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Ionized molecules cannot cross the biological membranes .therfore they are less likely to be absorbed . Entry of the molecules through blood brain barrier and blood placental barrier is also restricted .these drugs cannot be reabsorbed in the nephron,thus are excreted by the kidney . Refer kDT 7/e p29
Anatomy
General anatomy
A highly ionized drug A. Is excreted mainly by kidney B. Can carry placental barrier easily C. Is well absorbed from intestine D. Accumulates in cellular lipids
Is excreted mainly by kidney
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Ans. a. Diphtheria (Ref: Harrison 19/e p978, 18/e p1189-1190)Bull-neck is seen in severe cases of diphtheria.Respiratory DiphtheriaClinical Features:The clinical diagnosis of diphtheria is based on:Constellation of sore throatQAdherent tonsillar, pharyngeal, or nasal pseudomembranous lesionsQLow-grade feverQOccasionally, weakness, dysphagia, headache, and voice change are the initial manifestationsQ.Neck edema and difficulty breathing are seen in more advanced cases and carry a poor prognosisQ.The systemic manifestations of diphtheria stem from the effects of diphtheria toxin and include weakness as a result of neurotoxicity and cardiac arrhythmias or congestive heart failure due to myocarditisQ.The pseudomembranous lesion is most often located in the tonsiilopharyngeal regionQ.The diphtheritic pseudomembrane is gray or whitish and sharply demarcatedQ.Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissuesQ.Less commonly, the lesions are detected in the larynx, nares. and trachea or bronchial passages.Large pseudomembranes are associated with severe disease and a poor prognosisQ.A few patients develop swelling of the tonsils and present with "bull-neck" diphtheria, which results from massive edema of the submandibular and paratracheal region and is further characterized by foul breath, thick speech, and stridorous breathingQ.Unlike the exudative lesion associated with streptococcal pharyngitis, the pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissuesQ.Diagnosis:Attempts to dislodge the membrane may cause bleeding.Hoarsensess suggests laryngeal diphtheria, in which laryngoscopy may be diagnostically helpful.In addition, diagnosis requires the isolation of C. diphtheria or the histopathologic isolation of compatible grampositive organismsQ.
Pediatrics
Infection
'Bull-neck' is seen in severe cases of which of the following? A. Diphtheria B. Tubercular lymphadenitis C. Mumps D. Goitre
Diphtheria
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Ans. (c) Used as nibbler and remove fibrous tissue from non-union siteRef: Textbook of Orthopedics 4th Ed by John Ebnezar; Page No- 861* It is a Double-action bone nibbler (Rounger). The double- action nibblers are mechanically superior.* Bone nibbler is available in various sizes and with different angle of the nose.# Curved nibbler - use for spinal surgery# Straight nibbler -general use# Double action nibbler - straight or curved.
Orthopaedics
General
The given below instrument is used for: A. For cutting ribs in spinal surgery B. For smoothening of the edges in amputation surgery C. Used as nibbler and remove fibrous tissue from non-union site D. To hold the hard tissues
Used as nibbler and remove fibrous tissue from non-union site
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First web space of foot is supplied by deep peroneal nerve while the rest three web spaces are supplied by superficial peroneal nerve.
Anatomy
null
Deep peroneal nerve supplies? A. First web space of foot B. Anterolateral aspect of leg C. Fourth web space of foot D. Lateral aspect of foot
First web space of foot
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Anal Was Or Condylomata Accumulata HPV forms the etiological basis of: Anal and perianal was, AIN and SCC of the anus Subtypes (16,18,31,33) are associated with a greater risk of progression to dysplasia and malignancy Condylomata accuminata is the MC STD encountered by colorectal surgeons Most frequently observed inn homosexual men Clinical Presentation: Many are asymptomatic but pruritus, discharge, bleeding and pain are usual presenting complaints Rarely, relentless growth results in gaint condylomata (Buschke-Lowenstein tumour) which may obliterate the anal orifice Diagnosis is confirmed by biopsy Treatment: Application of 25% podophyllin Surgical excision Recurrence is common Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 1412
Surgery
G.I.T
Virus that has increased association with anal was: A. HPV B. HIV C. LMV D. EBV
HPV
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Ans. (b) APO B 100Ref: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 254* The low-density-lipoprotein (LDL) receptor is a cell- surface protein that plays an important part in the metabolism of cholesterol by mediating the uptake of LDL from plasma into cells.* Although LDL particles bind to the LDL receptor through their apolipoprotein B (apo B) and apolipoprotein E (apo E) moieties, other apo E-containing particles, like chylomicron remnants, are not dependent on the LDL receptor for uptake into cells.* ApoB100 levels are associated with coronary heart disease, and are even a better predictor of it than is LDL level. A simple way of explaining this observation is to use the idea that ApoB-100 reflects lipoprotein particle number (independent of their cholesterol content). In this way, one can infer that the number of ApoB100- containing lipoprotein particles is a determinant of atherosclerosis and heart disease.* Most important apoprotein in HDL: Apo A-I* Most important apoprotein in chylomicrons: Apo B-48, E* Most important apoprotein in LDL, IDL, VLDL: Apo B-100* Apo protein for IDL - Apo B 100 and E
Biochemistry
Lipids
Main LDL receptors is: A. APO-A B. APO-B-100 C. APOc-100 D. APO-100 & APO-E
APO-B-100
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Ref Robbins 9/e p215 HLA and diseases, the association of B27 with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is the strongest. The B27 antigen is present in over 90% of patients with AS as com- pared with the B27 prevalence of 8% in Caucasians in general. A strong but slightly minor association has also been found between B27 and Reiter's syndrome (RS), reactive ahritis (ReA), and acute anterior uveitis (AAU). It is negative in rheumatoid ahritis
Anatomy
General anatomy
HLA B 27 is not seen in which of the following A. Ankylosing spondylitis B. Reiter's syndrome C. Rheumatoid ahritis D. Psoriatic ahritis
Rheumatoid ahritis
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Ans. (a) PacemakerRef: Harrison 19th ed. /440e-tContraindications of MRIAbsolute contraindicationRelative contraindication* Pacemaker* Metallic foreign body in the eye* Deep brain stimulator* Swan-Ganz catheter* Bullets or gunshot pellets* Cerebral aneurysm clips* Cochlear implant* Magnetic dental implants* AAA stent* stapes implant* Implanted drug infusion device* Neuro or bone growth stimulator* Surgical clips, wire sutures, screws or mesh* Ocular prosthesis* Penile prosthesis* Joint replacement or prosthesis* Other implants, in particular mechanical devices
Radiology
Ultrasonography, CT, and MRI
Absolute contraindication for MRI: A. Pacemaker B. Claustrophobia C. Penile prosthesis D. Joint replacement
Pacemaker
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Theophylline is a non selective phosphodiesterase inhibitor. Inhibition of this enzyme cause elevation of cellular cAMP and cGMP and cause bronchodilation. Other mechanism of action of Aminophylline includes: Antagonises adenosine receptor Increase release of IL 10 which has anti inflammatory effect It prevents the translocation of the pro-inflammatory transcription factor NF-kB into the nucleus, potentially reducing the expression of inflammatory genes in asthma and COPD. Side effects: Headache Nausea Vomiting Abdominal discomfo Restlessness Increased acid secretion Diuresis At high concentration it cause cardiac arrhythmias Very high concentration causes seizures Ref: Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e chapter 36.
