorphenamide Methazolamide Hyperosmotic agents Mannitol Glycerol | 159,627 | medmcqa_train |
Not a mechanism of Action of Insulin | INSULIN is a protein hormone formed from proinsulin in the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans. The major fuel-regulating hormone, it is secreted into the blood in response to a rise in concentration of blood glucose or amino acids. Insulin promotes the storage of glucose and the uptake of amino acids, increases protein and lipid synthesis, and inhibits lipolysis and gluconeogenesis.Tyrosine kinase is any of a group of enzymes that influence signaling between cells, esp. as relates to cell growth and death, cellular adhesion and movement, and cellular differentiation. Abnormalities in tyrosine kinases are found in some human diseases, including chronic myeloid (myelogenous) leukemia.Glucose transpoer type 4, also known as GLUT4, is a protein that in humans is encoded by the GLUT4 gene. GLUT4 is the insulin-regulated glucose transpoer found in adipose tissues and striated muscle (skeletal and cardiac) that is responsible for insulin-regulated glucose transpo into the cell. This protein is expressed primarily in muscle and fat cells, the major tissues in the body that respond to insulin.Na+, K+-ATPase is an enzyme that spans the plasma membrane and hydrolyzes ATP to provide the energy necessary to drive the cellular sodium pump.Hexokinase an enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group of a donor to d-glucose, producing d-glucose-6-phosphate.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-436 | 159,628 | medmcqa_train |
Inhibitor of Complex I of ETC- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rotenone Inhibitors of Electron transport chain (Respiratory chain)o Complex I:- Barbiturates (amoborbital), piercidin A, rotenone, ehlorpromazine, guanithidine.o Complex II:- Carboxin, TTFA, malonate.o Complex III:- Dimercaprol, BAL, actinomycin A, Naphthyloquinone.o Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) Carbon monoxide (CO), cyanide (CN-), H2S, azide (N3 ) | 159,629 | medmcqa_train |
Diuretics that can be used in renal failure is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Furosemide Loop diuretics (furosemide) can be used in renal failure. Among thiazides, only metolazone is used in renal failure. | 159,630 | medmcqa_train |
patient is known case of CAD suddenly presents with chest pain , shoness of breath, and with blood pressure of 90/60mmhg o/e cold clammy skin is observed, with urine output of 25ml/hr .what is the drug of choice ? | Cardiogenic shock is a condition in which your hea suddenly can&;t pump enough blood to meet your body&;s needs. The condition is most often caused by a csevere hea attack. Angina Pectoris, squeezing pain in center of chest. # Dysrhythmias * Diminished hea sounds * Acute drop in blood pressure > 30 mm Hg * Decreased cardiac output # Tachypneas, shoness of breath # Weak, thready pulse # Sweating, cold hand & feet # Urine output < 30 mL/hr PHARMACOLOGIC MANAGEMENT : Inotropic Agents augments the coronary blood flow Dopamine stimulates adrenergic and dopaminergic receptors Action depend upon the dose *(low dose): 1-5 mcg/kg/min IV- increase urine output and renal blood flow *(medium dose): 5-15 mcg/kg/min IV ; increase renal blood flow, cardiac output, hea rate, and cardiac contractitlity *(high dose): 20-50 mcg/kg/min IV ; increase blood pressure and stimulate vasoconstriction; may not have a beneficial effect in blood pressure; may increase risk of tachyarrhythmias . ref : kd tripathi 8th ed | 159,631 | medmcqa_train |
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy stands for - | Ans. B. Chemotherapy before surgeryNeoadiuvant chemotherapy refers to Combination of Chemotherapy and surgery/radiotherapy in which chemotherapy is given prior to surgery/radiotherapy. | 159,632 | medmcqa_train |
Flowing wax appearance on anterior and posterior borders of vertebrae with normal intervertebral disc space occurring due to ligament calcification is seen in – | Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis: DISH (hyperostotic spondylosis, Forestier's disease) is a multifocal entity of older people characterized by "flowing ossifications of the spine" involving four or more contiguous vertebrae and hyperostosis of some ligamentous attachments. The thick, flowing, florid, exuberant corticated plaques are extensive than that seen in degenerative changes producing so-called 'dripping candle wax or flowing candle wax' appearance. | 159,633 | medmcqa_train |
Which is false about hemolytic anemia? | Ans. (a) Decreased LDH(Ref: 9th/pg 631-632)In hemolytic anemia, there is decreased haptoglobin, decreased RBC survival, increased unconjugated bilirubin & Increased LDH. | 159,634 | medmcqa_train |
Oligohydramnios is seen in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Renal agenesis Renal agenesis prevents urine formation which leads to oligohydramnios.Oligohydramnios is condition where amniotic fluid is deficient in amount to the extent of 100ml or entirely absentAetiologyRenal agenesis*Amnion nodosum*IUGR*Post maturity*Obst. of urinary tract (post urethral Valve*) | 159,635 | medmcqa_train |
