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2111acd2-b02f-42a9-922a-cd368fff9308 | Structurally, porphyrin consists of four pyrrole rings (five-membered closed structures containing one nitrogen and four carbon atoms) linked to each other by methine groups (−CH=).
The iron atom is kept in the centre of the porphyrin ring by interaction with the four nitrogen atoms. | Pathology | null | The heme portion of the hemoglobin molecule consists of:
A. Porphyrin ring with a molecule of Fe in the center
B. A polypeptide chain containing Fe
C. A pyrole ring with four molecules of Fe in the center
D. Four porphyrin rings, each containing a molecule of Fe in the center
| Four porphyrin rings, each containing a molecule of Fe in the center |
0282fd52-868f-4e4b-939e-efee5d53d2a6 | Postnatally, the posterior cranial base becomes longer primarily due to growth at the spheno-occipital synchondrosis. Histologic studies have shown that the spheno-occipital synchondrosis fuses at approximately 16 to 17 years in females and 18 to 19 years in males.
Ref: Graber LW, Vanarsdall RL, Vig KW, Huang GJ. Orthodontics: current principles and techniques. Edition 6 page no 10 | Dental | null | Age of closure of spheno-occipital synchondrosis:
A. 6 years
B. 12 years
C. 18 years
D. 25 years
| 18 years |
7d1914a9-1d7a-4d93-a292-416a2ee8d004 | Ans. (b) Aldehyde dehydrogenaseRef KDT 6th ed. / 386EthanolAlcohol Dehydrogenase-------------------Acetaldehyde Aldehyde Dehydrogenase---------------------Acetate* Disulfiram is an anti-craving agent for alcoholics. It has been used as an aversion technique in alcoholics.* Disulfiram acts by inhibiting aldehyde dehydrogenase. If a person still takes alcohol while on disulfiram treatment, alcohol is metabolized as usual, but acetaldehyde accumulates.* This accumulation of acetaldehyde gives some distressing symptoms like flushing, burning sensation, throbbing headache, perspiration, dizziness, vomiting, confusion and circulatory collapse.* Therefore, it is recommended only for those alcoholics who are motivated and sincerely desire to leave the habit.* Drugs causing Disulfiram like reaction:# Metronidazole# Chlorpropamide# Cefoperazone# Cefotetan# Trimethorprim* Other drugs that decrease craving for alcohol and smoking: (remembered as NATO)# NALTREXONE# ACAMPROSATE# TOPIRAMATE# ONDANSETRONAlso Know* Drug which inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase - FOMEPIZOLE* Antidote for methanol poisoning: FOMEPIZOLE > ETHANOL* Antidote for ethelene glycol poisoning: FOMEPIZOLE | Pharmacology | Pharmacokinetics | Disulphiram acts by competitive inhibition of which enzyme?
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
C. Alcohol carboxylase
D. Aldyhyde carboxylase
| Aldehyde dehydrogenase |
2c06389d-5a6d-42b0-90a9-c639f051c6ff | Criteria for fast breathing AGE Respiratory Rate <2 months >60/minute 2-12 months >50/minute 12 months-5 years >40/minute | Social & Preventive Medicine | NEET 2019 | Fast breathing in a 6-month old infant is taken as
A. >60 breaths/ min
B. >50 breaths/ min
C. >40 breaths/ min
D. >30 breaths/ min
| >50 breaths/ min |
72851095-b074-4906-a336-abc25704c53b | Postoperative shivering (halothane shakes) and hypothermia is maximum with halothane among inhalational anesthetics. It can be used to sta or maintain anaesthesia. One of its benefits is that it does not increase the production of saliva, which can be paicularly useful in those who are difficult to intubate | Pharmacology | Anesthesia | Shivering" is observed in the early pa of postoperative period due to
A. Chloroform
B. Halothane
C. Trichloroethylene
D. Ether
| Halothane |
ad4bc406-bbc7-4172-8b95-d258c2205534 | In malignant glaucoma there is misdirection of aqueous posteriorly into the vitreous. It is characterized by markedly raised IOP and shallow or absent anterior chamber.
Treatment includes :- i) Medical :- Atropine (DOC), phenylephrine, osmotic agents, (β-blockers, α-agonists, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors; ii) YAG laser hyaloidotomy; iii) Surgery :- pars plana vitrectomy. | Ophthalmology | null | Malignant glaucoma is seen in –a) Anterior chamber normalb) Misdirected aqueous flowc) Pilocarpine is the drug of choiced) Management is medical onlye) Atropine is also given
A. ab
B. be
C. bc
D. ce
| be |
87522f7c-b107-4080-a9ef-1077995ee2f0 | * S. epidermis is a pathogenic organism which affects interventions like catheter, canula.* It is an organism which can form biofilm.* It is novobiocin sensitive. | Microbiology | Bacteria | Staph, epidermis has become important due to
A. Biofilm formation
B. Virulence
C. Wide spectrum antibiotics
D. Novobiocin resistance
| Biofilm formation |
e731f18d-eafe-4ab9-baf1-af659a3b8968 | ANSWER: (C) Metabolic acidosisREF: Harrison 17th ed chapter 274, Essentials of Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States by Carol Mattson Forth page 200Chronic kidney disease is the most common cause of chronic metabolic acidosis. The kidneys normally conserve HCO3-- and secrete H+ ions into the urine as a means of regulating acid-base balance. In chronic kidney disease, there is loss of both glomerular and tubular function with retention of nitrogenous waste and metabolic acids. In condition called renal tubular acidosis, glomerular function is normal, but tubular secretion of H+ or reabsorption of HC03~ is abnormal. | Medicine | Chronic Kidney Disease and Uremia | CRF is associated with?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
| Metabolic acidosis |
60e24262-1cfd-4ddb-8dd0-7abeb2b39501 | Suspensory ligament of Lockwood: A specialized lower pa of the fascial sheath of the eyeball is the suspensory ligament, which suppos the eyeball. This sling-like structure is made up of fascial sheath of the eyeball. It has contribution from these muscles : Inferior oblique & Inferior rectus. In an event of orbital floor fracture it protects drop down of eyeball . | Anatomy | Eye, Nose and Ear | Suspensory ligament of Lockwood encloses which pair of muscles
A. Inferior rectus and inferior oblique
B. Superior rectus and superior oblique
C. Medial rectus and lateral rectus
D. Inferior rectus and lateral rectus
| Inferior rectus and inferior oblique |
46d863fe-143b-4334-a65c-574c9c9d118d | Agar, a polysaccharide extract of a marine alga, is uniquely suitable for microbial cultivation because it is resistant to microbial action and becauseit dissolves at 100degC but does not gel until cooled below 45degC; cells can be suspended in the medium at 45degC and the medium quickly cooled to a gel without harming them.Ref: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; Twenty-Seventh Edition; Chapter 5; Cultivation of Microorganisms | Microbiology | general microbiology | The major constituents in agar are
A. Fats
B. Aminoacids
C. Polysaccharides
D. Polypeptides
| Polysaccharides |
dc80c84f-0f07-4372-9023-98c2b5bf9def | Maxillary teeth should contact the wet dry lip line when fricative sounds f, v, and ph are made. These sounds help to determine the position of the incisal edges of the maxillary anterior teeth. | Dental | null | For optimum esthetics when setting maxillary denture teeth, the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors should follow the _____.