Pharmacology
null
Which of the following enzyme is inhibited by Aminophylline ? A. Monoamine oxidase B. Alcohol dehydrogenase C. Cytochrome P-450 D. Phosphodiesterase
Phosphodiesterase
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Synthesis of proteins are based on the grnic information present on the DNA which is transcribef into the mRNA nucleotide sequence and then translated to the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain. The mRNA encodes the information,tge tRNA transposthe aminoacids and ribosomes provide the platform for the protein synthesizing machinery .Transfer RNA and ribosomal RBA are transcribed from specific genes on DNA by RNA polymerases Reference:FM.VASUDEVAN Textbook SEVENTH EDITION ,Page no: 597
Biochemistry
Structure and function of protein
Protein synthesis occurs in A. Ribosome B. Golgi apparatus C. Lysosomes D. Endosomes
Ribosome
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Psychosurgery can be used in the treatment of OCD that has become intractable and is not responding to other methods of treatment. The best responders are usually those who have significantly associated depression, although pure obsessives also respond. The main benefit is the marked reduction in associated distress and severe anxiety. (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th edition, pg no.98)
Psychiatry
Treatment in psychiatry
Psychosurgery is used in A. Phobia B. Generalized anxiety C. OCD D. Depression
OCD
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Gluteus maximus -        Origin    Iliac crest    Posterior gluteal line of ileum and area behind and above it    Sacrum    Coccyx    Sacrotuberous ligament -        Insertion    Gluteal tuberosity    Iliotibial tract
Anatomy
null
Gluteus maximus is inserted on - A. Lesser trochanter B. Greater trochanter C. Spiral line D. iliotibial tract
iliotibial tract
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ANSWER: (B) 12-20REF: Current OB./GYN 10th edition chapter 13.Repeat from December 2011 & June 2008Amniocentesis is often performed between 15 and 20 weeks' gestation. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is an alternative to amniocentesis. It is performed between 10 and 12 weeks' gestation and can be performed either transcervically or transabdominally.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis in Obstetrics
Amniocentesis is done at what intrauterine age? A. 12-Oct B. 20-Dec C. 20-25 D. 25-30
20-Dec
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Removal of Introns : The primary transcripts are very long ;they have molecular weights more than 10 power of 7.Molecular weight of mature mRNA is about 1-2 x 10 power of 6.This means large poion of hnRNA are cleaved off. The primary transcript contains coding regions (exons)interspersed with non-coding regions (introns). These intron sequences are cleaved and the exons are spliced (combined together ) to orm the mature mRNA molecule.This processing is done in the nucleus.Splicing is an energy requiring process. REF :DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK ;7th EDITION ; Page no :591.
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
Splicing is a process of A. Activation of protein B. Removal of introns C. Synthesis of protein D. Replication of DNA
Removal of introns
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Supernumerary teeth are those which are additional or in excess of the normal number. The most common site is upper incisor. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29 th edition Chapter 4,page- 59.
Forensic Medicine
Identification
Supernumerary teeth common location - A. Upper incisor B. Canine C. Molar D. Lower incisor
Upper incisor
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Ans. D. Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary in' a 45-year-oldAround 75% of serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary are in an advanced stage at the time of diagnosis.These tumors have a worse prognosis than any of the other tumors listed.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological Disorders in Obs.
Which one of the following tumors involving the female genital tract has the WORST prognosis? A. Dysgerminoma in a 35-year-old B. Uterine choriocarcinoma in a 25-year-old with a recent history of molar pregnancy C. Granulosa cell tumor in a 40-year-old D. Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary in a 45-year- old
Serous cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary in a 45-year- old
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., L4-5 Prolapsed intervertebral disc:* Herniation of intervertebral disc is a common cause of combined back pain and sciatica (Pain in back with radiation to lower limb). Prolapsed intervertebral disc is often precipitated by injury, but it may also occur in the absence of any remembered injury.* The site of exit of the nucleus is usually posterolateralon one or the other side.Occasionally, it can be central (posterior-midline)disc prolapse.* The type of nuclear protrusion maybe: a protrusion, an extrusion or a sequestration.* A dissecting extrusion, (an extrusion with discmaterial between the body of the vertebra andposterior longitudinal ligament, stripping the latteroff the body), may occur.* The commonest level of discprolapse is between L4-L5 in the lumbar spine and C5-C6 in the cervical spine.
Orthopaedics
Spinal Injuries
Most common site of disc prolapse in lumbar spine is A. L2-3 B. L3-4 C. L4-5 D. L5-S1
L4-5
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Ans. (a) Fibroadenoma(Ref. Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 870)* Fibroadenoma (Breast mouse) is mc in young females, painless and freely mobile with Firm Indian rubbery consistency
Surgery
Breast
Painless Breast lump in a young female A. Fibroadenoma B. Fibroadenosis C. Cancer D. Mastalgia
Fibroadenoma
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Night blindness is a first feature of Vitamin A deficiency and is also a feature of retinitis pigmentosa Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 468
Ophthalmology
Conjunctiva
Keratomalacia A. Occurs due to Vitamin A deficiency B. Relative Benign condition C. First feature of Vitamin A deficiency D. Also seen in retinitis pigmentosa
Occurs due to Vitamin A deficiency
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Ans- (c) Trinucleotide - repeat expansionRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /168* Anticipation is a phenomenon where by the symptoms of a genetic disorder become apparent at an earlier age as it is passed to next generation. In most cases, an increased severity of symptoms is also noted.* In triplet nucleotide repeat mutation, the DNA fragment is unstable and tends to expand further during cell division.So, in successive generations the expanded repeat increases and the manifestations of disease may worsen or may be observed at an earlier age; this phenomenon is referred to as anticipation.
Pathology
Cytogenetic Disorders
Anticipation is seen in? A. Translocation B. Chromosome breaking C. Trinucleotide - repeat expansion D. Mitochondrial mutation
Trinucleotide - repeat expansion
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Ans. is 'd' i.e., Moderately severe o WHO recommended the following classification on the basis of pure tone audiogram.Hearing threshold in better ear (average of 500,1000,2000Hz)Degree of impairment (WHO classification)Ability to understand speech0-25Not significantNo significant difficulty with faint speech2640MildDifficulty with faint speech.41-55ModerateFrequent difficulty with normal speech.56-70Moderately severeFrequent difficulty even with loud speech71-91SevereCan understand only shouted or amplified speechAbove 91ProfoundUsually cannot understand even amplified speech
ENT
Ear
Hearing loss of 65dB, what is the grade of deafness- A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Moderately severe
Moderately severe
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Ans. B. FibrousBased on the shape of protein are classified into:Fibrous Protein#Elongated or Needle shaped or long cylindrical or rodlike a Minimum Solubility in water#Regular Secondary Structure#Axial Ratio >10#They are Structural Proteins, e.g. Collagen, Elastin, KeratinGlobular Proteins#Spherical or oval or Spheroidal in shape#Easily Soluble#Axial Ratio <3#They perform dynamic functions, e.g. Albumin, Globulin, most enzymes
Biochemistry
Proteins and Amino Acids
The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these protein is: A. Globular B. Fibrous C. Stretch of beads D. Planar
Fibrous
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<p> It is a case of leptospirosis and the drug of choice is penicillin. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:292. <\p>
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
A sewage worker presnets to the Emergency depament with fever and jaundice. Laboratory findings reveal an elevated BUN and serum craetinine suggestive of renal failure. Which of the following antibiotics is recommended? A. Coctrimaxozole B. Erythromycin C. Ciprofloxacin D. Penicillin G
Penicillin G
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Ans. C: Iris is torn away from its ciliary attachment In iridodialysis there is rupture of the iris at its iris root and it frequently occurs following blunt trauma or penetrating injuries to the globe. Clinical features: A. Symptoms: Minimal with small iridodialyses With larger iridodyalises, patients may experience double pupil effect, monocular diplopia, glare and phophobia B. Signs: Commonly associated with hyphema and an irregular pupil (D-shaped pupil) May be single or multiple, small or extensive radially Damage of the trabecular meshwork and peripheral anterior synechiae may cause 10P elevation C. Management: Bed rest and observation. Sunglasses, tinted contact lenses or those with aificial pupil may help reduce the symptoms. Surgical repair may be considered in cases of large dialyses or persistent monocular diplopia
Ophthalmology
null
Which of the following is seen in iridodialysis: September 2009 A. Biocular diplopia B. Degenerative condition C. Iris is torn away from its ciliary attachment D. Normal pupil
Iris is torn away from its ciliary attachment
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Silver nitrate causes staining of burnt area.