Dermatome supplying the middle finger is- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., C7 * Sensory distribution of upper limb is as followThe cutaneous nervesRegion suppliedNerve(s)Root valueDerived fromUpper part of pectoral region, and skin over upper part of deltoidSupraclavicularC3,C4Cervical plexusArm 1. Upper medial partIntercostobrachialT22nd intercostal2. Lower medial partMedial cutaneous nerve of armT1,T2Medial cord3. Upper lateral part (including skin over lower part of deltoid)Upper lateral cutaneous nerve of armC5, C6Axillary nerve4. Lower lateral partLower lateral cutaneous nerve of armC5, C6Radial nerve5. Posterior aspectPosterior cutaneous nerve of armC5Radial nerveForearm 1. Medial sideMedial cutaneous nerve of forearmC8,T1Medial cord2. Lateral sideLateral cutaneous nerve of forearmC5> C6Musculocutaneous3. Posterior sidePosterior cutaneous nerve of forearmC6, C7, C8Radial nervePalm 1. Lateral two-thirdsPalmar cutaneous branch of medianC6, C7Median2. Medial one-thirdPalmar cutaneous branch of ulnarC8UlnarDorsum of hand 1. Medial half including proximal phalanges of medial 2 1/2 digitsDorsal branch of ulnarC8Ulnar2. Lateral half including proximal phalanges of medial 2 1/2 digitsSuperficial terminal branch of radialC6, C7RadialDigits Palmar aspect, and dorsal aspect of middle and distal phalanges 1. Lateral 3V6 digitsPalmar digital branch of medianC7Median2. Medial 1 Vi digitsPalmar digital branch of ulnarC8Ulnar | 159,636 | medmcqa_train |
A 10 year old boy is having hypeension. There is no other significant history and urine analysis is cause for his hypeension ? | All these renal disease leads to hypeension. But except in polycystic kidney disease, all other will show characteristics urine findings. Polycystic kidney disease is usually asymptotic. Hypeension devolops about 10 to 20 years of age. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | 159,637 | medmcqa_train |
What is the mechanism of action of Fulvestrant? | Fulvestrant: is an estrogen receptor antagonist that downregulates the estrogen receptor and has no agonist effects. Fulvestrant competitively inhibits binding of oestradiol to the estrogen receptor (ER), with a binding affinity that is 89% that of oestradiol. Reduces the number of estrogen receptor. Good to know: It is approved for the treatment of metastatic breast cancer in postmenopausal women who have failed antiestrogen therapy. Given once in a month as a intramusclar injection. Ref: Goodman & Gillman's Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics' 12th Edition, Page 1759, 1760. | 159,638 | medmcqa_train |
8 year old child with hematuria in 5 days after throat infection? | Ans. is 'b'i.e., Ig A Nephnopathy IgA nephropathy Predominant deposition of IgA in glomeruli. RECURRENT episode of gross rematuria that also precipitation by UI in last 2-5 days. PSGN Acute GN following infection by group A - -hemolytic streptococci. Common in school age children. o Streptococcal infection usually of throat (4 or 12 strain) or skin (strain 49) by 1-4 week prior to AGN. Edema, oliguria, hypeension, ARF, hematurea of abrupt onset. | 159,639 | medmcqa_train |
Following is derivative of dental lamina: | Options 'C' Rests of Serres are remnants of dental laminal epithelium entrapped within gingiva. Option 'A & B' are remnants of Hertwig epithelial root sheath. | 159,640 | medmcqa_train |
Ascent to high altitude may cause all of the following except: March 2012 | Ans: C i.e. Cerebral palsyComplications of ascent to high altitudeHACE/ high altitude cerebral edema is rare, life threatening and usually preceded by AMS/ acute mountain sicknessHAPE/ high altitude pulmonary edema is a life threatening condition which usually occurs in the first 4 days after scent above 2500 m.Venous thrombosis has been repoed at altitudes over 6000 m. | 159,641 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following are pathological hallmark of Alzheimer&;s disease | The two hallmark pathologies required for a diagnosis of Alzheimer&;s disease(AD) are the extracellular plaque deposits of the Beta-amyloid peptide (Ab) and the intracellular flame-shaped neurofibrillary tangles of the Hyper-Phophorylated microtubule binding protein &;tau&;. Histological Hallmarks of Alzheimer&;s disease: b-Amyloid Plaque (Extracellular) Neurofibrillary Tangles (Intracellular) b-Amyloid Neuritic plaques are formed by extracellular accumulation of beta amyloid deposits. &;Neuritic&; or &;Senile&; b-amyloid plaques are an early histopathological sign of Alzheimer&;s disease (that occur rarely in healthy subjects) The amyloid b-protein accumulated in single Neuritic plaques is toxic to surrounding structures and adjacent neurons. Clinico-pathological studies have shown that amyloid burden does not directly correlate with severity or duration of dementia. Neurofibrillary tangles are formed by intracellular accumulation of hyper-phophorylated microtubule binding protein &;tau&; NFT&;s occur in many neurodegenerative diseases and/or a group of diseases called &;taupathies&;. These include Frontotemporal dementia, Pick&;s disease etc., The co-occurence of b-amyloid plaques with NFT&;s suggests a diagnosis of Alzheimer&;s disease (AD) The NFT&;s are toxic to the neurons and neurons with NFT&;s eventually die and degnerate leaving a residual &;ghost tangle&; in the extramedullary space reminding of the pyramidal cell body in which it was initially formed. Clinico-pathological studies have shown that dementia correlates more strongly with NFT&;s than with senile plaques (b-Amyloid) Ref: Bailey and Love 27th edition | 159,642 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a cause for the development of carpal tunnel syndrome? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Menorrhagia * There are many causes of carpal tunnel syndrome: -1) Idiopathic: - This is the most common cause.2) Pregnancy and menopause3) Metabolic: - Gout, Diabetes mellitus4) Endocrine: - Hypothyroidism, Myxedema, Acromegaly, Hyperparathyroidism.5) Deposition disorder:- Amyloidosis, Sarcoidosis, Rheumatid arthritis, Leukemia, CRF, Mucopoly-saccharoidosis.6) Alcoholism7) Local causes: - Malunited colie's fracture, osteo-arthritis of the carpal bones, synovitits of flexor tendon sheath, hematoma. | 159,643 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following childhood disorder improves with increase in age – | Temper tantrum reaches its peak point during second and third year of life and gradually subsides in between 3 to 6 years as the child learng to control his negativism and complies to the requests of others. | 159,644 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is most likely to be the cause of painful third nerve palsy of sudden onset in a man of 40 | Ans. Rupture of a supraclinoid aneurysm | 159,645 | medmcqa_train |
Condition in which lid is adhered to conjunctiva is- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Symblepharon * A symblepharon is a partial or complete adhesion of the palpebral conjunctiva of the eyelid to the bulbar conjunctiva of the eyeball. It results either from disease (conjunctival sequelae of trachoma) or trauma. | 159,646 | medmcqa_train |
A 10 year old child due to choked suddenly on consuming food . On the failed attempt of Valsalva's manoeuvre a needle cricothyrotomywas performed . It would open into which of the following regions? | Infraglottic cavity extends from rima glottidis to the lower border of the cricoid cailage. The rima glottidis is the space between the vocal folds and arytenoid cailages. Vestibule extends from the laryngeal inlet to the vestibular folds. Ventricle extends between vestibular fold and the vocal fold. Piriform recess is a pear-shaped fossa in wall of the laryngopharynx lateral to the arytenoid cailage. | 159,647 | medmcqa_train |
The main infectious agent associated with recurrent pulmonary infections in patients with cystic fibrosis is _____________ . | Pseudomonas affect small children with malnutrition and poor immunity.it colonise airway of patients with cysticfibrosis and cause recurrent pulmonary exacerbations. pathology:well demarcated areas of consolidation and necrosis occur due to vasculitis Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS ,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:355,7 th edition | 159,648 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway? | Step 5: Transketolase Reaction - Transketolase is a thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) dependent enzyme. It transfers two-carbon unit (with keto group) from xylulose-5-phosphate to ribose-5-phosphate to form a 7 carbon sugar, sedoheptulose-7-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3- phosphate. Transketolase enzyme will transfer the group from a donor ketose to an aldose acceptor. In thiamine deficiency transketolase activity is decreased. The reaction may be summarized as 5C + 5C = 7C + 3C. REF: DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK OF BIOCHEMISTRY, SIXTH EDITION,PG.NO.,114. | 159,649 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not an extrapyramidal tract - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Corticospinal tract Descending pathwaysPyramidal tractExtrapvramidal tractso Corticospinal tracto Rubrospinal tracto Tectospinal tracto Vestibulospinal tracto Reticulospinal tracto This question is a direct repeat from NBE based A1 2013-14. | 159,650 | medmcqa_train |
In cerebellar lesion NOT seen is | Resting tremor is the manifestation of parkinsonism In cerebellar lesion intentional tremors are seen | 159,651 | medmcqa_train |
A 2 yrs old boy, is brought with sudden onset of stridor and respiratory difficulty. The chest examination reveals decreased breath sounds and wheeze in the right side. The chest X-Ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis: | Foreign body inhalation is most common cause of acute collapse with peak age incedence in 1-2 years. Ref: Textbook of Pediatrics By K.N Agarwal, 2010, Page 235 | 159,652 | medmcqa_train |
Dental caries is caused by | Streptococcus mutans is an alpha Hemolytic streptococcus which is a pa of the normal flora of the oral cavity. This gram-positive coccus is commonly found in the mouth from where it can spread to cause dental caries or endocarditis in individuals with risk factors(dental extraction in individuals with damaged hea valves). The bacteria has a polysaccharide coat that allows it to stick to teeth and also to the damaged hea valves. It produces acid from sugar in saliva and this promotes erosion of tooth enamel. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 221 | 159,653 | medmcqa_train |
Injury due to Alkalis causes: | Symbelapharon | 159,654 | medmcqa_train |