A. Lower lips during smiling
B. Upper lips during smiling
C. Lower lips when relaxed
D. Upper lips when relaxed
| Lower lips during smiling |
b443bf27-4436-4127-9cd0-889a9cddeb46 | Ans. A. Prostate cancerProstate cancer leads to osteosclerotic metastasis because of release of PTH like proteinsa. Prostate carcinoma cells secrete factors that directly and indirectly alter the osteoblastic function and express factors critical for normal bone development and remodeling, including bone morphogenetic proteins (BMPs), TGF-b, platelet- derived growth factor, adrenomedullin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1), fibroblast growth factor and vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).b. The osteolytic factor, PTHrP, is also abundantly expressed in Prostate carcinoma metastases, despite the fact that these lesions are primarily blastic. It has been demonstrated that PTHrP increases osteoblastic progenitor cell proliferation and induces early Osteoblastic differentiation.c. Another study says that Wants (a large family of proteins that promote bone growth) contribute to prostate cancer- mediated osteoblastic activity. Prostate cancer bone metastases have both an osteolytic and osteoblastic component, there is a shift in the balance from osteolytic to osteoblastic activity as prostate cancer progresses, which results in osteosclerotic (Osteoblastic) metastasis. | Orthopaedics | Bone Tumour | Osteosclerotic metastasis is common in cancer of:
A. Prostate
B. Lungs
C. Malignant melanoma
D. Renal cell carcinoma
| Prostate |
903d47a6-a61f-4dba-b522-8a70a1b538fd | Key fine motor developmental milestones4mo - Bidextrous reach (reaching out for objects with both hands)6mo - Unidextrous reach (reaching out for objects with one hand); transfers objects9mo - Immature pincer grasp; probes with a forefinger12mo - Pincer grasp mature15mo- Imitates scribbling; tower of 2 blocks18 mo- Scribbles; tower of 3 blocks2 yr - Tower of 6 blocks; veical and circular stroke3 yr - Tower of 9 blocks; copies circle4 yr - Copies cross; bridge with blocks5 yr- Copies triangle; gate with blocks Ref:Ghai 8e pg:50 | Physiology | Nervous system | The age at which a child can make a tower of 9 cubes and draw a circle is
A. 24 months
B. 30 months
C. 36 months
D. 42 months
| 36 months |
c1b5b67f-8bc2-4292-9ce9-6175ac75c84f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chronic persistent hepatitiso Intact limiting membrae with inflammation confined to poal area is seen in chronic persistent hepatitis. | Pathology | null | In chronic inflammation confined to poal tract with intact limiting membrane and normal lobular parenchyma, the histoapathological diagnosis would be -
A. Active hepatitis
B. Chronic active hepatitis
C. Chronic persistent hepatitis
D. Acoholic heaptitis
| Chronic persistent hepatitis |
d5b7cadc-61e2-43a6-9b1e-dbffb1897c86 | Ans. (a) Proximal to GlansRef Page 1478, Bailey and Love 27th editionHypospadias:* Incidence- 1 in 200* MC congenital anomaly of urethra* External meatus opens on under side (Ventral surface)* Dorsal Hood and ventral chordee seen.* MC site of opening- proximal to the normal opening in Glans Penis (MC)* Others: Coronal, penile, Penoscrotal, Perineal.* Most severe type is perineal, luckily it is the rarest also.* Procedure of choice: Tabularized incised plate Urethroplasty for distal hypospadias for proximal hypospadias Foreskin is used.* As per Bailey Surgery done before 18 months (correct answer is 6 months) | Surgery | Urethra & Penis | Most common site of hypospadias:
A. Proximal to Glans
B. Scrotum
C. Perineum
D. Mid penis
| Proximal to Glans |
e6dbd902-b0f3-4fd9-a182-46e2a4480a41 | solitary adenoma ie a single abnormal gland is the cause in 80% of patients ( Harrison 17 pg 2380) | Medicine | Endocrinology | The commonest cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is-
A. Carcinoma parathyroid
B. Solitary adenoma of parathyroid
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Hyperplasia of the parathyroid
| Solitary adenoma of parathyroid |
a57c3f4b-6d8b-4912-8f90-5ad9914b6749 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Outer hair cells in basal area Cochlear damage with the use of aminoglycosides stas from the base and spreads to the apex; hearing loss affects the high frequency sound first, then progressively encompasses the lower frequencies. Outer hair cells are easily damaged by ototoxic drugs (aminoglycosides) and high intensity noise. Inner hair cells are more resistant. | Pharmacology | null | Aminoglycoside affects ?
A. Outer hair cells in basal area
B. Inner hair cells in basal area
C. Outer hair cells in apical area
D. Inner hair cells in apical area
| Outer hair cells in basal area |
ece49a74-395a-47c5-a4c2-4d5b885e6b6c | Peak pressures in theright ventricles is about 25 mm HgRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:508 | Physiology | Cardiovascular system | Blood pressure in right ventricle
A. 25 mmHg
B. 80 mmHg
C. 95 mmHg
D. 120 mmHg
| 25 mmHg |
31547333-9156-43d4-bed6-621a902439c7 | Answer: A The commonest cataract in childhood is Blue Dot cataract which presents without visual obstruction. And the commonest congenital cataract which presents with a visual defect is zonular cataract. | Unknown | null | Which of the following is the most common cataract in the newborn -
A. Zonular Cataract
B. Morgagnian Cataract
C. Ant. polar Cataract
D. Post, polar Cataract
| Zonular Cataract |
fa4d1794-6330-474e-a881-c98d638e1135 | Ans. A. Pemphigus vulgaris* Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by following signs:1. Bulla spread sign2. Perilesional, and distant Nikolsky sign3. Tzanck smear: Acantholytic cell* Histopathology shows suprabasal blister with row of tomb stone appearance of basal cells.* Direct immunofluorescence from perilesional skin demonstrated intra epidermal IgG deposits' in a fishnet pattern. | Skin | Vesiculobullous (Blistering) Disorders | Row of tombstone is seen in which skin disorder:
A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Pemphigus foliaceous
C. Paraneoplastic pemphigus
D. Bullous pemphigoid
| Pemphigus vulgaris |
8bc8d3dd-c2a1-417c-a3e9-a02b0d4a1107 | Ans is Eale's disease Both Eale's disease and Retinal detachment are causes of painless sudden loss of vision, however Eale's disease is a much more common cause than RD in a young male. Ocular and systemic examinations in both the conditions may be normal.Eale's diseaseIt is a disease of young adult males, who otherwise are healthy, in developing countries (especially India).It is an idiopathic inflammation of peripheral retinal veins; characterized by recurrent vitreous hemorrhage.(Periphlebitis leads to obliteration of the affected vessels. Hypoxia leads to neovascularization which lead to recurrent vitreous hemorrhage)The etiology is unknown. Hypersensitivity to tuberculin protein has been reported, however no clear relationship to tuberculosis has been found.Usually bilateral.The common presenting symptoms are sudden appearance of floaters or painless loss of vision.The vitreous hemorrhage clears spontaneously, but after a few recurrence the hemorrhage may organize, and may cause fractional retinal detachment or secondary glaucoma.Treatment:systemic steroids in early vasculitis stageLaser photocoagulation for abnormal vessels is used in neovascularization stagevitreoretinal surgery is required for marked vitreous traction threatening the macula.Causes of sudden, painless loss of visionUnilateralBilateralSubluxation or dislocation of lensVitreous hemorrhageRetinal hemorrhageRetinal detachmentRetinal vascular occlusionExudative age-related macular degenerationPosterior uveitis Diabetic retinopathyGrade IV hypertensive retinopathy with macular star Atypical optic neuritis Toxic optic neuropathy Bilateral occipital infarction | Ophthalmology | Vitreous Haemorrhage Vitrectomy | A 25year old male presents with painless sudden loss of vision, ocular and systemic examination is not contributory. What is probable diagnosis
A. Retinal detachment
B. Eale's disease
C. Glaucoma
D. Cataract
| Eale's disease |
84a4d9e1-2302-4d4a-a39d-5dd5389fe498 | * Transposons, also called jumping genes, are pieces of DNA that move readily from one site to another.* They move either within or between the DNAs of bacteria, plasmids and bacteriophages in a manner, that plasmid genes can become part of the chromosomal complement of genes.* Interestingly, when transposons transfer to a new site, it is usually a copy of the transposon that moves, while the original remains in situ (like photocopying).* Transposons can code for metabolic or drug resistance enzymes and toxins. They may also cause mutations in the gene into which they insert or alter the expression of nearby genes.* In contrast to plasmids or bacterial viruses, transposons cannot replicate independently of the recipient DNA. More than one transposon can be located in the DNA for example, resistance genes. Thus, transposons can jump from:# The host genomic DNA to a plasmid# One plasmid to another# A plasmid to genomic DNA.* An insertion sequence is a short DNA sequence that acts as a simple transposable element. Insertion sequences have two major characteristics: they are small relative to other transposable elements (generally around 700 to 2500bp in length) and only code for proteins implicated in the transposition activity (they are thus different from other transposons, which also carry accessory genes such as antibiotic resistance genes. | Pathology | Neoplasia | Jumping gene is known as?