Surgery
null
Which among the following causes staining of burnt area A. Sulfamylon B. Povidone iodine C. Silver nitrate D. Mafenide
Silver nitrate
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Ans. is A Centriacinar Types of emphysema 1) Centriacinar (centrilobular) emphysema o Centriacinar emphysema is the most common type of emphysema seen clinically. It is chracterized by involvement of respiratory bronchioles, i.e. central (proximal) part of the acinus. Occurs predominantly in heavy smokers and usually coexists with chronic bronchitis. 2) Panacinar (Panlobular) emphysema o The acini are uniformly enlarged from the level of the respiratory bronchiole to the terminal blind alveoli. This type of emphysema is associated with al-antitrypsin deficiency. 3) Distal acinar (Paraseptal) emphysema o This type of emphysema involves distal part of the acinus, while proximal part is normal.This type of emphysema is a common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in young adults 4) Irregular emphysema (Para-cicatricial emphysema) o The acinus is involved irregularly and is almost invariably associated with scarring. It is the most common type of emphysema histologically Remember o Most common type of emphysema is irregular emphysema, but it is not clinically significant as most patients are asymptomatic and it is only an autopsy finding. Most common type of emphysema seen clinically is centracinar emphysema.
Pathology
Obstructive Lung Diseases
Most common type of emphysema is- A. Centriacinar B. Obstructed C. Distalacinar D. Panacinar
Centriacinar
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<p> EGG Contain all the nutrients except carbohydrates and vitamin C. An egg weighing 60g contains 6g of protein, 6g of fat , 30 mg of calcium and 1.5 mg of iron, and supplies about 70 kcal of energy. Egg proteins have all the nine essential aminoacids needed by body in right propoions. Egg protein is the standard against which the quality of other proteins is compared. Except for vitamin C, egg contains all the fat soluble and water soluble vitamins in appreciable amounts. Impoant minerals such as calcium, phosphorous, iron, zinc, and other trace elements. NPU (Net protein Utilization) is 100 for egg . Boiling destroys avidin , a substance which prevents the body from obtaining biotin . {Reference: Park&;s textbook of community medicine 23 rd edition}
Social & Preventive Medicine
Nutrition and health
Egg yields about ________K cal of energy - A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80
70
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FIGO revised the staging of carcinoma ovary in January 2014 and according to the new staging inguinal LN involvement is stage IV b.
Unknown
null
In ca ovary inguinal lymph nodes are involved in stage A. Stage II B. Stage III a C. Stage IIIc D. Stage IVb
Stage IVb
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Ans. (a) HEV According to Ananthanarayan 9/e, p 550 "HEV has been classified in genus hepesvirus under family calciviridae." But according to Harrison 18/e 2543 "HEV although resembling calicivirus is sufficiently distinct from any known agent to merit a new classification of its own as a unique genus; Hepevirus with in the family Hepeviridae."
Microbiology
null
Which of the following is calcivirus? A. HEV B. HBV C. HCV D. HAV
HEV
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This question is about an impoant drug interaction occurring between erythromycin and cisapride (used for gastroesophageal reflux disease- GERD). Serious cardiac arrhythmias, including torsades de pointes, QT interval prolongation, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation, have been repoed in patients taking cisapride with medications that inhibit cytochrome P450 3A4. Examples of medications other than cisapride that have a similar interaction with erythromycin include ketoconazole, fluconazole, clarithromycin, nefazodone, and indinavir. It is impoant to note that QT prolongation, torsades de pointes, cardiac arrest, and sudden death have occurred in patients taking only cisapride. None of the other agents listed interact with erythromycin to produce these proarrhythmic effects. Famotidine is an H2 receptor antagonist used in the treatment of GERD and gastric ulcers; this agent is generally well tolerated with very little incidence of drug interactions. Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor indicated for the treatment of gastric ulcerations and GERD. When this agent is administered with phenytoin, the clearance of phenytoin is decreased by 15%, leading to an extension of the therapeutic effect. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent indicated for the treatment of GERD and diabetic gastroparesis. When given with cyclosporine, the toxic effects of cyclosporine are more pronounced. Fuhermore, when metoclopramide is administered with levodopa, it decreases the effectiveness of levodopa.
Pharmacology
null
A 54-year-old man is brought to the emergency after experiencing several syncopal episodes. The patient states that he is currently taking erythromycin for treatment of bronchitis and another medication for treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). If an electrocardiogram reveals torsades de pointes, the patient is most likely taking which of the following medications for treatment of his reflux disease? A. Cisapride B. Famotidine C. Lansoprazole D. Metoclopramide
Cisapride
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Unilateral serous otitis media in an adult should always raise the suspicion of a benign / malignant tumor of nasopharynx “In adults presenting with a unilateral middle ear effusion the possibility of a nasopharyngeal carcinoma should be considered”. Ref. Dhingra 5/e, p 72, 6/e, p 251; Current Laryngology 2/e, p 659
ENT
null
Cause of U/L secretory otitis media in an adult is - A. CSOM B. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma C. Mastoiditis D. Foreign body of external ear
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
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Increased RR interval is seen in ECG on vagal stimulation. Normal values for waves and intervals are as follows: RR interval: 0.6-1.2 seconds. P wave: 80 milliseconds. ... QT interval: 420 milliseconds or less if the hea rate is 60 beats per minute (bpm) Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
Cardiovascular system
Vagal stimulation of hea causes? (irrelevant to pharmacology) A. Increased hea rate B. Increased RR interval in ECG C. Increased cardiac output D. Increased force of contraction
Increased RR interval in ECG
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The patient is presenting with CSOM and vertigo which means cholesteatoma has led to fistula formation involving semicircular canals which in turn has caused vertigo. So the management is immediate mastoid exploration to remove the cholesteatoma.
ENT
null
A patient of CSOM has choleastatoma and presents with vertigo. Treatment of choice would be - A. Antibiotics and labyrinthine sedative B. Myringoplasty C. Immediate mastoid exploration D. Labyrinthectomy
Immediate mastoid exploration
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Most liver function test results are normal. Alpha-fetoprotein levels are increased in 90% of children with hepatoblastomas but are elevated much less commonly in children with other liver malignancies. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39.
Surgery
null
Alpha feto protein is elevated in what percentage of children with hepatoblastoma: A. 10% B. 50% C. 90% D. 100%
90%
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Ans. (d) Law of projection(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.171)Law of projection:This law states that "No matter where a particular sensory pathway is stimulated along its course to the cortex, the conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of the receptor"This law explains phantom pain wherein Some of these patients may complain of pain and proprioceptive sensations in the absent limb following amputation
Physiology
Nervous System
Phantom limp sensation are best described by A. Weber Fechner law B. Power law C. Bell-Magendie law D. Law of projection
Law of projection
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enfuvirtide New drugs in HIV infection o Etravirine is recently approved NNRTI. This is the second generation NNRTI and is effective against HIV resistant to first generation NNRTI (Efavirenz, Delavirdine. Nevirapine). Fusion inhibitors (Entry inhibitors) o Enfuvirtide binds to Gp41 subunit of HIV envelop protein and inhibits the fusion of viral and host cell membrane. o Maraviroc is a CCR5 Co-receptor antagonist and is only active against "CCR - 5 - tropic virus" which tends to predominate early in infection. Integrase inhibitors o Raltegravir and Elvitegravir act by inhibiting enzyme integrase.
Unknown
null
Fusion inhibitor is- A. Enfuvirtide B. Ritonavir C. Efavirenz D. Didanosine
Enfuvirtide
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Ans. B i.e. Posterior pituitaryArginine vasopressin (AVP)/Vasopressin/Argipressin/Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)It is a neurohypophysial hormone.It is derived from a preprohormone precursor that is synthesized in the hypothalamus and stored in vesicles at theposterior pituitary.Its two primary functions are to retain water in the body and to constrict blood vessels.Vasopressin regulates the body's retention of water by acting to increase water absorption in the collecting ducts of the kidney nephron
Physiology
null
ADH is released from: March 2013 A. Anterior pituitary B. Posterior pituitary C. Hypothalamus D. Intermediate pituitary
Posterior pituitary
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(E. coli): Ref: 173-S* The organisms found in urine in cystitis are the E. coli, streptococci, staphylococci and B. proteus, the tubercle bacillus, and occasionally pseudomonas pyocyanea, Gonococcal cystitis is relatively rare, and almost invariably follows instrumentation.* The organism which is found most frequently is the E. coli* As the result of antibiotic treatments Pseudomonas, pyocyanea sometimes become the dominant infecting organism because of its resistance to antibiotics relative to the other infecting organisms.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Miscellaneous (Gynae)
Cystitis is most commonly caused by A. E. coli B. Pseudomonas C. Proteus mirabilis D. Neisseria gonorrhea
E. coli
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The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO is a specialized agency of the United nations (UN) based in Paris , France. Its declared purpose is to contribute to promoting international collaboration in education, sciences, and culture in order to increase universal respect for justice, the rule of law , and human rights .