Massive transfusion can cause a) Hyperkalemia b) DIC c) Thrombocytopenia d) Hypothermia | Complications of Massive transfusion Massive transfusion cam lead to coagulapathy and metabolic complications Most common cause of death after massive transfusion : Dilutional Coagulopathy or DIC Transfusion of 15-20 units of blood components causes Dilutional thrombocytopenia After massive transfusion initially transient hyperglycemia due to glucose in preservatives leading to insulin release and causing hypoglycemia (MC) Galvimetric method of estimation of blood loss : Blood loss during operation is measured by weighing the swabs after use & subtracting the dry weight plus volume of blood collected in suction or drainage Metabolic complications of Massive transfusion General Fluid overload Hypothermia Impaired oxygen delivery capacity of Hb (decreased 2,3-DPG). Electrolyte Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypomagnesemia Metabolic alkalosis Metabolic acidosis (rare) Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :138 | 159,655 | medmcqa_train |
Biconcave shape of RBC is useful for all, EXCEPT: | Biconcave shape allows easy folding of RBC on itself when it passes through capillaries. It allows considerable alteration in cell volume. Thus can withstand considerable changes of osmotic pressure and resisit hemolysis. Also Know: In humans, they survive in the circulation for an average of 120 days. The average normal red blood cell count is 5.4 million/L in men and 4.8 million/L in women. The number of red cells is also conveniently expressed as the hematocrit, or the percentage of the blood, by volume, that is occupied by erythrocytes. Each human red blood cell is about 7.5 m in diameter and 2 m thick, and each contains approximately 29 pg of hemoglobin. There are thus about 3 x 10 13 red blood cells and about 900 g of hemoglobin in the circulating blood of an adult man. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 31. Blood as a Circulatory Fluid & the Dynamics of Blood & Lymph Flow. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e | 159,656 | medmcqa_train |
Sweating is Not present in | Heat stroke Exposure to high environmental temperatures can lead to following conditions ? I . Heat fatigue - Performance of a person decreases due to high environmental temperatures. The person gets tired early d/t high temp. 2. Heat cramps - these are painful spasms of voluntary muscles following strenous work in hot conditions, These cramps are caused by loss of water and salt from profuse sweating. 3. Heat syncope (heat exhaustion, heat collapse) - It is a condition of collapse without increase in body temperature, following exposure to hot and humid atmosphere. - On examination,. face is pale, .skin cold, the temperature subnormal - The pt. usually recovers when placed at rest. Death is unusual and may occur d/t hea failure. 4. Heat stroke - (heat hyperpyrexia, sub stroke) - It is due to impairment of body's heat regulating mechanism caused by failure of cutaneous circulation & sweating, following prolonged exposure to hot, humid conditions. - The onset is usually sudden with sudden collapse and loss of consciousness. Predominant symptoms may also be seen (i.e. headache, nausea, vomitting, dizziness, mental confusion, muscle cramps, excessive thirst, excessive desire to micturate) - The skin is dry, hot and flushed with complete absence of sweating - Body temperature rises as high as 43degC (hence k/a hyperpyrexia) when body temp. rises above 42degC vasodilation occurs with decrease in blood volume leading to circulatory collapse and cardiac failure. - Delirium and convulsions may precede death. - Moality rate in this condition is relatively high. - Fatal period varies from few minutes to 3 days. | 159,657 | medmcqa_train |
Mitral and periglomerular cells are seen in | Ans. (b) Olfactory bulb(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.217)Olfactory bulb has got special synaptic units called olfactory glomeruli where four types of cells are seen namely,#Mitral cells#Tufted cells#Granule cells#Periglomerular cells | 159,658 | medmcqa_train |
Osteosarcoma commonly affects: September 2005 | Ans. A: Metaphysis Metaphysis-common site for osteosarcoma Diachysis- common site for ewing's tumor Epiphysis- common site for osteoclastoma | 159,659 | medmcqa_train |
All are common oral manifestations of HIV except? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lichen planus Oral manifestations of HIV/AIDSFungal infectionsOral candidiasis (erythematous & pseudo membranous type)HistoplasmosisCryptococcosisViral diseasesHerpes simplexHerpes zosterHPV (warts)CMVHairy leukoplakia & HBVBacterial infectionsPeriodontal disease (linear gingival erythema, necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) and necrotizing ulcerative periodontitis NUP))MAC infectionNeoplastic lesionsKaposi's sarcomaLymphomaOther lesionsSalivary Gland Disease and xerostomiaRecurrent Aphthous Ulcerations (RAU)Angular cheilitis idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) | 159,660 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is responsible for adhesion of platelets to the vessel wall? | the Von-Willebrand factor is responsible for adhesion of platelets to the vessel wall.