A. Transposon
B. Retroposon
C. Insertion sequence
D. Integron
| Transposon |
b89b3d84-45ce-4624-96b9-b4337fdd177e | A bone age study helps doctors estimate the maturity of a child&;s skeletal system. It&;s usually done by taking a single X-ray of the left wrist, hand, and fingers. It is a safe and painless procedure that uses a small amount of radiation. ... The bone age is measured in years . Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | Pediatrics | Growth and development | Which of the following X-ray should be advised for age determination between 1-13 years of age
A. Shoulder
B. Wrist
C. Elbow
D. Iliac bones
| Wrist |
cfb916d1-1d99-4207-8278-1cc72de700c3 | The last case of plague in India was repoed in 1966 and after that there was a 'silence period' of 28 years till the reappearance of the disease in September 1994, when there was an outbreak of bubonic plague in Beed district of Maharashtra and pneumonic plague in Surat (Gujarat). | Anatomy | All India exam | Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a 'silence period' of
A. 18 years
B. 23 years
C. 28 years
D. 30 years
| 28 years |
41f2965c-fd9b-43ce-ac28-30d62d21372d | Amifostine is used therapeutically to reduce the incidence of neutropenia-related fever and infection induced by DNA-binding chemotherapeutic agents including alkylating agents and platinum-containing agents . It is also used to decrease the cumulative nephrotoxicity associated with platinum-containing agents. Amifostine is also indicated to reduce the incidence of xerostomia in patients undergoing radiotherapy for head and neck cancerReference: Perez and Brady&;s textbook of radiation oncology; 6th edition | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | Radiation protector drug in clinical use among the following is
A. Amifostine
B. Cisplatin
C. Mesna
D. Tirapazamine
| Amifostine |
8c0c5496-7657-415b-b71a-48505ecb10f8 | Neurotransmitters, which are decreased in Alzheimer's disease:- Acetylcholine (most important), norepinephrine, somatostatin, corticotropin. | Psychiatry | null | Biochemical etiology of Alzheimer's disease relates to
A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. GABA
| Acetylcholine |
ab32941a-6551-44a8-96cf-f1e60d6f7ea2 | Ans. a. First 48 hoursTransient ischemic attack (TIA) is sudden, transitory loss of neurologic function that comes on without headache and resolves spontaneously within 24 hours (but usually lasts less than 1 hour), leaving no neurologic sequelae.The specific symptoms depend on the area of the brain affected, which is in turn related to the vessels involved. The most common origin is high-grade stenosis (>=70%) of the internal carotid, or ulcerated plaque at the carotid bifurcation.Stroke may be indistinguishable from a TIA at the time of presentation: Duration of symptoms is the determining difference.Symptoms are transient with a TIA because reperfusion occurs, either because of collateral circulation or because of the breaking up of an embolus.The blockage in blood flow does not last long enough to cause permanent infarction.Once a patient has a TIA, there is a high risk of stroke in 10-15% in the first 3 months, with most events occurring in the first 2 days. The risk of a stroke in a patient with a history of TIA is about 10% per year. TIAs carry a 30% 5-year risk of stroke. Therefore, cardiac risk factors should be closely investigated and, if possible, eliminated in a patient who has had a TIA.Cases may present only with transient loss of vision in one eye, known as amaurosis fugax. This happens during a transient ischemic attack because the first branch of the internal carotid artery is the ophthalmic artery.Note:TIAs are never due to hemorrhage; hemorrhages do not resolve in 24 hours.The importance of TIAs is that they are predictors of stroke, and timely elective carotid endarterectomy may prevent or minimize that possibility.Workup starts with.noninvasive Duplex studies.Carotid endarterectomy is indicated if the lesions are found in the location that explains the neurologic symptoms.Angioplasty and stent can be performed in high risk surgical patients | Medicine | C.N.S. | Max risk of stroke after TIA:
A. First 48 hours
B. First week
C. First month
D. First year
| First 48 hours |
68cd8375-b7d2-4435-ae9d-3fb038daa99f | Beta blockers ameliorate the symptoms of hypehyroidism that are caused by increased beta-adrenergic tone. These include palpitations, tachycardia, tremulousness, anxiety, and heat intolerance. n many tissues, hypehyroidism is associated with an increased number of beta-adrenergic receptors . The ensuing increase in beta-adrenergic activity is responsible for many of the symptoms associated with this disorder. It also explains the ability of beta blockers to ameliorate rapidly many of the symptoms, including palpitations, tachycardia, tremulousness, anxiety, and heat intolerance. Ref - pubmed.com | Medicine | Endocrinology | In Thyrotoxicosis, B-blockers do not control -
A. Anxiety
B. Termors
C. Tachycardia
D. Oxygen consumption
| Oxygen consumption |
9f2bcc7a-532c-42e0-a665-2496c6c386b4 | Arousal response in cerebral cortex is activated by stimulation of Reticular activating system. | Physiology | null | Arousal response is mediated by
A. Dorsal column
B. Reticular activating system
C. Spinothalamic tract
D. Vestibulo cerebellar tract
| Reticular activating system |
ef80da19-8d47-4150-a464-71b3ac0d260d | Ans. (b) IgM(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 598-602)Lymphoplasmacytic cell proliferation in marrow (Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) with secretion of IgM | Pathology | Misc. (W.B.C) | Lymphoplasmacytoid lymphomas may be associated with
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgA
D. IgE
| IgM |
f4da212d-ed50-4b1f-aa43-97cdc1167c60 | Massive edema in burns is due to altered pressure gradient because of injury to basement membrane. | Surgery | null | Massive edema in body in a patients of burns is due to
A. Cardiac dysfunction due to release of cardiac depressants
B. Basement membrane injury causing altered pressure gradient
C. Acute Renal failure
D. Fluid overload
| Basement membrane injury causing altered pressure gradient |
adc1a438-b584-4d16-803a-8792b308af1e | SPECIFIC ANTIMIGRAINE DRUGS
Ergotamine: It is the most effective ergot alkaloid for migraine. Given early in attack, lower doses generally suffice, and relief is often dramatic. However, when pain has become severe-larger doses are needed and control may be achieved only after few hours. Oral/sublingual route is preferred. 1 mg is given at half hour intervals till relief is obtained or a total of 6 mg is given. Parenteral administration, though rapid in action is more hazardous.
Ergotamine acts by constricting the dilated cranial vessels and/or by specific constriction of carotid A-V shunt channels. Ergotamine and DHE have also been shown to reduce neurogenic inflammation and leakage of plasma in duramater that occurs due to retrograde stimulation of periascular afferent nerves. These actions appear to be mediated through partial agonism at 5-HTID/IB receptors in and around cranial vessels.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 193 | Pharmacology | null | An attack of migraine can be easily terminated by:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Ergotamine
C. Morphine
D. Ibuprofen
| Ergotamine |
5f09a2dc-d2d5-4c09-9037-7ab4d6083e3b | Anaplastic carcinoma - Seen in 7th-8th decade -C/F Sudden increase in the size of swelling Severe pain over the swelling Most common route of spread- Direct invasion Evidence of compression of Trachea - Dyspnea Esophagus - Dysphagia Recurrent laryngeal nerve - Hoarseness of voice Most common site of metastasis - Lungs - Investigations IOC for Diagnosis- FNAC - Treatment For resectable tumor - Total thyroidectomy For unresectable tumor - Tracheostomy (lifesaving procedure when tumor is obstructing trachea) - Poor prognosis. | Surgery | Thyroid | An 80 year old male presents to OPD with c/o rapidly enlarging neck mass and Hoarseness of voice . He gives a history of untreated papillary carcinoma of thyroid . What would be the likely diagnosis?
A. Medullary thyroid cancer
B. Huhle cell carcinoma
C. Papillary thyroid cancer
D. Anaplastic thyroid cancer
| Anaplastic thyroid cancer |
5069cfc1-c276-431a-9173-63b39a7fdabc | Angel sign and prehn sign are not reliable.color Doppler is investigation of choice | Surgery | null | Male comes with acute scrotal pain. To differentiate between testicular torsion and epididymo-orchitis which is the best way
A. Angel sign
B. Prehn sign
C. Color Doppler
D. MRI
| Color Doppler |
760b8a5d-ca64-4971-a384-ae2a7665fe04 | Post exposure prophylaxis may be discontinued if the suspected animal is proved by appropriate laboratory examination to be free of rabies or in the case of domestic dogs, cats or ferrets, the animal remains healthy throughout a 10 day observation period staing from the date of bite Reference ; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine,24th edition.Pg no. 297 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Usual time for symptoms to appear in Rabid animal -
A. 2 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 1 month
| 10 days |
65ce9544-23cf-4f27-ad19-6ec66db53dbf | Ans. A. MetronidazoleH pylori have triple and 4 drug therapy for H. Pylori where 4 antibiotics can be given like amoxicillin, clarithromycin, Metronidazole and tetracycline. Other drugs are PPI like omeprazole and bismuth sub citrate. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | Drug used in triple drug therapy of H. Pylori:
A. Metronidazole
B. Erythromycin
C. Ciprofloxacin
D. Aminoglycosides
| Metronidazole |
0dada956-3573-4c8e-9f37-0658522c76fd | Ans: (c) Right supra-cardinal veinRef: Essentials of Human Embryology, A.K.Datta, 5th edition, 2005, Page 205-208 4The anomaly shown in picture is Retrocaval ureter (right ureter) passes at first behind the IVC, and then appears in front of it after winding the medial margin of IVC.Retrocaval ureter occurs when the post-renal segment of the IVC is developed from the right posterior cardinal vein and the right supra-cardinal vein regress entirely.Development of IVCIVC developed from the following sources from below upwards1. Persistent caudal part of the right posterior cardinal vein2. Right supra-cardinal vein (this part receives 3rd and 4th pairs of lumbar veins)3. Anastomosis between right supra-cardinal and right sub-cardinal veins (this part receives the right gonadal vein).4. Upper part of the right sub-cardinal vein (this part receives both renal veins and right supra-renal vein).5. A new vessel grows dorsal to the liver and communicates the right sub-cardinal vein with the common hepatic vein (intrahepatic part of IVC).6. Common hepatic vein-which is developed from the suprahepatic part of the right vitelline vein (terminal part of IVC).Anomalies of IVC1. Double IVC - IVC persist on both sides below the level of renal veins. This occurs when the left common iliac vein fails to develop and the infra-renal segment of the left supra-cardinal vein fails to regress.2. Retro-caval ureter (as explained earlier). | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | Complete regression of which of the following veins causes this anomaly in the development of IVC (Figure).