Social & Preventive Medicine
All India exam
The head quaers of UNESCO is located in A. New Delhi B. Geneva C. Paris D. New York
Paris
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.GARDNER'S SYNDROME * It is commonly associated with FAP - 10%. * Presents with bone, skin, soft tissue and dental abnormalities. Jaw osteomas are very common. Other features are epidermoid cysts (50%), exostoses, fibromas, lipomas. * Associated with desmoid tumours seen in the scar, abdomen, intraabdominal region and mesenteric fibromatosis. * Congenital hyperophy of pigment layer of retina (seen as pigment spots)--commonly seen. * Often associated with MEN IIb syndrome. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 834
Surgery
G.I.T
Gardener&;s syndrome is a rare hereditary disorder involving the colon. It is characterized by A. Polyposis colon, Cancer thyroid, skin tumours B. Polyposis is jejunum, pituaitary adenoma and skin tumours C. Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumours in the skin D. Polyposis of gastrointestinal tract, cholangiocarcinoma and skin tumours
Polyposis colon, osteomas, epidermal inclusion cysts and fibrous tumours in the skin
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Pancreatic ring surrounds the second or third pa of duodenum. The usual treatment is duodenoduodenostomy. Bailey & Love ,26th,1125
Surgery
G.I.T
Treatment of choice for annular pancrease is A. Division of pancreas B. Duodenoduodenostomy C. Duodenojejunostomy D. Roux-en-Y loop
Duodenoduodenostomy
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Ans. D. 2:1 blockElectrocardiography and Electrophysiology of AV conduction blockAV conduction block typically is diagnosed electrocardiographically, which characterizes the severity of the conduction disturbances and allows one to draw inferences about the location of the block. AV conduction block manifests as slow conduction in its mildest forms and failure to conduct, either intermittent of persistently, in more severe varieties.a. First degree AV block (PR interval >200ms) is a slowing of conduction through the AV junction. The site of delay is typically in the AV node but may be in the atria, bundle of his, or his Purkinje system. A wide QRS is suggestive of delay in the AV node proper or less commonly in the bundle of His. In second degree AV block there is an intermittent failure of electrical impulse conduction from atrium to ventricle.b. Second degree AV block is sub classified as Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) or Mobitz type II. The periodic failure of conduction in Mobitz, type I block is characterized by a progressively lengthening PR interval, shortening of the RR interval, and a pause that is less than the two times the immediately preceding RR interval on the electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG complex after the pause exhibits a shorter PR interval than that immediately preceding the pause. This ECG pattern most often arises because of decremental conduction of electrical impulses in the AV node.
Medicine
C.V.S.
An old lady was brought to the ER in an unconscious state. She has a history of previous such attacks in the past months. An ECG was done and the graph obtained is given below. Which of the following is most probable cause? A. PSVT B. Atrial flutter C. Ventricular bigeminy D. 2 :1 block
2 :1 block
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Coisol can stimulate mineralocoicoid receptors. But renal inactivation of coisol occurs to form coisone and thereby BP remains normal. SAME (Syndrome of Apparent Mineralocoicoid Excess) leads to lack of this inactivation. The resultant increase in coisol leads to excess activation of mineralocoicoid receptor and results in hypeension.
Medicine
Disorders of Adrenal Gland
Syndrome of apparent mineralocoicoid excess is due to? A. Increased aldosterone production B. Lack of inactivation of aldosterone C. Increased coisol production D. Lack of Inactivation of coisol to coisone
Lack of Inactivation of coisol to coisone
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pain Clinical features of compament syndrome Four signs are reliable in diagnosing a compament syndrome :- Paresthesia or hypesthesia in nerves traversing the compament Pain with passive stretching of the involved muscles (stretch pain) Pain with active flexion of the muscles Tenderness over the compament Amongst these, stretch pain is the earliest sign of impending compament syndrome. The ischemic muscles, when stretched, give rise to pain. Passive extension of fingers (streching the fingers) produce pain in flexor compament of forearm. Other features are Pulselessness, paralysis, Pallor and pain out of propoion to physical findings. Peripheral pulses, are present initially and disappear later. Therefore, pulse is not a reliable indicator for compament syndrome.
Surgery
null
First sign of compament syndrome is ? A. Pain B. Tingling C. Loss of pulse D. Loss of movement
Pain
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Lymphocytes include natural killer cells (NK cells) (which function in cell-mediated, cytotoxic innate immunity), T cells (for cell-mediated, cytotoxic adaptive immunity), and B cells (for humoral, antibody-driven adaptive immunity). Reff: Ananthanarayanan & panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:132
Microbiology
Immunology
Apa from T & B lymphocytes, the other class of lymphocytes is - A. Macrophages B. Astrocytes C. NK cells D. Langerhans cells
NK cells
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ape thumbDeformity' or disorderNerve involvedo Wrist dropo Radial nerveo Foot dropo Common peroneal nerve (Lateral popliteal)o Claw hand (complete)o Ulnar + Median nerveo Ulnar claw hando Ulnar nerveo Ape thumb deformityo Median nerveo Pointing indexo Median nerveo Policeman tip deformity'o Erb's Palsy (Brachial plexus)o Winging of scapulao Long thoracic nerve (nerve to SA)o Meralgia parestheticao Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Orthopaedics
Peripheral Nerve Injuries
Damage to median nerv e produces - A. Claw hand B. Winging ofscapule C. Ape thumb D. Wrist drop
Ape thumb
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Ulnar nerve supplies sensory fibers to the skin over the palmar and dorsal surfaces of the medial third of the hand and the medial one and one-half fingers. Funny bone sensation is irritation of a nerve at the elbow that causes numbness and tingling of the inner elbow, forearm as well as little and ring fingers Median nerve innervates the skin of the lateral side of the palm; the palmar side of the lateral three and one-half fingers; and the dorsal side of the index finger, the middle finger, and one-half of the ring finger. Radial nerve innervates the skin of the radial side of the hand and the radial two and one-half digits over the proximal phalanx.
Anatomy
Nerve supply, Nerve Lesions
A 31-year-old patient complains of sensory loss over the anterior and posterior surfaces of the medial third of the hand and the medial one and one-half fingers. He is diagnosed by a physician as having "funny bone" symptoms. Which of the following nerves is injured? A. Axillary B. Radial C. Median D. Ulnar
Ulnar
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Classical conditioning (1927) occurs readily with young children and can have a considerable impact on a young child's behavior on the first visit to a dental office. By the time a child is brought for the first visit to a dentist, even if that visit is at an early age, it is highly likely that he or she will have had many experiences with pediatricians and medical personnel. When a child experiences pain, the reflex reaction is crying and withdrawal. In Pavlovian terms, the infliction of pain is an unconditioned stimulus, but a number of aspects of the setting in which the pain occurs can come to be associated with this unconditioned stimulus. For instance, it is unusual for a child to encounter people who are dressed entirely in white uniforms or long white coats. If the unconditioned stimulus of painful treatment comes to be associated with the conditioned stimulus of white coats, a child may cry and withdraw immediately at the first sight of a white-coated dentist or dental assistant. In this case, the child has learned to associate the conditioned stimulus of pain and the unconditioned stimulus of a white-coated adult, and the mere sight of the white coat is enough to produce the reflex behavior initially associated with pain Note: A) Acquisition – learning a new experience (fear of dentist/whitecoat/needles)            B) Generalization – generalizing all similar stimuli (all those wearing white coat cause pain)            C) Discrimination – differentiating individual stimuli ( not everyone who wears white coat causes pain)            D) Extinction - disappearance of the acquired experience ( loss of fear of dental procedures)            E) Spontaneous recovery – reappearance of extinct response ( fear of dental procedure reappears due to poor management behaviour strategies).