“Endothelial injury allows platelets to contact the underlying extracellular matrix;
subsequent adhesion occurs through interactions with von Willebrand factor (VWF),
which is a product of normal endothelial cells and an essential cofactor for platelet binding to matrix elements."— | 159,661 | medmcqa_train |
Long term side effect of glucocorticosteroids: | Ans. B. OsteoporosisGlucocorticosteroid have many side effects like Cushing syndrome hyperglycemia, osteoporosis, delay in wound healing, increase in infection and many other. | 159,662 | medmcqa_train |
Prussak's space is situated in: | (a) Epitympanum(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 1983)The space of the epitympanum, lying in between the Shrapnell's membrane or pars flaccida and the neck of malleus is known as "PRUSSAK'S SPACE".When the retraction pocket on Pars flaccida grows medially, it goes into this Prussak's space making this the most common site of primary cholesteatoma. | 159,663 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the purpose of adjusting the occlusion in dentures? | Occlusal adjustment of dentures should be done with the premise of obtaining even occlusal contacts with balanced occlusion in order to stabilize the dentures during function. | 159,664 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzymes is involved in the degradation of the basement membrane? | Matrix metalloproteinases are a family a proteolytic enzymes that degrade components of the extracellular matrix and basement membrane. Ref: Robbin's Basic Pathology 7th Edition, Page 110, 111, 312, 103; Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinology and Infeility By Marc A. Fritz, Leon Speroff, 2010, Page 596. | 159,665 | medmcqa_train |
In a case controlled study. It is found that the disease is more common in the group taking coffee as compared to the control group. The significance of this is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Caffeine is associated with occurrence of disease Case-control study does not establish the cause and effect relationship because it can not distinguish between cause and associated factors. o Case-control study can only tell the association between cause and effect. | 159,666 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest cyst to arise in pancreas after an attack of acute pancreatitis or pancreatic trauma is:March 2004 | Ans. C i.e. Pseudocyst | 159,667 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the common amino acid between urea cycle and TCA? | Ans. (a) AsparateRef: Satyanarayan Biochemistry, pg. 339Role of Aspartate in urea cycle:* Aspartate participates in urea cycle for condensation with citrulline to form Argino succinic acid. The reaction is catalyzed by Argino succinic acid synthetase (Asparate provides one out of the two nitrogens of urea, the other nitrogen is contributed by Glutamate).* In the subsequent reaction, Argino succinic acid undergoes a lytic reaction to form Arginine and fumarate. Fumarate forms a link between TCA cycle and urea. Fumarate can be recycled to form oxaloacetate, through intermediate formation of malate that can be transmmated to form aspartate, to get reutilized in the urea cycleLink between TCA and urea cycleRole of Aspartate in TCA cycle* Oxaloacetate, the keto acid obtained from Aspartate by transamination is an intermediate of TCA cycle.* Oxaloacetate can either be utilized in TCA cycle or be channeled to the pathway of gluconeogenesis.* Hence asparatate is a common intermediate of TCA cycle (through oxaloacetate) and urea cycle (directly) | 159,668 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following structures is not at immediate risk of erosion by cholesteatoma ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Base plate of stapes Cholesteatoma has the propey to destroy the bone by viue of the enzymes released by it. Structures immediately at the risk of erosion are : - Long process of incus. Fallopian canal containing facial nerve. Horizontal / lateral semicircular canal | 159,669 | medmcqa_train |
Third nerve palsy causes all except | CN III palsy will cause diplopia not miosis. | 159,670 | medmcqa_train |
Normal splanchnic blood supply of the liver includes- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Portal vein * Liver has dual blood supply and receives 20% of its blood supply through hepatic artery (systemic) and 80% through portal vein (splanchnic). Portal vein is formed by union of splenic vein and superior mesenteric veins.* Venous drainage is through hepatic veins into IVC. | 159,671 | medmcqa_train |
In prolonged starvation the main energy source of brain is: | STARVE FEED CYCLE
Divided into 5 stages:
Well-fed state (1–4 hours after food)
Early fasting (4–16 hours after food)
Fasting (16–48 hours after food)
Starvation (2–3 days without food)
Prolonged starvation (> 5 days without food). | 159,672 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following disorder is x-linked recessive ? | Fabry's disease is x-linked recessive. Red are autosomal recessive. | 159,673 | medmcqa_train |