A. Right vitelline vein
B. Left vitelline vein
C. Right supra-cardinal vein
D. Left supra-cardinal vein
| Right supra-cardinal vein |
3b7b402f-7af2-490a-968d-06233fc6e8b4 | If the number of samples is an even number, the median is midway between the two middle scores. (3+4)/2=3.5 Ref : Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 111 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Compute the median for the following set of data, 1,2,3,4,5,6:
A. 3
B. 3.5
C. 4
D. 4.5
| 3.5 |
62478e16-22da-4330-bb17-882ba3d575ba | Clinical feature Usually seen in patients over 50 years MC symptom is dysphagia Undigested food is regurgitated into the mouth, especially when the patient is in the recumbent position Swelling of the neck, gurgling noise after eating, halitosis, and a sour metallic taste in the mouth are common symptoms Cervical webs are seen associated in 50% of patients with Zenker's diveicula, can cause dysphagia post-operatively if not treated. | Surgery | Esophagus | A 50-years-old male Raju, presents with occasional dysphagia for solids, regurgitation of food and foul smelling breath. Probable diagnosis is:
A. Achalasia cardia
B. Zenker's diveiculum
C. CA esophagus
D. Diabetic gastroparesis
| Zenker's diveiculum |
8b80eee4-d1de-4099-a82f-be6d7dd9e7ec | The tensor fasciae latae (which is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve) and the iliotibial tract are dense, wide aponeurosis that receives the insertion of the tensor fasciae latae and about 75% of the gluteus maximus. The gluteus maximus is the only one of the muscles listed that is supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve; in fact, it is the only muscle innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve. Gluteus medius and minimus insert on the greater trochanter and are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve. The rectus femoris, supplied by the femoral nerve, inserts via the quadriceps tendon on the patella and tibial tuberosity. | Anatomy | Lower Extremity | The neurosurgeon had removed a portion of the dense tissue (dura mater) covering the brain of the patient when she removed the tumor that had invaded the skull. To replace this important tissue covering of the brain, she took a band of the aponeurotic tissue of the lateral aspect of the thigh, covering the vastus lateralis muscle. What muscle, supplied by the inferior gluteal nerve, inserts into this band of dense tissue as part of its insertion?
A. Gluteus medius
B. Gluteus minimus
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Tensor fasciae latae
| Gluteus maximus |
c99c2168-c8a1-4d85-a620-77f56a249ebb | Blood supply of soft palate
Arterial supply of soft palate is as follows:-
Greater palatine branch of the descending palatine artery, which in turn is a branch of the maxillary artery.
Ascending palatine branch of the facial artery.
Palatine branch of ascending pharyngeal artery.
Lesser palatine artery a branch of descending palatine artery, which is a branch of the maxillary artery. | Anatomy | null | Which of the following does not supply the palate-
A. Tonsilar branch of facial artery
B. Ascending palatine artery
C. Descending palatine artery
D. Ascending pharyngeal artery
| Tonsilar branch of facial artery |
401377e9-c05e-4315-bc20-40b6343f2942 | The preferred incision for emergency abdominal exploration in blunt injury abdomen is midline laparotomy. This type of incision is preferred as it provides adequate exposure, associated with minimal blood loss, minimal nerve and muscle injury. Ref: Current Surgical Diagnosis & Treatment, 12th Edition, By Gerard M. Dohey, Page 230,31; Bailey and Love's Sho practice of surgery , 24th Edition, Page 288 | Surgery | null | Which is the preferred incision for abdominal exploration in blunt abdominal injury ?
A. Transverse incision
B. Paramedian incision
C. Always midline incision
D. Depending upon the organ
| Always midline incision |
c9797bc4-a4b4-4832-983f-3f9fc40f54e2 | Motten wax or Flowing candle wax appearance feature of Melorheostosis. | Radiology | null | Molten wax appearance is seen in
A. Achondroplasia
B. Pseudogout
C. Melorheostosis
D. Osteopetrosis
| Melorheostosis |
d661b8c8-f966-4c03-94a9-2c5f31dd0e1d | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1 hr after injury Golden Hour It is the first hour from the time of trauma. It is the most critical for life and for the limb bility following fracture femur. Best prognosis is for the patients with fracture femur are for those who reach the OR in the golden hour. The emergency medical team should not take more than 10 minutes from the time of trauma in patients with fracture femur to decide and sta shifting the patient. This is described as "Platinum Ten". Thus, Golden hour -1 hour from the time of injury. Platinum hour - ten minutes from the time of injury. | Surgery | null | Golden hour of fracture femur is?
A. 1 hr after injury
B. 1 hr prior to injury
C. 1 hr after reaching the hospital
D. 1 hr after surgical procedure
| 1 hr after injury |
193767e1-e7f4-4e7f-bccc-57605e6e5768 | Ans. A: Kaposi sarcoma The neoplastic diseases clearly seen with an increased frequency in patients with HIV infection are Kaposi sarcoma and non-Hodgkin's lymphoma | Medicine | null | Most common malignancy in AIDS is: March 2011
A. Kaposi sarcoma
B. Hodgkins lymphoma
C. Leukemia
D. Multiple myeloma
| Kaposi sarcoma |
bb7328f7-92c0-4dfd-b8ba-6ea2a8723f95 | Prolactin is inhibited by dopamine, so, any drug which blocks D2 recptor will lead to increase in prolactin. Anti-psychotics are D2 blocking drugs. They are of two types: * Typical anti-psychotic drug are amily D2 blocker. * Atypical anti-psychotics are mainly 5HT2 blocker but among them the maximum D2 blocking action is caused by Resperidone. So, Resperidone has the maximum chance of causing hyerprolactinema and also the maximum chance of causing EPS(Extra pyramidal symptoms) among the atypical anti-psychotics. Clozapine and Olanzapine are 5HT2 and D2 blocker. Aripiprazole is D2 paial agonist so, no chances of hyper-prolactinemia. | Pharmacology | NEET 2018 | Maximum increase in prolactin level is caused by:-
A. Risperidone
B. Clozapine
C. Olanzapine
D. Aripiprazole
| Risperidone |
5def7c8a-7647-4298-8a56-63a1be239920 | A 35 year old woman complaining of amenorrhoea — galactorrhoea syndrome along with visual field defects confirms the diagnosis of pituitary macrodenoma (prolactinoma)
Amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea results due to increased secretion of prolactin.
Headache and visual field defects are seen due to mass effect of the tumours on the optic nerve.
Now, the closest d/d of prolactinoma i.e. craniopharyngioma
Bimodal age of incidence with one peak in childhood and the other in old age at 60 years.
These tumours are suprasellar in location and the symptoms are produced due to mass effect of tumour either on the pituitary or optic chiasm. (It does not secrete any hormone)
"Craniopharyngioma will never produce the Amenorrhoea galactorrhoea syndrome. Craniopharyngioma does not secrete any hormone."
| Medicine | null | Ramkali bai, a 35-year-old female presented with a one-year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea. She also had off and on headache, her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic atrophy. Which of the following is a most likely diagnosis in this case -
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Pituitary macroadenoma
C. Ophthalamic IcA Aneurysm
D. Chiasmal Glioma
| Pituitary macroadenoma |
d4aa2b8f-ceb6-4de2-a80e-b23e76bdb79d | Ans. D i.e. Formation of bag of waters The first symptom to appear is intermittent painful uterine contractions followed by expulsion of blood stained mucus (show) per vaginum But formation of 'bag of membranes' is almost a ceain sign of onset of labor | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | Ceain sign of onset of labor: March 2013
A. Labor pains
B. Show
C. Dilatation of internal os
D. Formation of bag of waters
| Formation of bag of waters |
03f5c7c9-a106-426b-ab7f-6cb6ac6a6cbc | ANSWER: (A) X raysREF: Oxford oncology 2nd edition page 398, O P Tondon's Inorganic chemistryRepeat from December 2009Linear accelerator and Betatron are used to produce X Rays by accelerating electronsCyclotron is used to produce Gamma rays. | Radiology | Fundamentals In Radiology | Linear accelerator produces?
A. X rays
B. Beta rays
C. Gamma rays
D. Neutrons
| X rays |
82cf2a00-3b7f-4de1-b6f7-c848beb2915f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1-2 cmIn normal inspiration, the diaphragm descends 1-2 cm into the abdominal cavity producing a pressure difference of 1-3 mm hg and the inhalation of about 500 ml of air. | Physiology | null | During normal inspiration diaphragm goes down by?