Dental
null
A 6 year old female patient complains of pain due to a decayed lower right 2nd molar. She has a history of unpleasant dental extraction with the lower left second molar. On seeing the dentist, the child immediately cries and withdraws. Which theory of child psychology best explains the reaction of the patient? A. Operant conditioning by Skinner (1938) B. Classical conditioning by Pavlov (1972) C. Classical conditioning by Pavlov (1927) D. Operant conditioning by Skinner (1952)
Classical conditioning by Pavlov (1927)
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Mirena (LNG IUD) contains a total of 52 mg levonorgestrel (LNG) LNG is released into the uterine cavity at a rate of approximately 20 microgram/day. Act mainly by local progestogenic effects Effective for up to 5 years.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraceptives
Mirena (LNG IUCD) has to be replaced after : A. 1 year B. 5 years C. 3 years D. 6 months
5 years
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Niacin o Option a, c & d are themselves antioxidants, but glutatbion requires niacin as NADPH.o NADPH is necessary tor the maintenance of a reducing environment in the cell.o NADPH plays a key role in antioxidant defences by converting the oxidized glutathione into the reduced glutathione, which is protective.
Biochemistry
Vitamins
Glutathione requires which vitamin to act as antioxidant - A. Vitamin E B. Niacin C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin A
Niacin
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Neurological involvement + Jaundice + Azure Nails (Bluish discoloration of nails) = Wilson's disease Dx: Slit lamp examination and 24 hrs urinary copper Rx: for Neurological feature - Tetrathiomolybdate
Medicine
JIPMER 2018
A 14 year old boy with difficulty in walking and behavioural disturbance, recovered from prolonged jaundice recently, has bluish pigmentation over lunula. The next investigation to be done: A. Nail fold cappillaroscopy B. Slit lamp examination C. Biopsy of the pigmented area D. Ankle-brachial pressure index
Slit lamp examination
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Hydrofluoric acid causes Hypocalcemia. Calcium based therapies are main stay of treating Hydrofluoric acid burns. Topical application of calcium gluconate onto wounds and IV administration of calcium gluconate for systemic symptoms. Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion provides effective treatment of progressive tissue injury and intense pain.
Surgery
Burns
Intra-aerial calcium gluconate infusion is used in the management of burns caused by A. Nitric acid B. Hydrofluoric acid C. Formic acid D. Hydrochloric acid
Hydrofluoric acid
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The child is unable to drink water for 12hrs & weight of the child is 5kg which is less than expected (12kg), which shows severe malnutrition. Inability to drink constitutes a danger sign amongst the clinical manifestations and classifies the pneumonia as very severe disease. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 146; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 142, 143
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg, and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from: A. Very severe disease B. Severe Pneumonia C. Pneumonia D. No Pneumonia
Very severe disease
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Ref Robbins 9/e p259 Familial (Hereditary) Amyloidosis A variety of familial forms of amyloidosis have been described; most are rare and occur in limited geographic areas. The best-characterized is an autosomal recessive condition called familial Mediterranean fever. This is a febrile disorder characterized by attacks of fever ccompanied by inflammation of serosal surfaces, includ- ing peritoneum, pleura, and synol membrane. This dis- order is encountered largely in persons of Armenian, Sephardic Jewish, and Arabic origins. It is associated with widespread tissue involvement indistinguishable from reactive systemic amyloidosis. The amyloid fibril proteins are made up of AA proteins, suggesting that this form of amyloidosis is related to the recurrent bouts of inflamma- tion that characterize this disease. The gene for familial Mediterranean fever is called pyrin and encodes a protein that is a component of the inflammasome (Chapter 2). Patients have gain-of-function mutations in pyrin that result in constitutive overproduction of the pro- inflammatory cytokine IL-1 and persistent inflammation. In contrast with familial Mediterranean fever, a group of autosomal dominant familial disorders is characterized by deposition of amyloid predominantly in the peripheral and autonomic nerves. These familial amyloidotic poly- neuropathies have been described in kindreds in different pas of the world--for example, in Pougal, Japan, Sweden, and the United States. As mentioned previously, the fibrils in these familial polyneuropathies are made up of mutant forms of transthyretin (ATTRs).
Anatomy
General anatomy
Familial amylodotic polyneuropathy is due to amyloidosis of nerves caused by deposition of A. Amyloid associated protein B. Mutant calcitonin C. Mutant transthyretin D. Normal transthyretin
Mutant transthyretin
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dalrymple's sign o The following are presumptive signs for diagnosis of pregnancy:# Breast changes: Enlargement with vascular changes with delicate veins visible under the skin.# Jacquemier's sign/Chadwick's sign: Dusky hue of the vestibule and anterior vaginal wall, due to local congestion.# Osiander's sign: Increased pulsation felt through the lateral fomices at 8th week.# GoodelVs sign : Cervix becomes soft as early as 6th week.# Piskacek's sign : Assymetrical enlargement of the uterus if there is lateral implantation.# Hegar's sign: Approximationo of fingers placed on the abdomen and in the anterior fornix.# Palmer's sign: Regular, rhythmic uterine contraction during bimanual examination
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Diagnosis of Pregnancy
Which of the following is not a presumptive sign of pregnancy - A. Jacquemier's sign B. Dalrymple sign C. Hegar's sign D. Palmer's sign
Dalrymple sign
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Anterior hypothalamus, responds to heat;Posterior hypothalamus, responds to cold. Ref: Ganongs Review of medical physiology;25 th edition ; pg :309; table 17-1.
Physiology
Nervous system
Body temperature regulation centre is located at A. Pituitary B. Thalamus C. Hypothalamus D. Basal ganglia
Hypothalamus
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Women in the question stem with altered sensorium and dehydration is suffering from ketoacidosis. Absence of sugar exclude the diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis. So ketosis could be due to starvation which can be detected by Rotheras test. During starvation acetylCoA takes alternate fate to form ketone bodies. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By DM Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 131, 440 ; Textbook of Medical Biochemistry By Chatterjee, 4th Edition, Pages 677- 679
Biochemistry
null
A destitute woman is admitted to the hospital with altered sensorium and dehydration; urine analysis shows mild proteinuria and no sugar; what other test would be desirable: A. Fouchet B. Rothera C. Hays D. Benedicts
Rothera
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There are two large cutaneous veins running up the arm. Both veins take origin from the dorsal venous arch of the hand and run up the lateral and medial sides of the arm. On the medial side (near the 5th digit) there is the basilic vein. On the lateral side (by the thumb), there is the cephalic vein. Since the infection is on the thumb side of the forearm, the correct answer is the cephalic vein. The median antebrachial vein runs down the center of the anterior forearm. The median cubital vein connects the cephalic vein to the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.
Anatomy
null
A sixteen year old boy receives a superficial cut on the thumb side of his forearm. The superficial vein most likely affected is the? A. Basilic B. Cephalic C. Median antebrachial D. Median cubital
Cephalic
aa4c0eb6-c59d-4a8a-bdad-68c10fa7f5d7
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thalassemiao Defective splicing (defect in snurps) is the most common mutation causing thalassemia,o Molecular defect in pathogens is of thalassemia:-b-Thalassemiao Most common type of genetic abnormality in b-thalassemia is point mutation i.e., nonsense.o Some may also occur due to deletion or insertion i.e., frame shift mutations,o Defect may occur at different steps of b-chain synthesis:i) Splicing mutationso Mutations leading to aberrant splicing are the most common cause of b-thalassemia.ii) Chain terminator mutationso This cause premature termination of mRNA translation.iii) Promoter region mutationso This results in transcription defect.a-Thalassemiao The most common cause of reduced a-chain synthesis is deletion of a-globin genes,o Rarely nonsense mutation may also cause a-thalassemia.