National immunization programme, all are involved, EXCEPT: | The vaccines recommended for National immunization programme are BCG, DPT, TT, OPV and measles. Hepatitis B is not recommended in National immunization programme. Ref: O.P. Ghai, 6Th Ed Page 200. | 159,674 | medmcqa_train |
A 45-year-old woman has experienced worsening arthritis of her hands and feet for the past 15 years. On physical examination, there are marked deformities of the hands and feet, with ulnar deviation of the hands and swan-neck deformities of the fingers. Laboratory studies show an elevated level of rheumatoid factor. CBC shows hemoglobin, 11.6 g/dL; hematocrit, 34.8%; MCV, 87 mm3; platelet count, 268,000/ mm3; and WBC count, 6800/ mm3. There is a normal serum haptoglobin level, serum iron concentration of 20 mg/ dL, total iron-binding capacity of 195 mg/dL, percent saturation of 10.2, and serum ferritin concentration of 317 ng/mL. No fibrin split products are detected. The reticulocyte concentration is 1.1%. What is the most likely mechanism underlying this patient's hematologic abnormalities? | The iron concentration and iron-binding capacity are low; however, in contrast to the finding in anemia of iron deficiency, the serum ferritin level is increased. This increase is typical of anemia of chronic disease. In this case, the chronic disease is rheumatoid arthritis. Underlying chronic inflammatory or neoplastic diseases increases the secretion of cytokines such as interleukin-1, tumor necrosis factor, and interferon-g. These cytokines promote the sequestration of iron in storage compartments and depress erythropoietin production. Autoantibody hemolytic anemias occur in several autoimmune diseases, such as systemic lupus erythematosus, but not usually in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, as in this case. Normal serum haptoglobin rules out intravascular hemolysis; iron is recycled at a rapid rate. Impaired synthesis of b-globin chains gives rise to b-thalassemia, also characterized by hemolysis. Complement lysis is enhanced in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, which results from mutations in the PIGA gene. Patients with this disorder have a history of infections. Sequestration of RBCs in the spleen occur when RBC membranes are abnormal, as in hereditary spherocytosis or sickle cell anemia, or RBCs are coated by antibodies, as in autoimmune hemolytic anemias. Metastases are space-occupying lesions (myelophthisic process) that can lead to leukoerythroblastosis, with nucleated RBCs and immature WBCs appearing on the peripheral blood smear. | 159,675 | medmcqa_train |
True about femoral hernia is - | Answer is 'b' i.e. Pregnancy is common cause Femoral hernia In this hernia the abdominal contents pass through the femoral ring, traverse the femoral canal and come out through the saphenous opening. It is more common in females (But remember that most common hernia in the females is not femoral, but it is indirect inguinal) Femoral hernia is rare in men and nulliparous women but more common in multiparous women due to stretching of the pelvic ligaments. In contrast to inguinal hernia, femoral hernia is rare in infancy and childhood. It is rare before pubey. It is more common on right side It is bilateral in 20% of cases. Among all the types of hernia, femoral hernia is most liable to become strangulated, mainly because of the narrowness of the neck of the sac and the rigidity of the femoral ring. Infact strangulation is the initial presentation of 40% of femoral hernias. About option 'd' Cryptorchidism is associated with indirect inguinal hernias due to patent processus vaginalis. | 159,676 | medmcqa_train |
Most common association with Acanthosis nigricans ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Obesity Acanthosis nigricans is a brown to black, velvety hyperpigmentation of the skin. It is usually found in body folds, such as posterior & lateral folds of neck, axilla, groin, umblicus, forehead. It typically occurs in individuals younger than 40 years of age. Histopathologically papillomatosis is characteristically seen; however, there is no hypermelanosis and there is only mild acanthosis, if present. It is associated with : Obesity (most common) Endocrinopathies --> Hypothyroidism, hypehyroidism, insuline resistance diabetes, Cushing's disease, PCOD, Bloom syndrome. Internal malignancy --> Gastric adenocarcinoma. | 159,677 | medmcqa_train |
Delirium is seen in which of the following poisonings | A i.e. Dhatura; B i.e. Lead; C i.e. Opioid - The Deliriant poisons are - 'Hy - AB - CD' i.e. Hyoscyamus, Atropa Belladona, Cannabis, DhaturaQ - Opium & chronic Lead poisoningQ also causes delirium | 159,678 | medmcqa_train |