A. 1-2 cm
B. 3-5 cm
C. 5-7 cm
D. 7-9 cm
| 1-2 cm |
4aca470c-b6a9-4d98-9ad6-6cd87ed322ec | a. SCID(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 584-586)FDA-approved gene therapy is used for ADA-SCID, Leber's congenital amaurosis, multiple myeloma & Adrenoleukodystrophy | Pediatrics | Genetics And Genetic Disorders | Gene therapy is most commonly targeted against:
A. SCID
B. cancer
C. cystic fibrosis
D. Leukemia
| SCID |
a9bbcbfa-4ce5-4430-9f86-9f855877e4b8 | Antihypeensive drugs in Diabetes MellitusACE inhibitors (enalapril) or angiotensin receptor blockers are the first line of therapy in hypeensive individuals with type 2 DM.They have no known adverse action on glucose or lipid metabolism.Minimize the development of diabetic nephropathy (by reducing renal vascular resistance and renal perfusion pressure-the primary factor underlying renal deterioration in these patients).(Refer: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg no: 2054-2058) | Pathology | All India exam | A 50 years old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24-hour urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which of the following drugs may be used to retard progression of the renal disease?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Enalapril
C. Amiloride
D. Aspirin
| Enalapril |
4847b9de-8cc0-45d8-8a0e-500c934ef408 | Ans. B: Pressure Abrasion Teeth marks in biting and ligature marks in hanging and strangulation are example of imprint, pressure or contact abrasion Abrasion It as also known as - Graze or Scratch or Impression. An abrasion is a superficial injury to the skin which involves the loss of superficial epithelial layer (Uppermost layers of the cells of skin) of skin. Abrasions are produced by ? - Blow - Fall on some rough and hard substance - Dragging as in vehicular accidents. - Scratching with finger nails, bites and thorns etc. - Friction on some hard substance. Pressure of rope or cord as is found in strangulation and hanging etc. - Rubbing. - Indenting of the objects. Varieties of Abrasions Scratches- They are due to a sharp or a pointed object pressing across the skin, moving the surface layers in front of it and causing the heaping up of layers of skin. Grazes- They are modified scratches. - In this, the broader surface of skin comes in contact with the uneven rough object. - In this, the depth may vary at different places. - The direction is indicated by presence of clean commencement and tag at the finishing end. Impact Abrasions/Pressure Abrasions - They are also known as "Imprint abrasions". - They are caused by the stamping of some object against the skin like radiators of cars in vehicular accidents or - They may be caused by pressure on the skin which is accompanied by movements as found in? Ligature in cases of hanging or strangulation. Injuries caused by lashes with whip Sites of Abrasions ? The abrasions resulting from friction against rough surface during a fall are generally found on the bony pas and are accompanied with contusions or lacerations The abrasions caused by finger nails are seen on the exposed of body like - Face near forearm, hands, thighs etc. They are cresentric in shape, when finger nails are used. Ecchymosis is a common accompaniment. The abrasions caused by teeth bite are elliptical or circular in shape and often present separate marks. Typical impression of teeth by different sets of teeth (Deciduous or permanent) is marked. The intervening area is only a bruised area. The abrasions from radiators are honey-comb in appearance and are .commonly found in vehicular accidents Difference between Antemoem and Postmoem Bruise Antemoem abrasions will show signs of inflammation and repair whereas these will be absent in postmoem abrasions. | Forensic Medicine | null | Teeth bite marks are a type of: March 2011
A. Contusion
B. Pressure abrasion
C. Graze
D. Linear abrasion
| Pressure abrasion |
91c7b767-7888-4ca3-a0dc-cf9befe07699 | Drugs used as first line treatment of multiple myeloma include boezomib(proteasome inhibitor) & thalidomide( anti- angiogenic effects against tumour blood vessels & immunomodulatory effects).Reference :Davidson's principles &practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1047. | Medicine | Haematology | Drug (s) used in the treatment of multiple myeloma is/are-
A. Boezomib
B. Methotrexate
C. Hydroxyurea
D. Ketoconazole
| Boezomib |
f18feca8-9180-40a9-8f3d-235bf160ba42 | It is a recombinant IL-2 used for the treatment of renal cell carcinoma and malignant melanoma. | Pharmacology | null | Immunostimulant used for the treatment of malignant melanoma is :
A. Levamisole
B. BCG
C. Aldesleukin
D. Methotrexate
| Aldesleukin |
4203efb3-e2ba-4a39-9e99-00e6bb0965e0 | The larynx is situated in front of hypopharynx opposite third to sixth cervical vertebrae. | Anatomy | null | Larynx extends from -
A. C2 - C7
B. Cl - C4
C. C5 - C6
D. C3 - C6
| C3 - C6 |
d637db6f-75d5-46e4-aefc-f3934bde8072 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lupus vulgaris Lupus vulgaris It is an indolent and chronic form of tuberculous infection. Female to male ratio is 2:1. Most common site is the mucocutaneous junction of the nasal septum, the nasal, vestibule and the ala. Characteristic Feature is the presence of apple- jelly nodules (Brown gelatinous nodules) in skin. Lupus can cause perforation of cailaginous pa of nasal septum. Confirmation is by Biopsy | Skin | null | Apple jelly nodules on the nasal septum are found in cases of ?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Syphilis
C. Lupus Vulgaris
D. Rhinoscleroma
| Lupus Vulgaris |
0450b153-ca62-4391-968e-c939741b84a1 | Ans. (a) Klatskin tumor.Imagesource- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif"> | Medicine | Gall Bladder | Which of the following is a diagnosis?
A. Klatskin tumor
B. Carolicyts
C. Bryler disease
D. Primary sclerosing cholangitis
| Klatskin tumor |
dbdd7db5-6c9e-4978-8de8-2fc2b07fcbd7 | Testicular feminization syndrome - complete androgen resistance, presents as phenotypic young woman without sexual hair but with normal breast development and primary amenorrhoea Complete testicular feminization is a common form of male pseudohermaphroditism. It is the 3rd most common cause of primary amenorrhea after gonadal dysgenesis and congenital absence of the vagina. The features are characteristic. Namely, a ''woman" is asceained either because of inguinal hernia (prepubeal) or primary amenorrhea (postpubeal). The development of the breasts, the habitus, and the distribution of body fat are female in character so that most have a ''truly" feminine appearance. Axillary and pubic hairs are absent or scanty, but some vulval hairs are usually present. Scalp hairs are that of a normal woman, and facial hairs are absent. The external genitalia are unambiguously female, and the clitoris is normal. The vagina is sho and blind-ending and may be absent or rudimentary. All internal genitalia are absent except for testes that contain normal Leydig cells and seminiferous tubules without spermatogenesis. The testes may be located in the abdomen, along the course of the inguinal canal, or in the labia majora. | Surgery | null | A young girl presents with primary amenorrhoea, grade V thelarche, grade II pubarche and no axillary hair. The most probable diagnosis is
A. Testicular feminization
B. Mullerian agenesis
C. Turner syndrome
D. Gonadal dysgenesis
| Testicular feminization |
a033fce2-9a88-43fc-b4c3-df82ec23fe6e | Presence of vomiting, lethargy, dehydration, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia and shock in this eight-year-old male infant suggest a diagnosis of neonatal adrenal insufficiency/crisis.