Biochemistry
Molecular Genetics
Defect in Snurps causes- A. Sickle cell anemia B. Thalassemia C. Marfan syndrome D. EDS
Thalassemia
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Small muscles of hand include- Thenar, Hypothenar, interossei and lumbricals. They are supplied by C8-T1. Extensor indicis is supplied by C7, C8
Anatomy
null
Which of the following is not supplied by C8 T1 - A. Abductor pollicis brevis B. Extensor indicis C. Palmar interossei D. 3rd & 4th lumbricals
Extensor indicis
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Ans. C. AnthropoidBy tradition, pelvis are classified as belonging to one of four major groups. The gynecoid pelvis is the classic female pelvis with a posterior sagittal diameter of the inlet only slightly shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter. In the android pelvis, the posterior sagittal diameter at the inlet is much shorter than the anterior sagittal diameter, limiting the use of the posterior space by the fetal head. In the anthropoid pelvis, the anteroposterior (AP) diameter of the inlet is greater than the transverse diameter, resulting in an oval with large sacrosciatic notches and convergent side walls. Ischial spines are likely to be prominent. The platypelloid pelvis is flattened with a short AP and wide transverse diameter. Wide sacrosciatic notches are common. The pelves of most women do not fall into a pure type and are blends of one or more of the above types.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Fetal Skull and Maternal Pelvis
A pelvis characterized by an anteroposterior diameter of the inlet greater than the transverse diameter is classified as: A. Gynecoid B. Android C. Anthropoid D. Platypelloid
Anthropoid
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Ans. Amount of pleural fluid required to cause a blunted costophrenic angle discernible on chest radiography is more than 300 ml. A chest computerized tomography scan is more sensitive than a simple chest x-ray and is often used for assessment of loculated effusions because, in some instances, up to 500 cc of loculated fluid can be obscured behind the dome of the diaphragm
Radiology
null
Minimum fluid collection required for radiological detection of pleural effusion in lateral decubitus view is: September 2009 A. 15 ml B. 25 ml C. 35 ml D. 45 ml
25 ml
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Ulcerative colitis Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease characterized by - Inflammation involving only the mucosa and submucosa Formation of pseudopolyps Involvement is in a continuous fashion (absent of skip lesions which are characteristic of CD) Ulcerative colitis involves the rectum and extends proximally in a retrograde fashion to involve the entire colon (pancolitis) in more severe cases.
Pediatrics
null
Pseudopolyps are features of – A. Crohn's disease B. Ulcerative colitis C. Celiac sprue D. Whipple's disease
Ulcerative colitis
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Ans. C Atavistic epiphysisRef: Clinical Anatomy, Kulkarni 2nd ed. P 73TYPES OF EPIPHYSIS* Pressure: Seen at the end of long bones subjected to pressure. E.g. Femur, head of humerus, condyles of tibia and femur.* Traction: Formed due to pull of muscles. E.g. Mastoid process, tibial tuberosity, tubercles, trochanters.* Atavistic: Functional in lower animals. Degenerated in humans e.g. Coracoid process of scapula, os trigonum of talus* Abberant: It is an extra epiphysis. E.g. Proximal end of 1st metacarpal bone.
Anatomy
Joints
Coracoid process of the scapula is: A. Pressure epiphysis B. Traction epiphysis C. Atavistic epiphysis D. Aberrant epiphysis
Atavistic epiphysis
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The principal causes of infant moality in India are low bih weight (57%), respiratory infections (17%), diarrhoeal diseases(4%), congenital malformations (5%), cord infections (2%), bih injury (3%) Park 23e pg:569
Social & Preventive Medicine
Maternal and child care
Which of the following is the least likely cause of infant moality rate? A. Severe infections B. Prematurity C. Tetanus D. Bih asphyxia
Tetanus
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle o Has been explained in previous sessions.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Normal Menstrual Cycle
Mittelschimerz pain is - A. Pain during onset of menstrual cycle B. Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle C. Pain during the or at the end of menstrual cycle D. Pain during menstrual bleeding
Pain during the usual time of ovulation in menstrual cycle
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The child is suffering from obstructive jaundice or Cholestasis Enzymes elevated in Chloestasis ALP 5'-Nucleotidase Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pg no : 1997
Anatomy
G.I.T
Which is not elevated in a child presenting with icterus, Pruritus and clay coloured stools A. Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase B. Alkaline phosphatase C. 5'- nucleotidase D. Glutamate dehydrogenase
Glutamate dehydrogenase
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ulnar nerve * Ulnar nerve is also known as musicians nerve as it is needed to carry out fine and precision movements of the hand.
Anatomy
Upper Extremity
Distal muscles of the hand needed for fine wrok are controlled by- A. Radial nerve B. Median nerve C. Ulnar nerve D. Axillary nerve
Ulnar nerve
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Answwr is option 1 Abstract Malignancy is associated with a "hypercoagulable" state and a high risk for thrombohemorrhagic complications. Clinical complications may range from localized thrombosis to bleeding of varying degrees of severity because of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Life-threatening bleeding is frequent in acute leukemias, paicularly in acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL). Laboratory assessments show profound hemostatic imbalance in this condition, with activation of coagulation, fibrinolysis, and nonspecific proteolysis systems. Ref Robbins 9/e pg 455
Pathology
Haematology
D.I.C. is seen in- A. Acute promyelocytic leukemia B. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia C. CMC D. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Acute promyelocytic leukemia
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Desmopressin is used to treat neurogenic diabetes insipidus, bedwetting, hemophilia A, von Willebrand disease it acts as an agonist to vasopressin receptor or ADH receptor- produce antidiuresis- less urine production-used in DI, bedwetting, vasoconstriction - used in esophageal varices and produces vwf- used in von Willebrand disease ref KD Tripathi 8th ed
Pharmacology
Kidney
Drug of choice for neurogenic diabetes insipidus A. Vasopressin B. Terlipressin C. Desmopressin D. Pralipressin
Desmopressin
98f7241b-16ba-4011-acd6-728a15ebbf47
Non cirrhotic poal fibrosis Condition of liver characterized by widespread fibrosis of liver(mainly poal, subcapsular and rarely perisinusoidal) causing wide variation in normal architecture There is no true cirrhosis Etiology Chronic ingestion of arsenic, copper, vinyl chloride Clinical features Youny age patient with features of poal hypeension with conspicuous absence of liver cell failure Patient are usually on 2nd or 3rd decade Onset of symptoms is gradual Most common presenting symptom is GI bleed (90% cases) Splenomegaly Jaundice, Hepatomegaly, ascites and stigmata of liver cell failure are uncommon Diagnosis Site of block is smaller branches (3rd or 4th order branches) Ultrasound shows normal splenopoal axis. Withered tree appearance and peripoal fibrosis is seen in NCPF Ref: Blumga 5th edition Pgno : 1099-1105
Anatomy
G.I.T
A 20 Yr old male presented with repeated episodes of hemetemesis. There is no history of jaundice or liver decompensation. On examination the significant findings include splenomegaly (8cms below costal margin), and presence of esophageal varices. There is no ascites or peptic ulceration. The liver function tests are normal. The most likely diagnosis is A. Extra hepatic poal venous obstruction B. Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis C. Cirrhosis D. Hepatic venous outflow tract obstruction
Non-cirrhotic poal fibrosis
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Hypochloremic, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis is the classic electrolyte and acid-base imbalance of pyloric stenosis. This prolonged vomiting causes progressive loss of fluids rich in hydrochloric acid, which causes the kidneys to retain hydrogen ions in or of potassium. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
Pediatrics
Gastrointestinal tract
Which electrolyte should be replenished in hyperophic pyloric stenosis ? A. Sodium B. Hydrogen C. Chloride D. Bicarbonate
Chloride
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Feed forward control ,in which no stimulus is required but the system still anticipates and makes changes.it is also known as anticipatory control or adaptive control .It is seen in: Temperature regulation Cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion Role of cerebellum in motor coordination Thinking about exercise Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number:7
Physiology
Endocrinology
Feed forward mechanism is employmed in regulation of: A. Temperature B. Ph C. Blood pressure D. Blood volume
Temperature
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Muscle biopsy in dermatomyositis shows myonecrosis, myophagocytosis and perifascicular atrophy.
Pediatrics
null
Perifascicular atrophy is seen in – A. Duchenne muscular atroply B. Wilson disease C. Beckers's dystrophy D. Dermatomyositis
Dermatomyositis
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Laparoscopy Needle used for pneumoperitoneum veress needle Most commonly used gas: CO2 Flow of gas: 1L /min Intra-abdominal pressure: 12-15 mm Hg Trocar is inseed at or just below the umbilicus penetrating skin, superficial & deep fascia, fascia transversals & parietal peritoneum
Surgery
Robotics, Laparoscopy and Bariatric Surgery
The intra-abdominal pressure during laparoscopy should be set between:- A. 5-8 mm of Hg B. 10-15 mm of Hg C. 20-25 mm of Hg D. 30-35 mm of Hg
10-15 mm of Hg
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lysosomes Residual bodies are nothing but secondary lysosomes with undigested wastes. The digested materials are diffused into the cell cytoplasm through the lysosomal membrane. (Ref: www.sivabio.50web.com)
Physiology
General physiology
Residual bodies are A. Mitochondria B. Nucleus C. Golgi apparatus D. Lysosomes
Lysosomes
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Secondary attect rate Secondary attack rateo SAR is defined as "the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of incubation period, following exposure to primary caseSAR =No of exposed persons developing disease within the range of the incubation period------------------------------------------Total number of exposed/susceptible contactx 100o The important features of SAR are:-i) The primary case is excluded from both the numerator and denominator.ii) Denominator is restricted to susceptible contacts of primary case.iii) In denominator, person should be suscetible - Immune person (to disease) are not susceptible to develop the disease, So they are excluded.iv) Disease should develop within the range of incubation period.o SAR is an important measure of communicability. Higher secondary attack rate means, more numbers of susceptible contacts are developing the disease after exposure to primary case. So, higher the SAR higher is the communicability (infectiousness) of disease.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Infectious Disease Epidemiology
Measure of communicability of a disease - A. Case fatality rate B. Secondary attack rate C. Sullivan index D. Incubation period
Secondary attack rate
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Answer is C (Cerebellum) Von Hipple-Lindau Syndrome is associated with haemangioblastomas of cerebellum, spinal cord, medulla or pons.
Medicine
null
In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome'? A. Optic radiation B. Optic tract C. Cerebellum D. Pulvinar
Cerebellum
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DEPRESSED SKULL FRACTURE It is a common neurosurgical problem among the head injuries. It means fracture depression is more than the depth of inner table of the skull. Investigations: CT scan. Problems in depressed fracture Tear in the dura beneath Haematoma in the deeper plane Injury to the cerebrum Injury to the venous sinuses--may cause life-threatening haemorrhage. Fracture should not be elevated in such occasion, as it itself can precipitate bleeding Convulsions Meningitis Treatment Antibiotics, anticonvulsants. Elevation of the depressed fracture: Burr holes are made in the adjacent normal skull. Fracture is elevated. Bony fragments and necrotic materials are removed. Dural tear is closed with interrupted sutures. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 1099
Surgery
Trauma
Signature fracture of skull is seen in A. Gutter fracture B. Depressed fracture C. Ring fracture D. Sutural seperation
Depressed fracture
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Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyl tRNA Tetracycline interact with small ribosomal subunits, blocking access of aminoacyl- tRNA to the mRNA-ribosome complex.
Pharmacology
null
Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by? A. Inhibiting initiation and causing misreading of mRNA B. Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyltRNA C. Inhibiting peptidyltransferase activity D. Inhibiting translocation
Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of aminoacyltRNA
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Ans. (a) Peroneus teiusThe 4 muscles in the anterior compament of the leg are- the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis(Peroneus) teius
Anatomy
null
Muscle's of anterior compament of leg is/ are: A. Peroneus teius B. Peroneus brevis C. Peroneuslongus D. Flexordigitorumlongus
Peroneus teius
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(Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 248) Phacomorphic glaucoma is an acute secondary angle-closure glaucoma caused by:Intumescent lens i.e., swollen cataractous lens due to rapid maturation of cataract or sometimes following traumatic rupture of the capsule is the main cause of phacomorphic glaucomaAnterior subluxation or dislocation of the lensSpherophakia (congenital small spherical lens) Phacomorphic glaucoma is the term used for secondary angle-closure glaucoma due to lens intumescence. The increase in lens thickness from an advanced cataract, a rapidly intumescent lens, or a traumatic cataract can lead to pupillary block and angle closure.
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
40 years male with spherophakia is at risk for developing A. Phacolytic glaucoma B. Phacoanaphylactic glaucoma C. Phacomorphic glaucoma D. Obscuration of disc margins
Phacomorphic glaucoma
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alcohol Morbid jealousy (Pathological jealousy)* Also referred to as delusional jealously, obsessive jealousy and Othello syndrome. This condition occurs when a person feels an unreasonable fear that a partner has been unfaithful, is presently unfaithful, or plans to be unfaithful.* Morbid jealousy can occur in alcoholism, Schizophrenia, manic phase of bipolar illness, OCD, depression, or anxiety disorder.Also knowAlcoholic paranoia falcohal induced psychotic disorder with delusions)* Alcoholic parania refers to alcohol induced psychotic disorder with delusions. Delusions in alcoholic paranoia are fixed, ie. Alcoholic paranoia is associated with fixed delusions. Patients develop delusion of either persecution or jealousy, accompanied by delusion of reference. Auditary hallucinations may occur but play a minor role.
Psychiatry
Substance Abuse
Morbid jealousy is associated with which addiction? A. Alcohol B. Heroin C. LSD D. Charas
Alcohol
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Zygoma fracture is also known as tripod fracture. Clinical features of zygoma fracture Considerable swelling over zygomatic arch is common and makes clinical diagnosis more difficult. Flattening of malar prominence. Step-deformity of infraorbital margin. Anaesthesia in the distribution of infraorbital nerve. Trismus, due to depression of zygoma on the underlying coronoid process. Oblique palpebral fissure, due to the displacement of lateral palpebral ligament. Restricted ocular movement, due to entrapment of inferior rectus muscle. It may cause diplopia. Periorbital emphysema, due to escape of air from the maxillary sinus on nose-blowing. The mucosa of the maxillary sinus may be lacerated and cause epistaxis on that side. Fracture of the zygoma may or may not be painful to palpation and running a finger along the zygomatic arch may give a feel of a depressed fracture or a small dimple. The cheek may appear flattened compared to symmetry with the opposite side. This may be obvious immediately following trauma or several days later once swelling has subsided.
ENT
null
Tripod fracture is the name given for A. Zygomatic fracture B. Maxillary fracture C. Mandibular fracture D. Temporal fracture
Zygomatic fracture
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N. meningitidis is dangerous because it can cause Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome & Addisonian crisis So, chemoprophylaxis is recommended Ceftriaxone as a single IM or IV injection is highly effective in carriage eradication and can be used at all ages and in pregnancy
Medicine
Bacterial infection
Which is the drug of choice for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis in pregnancy: A. Penicillin B. Ceftriaxone C. Rifampicin D. Ampicillin
Ceftriaxone
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The success rates are best when clips and rings are used and worst with electrocoagulation. TEXTBOOK OF GYNECOLOGY SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN SECOND EDITION PAGE NO 393
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Contraception
Least failure in sterilization occurs with : A. Falope ring B. Bipolar cautery C. Unipolar cauterisation D. Hulka clip
Unipolar cauterisation
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(D) Meningioma # SPECTRUM OF CNS TUMORS range from Diffuse astrocytoma (grade ll/IV) Anaplastic astrocytoma (grade lll/IV) Glioblastoma (grade IV/IV)> Most meningiomas have a relatively low risk of recurrence or aggressive growth, and so are considered WHO grade l/IV.
Pathology
Misc.
Low grade Central Nervous System tumour among the following is A. Diffuse astrocytoma B. Anaplastic astrocytoma C. Glioblastoma multiforme D. Meningioma
Meningioma
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WHO classification of Progression to Carcinoma The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is 29% Reference : Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; pg no: 248
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Gynaecological oncology
The risk of complex hyperplasia of endometrium with atypia progressing to malignancy in a postmenopausal woman is : A. 3% B. 8% C. 15% D. 29%
29%
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Ref: E s sent to Is in Dermatology, 1st editionExplanation:* Presence of 3 cm ulcer with raised edges in the labia majora suggests Syphilis. (See the following table) SyphilisGranuloma Inguinale (Donovanosis)Chancroid(Soft sore. Soft Chancre, Ulcus molle)LymphogranulomaVenereumEtiologyTreponema pallidumCalymmatobacteriumdonovaniGram negative Obligate intracellularHemophilus ducreiChlamydia trachomatis (LI, L2 and L3 types)IncubationPeriodPrimary syphilis: 1-3 weeks Secondary syphilis: 6-12 weeks8-12 days(17 days average)3 days - 2 weeks (1-5 days average)3-30 daysClinicalSigns* Painless indurated* Single punched out* Usually non-bleeding* Lymph nodes are rubbery* Dark field microscopy* FTA-ABS - Most sensitive test and Earliest lest to become positive* VDRL* RPR liters* TPT - Most specific* TPH - 2nd most sensitive test* Painless genital ulcer* Soft. Beefy* Clean friable base* Distinct raised rolled margins* Massive scarring* Lymphatic obstruction* Pseudobubos(Subcutaneous granulomas not nodes)* Extremely painful. Suppurative ulcers of genital mucosa* Soft friable, non- indurated, ragged undermined edges* Foul smelling yellow grey exudate* Suppurative inguinal lymph nodes (Bubo)* Ito-Reenstierna test - Intradermal test* Skin or mucosal ulcer followed by ulcerated inguinal lymph nodes* "Sign of the groove"* Frei's Test: Intradermal test* Genital elephantiasis (Esthiomene)Pathology Hypertrophic ulcers Donovan Bodies (Safety pin shaped)Pyogenic ulcerationNecrotising granulomatous inflammation with stricture formationTreatmentPenicillin G -Drug of Choice forall stages of syphilisDoxycycline 100 mgBD for 3 weeksAzithromycin 1 gsingle oral dose (or)Ceftriaxone 250 mg1M single dose (or)Ciprofloxacin 500 mgbd for 3 daysDoxycycline 100 mgBD for 3 weeks
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Specific Infections
A female presents with 3 cm painless ulcer with raised edges on labia majora. Most common cause is: (E. REPEAT 2013) A. Syphilis B. Gonorrhea C. Herpes D. Chlamydia trachomatis
Syphilis
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Ans. (b) Microtubules(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.39)Microtubules provide structural support that can determine the shape of the cell and resist forces that tend to deform it
Physiology
General
Skeletal frame work of a cell is maintained by: A. Nucleus B. Microtubules C. Ribosomes D. Mitochondria
Microtubules
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SYSTEMATIC DESENSITIZATION JOSEPH WOLPE Joseph Wolpe gave the concept of systematic desensitization This is a treatment used in phobia In phobia there is a conditioned fear response to aversive neutral stimulus and avoidance of that response leads to phobia Whenever there is a fear response there is stimulation of sympathetic system In that case stimulation of parasympathetic system by relaxation there is reduction in anxiety First step is to make a step ladder which are arranged based on the severity Then is go step by step and along with doing applied relaxation Slowly the the sympathetic system is reduced The patient will be able to approach stimulus without anxiety Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th editio, pg no. 845
Anatomy
Treatment in psychiatry
systematic desensitization was introduced by A. seligman B. joseph wolpe C. lorenz D. skinner
joseph wolpe
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Haabs striae -Tears and breaks in descemets membrane . These occur because Descemt's membrane is less elastic than the corneal stroma. Tears are usually peripheral, concentric with the limbus and appear as lines with double contour. Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:226
Ophthalmology
Glaucoma
Haabs striae are seen in- A. Buphthalmos B. Keratoglobus C. Trachoma D. Keratoconus
Buphthalmos
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Ans. (c) Plasmacytoma on biopsy(Ref: Wintrobes 12th/pg2377)Durie and Salmon criteria for diagnosis of Multiple myeloma.A minimum of 1 major and 1 minor criterion needed, although (1) + (a) is not sufficient, or 3 minor criteria that must include (a) and (b).However, International myeloma working group 2011 has revised the criteria as mentioned in pretexts.
Pathology
Misc. (W.B.C)
Which of the following is not a minor diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma? A. Lytic bone lesions B. Plasmacytosis greater than 20% C. Plasmacytoma on biopsy D. Monoclonal globulin spike on serum electrophoresis of > 2.5 g/dl for IgG, >1.5 g/dl for IgA
Plasmacytoma on biopsy
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Ans. d (Histogram blocks) (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/ 788; Methods in Bio-statistics, by B. K. Mahajan 6th/p. 23)Quantitative data is presented by the following graphsQualitative or discrete or enumeration data is presented by the following graphs:# Histogram.# Bar diagram# Frequency polygon.# Pie or sector diagram# Frequency curve.# Pictogram# Line chart or graph.# Spot map# Cumulative frequency diagram (Ogive). # Scatter or dot diagram.
Social & Preventive Medicine
Biostatistics
Frequency polygon is obtained by joining the points of A. Bar diagram B. Complete bar diagram C. Multiple bar diagram D. Histogram blocks
Histogram blocks
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In man, resting glomerular filtration rate is about 125 ml/min (lSOL/day), the renal plasma flow is about 600 ml/min. Thus about one-fish (20%) of plasma passing through kidney is filtered„ i.e., a fraction of renal plasma flow that is filtered (filtration fraction)
Physiology
null
Normal glomerular filtration rate is - A. 50 ml/min B. 125 ml/min C. 250 ml/min D. 500 ml/min
125 ml/min
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Drug resistance in M.tb is by Mutation in Chromosomes Metabolic defects occur as a result of mutation Eg - M.tb is normally catalase +ve INH resistant M.tb are Catalase -ve
Microbiology
General Microbiology Pa-2 and Pa-3 (Sterilization and Bacterial Genetics)
Drug resistant in tuberculosis is due to ? A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Conjugation D. Mutation
Mutation
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TELEFONO consists of repeated slapping of the sides of the head by open palms of the assailant this may cause rupture of ear drums. Ref : internet sources
ENT
All India exam
Telefono is A. Pulling of hair B. Beating on soles C. Beating on ears D. Beating on fingers
Beating on ears
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 20 * Rituximab is a targeted antibody against cell surface molecule CD-20, i.e. Rituximab is anti CD-20 antibody.* It is used in:i) B-cell lymphomas Low grade lymphomas, mantle cell lymphomas, relapsed aggressive B cell lymphomas, CLLii) SLEiii) Rheumatoid arthritis
Pharmacology
Immunomodulator
Rituximab is a targeted antibody against - A. CD 20 B. CD 22 C. CD 34 D. CD 55
CD 20
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Superoxide dismutase ref Robbins 7/e p17 , Harrison 17/e p 2572 ,9/e p48.
Anatomy
General anatomy
Enzyme that protects the brain from free radical injury is A. Myeloperoxidase B. Superoxide dismutase C. MAO D. Hydroxylase
Superoxide dismutase
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Iodides of Na Iodine and Iodides Iodine is the fastest acting thyroid inhibitor Most impoant action is inhibition of hormone release (thyroid constipation); but all facets of thyroid synthesis may be affected. Excess iodide inhibits its own transpo in thyroid cells and may alter the redox potential of cells, thus interfering iodination - reduced T4/T3 synthesis (Wolff-chaikoff effect).
Pharmacology
null
Fastest acting antithyroid drugs ? A. Iodides of Na/ K B. Propylthiuracil C. Methimazole D. Nitrates
Iodides of Na/ K