A 74-year-old woman has noted increasing size and number of darker brown patches on the dorsum of each hand for the past 15 years. They do not change with sun exposure, are nonpruritic, and non-tender. On examination, these 0.5- to 1-cm lightly pigmented lesions are flat. Which of the following is the most likely microscopic finding in these lesions? | Unlike a freckle that darkens upon light exposure, lentigo (pleural:lentigenes) does not. There is a focal increase in melanocytes of the basal layer, along with thinning of epidermis and elongation of rete ridges. Lentigines can occur at any age; those in older persons may be termed senile lentigines or age spots. A nevus typically forms a nodule and likely appears much earlier in life. Loss of melanin is termed vitiligo and is a separate process from melanocyte hyperplasia. A collection of mast cells can produce urticaria pigmentosa, which often has a light brown appearance, but pruritus is common. Some superficial fungal infections (black piedra) may be pigmented, but they typically do not persist for years. | 159,679 | medmcqa_train |
Pericardial space is present between | Pericardial space (pericardial cavity) lies between parietal serous pericardium and visceral serous pericardium. | 159,680 | medmcqa_train |
Which is NOT a feature of polymyositis? | Answer is B (Gottron's rash) : Gottron's rash is a feature of dermatomyositis and is characterized by erythema of knuckles witlz raised violaceous scaly eruptions. No rash is seen in patients of polymnyositis Polymyositis is essentially a diagnosis of exclusion Polymyositis is a subacute inflammatory myopathy affecting adults and rarely children who do not have I. Rash) Involvement of extraocular or fascial muscles) Family history of neuromuscular disease History of exposure to myotoxic drugs or toxins Endocrinopathy Neurogenic disease Muscular dystrophy Biochemical muscle disorder. Dermatomyositis : is a distinctive entitiy identified by a characteristic rash, accompanying or more often preceding muscles weakness. | 159,681 | medmcqa_train |
Transmission of R factor is by - | Conjugation
Bacterial conjugation is the transfer of genetic material between bacteria through direct cell to cell contact or through a bridge- like the connection between two cells.
Conjugation is a process whereby a donor (male) bacterium makes physical contact with a recipient (female) bacterium.
Donor status is determined by the presence of plasmid.
This plasmid codes for specialized fimbria (sex pilus) and for self-transfer.
Sex pilus (conjugation tube) helps in the transfer of genetic material from male bacterium to female bacterium.
The plasmid is known as transfer factor (sex factor or fertility factor).
The plasmid may be R factor, which codes for transferrable multiple drug resistance.
The DNA of the plasmid replicates during transfer so that each bacterium receives a copy → Recipient becomes a donor and the donor retains its donor status. | 159,682 | medmcqa_train |
Boutonniere deformity involves: | Boutonniere deformity involves: Flexion at PIP and extention at DIP joint seen in RA Other deformities in RA- Swan-neck deformity Z-deformity of thumb Ulnar detion of fingers | 159,683 | medmcqa_train |
Infective stage for mosquito in case of Plasmodium vivax is: | Gametocyte | 159,684 | medmcqa_train |
Rhinitiss sicca involves | Rhinitis sicca is a crust-forming disease seen in patients who work in hot, dry and dusty surroundings, e.g. bakers, iron- and goldsmiths.Condition is confined to the anterior third of nose paicularly of the nasal septum. Here, the ciliated columnar epithelium undergoes squamous metaplasia with atrophy of seromucinous glands. Crusts form on the anterior pa of septum and their removal causes ulceration and epistaxis, and may lead to septal perforation.Dhingra 6e pg: 155 | 159,685 | medmcqa_train |
Most abundant and common complement component for both the pathways is: | C3 | 159,686 | medmcqa_train |
Cat is an agent for transmission of the following disease of man - | Cat and other felines- definitive host Human - intermediate host (Refer pgno:64 baveja 3 rd edition) | 159,687 | medmcqa_train |
Screening of neonatal thyroid disease is done by | Since the neonates are asymptomatic at bih all newborns are screened for neonatal hypothyroidism. TSH is estimated either in cord blood at the time of bih (preferred) or blood obtained from heel prick after 2 days of bih.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2669 - 2773) | 159,688 | medmcqa_train |
The roof of the olfactory region is formed by ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cribriform plate of ethmoid The olfactory mucosa lines the upper one-third of nasal cavity including the roof formed by cribriform plate and the medial and lateral walls up to the level of superior concha (turbinate). | 159,689 | medmcqa_train |