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is the most prevalent cause of adrenal insufficiency in neonates (typically 7-14 days post delivery) and the single best answer amongst the options provided,
Clinical features of CAH (21 hydroxylase deficiency)
Symptoms of classical CAH due to 21 hydroxylase deficiency are:
Clinical: Lethargy, vomiting, Anorexia, weight loss, dehydration, hypotension, shock
Mineralocorticoid deficiency: Hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypotension
Cortisol deficiency: Hypoglycemia, Hyperpigmentation of areolar and scrotal areas in males and genital creases in females (due to ↑ ACTH secretion)
Excess Androgen
Males: Phenotypically normal for some years, precocious puberty
Females: Virilization (female pseudohermaphrodite) | Pediatrics | null | An 8 days old male infant is brought to the emergency department with vomiting, lethargy, dehydration and features of shock. Clinical examination reveals hyperpigmentation of the genital skin and normal external genitalia. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. blood tests revealed sodium of 124 mecill, potassium of 7 meq/1 and hypoglycemia. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Congenital Adrenal FIyperplasia (CAH)
B. Adrenal Haemorrhage
C. Acute Gastorenteritis with dehydration
D. Hyperaldosteronism
| Congenital Adrenal FIyperplasia (CAH) |
98fce862-9c14-427f-b580-5a9f6deed767 | The incidence of undescended testes is approximately 30% in preterm infants and 1 to 3% in term infants. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | Surgery | null | Incidence of undescended testis in term infants is:
A. <5%
B. <1%
C. 8%
D. 10%
| <5% |
6de9f79e-6ce8-4985-a982-060cfd8b2fd7 | Oligomenorrhoea - Infrequent and irregularly timed episodes of bleeding usually occuring at intervals of more than 35 days Polymenorrhoea - Frequent episodes of mentruation usually occurring at intervals of 21 days or less Menorrhagia - Increased menstrual flow/Increased duration at regular cycles Hypomenorrhoea - Scanty bleeding and shoer days of bleeding Metrorrhagia - Irregular bleeding in between the cycles Menometrorrhagia - Increased menstrual flow as well as irregular bleeding between the cycles | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | FMGE 2018 | Irregular and infrequent menstruation is known as:
A. Amenorrhoea
B. Oligomenorrhoea
C. Polymenorrhoea
D. Menorrhagia
| Oligomenorrhoea |
b6df4c0d-3037-4219-817e-6db9492caeb0 | Sholy after the tip of para mesonephric ducts reach the urogenital sinus two solid evaginations grow out from the pelvic pa of the sinus.From these evaginations the sinovaginal bulbs proliferates to form the vaginal plates. The androgen exposure may arrest the differentiation of urogenital sinus LANGMAN'S MEDICAL EMBRYOLOGY, Pg no:229,12th edition | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Sexuality and intersexuality | Exposure of a female fetus to androgen in early embryogenesis may arrest differentiation of :
A. Mullerian
B. Ovary
C. Urogential sinus
D. Mesonephric ducts
| Urogential sinus |
bfb06f8d-6dc7-465c-8dc9-8d9766eabef0 | Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery [Ref: BDC 4/e, Vol 1, p 56, 82; Snell's Clinical Anatomy 6/e, p 412-413, 657; Moore Clinical Anatomy 5/a, p 766-7671Axillary aery is the continuation of the subclan aery. It is crossed by pectoralis minor muscle which devides it into three pas.A rich anastomosis exists around the scapula between branches of subclan aery (first pa) & the axillary aery (third pa).This anastomosis provides a collateral circulation through which blood can flow to the limb when the distal pa of subclan aery or the proximal pa of axillary aery is blocked.Anastomosis around the scapula :Formed by branches of-Subclan aery - first pa- Suprascapular aery- Deep branch of transverse cervical aeryAxillary aery - third pa- Subscapular aery & its circumflex scapular branchThere are other smaller anastomoses over the acromion process, which also helps to maintain .flow to arm. (BDC Vol I, 4/e, p 82)Anastomoses over the acromion processFormed by -a)Acromial br. of thoraco-acromial aeryb)Acromial br. of suprascapular aeryc)Acromial br. of posterior circumflex humeral aeryThe subscapular aery also forms anastomoses with intercostal aeries | Anatomy | null | In obstruction of second pa of axillay aery, theanostomosis between the following aery will maintain the blood supply of upper limb:
A. Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery
B. Anterior & posterior circumflex humeral
C. Posterior circumflex humeral & circumflex scapular aery
D. Suprascapular & anterior circumflex humeral aery
| Deep branch of transverse cervical aery & subscapular aery |
92af6f84-a794-4ce9-a7b2-e3161ab24b21 | Ans. is 'c' i.e. IgM anti-HBc You are sure to get questions on serological marker of Hepatitis in every PG exams (particularly AIIMS & AI). This topic has been thoroughly discussed.See Q. No 58 of Nov. 2001.Coming to the question; Hbs Ag is also present in recent hepatitis B infection but it is not a reliable marker because it can also be seen in carriers, whereas IgM anti- HBc is seen only in acute or recent hepatitis and is replaced by IgG anti Hbc in chronic infections. | Medicine | Immunology and Rheumatology | Which of the following markers in the blood is the most reliable indicator of recent hepatitis B- infection?
A. HBsAg
B. lgG anti - HBs
C. lgM anti - HBc
D. lgM anti - HBe
| lgM anti - HBc |
080139cb-a495-44a8-908e-26689b910af6 | Reiter 's syndrome now referred to as reactive ahritis (ReA), is a classic triad of ahritis, nongonococcal urethritis and conjunctivitis. Reactive ahritis is triggered following enteric or urogenital infections. Reactive ahritis is associated with human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27. Bacteria associated with reactive ahritis are generally enteric or venereal. Reactive ahritis falls under the rheumatic disease category of seronegative spondyloahropathies, which includes ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic ahritis, the ahropathy of associated inflammatory bowel disease, juvenile-onset ankylosing spondylitis, juvenile chronic ahritis, and undifferentiated spondyloahritis. | Medicine | null | After a leisure trip, a patient comes with gritty pain in eye, and joint pain following an episode of urinary infection. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A. Reiter's syndrome
B. Bachet's syndrome
C. Sarcoidosis
D. SLE
| Reiter's syndrome |
3d589011-377d-4bf7-8be7-e0cd561668d1 | The rotation advancement cleft lip repair, also referred to as a Millard repair, is probably the most commonly performed repair today. Almost no tissue is discarded; the medial lip element is rotated downward, even with a back cut, if necessary, and the lateral lip element is advanced into the defect under the nasal sill. Mucosal flaps are used to line the nose and the vestibule of the lip | ENT | null | Millard repair is used for treatment of:
A. Cleft lip
B. Cleft palate
C. Meningocele
D. Saddle nose
| Cleft lip |
6800db63-aa34-4d3a-aed7-52c02e9f16ac | Lillys antidote Used for cyanide poisoning. Composition Sodium nitrite Amyl nitrite Sodium Thiosulfate | Forensic Medicine | Toxicology - 3 | Lillys antidote does not contain
A. Sodium Nitrite
B. Amyl Nitrite
C. Sodium Thiosulfate
D. Dicobalt EDTA
| Dicobalt EDTA |
09d79543-b3b5-471a-95a6-c849364b389f | Fine reticular pigmentation with palmar pits is characteristic of downing Degos disease Dowling-Degos disease (DDD) is a type of reticulate pigmentary disorder in which hyperpigmented macules are found in the flexures. Iadvl text book of dermatology, page 737 | Dental | miscellaneous | Fine reticular pigmentation with palmar pits are seen in -
A. Dowling - Degos disease
B. Rothmund thornpson syndrome
C. Cockyane syndrome
D. Bloom's syndrome
| Dowling - Degos disease |
64245f90-6419-469d-ad04-bab2d3fac51d | Ans ACreutzfeldt-Jacob disease is a spongiform encephalopathy caused by prions. On MRI T2 hyperintensity in basal ganglia, thalamus (Hockey stick sign), cortex and white matter with persistent diffusion restriction in considered most sensitive sign. On PET scan there can be hypometabolsim in affected area however it is less sensitive | Radiology | Nervous System | Imaging tool of choice for GD?
A. DWI MRI with ADC maps
B. HMPAO SPECT
C. MR Spectroscopy
D. PET
| DWI MRI with ADC maps |
630f1606-e863-416b-b7a3-7d122c9257f5 | CT Scan picture shows Crescent sign or Dodd's Sign seen in Antrochoanal Polyp Adenoid hyperophy: Dodd's Sign is negative JNAF- Epistaxis in adolescent males NPC- Old age, presents generally with Neck node metastasis | ENT | ENT Q Bank | A 16 years old girl presented with history of nasal obstruction for last 2 months. A CT Scan was done and following findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma
B. Antrochoanal polyp
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
D. Adenoid Hyperophy
| Antrochoanal polyp |
9ff4ff7d-f226-4a51-a63c-2d29943d3e37 | c. Langerhan's cell histiocytosis(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2484-2489], Ghai 8/e p 620-623)Seborrheic dermatitis, polyuria, hepatosplenomegaly and ear discharge suggests diagnosis of LCH. | Pediatrics | C.V.S. | A 2-year-old child comes with ear discharge, seborrheic dermatitis, polyuria and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Leukemia
B. Lymphoma
C. Langerhan's cell histiocytosis
D. Germ cell tumor
| Langerhan's cell histiocytosis |
fd3f4eb2-f406-4bd7-98a9-ca67c033eb95 | In adults, the cervical curve and lumbar curve is concave backwards. The thoracic and sacral curve is convex backwards.Ref: Clinical Anatomy by Systems, Richard S. Snell, Edition 2007, Chapter 12, Page 860; Anatomy at a Glance, Omar Faiz, 3rd Edition, Chapter 77, Page 175. | Anatomy | null | Which of this following pas of veebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity towards back?
A. Cervical Veibral Canal
B. Thoracic Veibral Canal
C. Sacral Veibral Canal
D. Coccyx Veibral Canal
| Cervical Veibral Canal |
44f96048-66e0-4b34-8a32-185c72a171dd | At present, there are two schemes for adolescent girls &;Kishore shakti yojana&; and &;Nutrition programme for adolescent girls&;Kishore shakti yojana is being implemented using the infrastructure of ICDS. The scheme targets adolescent girls in the age group of 11 to 18 years and address their needs of self-development, nutrition and health status, literacy and numerical and vocational skills.Nutrition programme for adolescent girls also being implemented using the infrastructure of ICDS. Undernourished adolescent girls in the age group 11 to 19 years (<30 in 11-15 ages and <35 in 15 to 19) are covered under the scheme.Park 23e pg: 592 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Maternal and child care | KSY is
A. Empowerment of females under maternity benefit scheme
B. Adolescent girls scheme under ICDS
C. Free and compulsory education for girl child
D. Child care home scheme female juvenile delinquents
| Adolescent girls scheme under ICDS |
c527a587-c3de-4943-be1d-97452d277b91 | When crude death rate is substracted from crude bih rate , the net residual is current annual grow rate , exclusive of migration. When the annual growth rate of a population is 1.5% to 2.0%, it takes 35-47 years to double the size of population. Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no: 481, table 5 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | If annual growth rate of a population is 1.5-2%, what number of years will be required to double the population
A. 70-47 years
B. 35-47 years
C. 35-28 years
D. 28-23 years
| 35-47 years |
2ad1afd2-1588-486d-b926-e17958c71b25 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Single stranded RNA(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 571 and 8th/e, p. 570)* The genome in HIV is diploid, composed of two identical single stranded positive sense RNA copies. | Microbiology | Human Immunodeficiency Virus | HIV virus contains:
A. Single stranded DNA
B. Single stranded RNA
C. Double stranded DNA
D. Double stranded RNA
| Single stranded RNA |
77a7099f-d422-4ce4-86de-4c40717977bb | B i.e. Broncheal aery In great majority of patients hemoptysis originates from systemic rather than pulmonary aeries and the bronchial vessels are almost universally involved. (Grainger) Massive hemoptysis in a patient of T.B. is usually d/ t erosion of bronchial aery which bleeds at systemic pressure. | Radiology | null | A young man with tuberculosis presents with massive recurrent hemoptysis. Most probable cause would be.
A. Pulmonary aery
B. Bronchial aery
C. Pulomary vein
D. Superior vena cava
| Bronchial aery |
016fe751-47c7-4387-853d-7a85d0cc9f5f | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyclospora All the parasites mentioned in the question cause chronic diarrhoea {mostly in immunocompromised patients).All of them reveal oocyst on stool examination. In Giardiasis, parasite is also seen along with oocyst stool examination.Oocyst of all the organisms except giardia are acid fast. The diagnosis rests on the size of the oocyst.DIAGNOSIS OF INTESTINAL PROTOZOAL INFECTIONParasiteStoolFecal acid fast stainSize of the oocystGiardiaOocyst + Parasite 4 nuclei 8-12 x 7 x 10 pmCryptospo- ridiumOocyst+Small, 4-5 pm in diameterIsosporaOocyst+Large 25 pm in diameterCyclosporaOocyst+Medium 8-10 pm diameterMicrosporidiaSpores Special fecal stains, tissue biopsiesMore on this topicParasites causing chronic diarrhoeaGiardiaCryptosporidiosisIsosporaCyclosporaHookwormAmoebiasisStrongyloidesAcid fast organisms are -MycobacteriumLepra bacilliNocardiaIsosporaBacterial sporesRhodococcusSmegma bacilliSpermatic headCryptosporidiumCyclospora | Microbiology | Parasitology | 25 years old male presented with diarrhea for 6 months. On examination the causative agent was found to be acid fast with 12 micro meter diameter. The most likely agent is -
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Isospora
C. Cyclospora
D. Giardia
| Cyclospora |
ac34f3c3-947a-40b4-98a1-cc945cae0e9a | Papillomatosis of skin Skin surface elevation caused by hyperplasia and enlargement of contiguous dermal papillae. Papillary projections of the epidermis form an undulating surface under microscopic examination. | Dental | Tumours of skin | Skin surface elevation caused by hyperplasia and projections of the epidermis form an undulating surface under microscopic examination. What is this known as?
A. Saw toothing
B. Papillomatosis
C. Villi
D. Parakeratosis
| Papillomatosis |
3f235765-8249-4d27-b799-9b4ec65449fe | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Choking Features Hanging Strangulation Cause (mostly) Sigus of struggle Ligature mark Suicidal No * Above thyroid cartilageQ * Incomplete and directed obliquely upward * No skin damage under knot *Abrasion and bruise around ligature mark are * Dissection reveals a dry glistening white band of subcutaneous tissueQ Homicidal Present * Below thyroid cartilageQ * Completely encircelsQ neck horizontalQ * May be more than one turns * Abrasion and bruises are common *Dissection reveals ecchymosed subcutaneous tissueQ * Stretching of neck * Fracture-dislocation of vertebrae Present Absent * Fracture of hyoid, laryngeal cartilage, tracheal rings * Injury to neck muscles * Injury to carotid artery Rare Common Note - Throttling is m.c. cause of hyoid fracture Saliva Running out of angle of mouth vertically down Usually saliva not espaced but if so usually blood tinged and may not be vertically down * External signs of asphyxia *Face * Bleeding from nose and mouth Not well marked Pale Rare Well marked Congested, Cynosed with petechiaeQ Common | Forensic Medicine | Misc. | Hyoid bone fracture does not occur in -
A. Hanging
B. Strangulation
C. Throttling
D. Choking
| Choking |
f139912a-c07a-4af0-830e-9d38780acd2d | Microtubules are polymers of tubulin that form pa of the cytoskeleton and provide structure and shape to cells | Biochemistry | Enzymes | Cell shape and motility are provided by
A. Microfilaments
B. Microtubules
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Mitochondria
| Microtubules |
aeeed478-5ceb-4585-b41c-72384697c28d | Coefficient of variation: - Is a measure used to compare relative variability - Is a unit-free measure to compare dispersion of one variable with another - Is SD expressed as percentage of mean CV = In the given question, Mean weight (u) = 12 kg, n = 100, Standard detion (s) = 3 Thus, coefficient of variance =s/ux 100 = 3/12 x100 = 25% | Social & Preventive Medicine | Central tendency, Dispersion | Mean weight of 100 children was 12 kg. The standard detion was 3. Calculate the percent Coefficient of variation:
A. 25%
B. 35%
C. 45%
D. 55%
| 25% |
ddb2fe1c-105e-4ccf-a740-fe383571d102 | Depression: A major depressive disorder occurs without a history of a manic, mixed, or hypomanic episode. A major depressive episode must last at least 2 weeks DIAGNOSIS: Major Depressive Disorder The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for major depression Sadness of mood Diminished interest in pleasure Significant weight loss or gain more than 5% in a month Crying spells Feeling of wohlessness Poor sleep (Insomnia or hypersomnia) Suicidal thoughts Psychomotor retardation Fatigue or loss of energy. Five or more of these symptoms present for 2 weeks or more or either depressed mood or loss of interest or pleasure. | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders | A 30 year old male was brought for evaluation. The history revealed that the patients 3 year old son died, 5 months back after being hit by a car. At the time of accident, patient was standing nearby and witnessed the accident. For last 5 months, he has been having symptoms of sadness of mood, crying spells, feelings of wohlessness, poor sleep and poor appetite. He has twice thought of killing himself but stopped at the end moment. He has not been attending the office of last 5 months. What is the likely diagnosis:
A. Post traumatic stress disorder
B. Normal grief
C. Major depression
D. Adjustment disorder
| Major depression |
fe292ade-80e2-4c0e-bdbb-86881762d2c2 | Ans. B i.e. Basal cell carcinoma In darkly pigmented racial groups, squamous cell carcinoma is the MC skin malignancy Skin tumours Basal cell carcinoma does not show lymphatic spread Conditions predisposing to Squamous cell carcinoma: - Actinic keratosis, - DLE Basal cell carcinoma MC site of BCC: Face MC type of BCC: Nodulo-ulcerative type Mode of spread: Direct Excision procedure done: Moh's micrographic excision | Surgery | null | Most common type of skin carcinoma on face, in light skinned, is: March 2013
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Bowen's disease
D. Erythroplasia of Queyrat
| Basal cell carcinoma |
4ea61b65-a813-449d-bc40-6617fe89fd43 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3 o To maintain protection, revaccination is recommended every 3 years. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Typhoid revaccination is recommended every ... years in endemic area-
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
| 3 |
daaafa76-9e3d-4e51-b9ee-028e238e4c5d | The esophagus is a muscular, collapsible tube about 10 in. (25 cm) long that joins the pharynx to the stomach. The esophagus enters the abdomen through an opening in the right crus of the diaphragm.After a course of about 0.5 in. (1.25 cm), it enters the stomach on its right side. | Anatomy | null | Length of esophagus in adults is:
A. 25 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 15 cm
D. 20 cm
| 25 cm |
d22d3c23-8890-41a0-9e55-4da64e49053c | In 1989, epidemic - the reappearance of swine HINI virus Influenza can occur sporadically, as epidemics or pandemics In 2009, H1N1 Epidemic occurred in Mexico-recent Ref: Baveja 5th ed Pg: 468 | Microbiology | Virology | Which influenza strain was isolated in 1989 spreading to many other countries?
A. H2N2
B. H1N1
C. H3N2
D. H5N1
| H1N1 |
c523d0a9-6d7f-4910-80e5-5a265f49fc6f | Sample registration system (SRS) : Was initiated in 1964-65 (on a pilot basis ; Full scale from 1969-70) to provide national as well as state level reliable estimates of feility and Moality SRS is a dual record system Field investigation : Continuous enumeration of bihs and deaths by an enumerator Independent retrospective survey : Every 6 months by an investigator-supervisor Findings of SRS survey Crude bih rate (CBR) : 20.4 per 1000 mid year population Crude Death rate (CDR) : 6. 4 per 1000 mid year population Natural growth rate : 14% Infant Moality rate (IMR) : 34 per 1000 live bihs Ref: Park 23rd edition 904 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Demography and family planning | Which of the following is the national system that provides annual national as well as state reliable estimates of feility and Moality
A. Civil registration system
B. Census
C. Ad-hoc survey
D. Sample registration system
| Sample registration system |
c0b789c0-2c55-4377-a003-1b6ec67bcd00 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hearing lossElevated level of homocysteine (hyperhomocysteinemia) is associated with -i) Thrombosis, coronary aery disease & stroke.ii) Osteoporosis & fracture.iii) Neuropsychiatric manifestations.iv) Developmental delay.v) Visual disturbances.vi) Microalbuminuria. | Biochemistry | null | Homocystein is not associated with
A. Coronary aery disease
B. Fracture
C. Hearing loss
D. Neuropsychiatric manifestations
| Hearing loss |
0ae7f626-85b1-4a0d-9480-c0ba1d2e0c64 | Last soft tissue affected in male → Prostate
Last soft tissue affected in female → Uterus
Overall, last tissue affected (both in male & female) →3 Bone | Forensic Medicine | null | Last organ to be affected in putrefaction-a) Prostateb) Uterusc) Kidneyd) Thyroid
A. ab
B. ac
C. bd
D. cd
| ab |
a2367fbd-03d3-46d5-9f19-f56fc23095f4 | The buttocks are the preferred site for administration of the intramuscular injection.
The muscles (gluteal) of this area are thick and are utilized frequently in daily activities, thus causing complete absorption of drugs.
To give the injection at the proper site, the gluteal region can be divided into four quadrant -
i) Superomedial (upper inner quadrant)
ii) Superolateral (upper outer quadrant)
iii) Inferomedial (lower inner quadrant)
iv) Inferolateral (lower outer quadrant)
The proper location for an injection is the upper outer quadrant (superolateral) because this is the location where there is least possibility of hitting bone, large blood vessels or the sciatic nerve. | Pharmacology | null | Intramuscular injections are given which quadrant of the buttock
A. Inferomedial
B. Superomedial
C. Superolateral
D. Superomedial
| Superolateral |
46b83bda-58b0-480a-8eea-eaaee1404ba6 | Chemotactic factors are substance that stimulalte cellular migration The most potent chemotactic factors for leukocytes at the site of injury are:- Complement proteins (e.g., C5a) Bacterial and mitochondrial products, paicularly low molecular weight N-formylated peptides Products of arachidonic acid metabolism (especially LTB4) -Plasmin is a fibrinolytic enzyme generated by activated Hageman factor (clotting factor XII). | Pathology | Chemical mediators in plasma: Kinin system | A 63-year-old man becomes febrile and begins expectorating large amounts of mucopurulent sputum. Sputum cultures are positive for Gram-positive diplococci. Which of the following mediators of inflammation provides potent chemotactic factors for the directed migration of inflammatory cells into the alveolar air spaces of this patient?
A. Bradykinin
B. Histamine
C. Myeloperoxidase
D. N-formylated peptides
| N-formylated peptides |
3d70488e-7db6-419d-b462-a045a25fa000 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Betaxolol o Among the given options, only betaxolol is 0-1 selective. | Pharmacology | null | Glaucoma drug which is b-1 selectve p-blocker is ?
A. Timolol
B. Laevobuno I ol
C. Caeolol
D. Betaxolol
| Betaxolol |
071d22c9-7b7c-4412-aafb-af231173b2ec | The above clinical features on the initiation of fruit juice suggests a disorder of fructose metabolism. Hereditary fructose intolerance (HFI) is due to deficiency of the enzyme Aldolase B. Individuals affected with HFI are asymptomatic until they ingest fructose or sucrose (usually in the form of fruit, fruit juice or sweetened cereal). Symptoms include : Hepatomegaly Jaundice Vomiting Lethargy Convulsions Hypoglycemia Urine reducing sugar (Benedict's test) and tests for ketoses (Rapid Furfural and Seliwanoff's test) are positive. Treatment is removal of fructose and sucrose from the diet. Reference: Lippincott's Illustrated biochemisty 6th Edition Pg 138 | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | A 6-month-old male baby comes with vomiting, lethargy and severe jaundice when weaning was staed with fruit juice. Which of the following enzymes is defective?
A. Fructokinase
B. Aldolase A
C. Aldolase B
D. Sucrase
| Aldolase B |
deeb01ef-b9aa-4153-ac6d-f5d0a77169ac | Inflammatory reaction in children is always serious and if the child is already suffering from uveitis IOL implantations can detoriate the condition Bewafa. REF:Khurana 6th edition page number 205 | Ophthalmology | Lens | In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put intraocular lens after cataract extraction
A. Fuchs heterochromic cyclitis
B. Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis
C. Psoriatic ahritis
D. Reiters syndrome
| Juvenile rheumatoid ahritis |
071b822d-0b92-4499-bfa3-710331047cae | The contraction of the extensor mechanism produces extension of the distal interphalangeal joint. When it is torn from the distal phalanx, the digit is pulled into flexion by the flexor digitorum profundus. The proper palmar digital branches of the median nerve supply lumbrical muscles and carry sensation from their respective digits. Vincula longa are slender, bandlike connections from the deep flexor tendons to the phalanx that can carry blood supply to the tendons. The insertions of the flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus are on the flexor surface of the middle and distal phalanges, respectively, and act to flex the interphalangeal joints. | Anatomy | Upper Extremity | A 23-year-old female maid was making a bed in a hotel bedroom. As she straightened the sheet by running her right hand over the surface with her fingers extended, she caught the end of the index finger in a fold. She experienced a sudden, severe pain over the base of the terminal phalanx. Several hours later when the pain had diminished, she noted that the end of her right index finger was swollen and she could not completely extend the terminal interphalangeal joint. Which one of the following structures within the digit was most likely injured?
A. The proper palmar digital branch of the median nerve
B. The vinculum longa
C. The insertion of the tendon of the extensor digitorum onto the base of the distal phalanx
D. The insertion of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon
| The insertion of the tendon of the extensor digitorum onto the base of the distal phalanx |
6887c803-6a1b-4bb6-80c1-4e4e53c56d79 | Sodium stibogluconate, is drug of choice in leishmaniasis. Meglumine antimoniate, Pentamidine, Amphotericin B, Miltefosine, Paromomycin are alternative drugs Basic and clinical pharmacology Katzung 13th edition pg 902 | Pharmacology | Chemotherapy | The drug used for leishmaniasis treatment
A. Pyrimethamine
B. Albendazole
C. Sodium stibogluconate
D. Tinidazole
| Sodium stibogluconate |
07776d87-38b0-4011-87a3-e2a2625981ef | PUGILISTIC ATTITUDE OR BOXING OR FENCING OR DEFENCE ATTITUDE: The posture of the body which has been exposed to great heat is often characteristic. POSITION: the legs are flexed at hips and knees the arms are flexed at the elbow and held in front of the body head slightly extended all fingers are hooked like claws contraction of paraspinal muscles often causes a marked OPISTHOTONOS in an attitude commonly adopted by boxers CAUSE: Coagulation of proteins occurs whether the person was alive or dead at the time of burning The flexor muscles being bulkier than extensors contract more due to which joints of all limbs are flexed. REFERENCE: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29th edition page no: 161. | Forensic Medicine | Thermal injury | Fencing attitude of the dead bodies is caused by
A. Coagulation of proteins
B. Emulsification of fat
C. Exposure to excess cold
D. Electric shock
| Coagulation of proteins |
fb3ae3f0-528b-4644-9f0f-613a2e26209c | The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ;28th edition ; pg.no. 138 Tympanic membrane rupture most commonly with hemorrhage in the ear . Blast lung is the other most common injury . | Forensic Medicine | Mechanical injuries | Organs first to be injured in blast -
A. Ear, lung
B. Kidney, spleen
C. Pancreas, duodenum
D. Liver, muscle
| Ear, lung |
59f89dec-c0dc-49ca-b63f-fc682ce49129 | Maximum work has been done with BCG+ heat killed M. leprae (will be the best answer). In the choices given Cat 2 killed ICRC bacillus is used for Immunoprophylaxis of leprosy. Ref: Park, 20th Edition, Page 286. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Immunoprophylaxis of leprosy is best done by which of the following given choices?
A. MMR
B. Killed ICRC bacillus
C. Plague bacillus
D. Anthrax bacillus
| Killed ICRC bacillus |
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