The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneously breathing infant - | Ayre&;s T piece is used in infants. The patient inspires fresh gas from the reservoir tube,expires into the reservoir tube. Advantages are they are inexpensive,compact,no valves and low dead space | 159,690 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice in postcoital bleeding in a 60 years old lady is : | Ans. is b i.e. Colposcopy and biopsy investigation of choice in post-coital bleeding in a 60 years old lady (which suggests carcinoma cervix) is Colposcopy and Biopsy. The aim of Colposcopy is : - to confirm the diagnosis - to identify the extent of lesion - it allows conservative treatment in case of precancerous lesions. Pap smear is not the investigation of choice, as it is a screening procedure. If pap smear is negative in this case (In postmenopausal females, where there are less metaplastic changes at squamo columnar junction) we still have to confirm by Colposcopy. Cone biopsy is a destructive method and is advised only if diagnosis cannot be confirmed by colposcopy or SCJ is not visualised. | 159,691 | medmcqa_train |
Primary pleural tumor is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mesothelioma & 'd' i.e., Fibroma The pleura may be involved by primary or secondary tumors. Primary tumors Benign - Solitary fibrous tumor (benign fibrous mesothelioma or benign mesothelioma or pleural fibroma). Malignant - Malignant mesothelioma. Secondary tumors More common than primary tumors. Most common primary sites are lung and breast. Pleural fibroma (Benign fibrous mesothelioma) This is the primary benign lesion of pleura. The tumor is often attached to the pleural surface by a pedicle. These tumor do not usually produce a pleural effusion and have no relationship to asbestos exposure (in contrast to malignant mesothelioma). They consist of dense fibrous tissue with occasional cysts filled with viscid fluid. Microscopically, the tumors show whorls of reticulin and collegen fibers among which are interspersed spindle cells resembling fibroblasts. The tumor cells are CD 34 (+)ve and keratin negative by immunostaining. This feature can be diagnostically useful in distinguishing these lesions from malignant mesothelomas which is CD34 (-)ve and keratin positive. | 159,692 | medmcqa_train |
Epalrestat is a | Epalrestat is analdose reductase inhibitor. There by it reduces the formation of sorbitol from glucose. Sorbitol acts like a tissue toxin. "Long-term treatment with epalrestat is well tolerated and can effectively delay the progression of diabetic neuropathy and ameliorate the associated symptoms of the disease, paicularly in subjects with good glycemic control and limited microangiopathy." Epalrestat is a drug that we use in diabetic but it is not a antidiabetic drug (i.e. it does not reduce the blood sugar level). | 159,693 | medmcqa_train |
Mechanism of action of cholera toxin is | CHOLERA ENTEROTOXIN Light (L) toxin : Binds with ganglioside in epithelial cell membrane Heavy(H) toxin : Activates Adenyl cyclase in Epithelial cell wall which increase camp, leading to outpouring of isotonic fluid in lumen of intestine Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 253 | 159,694 | medmcqa_train |
Tissue elevation of which of the following cause vasoconstriction : | Ans. D. Ca2+Vascular Control by lons and Other Chemical Factors Guyton 12th(SAE)/269An increase in calcium ion concentration causes vasoconstriction.An increase in potassium ion concentration,.within the physiological range, causes vasodilation.An increase in magnesium ion concentration causes powerful vasodilation.An increase in hydrogen ion concentration (decrease in pH) causes dilation of the aerioles.Anions that have significant effects on blood vessels are acetate and citrate.An Increase in carbon dioxide concentration causes moderate vasodilation in most tissues but marked vasodilation in the brain. | 159,695 | medmcqa_train |
Vital statistics in a population include:- | Population statistics Vital statistics Population size Sex ratio Density of population Dependency ratio Bih rate, death rate Natural growth rate Life expectancy at bih Moality rates Feility rates | 159,696 | medmcqa_train |
A 26yr old pregnant mother who had previous twin delivery visits ANC OPD for routine check up she is sure of her dates with 36 wks pay what is the obstetric score | REF : DUTTA 9TH ED | 159,697 | medmcqa_train |
Wrong statement is – | Koilonychia is seen in iron deficiency anemia (not in megaloblastic anemia).
Mees line is seen in Arsenic poisoning.
Pterygium is diagnostic for lichen planus.
Psoriasis can cause onycholysis | 159,698 | medmcqa_train |
The MOST appropriate time for self-examination of breast in relation to menstraution in a pre-menopausal woman is? | Breast self-examination is to be performed by all women above 18 years throughout their life. It should be performed every month at the same time of menstrual cycle. For pre-menopausal women: The best time is right after the menstrual cycle ends (7-10 day; after menstrual cycle stas) as at this time the breasts are less swollen and less tender a; estrogen levels are low. For post-menopausal women: BSE at any specific date can be selected for each month For women on H: BSE to be done after finishing each cycle of H For women on OCP: BSE should be performed with the sta of new pill pack each month | 159,699 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits