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135
dd517451-4b4b-41ed-b1bd-72c2f40db897
Type of receptor present on T-cells are:
IgA
IgG
Prostaglandins
CD4
3d
single
Helper T cells  Carries CD4 marker. Helps or induces immune responses. Recognize antigen in association with class II MHC. Macrophages are activated to kill intracellular microorganisms by secreting cytokines. Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page:127
Microbiology
null
9dc959e1-1182-4eba-bc2b-a5a713b63634
A patient presented to emergency ward with massive upper gastrointestinal bleed. On examination, he has mild splenomegaly. In the absence of any other information available, which of the following is the most appropriate therapeutic modality -
Intravenous propranolol
Intravenous vasopressin
Intravenous pantoprazole
Intravenous somatostatin
2c
single
Medical management of Upper GI bleed PPI have been shown to reduce the risk for rebleeding and the need for surgical intervention Only 60-70% of patients with bleeding ulcer test positive for H.pylori ;after H.pylori Eradication there is no need for Longterm acid suppression Ref : Maingot's 10th/e p. 292, 293, Sabiston 17th/e p. 1245
Anatomy
G.I.T
fb85eeb9-6d69-4945-b0f4-67beac983ce9
Film speed best for detection of incipient caries:
C
D
E
F
1b
single
null
Dental
null
607aa729-a16d-4217-851f-e612aee656dd
NADA's criteria are used for -
Assessment of child for degree of dehydration
Assessment of child for degree of malnutrition
Assessment of child for presence of hea disease
Assessment of child for degree of mental retardation
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Assessment of child for the presence of hea disease o The assessment of a child for the absence or presence of Hea disease can be done with the help of some guidelines suggested by NADA and are called NADA's criteria. NADA's Criteria o Either one major or two minor criteria are necessary for indicating the presence of hea disease. A) Major Criteria 1) Systolic murmur of grade III or more. The systolic murmur is classified into : ? a) Ejection systolic murmur b) Pansystolic murmur Pansystolic murmur is always abnormal no matter what is its intesity. Only three lesions produce pansystolic murmur --> i)VSD ii) MR iii) TR Ejection systolic murmur on the other hand may be organic or functional. If ejection systolic murmur is associated with thrill, it is always organic. If ejection systolic murmur is more than grade III intensity --) It is organic. Grade III or less ejection systolic murmur of a functional type may be heard in anemia or high fever in otherwise normal children. 2) Diastolic murmur Presence of diastolic murmur always indicates the presence of organic hea disease. There are two exceptions. i) Severe hypeension --> Reduction of BP may cause an AR murmur to disappear. ii) Anemia --> May result in delayed diastolic murmur across the tricuspid and mitral area. 3) Cyanosis Central cyanosis indicates presence of hea disease if lung disease has been excluded. 4) CHF Presence of CHF indicates presence of hea disease except in neonates and infants who get CHF from causes such as hypoglycemia and anemia. B) Minor criteria 1) Systolic murmur less than grade III in intensity. 2) Abnormal second hea sound Abnormal S2 always indicates presence of hea disease. It has been included as a minor criterian only because auscultation is an individual and subjective finding. 3) Abnormal ECG Main value of ECG lies in determining the : ? i) Mean QRS axis ii) Right or left atrial hyperophy iii) Right or left ventricular hyperophy 4) Abnormal X-ray If there is cardiomegaly in a good inspiratory film, it is highly suggestive for the presence of hea disease. 5) Abnormal BP
Pediatrics
null
63c991da-75b3-4032-9eae-5c686f64de4d
Posterior columns sensations in lower limbs are lost in
Vitamin A deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency
Vitamin C deficiency
Vitamin D deficiency
1b
single
Refer KDT 6/e p589 Deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to Megaloblastic anemia which is indistinguishable from folic acid deficiency Deficiency also have manifestations related to loss of myelin like Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord
Anatomy
General anatomy
5830e96c-2fcc-4197-b02b-43b7ba739fd3
Aspirated synol fluid in septic ahritis will have?
Clear color
High viscosity
Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes
None of the above
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Surgery
null
de5154dc-1144-46ed-8b7f-d5dacb375893
Which among the following country is a 'Rabies free country'?
USA
Russia
Australia
France
2c
single
A "Rabies-free" area has been defined as one in which no case of indigenously acquired rabies has occurred in man or any animal species for 2 years. Australia, China (Taiwan), Cyprus, Iceland, Ireland, Japan, Malta, New Zealand, the U.K. and the islands of Western Pacific are all free of the disease. The Liberian Peninsula and Finland, Norway and Sweden are also rabies free. In India, Union Territory of Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar islands are free of the disease. Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine by K Park, 19th edition, Page 226.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
124abeb0-facd-4da1-8d88-2bef22fd4261
Balanced occlusion with noncuspaL teeth is achieved by
Compensating curves
Incisal guide
Balancing ramps
None
0a
multi
null
Dental
null
8c3991c7-6245-4157-9bf3-02a60e54e12c
Cholecysto-venacaval line seperates which of the following ?
Gallbladder and IVC
Poa hepatis and IVC
Caudate lobe and quadrangular lobe
Right and left lobe of liver
3d
multi
Cholecysto-venacaval line (cantlie line) seperates right and left lobe of the liver. Cantlie line is an imaginary line that divides the liver into two planes. It extends from the midpoint of the gallbladder fossa at the inferior margin of the liver back to the midpoint of the IVC and contains the middle hepatic vein. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 1162
Anatomy
All India exam
657a61ba-77c0-42b4-a06c-0ecaa53bc1ea
All are true about Coho studies EXCEPT: September 2012
Prospective
Useful for rare diseases
Necessary for incidence
Costly as compared to case control studies
1b
multi
Ans: B i.e. Useful for rare diseases Case control studies Advantages Good for studying rare conditions or diseases Less time needed to conduct the study because the condition or disease has already occurred Lets you simultaneously look at multiple risk factors Useful as initial studies to establish an association Can answer questions that could not be answered through other study design Disadvantage Retrospective studies have more problems with data quality because they rely on memory and people with a condition will be more motivated to recall risk factors (also called recall bias). Not good for evaluating diagnostic tests because it's already clear that the cases have the condition and the controls do not It can be difficult to find a suitable control group Coho studies Advantages Subjects in cohos can be matched, which limits the influence of confounding variables Standardization of criteria/outcome is possible Easier and cheaper than a randomized controlled trial (RCT) Disadvantages Cohos can be difficult to identify due to confounding variables No randomization, which means that imbalances in patient characteristics could exist Blinding/masking is difficult Outcome of interest could take time to occur
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
d322ff71-3af6-45c0-b798-00abc2fced76
A woman has 2 kids. She presents with galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea for 1 year. The most probable diagnosis is :
Pregnancy
Pituitary tumor
Sheehan's syndrome
Metastasis to pituitary from other carcinoma
1b
single
Ans. is b i.e. Pituitary Tumor
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
null
698b0581-f154-4044-9d94-0c6f9f86a802
Which of the following statements about inhalation anesthetic agents is wrong?
Sevoflurane is more potent than isoflurane
Sevoflurane is less cardiodepressant than isoflurane
Desflurane has lower blood-gas paition coefficient than sevoflurane
Sevoflurane has a higher MAC than isoflurane
0a
multi
Sevoflurane is less potent than isoflurane as it lacks coronary vasodilating propeies. Ref: Handbook of Clinical Anesthesia By Barash, Cullen, Stoelting , 5th Edition, Page 216; Handbook of Clinical Anesthesia By Paul G. Barash, Bruce F. Cullen, Robe K. Stoelting, M. Christine Stock, 6th Edition, Page 231
Anaesthesia
null
c286aac7-5aff-4276-8635-1ea62a2aa07a
Which of the following is characterically not associated with the development of interstial lung disease
Organic dusts
Inorganic dusts
Toxic gases
None
3d
multi
All the mentioned are associated with interstial lung disease Interstitial lung disease may be caused by long-term exposure to hazardous materials, such as asbestos or coal dust, or it can be caused by an auto-immune disease such as rheumatoid ahritis. Once lung scarring occurs, it's generally irreversible.
Anatomy
Respiratory system
0808d10b-4d8c-4c25-86ef-7109c6cb0da8
Kawasaki disease is associated with all of the following features except-
Erythema
Posterior cervical Lymphadenopathy
Thromobocytopenia
Conjunctivitis
2c
multi
null
Medicine
null
9cfc9473-f4f6-4d12-850e-c118f0873ff9
On accident there is damage of cervical spine, first line of management is:
X-ray
Turn head to side
Maintain airway
Stabilise the cervical spine
2c
single
C i.e. Maintain airway Initial Evaluation And Emergency Care In Spinal Trauma All the trauma patients are at risk of spinal injury. Many of the spinal injury patients are multiple trauma victims and there fore require emergency treatment(' The treatment priorities are preserving life (15, ), limb, and function. The spine must be protected as these priorities are addressed sequentially. (i.e. undue movements of spine are avoided)Q. The ABCs of trauma are followed in order of priority, with airway ventilation andcirculationQ being secured before fuher evaluation proceeds. Throughout the evaluation of other body systems, the cervical spine should be presumed injured and thus immobilized to avoid fuher neurological injury. Proper extrication of the patient and immobilization of cervical spine at the accident scene are critical to avoid fuher neurological injuryQ. The head and neck to be aligned with the long axis of trunk and immobilized in supine positionQ. Cervical extension should be avoided because it narrows the spinal canal more than flexionQ. Neutral flexion- extension head and neck alignment is optional(' during prehospital transpo of patients with cervical spine injury. Helmet & shoulder gear should be left in position until personnel trained in safe removal technque are available. After all life threatening injuries have been identified and stabilized, the secondary evaluation, including an extremity examination and neurological examination, can be safety carried out. When a spinal cord injury is suspected methyl prednisolone (steroid)Q should be staed. Most benefit occurs in the first 8 hoursQ, and additional effect occurs with in first 24 hours. The dose of methyl prednisolone is 30mg/kg loading doseQ + 5.4 mg/ kg/ hour x23 hourQ. When a medical center is reached, if a definitive cervical spine injury is identified & deemed unstable, skeletal traction for immobilization, reduction or both(' may be applied (eg. Gardner -wells traction, Halo traction etc) Summary of National Acute Spinal Cord Injury Study Protocols - Methyl prednisolone bolus 30 mg/ kg then infusion 5.4 mg/kg/h - Infusion for 24 hours if bolus given within 3 hours of injury - Infusion for 48 hrs if bolus given within 3 to 8 hrs of injury - No benefit if methyprednisolone staed more than 8 hours after injury - No benefit with naloxone - No benefit with tirilzad.
Surgery
null
c9cb9ce5-4e6a-4b7e-b9f8-62b7cb6822c5
'A' pattern squint is due to which muscle
Superior rectus
Inferior rectus
Superior oblique
Inferior oblique
2c
single
A pattern squint - superior oblique. V pattern squint - inferior oblique.
Ophthalmology
null
83049980-2815-4fbf-adf9-3e530acbcd8c
Pathergy test is used for
Reither's syndrome ,
Behchet's syndrome
Lichen planus
Atopic dermatitis
1b
single
Pathergy phenomenon is defined as a state of altered tissue reactivity that occurs in response to minor trauma Although the exact mechanisms underlying pathergy phenomenon are unknown, skin injury caused by needle prick apparently triggers a cutaneous inflammatory response . Types of pathergy tests: Oral pathergy test Site: lower lip. Skin pathergy test Site: A hairless area on the flexor aspect of the forearm sterile needle (20 gauge) prick or an intradermal injection of normal saline, monosodium urate (MSU) crystals or streptococcal antigens to perform the test. The procedure is performed on a hairless pa of the volar forearm. Generally, the needle is inseed veically or diagonally at an angle of 45deg to a depth of 3-5 mm. The needle should reach the dermis for a proper response. Clinical evaluation: Readings are taken after 48 hrs of the needle prick. A 1-2mm papule that is usually felt by palpation and which is surrounded by an erythematous halo is formed on the skin. The papule may remain as a papule or transform into a 1-5mm pustule. The pustule becomes prominent in 24 h, becomes maximum in size in 48 h, and disappears in 45 days. Erythema without induration is interpreted as a negative result. Conditions with positive pathergy phenomenon: Behcet's disease Pyoderma gangrenosum (PG): The pathergy test positivity at a rate of 25% has been repoed in the literature in PG patients. Aggressive surgical debridement or skin grafting is discouraged in these patients because of the risk of a pathergic response. Interferon alpha-treated chronic myeloid leukemia patients Sweets syndrome Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis Inflammatory bowel disease Healthy individuals Rarely in spondyloahropathies Ijdvl Sequeira FF, Daryani D. The oral and skin pathergy test. Indian J Dermatol Venereol Leprol 2011 ;77:526-30. Available from: <a style="-webkit-text-size-adjust: auto; text-decoration: none; font-size: 12px; font-family: Arial, Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif; color: ;" href="
Dental
Fungal infections, Scabies, Pediculosis
793e5ce7-b494-4e2a-ba24-389336b11943
The superior oblique muscle is supplied by
3rd cranial nerve
4th cranial nerve
5th cranial nerve
6th cranial nerve
1b
single
Superior oblique muscle is supplied by fouh cranial nerve i.e,trochlear nerve. It supplies only the superior oblique muscle of the eyeball. Superior oblique muscle helps in depression,abduction and intoion. Note: When trochlear nerve is damaged, diplopia occur looking downwards; vision is single so long as the eye look above the horizontal plane. Ref:BDC 6th edition of no.208
Anatomy
Head and neck
6e23d040-cb96-4698-9a86-e9e5501b8814
Which of the following are physiological antagonists
Adrenaline and Isoprenaline
glucagon and insulin
Isoprenaline and Propranolol
All of the above
1b
multi
Adrenalin and histamine and glucagon, insulin are physiological antagonists Physiological antagonism - opp effect on the same physiological system by two drugs glucagon increases blood glucose, insulin decreases- blood glucose adrenaline- bronchodilatation histamine- broncho constriction Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed.
Pharmacology
General pharmacology
a2d73b7a-b032-4a80-b91a-09f8dee1705c
Which one is non-ionising radiation -
MRI
CT Scan
X-ray
Position emission scintigraphy
0a
single
Ans- A. MRI.
Radiology
Ultrasonography, CT, and MRI
7db1152d-088b-41ec-bb28-9b1e7a8a159f
Corticosteroids are contraindicated in all of the following except:
Herpes zoster.
Varicella.
Pemphigus.
Herpes simplex.
2c
multi
null
Pathology
null
39c95dcc-9e79-42ce-96fa-1dc76ca64d2d
Citrullinemia type I results from deficiency of the
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Argininosuccinate synthase
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Sucinyl Co-A synthase
1b
single
(B) Argininosuccinate synthase# Citrullinemia type I (CTLN1) presents as a clinical spectrum that includes an acute neonatal form (the "classic" form), a milder late-onset form, a form without symptoms or hyperammonemia, and a form in which women have onset of severe symptoms during pregnancy or post partum.> Citrullinemia type I results from deficiency of the enzyme argininosuccinate synthase (ASS), the third step in the urea cycle in which citrulline is condensed with aspartate to form argininosuccinic acid.> Untreated individuals with the severe form of citrullinemia type I have hyperammonemia (plasma ammonia concentration 1000- 3000 pmol/L).> Plasma quantitative amino acid analysis shows absence of argininosuccinic acid and concentration of citrulline usually greater than 1000 pmol/L (normal: <50 pmol/L).> Argininosuccinate synthase enzyme activity, measured in fibroblasts, liver, and in all tissues in which ASS is expressed, is decreased.> ASS1 is the only gene in which mutation is known to cause citrullinemia type I.
Biochemistry
Miscellaneous (Bio-Chemistry)
6a7e55aa-04c0-4850-bc97-a9fa30a4fc4a
Bismuth compounds are incorporated in root canal sealer materials because they are:
Radio-opaque
Germicidal
Radiolucent
Adhesive
0a
single
Root canal sealers should be radiopaque, so that it can be visualized in the radiograph. Radiopacity is provided by salts of heavy metals such as silver, barium and bismuth.
Dental
null
3b28bd2e-1776-489b-8986-c73c47a595d5
The appropriate media culture for a gram negative coccobacilli arranged in a school of fish , that causes STD with genital ulcers is
Thayer Main media
Blood agar with X and V factors
Chocolate agar with isovitale X
Tellurite blood agar
2c
single
Chocolate agar enriched with 1%isovitalex is used to grow H.ducreyi.
Anatomy
Bacteriology
8d71674a-0db8-49dc-ac6d-5592961ba242
Metastatic calcification is commonly seen in all of the following, except:
Lungs
Kidneys
Gastric mucosa
Cardiac valves
3d
multi
Dystrophic calcification is seen in cardiac valves (calcific valvular disease). Metastatic calcification principally affects interstitial tissues of: Gastric mucosa Kidneys Lungs Systemic aeries Pulmonary veins The common feature of all these sites, which makes them prone to calcification is that they can lose acid and therefore they have an internal alkaline component orable for metastatic calcification.
Pathology
Irreversible cell Injury/Necrosis
af2e29ca-41e4-430b-8673-67ede0702214
Targeted intervention for HIV is done for all except -
Commercial sex worker
Migrant laborers
Street children
Industrial worker
3d
multi
<p> Targeted interventions for high risk group is to improve health-seeking behaviour of high risk groups and reducing their risk of acquiring STI and HIV. It includes female sex workers , men who have sex with men ,transgenders,injecting drug users,bridge populations and high risk behaviour migrants and long distance truckers. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:436. <\p>
Social & Preventive Medicine
Communicable diseases
e9535130-0ead-46df-8c56-c77bafa49fea
Radiological sign of ischemic colitis is
Popcorn appearance
Thumb print apperance
Cobrahead app
Inveed 3 sign
1b
single
B i.e. Thumb printing
Radiology
null
f4718a6b-3259-4734-b48e-893b964969fd
Neurotransmitter changes proposed in cases of Anxiety
Increased NE, and decreased GABA and serotonin
Decreased NE and serotonin, and increased Ach
Decreased GABA and Ach
Increased serotonin, and decreased NE and GABA
0a
single
There are various neurotransmitters that is studied under the neurobiology of anxiety they are mainly as follows decreased GABA, hence benzodiazepines which acts on GABA is a onderful anti anxiety drug decrased serotonin , hence SSRI are used in management of all anxiety disorders increased norepinephrine, thus proponolol which is a beta blocker is used in the management of anxiety especially in social anxiety disorders. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 387
Psychiatry
All India exam
d8882547-e2e8-406f-968f-ee68c4efe79b
Compared with serum, CSF has
A higher chloride concentration
A higher protein concentration
The same glucose concentration
More lymphocytes per microliter
0a
single
Compared with serum, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) has a higher chloride concentration. CSF is an ultrafiltrate of plasma. It is produced primarily by the choroid plexus cells in the lateral ventricles. From the lateral ventricles, CSF flows through the foramen of Munro into the third ventricle, through the aqueduct of Sylvius, and into the fouh ventricle. It then exits the fouh ventricle through the foramina of Luschka and Magendie and enters the subarachnoid space located between the arachnoid and pia mater. The CSF in the subarachnoid space cushions the brain and spinal cord. CSF is resorbed through the arachnoid villi, extending into the dural venous sinuses located along the summit of the brain. The venous sinuses empty into the jugular venous system.CSF has a lower glucose, lower protein (15 to 45 mg/dl), fewer lymphocytes, and higher chloride (120 to 130 mEq/dl) than serum. These differences help distinguish serum from CSF in trauma cases.
Physiology
Nervous system
b331b96a-e132-474c-923c-37d112b001ff
ASHA ( accredited social health activist) works at
Community level
Village level
PHC level
District level
1b
single
In NRHM at village level with 1000 population, one ASHA and AWWs are present Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition
Social & Preventive Medicine
Health programmes in India
f34cdf4a-5341-4129-be11-455ae266490f
A 44 year old female has history of blunt trauma to the abdomen the best investigation is -
USG
CT Scan
Complete Hemogram
Abdominal X-ray
0a
single
Answer- A. USGIf patient is hemodynamically stable and can be shifted - CT scan is the best.If patient is hemodynamically unstable (cannot be shifted) - USG is the investigation of choice.
Surgery
null
2a2223f3-d628-4e24-ba50-acf4e8796b56
Loeffler's serum slope doesn't contain
Nutrient Broth
Glucose
Horse serum
Sheep blood
3d
single
LSS is used for the culture of C Diptheria It doesn't contain sheep blood .sheep blood is present in blood agar LSS is a type of enriched media Ref: CP Baveja 4th ed Pg:46
Microbiology
general microbiology
abc083d5-d23c-4ae8-a88c-fd907c7ef30b
All are true regarding propeies of common disinfectants, EXCEPT:
Glutaraldehyde is sporicidal
Hypochlorites are viricidal
Alcohol is fungicidal, bactericidal not sporicidal
Phenol usually requires organic matter to act
3d
multi
Phenol and its derivatives acts by denaturing proteins, especially in cell membrane. It is active aginst gram positive bacteria but its activity is reduced in presence of organic matter. Glteraldehyde is considered a chemical sterilant since it has a broad spectrum of activity inluding being sporicidal. It acts by alkylating microorganism proteins. Hypochlorites are bactericidal, myocabactericidal, fungicidal and virucidal. Alcohols are among the most widely used disinfectant and antiseptic. They are bactericidal and fungicidal not sporicidal. They are also effective against some lipid containing viruses.
Microbiology
null
91119790-be8f-4853-84e4-f5b018849a28
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Fondaparinux
Factor Xa inhibition and Thrombin inhibition
Factor Xa inhibition
Antithrombin inhibitor
Thrombin inhibition
1b
single
The antithrombotic activity of fondaparinux sodium is the result of antithrombin III (ATIII) mediated selective inhibition of Factor Xa. ref - Harrisons internal medicine 20e pg851
Medicine
Haematology
8e5c2e9c-956b-48ae-bedb-014ddfbfde30
Hepatitis E clinically resembles -
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
Hepatitis C
Hepatitis D
0a
multi
Type E hepatitis was previously is mistaken for hepatitis A because of clinical and epidemiological similarities. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-550
Microbiology
Virology
51ce0c03-56ae-4678-a1c5-b4eecbe45923
A 6-month-child presents with episodes of vomiting after ingesting fruit juice. Which of following enzyme deficiency is likely?
Aldolase
Fructokinase
Glucose 6-phosphatase
Hexokinase
0a
single
a. Aldolase B(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 720-728, Ghai 8/e p 655-657)In the given scenario, the child becomes symptomatic after ingesting fruit juice, which is often sweet, containing sucrose and hence, glucose and fructose. So, he is suffering from Hereditary Fructose intolerance.
Pediatrics
Inborn Errors of Metabolism
d94c4ad4-c575-4f8f-88ee-c8e96eba6546
Most common cause of spontaneous abortion is?
Chromosomal abnormality
Uterine malformations
Immunological
Infections
0a
single
ANSWER: (A) Chromosomal abnormalityREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 159Most common cause of spontaneous abortion is chromosomal abnormality, trisomy of chromosome 16.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
First-Trimester Spontaneous Abortion
60a664da-1648-4d51-9901-5ce1131d3cb8
Cranial part of accessory nerve supplies
Sternocleidomastoid
Trapezius
Levator scapulae
Levator palatini
0a
single
Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius develop from branchial arch mesoderm and are supplied by spinal part of accessory nerve.  Levator scapulae are supplied by a branch from dorsal scapular nerve and branches from C3, C4.
Anatomy
null
5959147f-7c60-4a0d-9e91-a443f7e91477
Maximum contribution of plasma osmolarity is by
Urea
Glucose
Sodium
Albumin
2c
single
Sodium is the major contributor plasma osmolarity Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 50,51,52
Physiology
General physiology
cf45cba2-2ab4-4546-b424-f15519c791e7
which of the following does not belong to CATOGORY B bioterrorism ?
plague
ricinus communis
brucellosis
q fever
0a
single
High Priority Agents in bioterrorism : * Category A * Easily spread; high death rates * Anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, and selected hemorrhagic fever viruses * Category B * Moderately easy to disseminate * Brucellosis, food safety threats, Q fever, and other agents * Category C * Could be engineered for mass dissemination * Emerging infectious diseases ref : narayanareddy
Forensic Medicine
All India exam
0c5ee077-1330-4d61-9ab9-d9a3b46ac389
A 23-year-old, sexually active man has been treated for Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection 6 times during the past 5 years. He now comes to the physician because of the increasing number and size of warty lesions slowly enlarging on his external genitalia during the past year. On physical examination, there are multiple 1- to 3-mm sessile, nonulcerated, papillary excrescences over the inner surface of the penile prepuce. These lesions are excised, but 2 years later, similar lesions appear. Which of the following conditions most likely predisposed him to the development of these recurrent lesions?
Candida albicans infection
Circumcision
Human papillomavirus infection
Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection
2c
multi
Condyloma acuminatum is a benign, recurrent squamous epithelial proliferation resulting from infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, one of many sexually transmitted diseases that can occur in sexually active individuals. Koilocytosis is particularly characteristic of HPV infection. Candidiasis can be associated with inflammation, such as balanoposthitis, but not condylomata. Recurrent gonococcal infection indicates that the patient is sexually active and at risk for additional infections, but is not the cause for the condylomata. The gonococcal infection causes suppurative lesions in which there may be liquefactive necrosis and a neutrophilic exudate or mixed inflammatory infiltrate. Circumcision generally reduces risks for infections. Phimosis is a nonretractile prepuce, and paraphimosis refers to forcible retraction of the prepuce that produces pain and urinary obstruction.
Pathology
Male Genital Tract
418fe796-4fa8-4871-8a6c-81b280af3931
Which of the following drugs has a high affinity for 5–HT2 receptors in the brain, does not cause extrapyramidal dysfunction or hematotoxicity, and is reported to increase the risk of significant QT prolongation ?
Chlorpromazine
Clozapine
Olanzapine
Ziprasidone
3d
single
null
Pharmacology
null
1525e1bf-2a57-4c4a-a5a9-83bb150b1a10
RNA which contains codon for specific amino acid
tRNA
rRNA
mRNA
None
2c
multi
Amonng the different species of RNAs, it is only mRNAs that are linearly related to DNA and to polypeptide chain as an intermediary. It is this species of RNA that carries encoded message from the master molecule in the form of codons. It is these molecules that translate by decoding the information into polypeptide chains. It is ultimately the protein, having a unique structural and functional propeies determine the structure and function of the cell that is why proteins are deemed to be molecular demy-gods. Proteins are the quintessence of the gene function at molecular level. Here the triple or tripaite relationship, between linear DNA, linear mRNA and linear polypeptide chain (in the form of nucleotides sequence and amino acid sequence respectively), is referred to as co-linearity. Two impoant functions that occur between the gene and the polypeptide chain, they are transcription and translation, which are separated in space and time. Ref-Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30/e p589
Biochemistry
Metabolism of nucleic acids
3f466461-42fa-48b3-919c-59016c32d786
Characteristic features of Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome are all of the following except
Absent uterus
Absent vagina
Anovulation
46 - XX
2c
multi
RKH Syndrome Vaginal aplasia or Hypoplasia Absent uterus As the ovaries function normally development of secondary sexual charecteristics is normal and ovulation is normal SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:95,15th edition
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Congenital malformations
526dfc45-7b32-4f22-a8ee-7b05bd77361b
Most common cause of neonatal meningitis -
Staphylococcus
E. coli
H. influenze
Pneumococcus
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., E. coli "Group B streptococcus followed by E.coli are the two most common causes of neonatal meningitis". Most common cause of neonatal meningitis --> Group B streptococcus (Str. agalactiae) Second most common cause of neonatal meningitis -- E.coli
Pediatrics
null
4468cda5-1b94-478f-b859-53eb738fc03c
Raynauds phenomenon is commonly seen in
Upper limb of female
Lower limb of female
Lower limb of male
Upper limb of male
0a
single
. It is an episodic vasospasam,especially aeriolar spasam usually bilateral more often seen in upperlimb of females as a result of abnormal sensitivity to cold.Patient develops blanching,cyanosis qnd later flushing .usually medial four digits and palm are involved.Thumb is spared.If vasospasam becomes longer,gangrene or ischemic ulceration supervenes along the tips of fingers. Refer page no 183 of SRB's manual of surgery5th edition.
Surgery
Vascular surgery
3226be34-7b5e-41ed-9de0-902dbecccf31
Which of the following metal is considered as the principal hardener and gives red colour to the alloy?
Platinum
Palladium
Copper
Zinc
2c
multi
Copper when added to gold-based alloys, imparts a reddish color to the gold and hardens the alloy via a solid-solution or ordered-solution mechanism. Ref: Craig’s 14th edition page 183, 184
Dental
null
367d0870-3fa6-4c98-8ff8-9f50a7f26728
A child presents with pigmentation of one half of the face along with a history of multiple episodes of seizures. His X ray skull revealed the following finding. What could be the underlying diagnosis?
Cerebral palsy
Neurofibromatosis
West syndrome
Sturge Weber syndrome
3d
single
The given X ray skull shows 'tram track calcification' seen in Sturge Weber syndrome, in which pigmentation of one half of face, along with seizures is seen. STURGE WEBER SYNDROME:- -Po wine stain of face involving the ophthalmic & maxillary division of trigeminal nerve -Contralateral focal seizures seen -Intracranial calcification -Glaucoma
Pediatrics
Neurocutaneous syndromes
dee70c4b-544b-49b9-8606-931c59df07ab
When was the International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade Programme launched?
1975
1978
1984
1981
3d
single
The International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade Programme launched in 1981. Targets set were 100 percentage for water, both urban and rural, 80% for urban sanitation and 25% for rural sanitation. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 397.
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
813ace2c-d234-4043-915f-60b8097b4161
Arias syndrome is also known as:
Rotor syndrome
Dubin johnson syndrome
Crigler Najjar syndrome type I
Crigler Najjar syndrome type II
3d
single
Crigler najjar syndrome type II is also known as arias syndrome, is a hereditary disorder of bilirubin metabolism characterized by unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia due to reduced and inducible activity of hepatic bilirubin glucuronosyltransferase (GT). There is paial deficiency of bilirubin uridine diphosphate (UDP) glucuronosyl transferase. Jaundice is milder than type I and there is no kernicterus. The mode of inheritance is autosomal recessive. Ref: Essentials of Rubin's pathology, edited by Emanuel Rubin, Howard M. Reisner, 5th Edition, Page 311
Medicine
null
04940eb9-1a48-4e10-87fe-a4debab8741f
Massive bleeding per rectum in a 70 yr old patient is due to -
Diverticulosis
Carcinoma colon
Colitis
Polyps
0a
single
Causes of lower GI bleed in adults Local anorectal diseases - hemorrhoids (most common), anal fissures. Diverticulosis (2nd MC) Vascular ectasias, angiodysplasias Neoplasm (polyps & adenocarcinoma) Colitis (Ischemic, infectious, & IBD) Although hemorrhoids are the MC cause of bleeding per rectum, it causes small bleed. Diverticulosis is the MC cause of massive bleeding per rectum. Diverticular bleeding is abrupt in onset usually painless, sometimes massive, and often from the right colon. The bleeding stops spontaneously in approx. 80% of patients and rebleeds in 20-25% of pts.
Surgery
null
db79b77c-a1dc-4173-8444-5ff1d6035ac7
Collagen is found in all of the following, EXCEPT :
Ligament
Tendon
Fibroblasts
Aponeurosis
2c
multi
Fibroblasts produce type I collagen fibers that are found in tendons, ligaments and joint capsules. Type I collagen is found distributed throughout the body. It is found in fascia, tendons, ligaments, aponeuroses, capsule of glands, sclera, fibrocailage, bone and dentin.Type II collagen is found in hyaline and elastic cailage and cornea.Type III fibers are reticular fibers.Type IV fibers are seen in the basement membrane.Ligaments are connective tissue structures that connect bones. It is composed of both type I and type III collagen. Collagen constitutes possibly three fouh of its dry weight. Other less components present in collagen are proteoglycans, elastin and non collagenous glycoproteins such as fibronectin. Tendons are connective tissue structures consisting of spiraling bundles of collagen fibers. Tendon consists of longitudinally oriented type I collagen and mature fibroblasts.
Anatomy
null
59815430-15f2-47ea-a7ac-0b2209d53d08
A first rank symptom of schizophrenia is all Except
Ambivalence
Running commentary
Thought inseion
Somatic passivity
0a
multi
Ku Schneider First Rank Symptoms Second-Rank Symptoms Audible thoughts Voices arguing or discussing(commanding voices) Voices commenting on patient's actions (commenting voices) Made feelings Made impulses or drives Made volitional acts Thought withdrawal Thought inseion Thought broadcasting Delusional perception Somatic Passivity Other disorders of perception Sudden delusional ideas Perplexity Depressive and euphoric mood changes Feelings of emotional impoverishment and several others as well Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 987
Psychiatry
All India exam
bbef4a84-80bf-4569-80d9-ac1f4af0e901
Peak of prostaglandins occurs in what stage:
1st stage of Labor
2nd stage of Labor
3rd stage of Labor
Before 1st stage of labor
2c
single
Ans. (c) 3rd stage of LaborRef High risk pregnancy 4th ed. by James et.al, ch 75- Normal third stage of LaborThere are four stages of labor* The first stage is from the onset of true labor to complete dilation of the cervix.* The second stage is from complete dilation of the cervix to the birth of the baby.* The third stage is from the birth of the baby to delivery of the placenta.* The fourth stage is from delivery of the placenta to stabilization of the patients condition, usually at about 6 hours postpartum.PROSTAGLANDINS* Prostaglandin F (PGF), PGF2a, and oxytocin are the biochemical agents primarily involved in the third stage of labor.* During the first and second stages of labor, only PGF2a and oxytocin are significantly raised in maternal plasma compared with pre-labor concentrations.* At 5 minutes after birth, maternal PGF and PGF2a concentrations peak at about twice the levels found at the commencement of the second stage. A rapid increase in prostaglandin concentrations is also found in umbilical cord venous blood, suggesting that this postpartum prostaglandin surge originates in the placenta.* After placental separation, the concentrations decrease but at rates slower than the metabolic clearance of prostaglandin, indicating that its production continues in the decidua and myometrium.* Plasma oxytocin also drops to prelabor levels within 30 minutes of delivery, unless sustained by exogenous infusion.Also KnowHormonesPeak level at:OxytocinAt birthProlactinLevels decrease during labor but then rise steeply at the end of labor and peak with birth.
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
Characteristics of Normal Labor
3518c994-c842-425e-9d68-90ad7a9804ec
Maximum dose of plain lignocaine (in mg) –
300
500
700
1000
0a
single
Maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine → 300 mg (4.5 mg/kg). Maximum safe dose of lidocaine with epinephrine → 500 mg (7 mg/kg).
Anaesthesia
null
3fdc0bc1-9feb-4d3c-a91f-3b20eb33d290
Two siblings with osteogenesis imperfect, but their parents are normal. Mechanism of inheritance is -
Anticipation
Genomic imprinting
Germ line mosaicism
New mutation
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Germ line mosaicism o In some autosomal dominant disorders (e.g. osteogenesis imperfecta) phenotypically normal parents have more than one affected child. This clearly violates the law of inheritance. Studies indicate that gonadal (germ line) mosaicism may be responsible for such unusual inheritance. Germline mosaicism o Germline mosacism results from a mutation that occurs postzygotically during early embryonic development. In these a poion of the egg or sperm cells of a parent carries the mutation. o Because the mutation affects only cells destined to form the gonads the gametes carry the mutation but somatic cells of the individual are completely normal. o A phenotypically normal parent who has germ line mosaicism can transmit the disease causing mutation to the offspring through the mutant gamete. o Because the progenitor cells of the gamete carry the mutation there is a definite possibility that more than one child of such a parent would be affected. o Obviously, the likelihood of such an occurrence depends on the propoion of germ cells carrying the mutation.
Pathology
null
89685e94-3a41-46c3-87df-d76258d53fcb
Eukaryotic cell membranes are different from prokaryotic cell membranes. Eukaryotic plasma membrane is made up of all, EXCEPT:
Carbohydrates
Triglycerides
Lecithin
Cholesterol
1b
multi
In prokaryotes, the membranes are relatively simple, but in eukaryotes, cell membranes contain various glycosphingolipids, sphingomyelin, chains of oligosaccharides and cholesterol in addition to phospholipids and phosphatidylcholine (lecithin). Cholesterol is also present, often at nearly a 1:1 ratio with the phospholipids in plasma membranes. Ref: Mescher A.L. (2010). Chapter 2. The Cytoplasm. In A.L. Mescher (Ed), Junqueira's Basic Histology: Text & Atlas, 12e.
Biochemistry
null
30144756-ef8e-4ad4-a942-4480e198d2e7
Most common malignant neoplasm of the eyelid is -
Squamous cell carcinoma
Basal cell Carcinoma
Merkel Cell tumour
Malignant Melanoma
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Basal cell Carcinoma There are 4 main types of evelid cancers:a. Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)# BCC is the most common type of eyelid tumour, accounting for about 85% of all eyelid tumours. It is also the most common type of cancer that occurs outside the eyeball.# BCC of the eyelid usually affects adults, but may also occur in younger people.# These tumours are related to sun exposure and are similar to basal cell carcinoma of the skin.# BCC most often occurs in the lower eyelidb. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)# SCC of the eyelid is uncommon, accounting for about 5% of all eyelid tumours.# It can occur from a precancerous condition, such as actinic keratosis or Bowen's disease.# These tumours are also related to sun exposure and are similar to squamous cell carcinoma of the skin.# SCC tends to behave more aggressively and is more likely to spread than BCC.c. Sebaceous gland carcinoma (SGC)# SGC is cancer of the glands in the eyelid.# It is a rare tumour that may account for up to 5% of all eyelid cancers.# It occurs more often in women than men and occurs most often in the elderly.# These tumours develop most often on the upper eyelid, followed by the lower eyelid and the caruncleo SGC can start in the Meibomian glands, glands of Zeis or the sebaceous glands of the caruncle.# SGC is often diagnosed at a later stage because it can mimic benign conditions. It can also grow aggressively.# SGC may be multifocal (occurring in more than one place), so they have a tendency to recur after treatmentd Malignant melanoma# Melanoma of the eyelid is very uncommon and accounts for less than 1% of all eyelid cancers.# Melanoma of the eyelid is similar to melanoma of the skin of the skin. It is staged and treated the same way as a skin melanoma.
Surgery
Plastic & Reconstructive Surgery
2f58970a-51cc-49d7-9261-6814a98b1371
Drug of choice for maintenance therapy in PSVT is-
Amiodarone
Lignocaine
Verapamil
Adenosine
2c
single
Ans. is c' i.e., Verapamilo Amongst the options provided Verapamil is the drug of choice for maintenance therapy in pateints with PSVT.Treatment options for Supraventricular Tachycardiao Physiologic interventionRestValsalva maneuvers : Gag reflex, ice packs, etcCarotid massageAvoidance of inciting factors : Caffeine, tobacco, alcohol, pseudoephedrine, stress, etc.o MedicationsDrugs mth_direct effect on artrioventricular node or accessory pathway :Amiodarone (Cordarone), Sotalol (Betapace), class IC drugs (flecainide , propafenone , etc).o Radiofrequency ablationo Electronic pacingPSVT|||No limbing symptoms No Pre-excitationMild to miderate symptoms No Pre-excitationSevere symptoms or Pre-excitation| | |NoTherapy PotentPreference CatheterAblation |Unsuccessful | || DrugTherapyUnsuccessful------CatheterAblation1 Drug Therapy
Medicine
Drugs
4ba94750-06f2-4d66-851a-34d80cb8aa73
Buspirone is an
Anti psychotic
Anti anxiolitic
Anti depressant
Anti hypertensive
1b
single
(B) Anti anxiolitic> Buspirone is an anxiolytic psychoactive drug of the azapirone chemical class, and is primarily used to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD).
Pharmacology
Miscellaneous (Pharmacology)
6bc300cd-d5cc-4ded-8222-b87fb4efdc0f
The elastic or plastic deformation to fracture a material is its:
Toughness
Brittleness
Young's Modulus
Proportional limit
0a
single
null
Dental
null
742828d3-09c0-4a18-ace8-7117183d84fe
a patient presented with rashes all over body sparing palms and soles .he doesnot have h/o of animal exposure this condition may be associated with ?
epidemic typhus
q fever
RMSF
ricktessial pox
0a
multi
Epidemic Typhus Epidemic typhus, also known as louse-borne typhus is an uncommon disease that is caused by bacteria called Rickettsia prowazekii. Epidemic typhus can be easily spread to people through contact with infected body lice. However epidemic typhus was responsible for millions of deaths in previous centuries, it is now considered a rare disease. Still, cases continue to occur specially in areas where extreme overcrowding is common and body lice can easily travel from one person to another. In some people very less known cases of epidemic typhus which is called as sylvatic typhus can occur. ref : ananthanaryana 9th ed
Microbiology
All India exam
1fc1cab0-937a-4a0c-bb4a-82ea40121b26
Mastoid reservoir phenomenon is positive in -
CSOM
Petrositis
Coalescent otitis media
Coalescent mastoiditis
3d
single
Mastoid reserve phenomenon is filling up of meatus with pus immediately after cleaning. It is seen in mastoiditis. Ref. SK De, p 107, 98
ENT
null
5ed8c98b-023c-4b08-ae82-86e9c0991cd6
All are associated with MEN 2 except:
Pheochromocytoma
Islet cell hyperplasia
Medullary carcinoma thyroid
Parathyroid adenoma
1b
multi
Answer is B (Islet cell hyperplasia): Pituitary islet cell tumors/hyperplasia are associated with MEN- I syndromes and not with MEN II syndromes.
Medicine
null
0d1b4064-d462-4e22-82b8-60f713d9bd4b
Ligamentum teres of the liver is a remnant of ________
Umbilical aeries
Umbilical vein
Ductus venosus
Ductus aeriosus
1b
single
Ligamentum teres is a remnant of the umbilical vein. The vessels that are occluded soon after bih are in due to course replaced by fibrous tissue and forms the following ligaments: Fetal structure Adult structure Foramen ovale Fossa ovalis Umbilical vein Ligamentum teres Ductus venosus Ligamentum venosum Umbilical aeries Medial umbilical ligaments Ductus aeriosus Ligamentum aeriosum Note: the median umbilical ligament or Xander&;s ligament represents the remnant of the embryonic urachus The lateral umbilical ligaments are folds of peritoneum over the inferior epigastric aeries Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition Pgno: 975
Pediatrics
C.V.S
699a955d-9bb7-431b-b49e-4dc2ce3c94b1
Regarding schick's test which of the following is false
Erythematous reaction in both arms indicates
Positive test means that person is immune to hypersensitivity diphtheria
Diphtheria antitoxin is given intradermal
None of the above
1b
multi
null
Social & Preventive Medicine
null
0896c208-cfee-4f28-a190-f626db8a3a1f
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency occurs in
Emphysema
Bronchiectasis
Empyema
Bronchogenic carcinoma
0a
single
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency (A1AD or AATD) is a genetic disorder that may result in lung disease or liver disease. Onset of lung problems is typically between 20 and 50 years old. This may result in shoness of breath, wheezing, or an increased risk of lung infections Affected individuals often developemphysema, which is a lung disease caused by damage to the small air sacs in the lungs (alveoli). ... In rare cases, people with alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency develop a skin condition called panniculitis, which ischaracterized by hardened skin with painful lumps or patches.
Pathology
Respiratory system
510a84fc-e240-48a0-9f2b-d66d6e9e8472
Pelkan spur is seen in -
Rickets
Scurvy
Hemophilia
All
1b
multi
Radiological features of scurvy: Palkan spur : metaphyseal spurs projecting at right angles to the shaft. White line of Frankel : calcified cailage in the metaphysis Trumefeld zone : zone of rarefraction below the white line of Frankel Wimburger sign : ring surrounding the ephiphyseal centres of ossification Pencil thin coex Subperiosteal hemorrhages Generalised osteoporosis
Radiology
Skeletal system
c871b238-6182-4c27-ae73-817e1803e815
All are true about primary hyperparathyroidism except -
Nephrolithiasis
Increased alkaline phosphatase
Decreased calcium
Loss of lamina dura
2c
multi
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Decreased calcium Clinical features of Hyperparathyroidism|||Symptomatic signs and symptomsAsymptomatico Recurrent nephrolithiasiso Peptic ulceration (abdominal pain)o Extensive bone resorptiono Mental changes; Psychiatric manifestations'Manifestation may be subtle and the disease many have a benign course with no symptoms and signs other than Hypercalcemia and elevated level of PTH'"'Subtle presentation ' may simulate 'asymptomatic ' hypercalcemia ' ". Bone in Hyperparathyroidism|||Healing responseResorptiono Osteitis fibrosa Cystica(Distinctive bone manifestation) Characterized by replacement of normal cellular and marow elements by fibrous tissueOther Manfestationso Absence of lamina durao Pinhead stippling of skullo Marrow fibrosiso Diffuse bone Resorptiono Subperiostal bone resorption of phallangeal tuftso "Brown tumor" of hvperparathvroidism (well circumscribed dark brown area in the region of severe bone resorption|o Osteoporosiso Deformityo Pathological fracturesMarkers of Hyperparathyroidism (|ed PTH):1. Increased serum calcium# Stimulates Vit D which causes increased absorption of Ca+ + from gut# Increased calcium reabsorption from tubules# Increases osteoblastic activity in bones and mobilizes calcium from bone into serum.2. Decreased serum phosphorus# PTH acts on tubules to increase excretion of phosphorus3. Increased 24 hr urine calcium# Despite increased reabsorption of Ca++ in renal tubules urinary calcium is increased owing to increased filtration of calcium in glomerular filtrate.4. Increased alkaline phosphatase# Increased resorption of bone leads to compensatory elevation of osteoblastic activity.5. Radiological changes :# Subperiosteal resorption of phalanges is characteristic (hand X Rays are always advised).# Bone resorption i.e., osteitis fibrosa et cystica (brown tumours)# Loss of lamina dura
Medicine
Endocrinology
2096e3e3-05dd-431e-a140-30c422af323f
In sickle cell anaemia, the defect can be explained as having arisen from -
A base inseion in DNA
A base deletion in DNA
A base substitution in DNA
None of the above
2c
multi
C i.e. A base substitution in DNA
Biochemistry
null
1a0d1576-2176-4701-920d-9c2a2739d59f
True about rigor mois are all, except: FMGE 08
Seen immediately after death
It last 18-36 h in summer
It disappears in the sequence as it appears
It last 24-48 h in winter
0a
multi
Ans. Seen immediately after death
Forensic Medicine
null
3f5dd0b8-3b41-4f84-93d4-7800237b0f24
Protoporphyrin levels >100 mg/dl indicates:
Iron overload
Lead poisoning
Porphyria
All of the above
1b
multi
Protoporphyrin is an intermediate in the pathway to heme synthesis. Under conditions in which heme synthesis is impaired, protoporphyrin accumulates within the red cell. This reflects an inadequate iron supply to erythroid precursors to suppo haemoglobin synthesis. Normal values are <30 mg/dL of red cells. In iron deficiency, values in excess of 100 mg/dL are seen. The most common causes of increased red cell protoporphyrin levels are absolute or relative iron deficiency and lead poisoning. Ref: Harrison's principle of internal medicine 17th edition, chapter 98.
Medicine
null
4f44cdd9-a432-4160-8952-696d7beb02cf
Major clinical use of nimodipine is in:
Raynaud's phenomenon
Hypertension
Angina
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
3d
single
Nimodipine:   It is a short-acting DHP which penetrates blood-brain barrier very efficiently due to high lipid solubility and has high affinity for the cerebral blood vessels.  It is believed to selectively relax cerebral vasculature and is approved for prevention and treatment of neurological deficit due to cerebral vasospasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage or ruptured congenital intracranial aneurysms.  Side effects are headache, flushing, dizziness, palpitation and nausea.  Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD  TRIPATHI  page no 596
Pharmacology
null
8f8f4df6-a6a5-48fa-b397-172dc17eb885
Structure held by forceps is seen in
Stomach
Appendix
Colon
Duodenum
2c
single
Appendix Epiploica is one of the numerous pouches of the peritoneum filled with fat and attached to the colon.
Anatomy
Abdomen and pelvis
872d1ff7-0ca9-4006-a8bb-09cab483cb12
HPV causes which change in cervical epithelium
Induction of apoptosis
Induction of necrosis
Immortalization of epithelial cells
By stimulating telomerase
2c
single
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Immortalization of epithelial cells o HPV selectively infects the epithelium of skin and mucous membrane and may immortalize the keratinocytes leading either asymptomatic infection, or warts or neoplasia.o Products of E-genes (E6, E7) are related to immortalization or malignant transformation of keratinocytes by interfering with p53 and Rb genes, respectively.
Microbiology
Virology
7db6069f-2d73-43fa-80a8-04d4c87b6c46
Most common site for lymphoma in AIDS patients is
CNS lesions
Spleen
Thymus
Abdomen
0a
single
Ref Robbins 9/e p254, 8/e p529,7/e p549 Pathogenesis of CNS Involvement The pathogenesis of the neurologic manifestations in AIDS deserves special mention because, in addition to the lymphoid system, the nervous system is a major target of HIV infection. Macrophages and cells belonging to the monocyte-macrophage lineage (microglial cells) are the predominant cell types in the brain that are infected with HIV. The virus is most likely carried into the brain by infected monocytes (thus, brain HIV isolates are almost exclusively of the R5 type). The mechanism of HIV-induced damage of the brain, however, remains obscure. Because neurons are not infected by HIV, and the extent of neuro- pathologic changes is often less than might be expected from the severity of neurologic symptoms, most expes believe that the neurologic deficit is caused indirectly by viral products and soluble factors (e.g., cytokines such as TNF) produced by macrophages and microglial cells. In addition, injury from nitric oxide induced in neuronal cells by gp41 and direct damage of neurons by soluble HIV gp120 have been postulated.
Anatomy
General anatomy
78ae5cac-5311-4ff6-9db9-a413dfd14ad7
All of the following statements about the control of micturition are true Except
An individual with a spinal cord injury at L1 can still have a micturition reflex
The micturition reflex can occur without voiding any urine
Bladder volume can be more than double that present when the first urge to void occurs
An individual with destruction of the sacral dorsal roots can still have a micturition reflex
3d
multi
Micturition is initiated by activation of afferent sensory fibers located in the wall of the bladder; these fibers sense the degree of stretch of the bladder wall. In addition, these sensory fibers travel back to the spinal cord sacral dorsal roots. The sensory information that reaches the spinal cord also travels to the micturition center in the rostral pons. When sensory activity to the micturition center is sufficient, a command is sent to the sacral spinal cord, leading to activation of parasympathetic fibers. The parasympathetic fibers travel to the bladder the pelvic nerve. Activation of these fibers leads to bladder contraction. Destruction of the sacral dorsal roots (as occurs with tabes dorsalis) abolishes the reflex because sensory afferent fibers no longer send signals back to the spinal cord. A spinal cord injury at L1 is well above the sacral region where the micturition reflex originates. However, the central nervous system (CNS) plays an impoant role in facilitating or inhibiting the micturition reflex, and this function is lost with spinal cord injury. Although some patients with spinal cord injury can still elicit a micturition response (e.g., stroking of the skin in the genital region), the bladder in these patients has increased muscle tone and fails to empty completely. As the bladder becomes more and more distended, an involuntary micturition reflex can occur. However, the CNS can keep urine from being voided under these circumstances by maintaining a constant tonic contraction of the external sphincter. This contraction is accomplished through continued activation of somatic nerves that travel in the pudendal nerve from the sacral spinal cord to the external sphincter. The point at which an urge to void first occurs corresponds to a bladder volume of approximately 150 ml. However, bladder volume can increase more than twofold before involuntary micturition occurs. At 400 ml a marked sense of fullness is present. Parasympathetic fibers originating in the sacral spinal cord innervate the body of the bladder, and it is activation of these fibers that leads to bladder contraction.
Physiology
Renal physiology
e560f742-1acf-440c-950e-77adcd8b2654
DOC FOR INVASIVE ASPERGILLOSIS?
VORICONAZOLE
POSACONAZOLE
AMPHOTERICIN B
CASPOFUNGIN
0a
single
REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED
Pharmacology
All India exam
9102f825-4f57-4133-b938-af6356661b14
Capitonnage is used in treatment of
Choledochal cyst
Dermoid cyst
Hydatid cyst
Renal cyst
2c
single
Methods of management of the residual cavity after cyst evacuation External tube drainage Capsulorrhaphy Capitonnage Myoplasty Omentoplasty Internal collapse Introflexion Marsupialization Introflexion plus omentoplasty Cysto jejunostomy or cysto gastrostomy Ref: Blumga 5th edition Pg no : 1045
Anatomy
G.I.T
9ddaa8fd-c69b-4645-a248-0f15d5186783
Intermittent dysphagia is caused by -a) Strictureb) Reflux esophagitisc) Achalasia cardiad) Pharyngeal diverticululame) Diffuse esophageal spasm
ab
bc
de
bd
2c
single
null
ENT
null
718b8b95-28d4-44ad-99a5-ace313126488
In a newborn child, we generally see
Maxillary protrusion
Maxillary retrusion
Mandibular protrusion
Mandibular retrusion
3d
multi
Pre-dentate period At birth, the newborn has a small face, large head and small chin. Textbook of orthodontics OP Kharbanda page 458
Dental
null
a711a71f-99c3-4b15-a1a9-922c7ae89d72
The most important clinical fmding in a case of head injury is -
Pupillary dilatation
Level of consciousness
Focal neurological deficit
Fracture skull
1b
single
Conscious level determined on Glasgow coma scale.
Surgery
null
9df4bafc-fa22-4c38-848a-91e0de5cacc8
Electrical synapse is closely associated with
Neuromuscular junction
Tight junction
Gap junction
None of the above
2c
multi
Cell junction forms tunnels that join the cytoplasm of two cells. They help in the transmission of electrical activity from one cell to another. (REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO - 18)
Physiology
General physiology
07062e79-833d-4875-bed4-2b6537b1cb88
Cells of the Organ of Coi which are vulnerable to noise induced damage are ?
Inner hair cells
Outer hair cells
Deiter's cells
Cells of Hensen
1b
single
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Outer hair cells
ENT
null
929a2703-eac8-4d10-9758-c31f144990aa
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of synthesis for
Protein
Cholesterol
Carbohydrate
Fat
0a
single
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with Protein synthesis* Initial folding of the polypeptide chains with the formation of disulfide bonds Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with Steroid synthesis * Detoxication processes As sarcoplasmic reticulum plays important role in skeletal and cardiac muscle contraction *
Biochemistry
null
24e2d5c8-0143-40f3-ba15-6c3c3345bcb9
All agents can be given for induction of anaesthesia in children except ?
Halothane
Sevoflurane
Morphine
N2O
2c
multi
Morphine is not an inducing agent. Sevoflurane is the agent of choice and is used in N2O + O2 gas mixture. Halothane is the second choice inducing agent.
Anaesthesia
null
d52a4615-789a-40ee-aadb-b8d3aabdab56
The cofactor involved in sulphur containing amino acid metabolism is which of the following?
Folic acid
Biotin
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B12
3d
single
While both folic acid and vitamin B12 are involved in sulphur containing amino acid metabolism, vitamin B12 acts as cofactor and folate acts as substrate.
Biochemistry
null
c0f037b5-b946-4880-b234-3af3306b8d74
An ultrashort acting β–blocker devoid of partial agonistic or membrane stabilizing action is:
Esmolol
Timolol
Atenolol
Pindolol
0a
single
null
Pharmacology
null
64701145-3f7d-48d5-99a9-c3bbd422b389
Pudendal nerve is related to:
Ischial spine
Sacral promontory
Iliac crest
Ischial tuberosity
0a
single
Branches of the sacral plexus, the pudendal nerve, and nerve to the obturator internus leave the pelvis through the lower pa of the greater sciatic foramen, below the piriformis.They cross the ischial spine with the internal pudendal aery and immediately re-enter the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen; they then lie in the ischiorectal fossa.The pudendal nerve supplies structures in the perineum.The nerve to the obturator internus supplies the obturator internus muscle on its pelvic surface.
Anatomy
null
dd45e000-bc67-4ac9-b6f4-537595a09185
Carcinoma which arises in the thyroglosal cyst is -
Papillary carcinoma
Follicular
Anaplastic
Medullary
0a
single
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Papillary carcinoma o Thyroid carcinomas arising after radiation or in thyrogiossal cyst are papillary type. Various genes involved in thyroid carcinomas areo Papillary-o Tyrosine kinase receptors RET or NTRK1o RAS mutationo BRAF oncogeneo Follicular-o RAS oncogene (NRAS, HRAS and KRAS)o PAX 8- PPARrl thanslocationo Medullary-o RETprotooncognePapillary thyroid carcinomao It is the most common type of thyroid cancer.o Radiation induced thyroid carcinoma and carcinoma in thyrogiossal cysts are of papillary type.o Carcinoma cells have nuclei which contain finely dispersed chromatin, which imparts optically clear or empty appearance, giving rise to the ground glass or Orphan Annie eye nuclei.o Invagination of cytoplasm may give rise to the appearance of intranuclear inclusins (Pseudoinclusions) or intranuclear grooves - the diagnosis of papillary carcinoma is based on these nuclear features.o Psammoma bodies are presento Lymphatic metastasis may be seen but involvement of blood vessels is rare.
Pathology
Thyroid and Parathyroid
3424710d-4072-4bb9-bd53-0267f5f81f68
True about Acrodermatitis enteropathica is?
Lifelong treatment required
Autosomal dominant disorder
Wound healing is not affected
Zinc absorption is normal
0a
multi
ANSWER: (A) Lifelong treatment requiredREF: Rook's 8rh ed p. 59.73Acrodermatitis enteropathica:Rare autosomal recessive diseaseZinc absorption is lowDisease starts at weaning when child is not given milkPhotophobia is seen, vescicobullous lesions may be seenGrowth is retarded and wound healing is poorZinc sulfate is used for treatment , prolonged therapy up to adult age is necessary, continuous supplementation of zinc is necessaryA single dose of zinc cures all clinical manifestations
Skin
General
618688f1-357b-4b8c-880e-73019ecad125
Most common metabolite of progesterone excreted in urine is _________
Pregnanelone
Pregnanetriol
17-hydroxy pregnanolone
Pregnanediol
3d
single
Pregnanediol is an inactive metabolic product of progesterone. A test can be done to measure the amount of pregnanediol in urine, which offers an indirect way to measure progesterone levels in the body. The principal pathway of the metabolism of progesterone is believed to be progesterone - pregnanedione - pregnanolone - pregnanediol, although small amounts of the corresponding allopregnane compounds are formed.
Biochemistry
null
f196ff59-2196-4fd8-bc54-b48aa0acd09b
A 50 years old man was recently diagnosed to be having coronary artery disease. There was no added risk factors except for a LDL value of 150-165mgs/dl. The single drug most appropriate for initial therapy is
Gemfibrozil
Nicotinic acid
Bile acid binding resins
Statins (Any)
3d
multi
Answer: d) Statins (any)DYSLIPIDEM1AType of disorderLipo Proteins increasedLipids elevatedRisk of CADtreatmentTri GlyceridesCholesterolICM+++NormalNoNoneIIaLDLNormal+++++StatinsIIbVLDL and LDL+++++++Statins, fibrates, nicotinic acidIIIIDLand CM++++++FibratesIVVLDL++Normal++Fibrates, nicotinic acidVVLDL and CM++NormalNoNone* TG is elevated in all except type lla; Cholesterol is elevated only in type II (lla, lib) and type III.* Type II is treated with statins and III and IV with fibrates.* I and V do not increase the risk of atherosclerosis and require no treatment. DesirableBorderline to highHighTotal cholesterol<200200-239>240LDL cholesterol<130130-159>160HDL cholesterol >60Men>40 Women>50 Triglycerides<150150-199>200CAUSES OF:HypercholesterolemiaHypertriglyceridemia* Hypothyroidism* Early nephrosis* Resolving lipemia* Immunoglobulin- lipoprotein complex disorders* Anorexia nervosa* Cholestasis* Hypopituitarism* Corticosteroid excess* Diabetes mellitus* Alcohol ingestion* Severe nephrosis* Immunoglobulin- lipoprotein complex disorders* Lipodystrophy* Isotretinoin* Protease inhibitors* Estrogens* Uremia* Corticosteroid excess* Myxedema* Glycogen storage disease* Hypopituitarism* AcromegalyANTI - PYSLIPIDEMIC DRUGS* HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (Statins): Lovastatin, Simvastatin, Pravastatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin, Pitavastatin* Bile acid sequestrants(Resins): Cholestyramine, Colestipol* Lipoprotein lipase activators (PPARa activators, Fibrates): Clofibrate, Gemfibrozil, Bezafibrate, Fenofibrate.* Lipolysis and triglyceride synthesis inhibitor: Nicotinic acid* Sterol absorption inhibitor: Ezetimibe.* First line drugs - statins, bile acid binding resins and intestinal cholesterol absorption inhibitors.* Second line drug include fibrates and niacin.STATINS: (HMG CoA reductase inhibitor)* Most powerful LDL lowering agents, also lower TG, IDL and VLDL and increases HDL slightly.* No effect on lipoprotein (a).* Have pleotropic effects (antioxidant, anti-inflammatory and anti-proliferative properties).* In response to the reduced free cholesterol content within hepatocytes, synthesis of LDL receptors is increased and their degradation is reduced.* The greater number of LDL receptors on the surface of hepatocytes increases removal of LDL from the blood* Most potent statin is rosuvastatin > atorvastatin >fluvastatin and lovastatin(least potent)* Activity of HMG CoA reductase is maximum at night, so these drugs are administered at night.* Rosuvastatin (ti/2 =14 hours) -long acting drug,* Pravastatin: decreases plasma fibrinogen levels.* Lovastatin and simvastatin are administered as prodrugs.* All drugs except Pravastatin are metabolized extensively by hepatic microsomal enzymes.* Statins have pleiotropic effects (effects unrelated, or indirectly related, to their effect on plasma LDL)o Improved endothelial functiono Reduced vascular inflammationo Reduced platelet aggregabilityo Increased neovascularisation of ischaemic tissueo Increased circulating endothelial progenitor cellso Stabilisation of atherosclerotic plaqueo Antithrombotic actionso Enhanced fibrinolysiso Inhibition of germ cell migration during developmento Immune suppressiono Protection against sepsis.* Major adverse effect - myopathy (high when combined with fibrates or niacin) & hepatotoxicity* These drugs are the first line drugs for type lla, type lib and secondary hyperlipoproteinemia.BILE ACID BINDING RESINS* Bind to bile acids in the intestinal lumen - decrease its reabsorption - depletion of cholesterol pool of liver* Bile acids inhibit TG production in the liver and their deficiency results in elevation of TGs.* Bile acid binding resins are used only for type lla disorder (TGs are normal in this condition). Drugs in this group include cholestyramine, colestipol and colesevelam (better compliance).FIBRATES* Inhibits lipoprotein lipase by activating a nuclear receptor, PPARa (peroxisome proliferators activated receptor alpha).* Major effect of the fibrates is to reduce TG (contained in VLDL) and to increase HDL.* Clofibrate - malignancies, post cholecystectomy complications & did not prevent Ml (banned now).* Gemfibrozil, fenofibrate and bezafibrate are currently available.* Fenofibrate is a prodrug with longest half life. It has maximum LDL cholesterol lowering action.* Risk of myopathy is lower & also reduce plasma fibrinogen level.* DOC in hypertriglyceridemia (type III and IV) and can be used with other drugs in type Mb (fenofibrate, as it has maximum LDL reducing action).* DOC for treating type III hyperlipoproteinemia as well as subjects with severe hypertriglyceridemia (triglycerides >1000 mg/dL) who are at risk for pancreatitis.* Fenofibrate is uricosuric -can be used in hyperuricemia.* Fenofibrate: risk of elevation of creatinine.* Gl distress and elevation of aminotransferases are important adverse effects of fibric acid derivatives.* Risk of myopathy is increased if used with statins (except bezafibrate).NICOTINIC ACID (Niacin, (vitamin B3))* Decreases LDL, VLDL and triglycerides along with increase in HDL cholesterol.* Acts by inhibiting lipolysis in the adipose tissue.* Among all hypolipidemic drugs, niacin has maximum HDL increasing property.* Niacin is the only lipid-lowering drug that reduces Lp(a) levels significantly, by "40%;* It is useful for type lib, III and IV disorders.* Adverse effects: cutaneous flushing, pruritis, Gl toxicity and hyperuricemia. Niacin can also lead to hepatotoxicity which is manifested by fall in both LDL as well HDL cholesterol.INTESTINAL CHOLESTEROL ABSORPTION INHIBITOR* Ezetimibe acts by inhibiting the absorption of cholesterol by the intestine by blocking uptake via the Neimann-Pick C-like 1 protein.* Can be used alone or combined with statins for type lla and lib hyperlipoproteinemia.MISCELLANEOUS DRUGS* Probucol inhibits oxidation of LDL and cause reduction in levels of both HDL and LDL cholesterol.* Gugulipid causes modest decrease in LDL & slight increase in HDL. Diarrhea is the adverse effect.* Saroglitazar: dual PPAR- and PPAR-agonist. Novel therapeutic agent for diabetic dyslipidemia. Decreases serum triglycerides, HbAlC & increases HDL cholesterol. Dosage: 4mg OD* a-tocopherol acetate (vitamin E) has no effect on lipid levels but is a powerful antioxidant.* Niacin is the best agent available for increasing HDL (increments of 30-40%); it also |, triglycerides by 35-45% (as effectively as fibrates & statins) and |, LDL levels by 20-30%* Changes in plasma lipoprotein levels, particularly increases in high-density lipoprotein (HDL), have been associated with the protective effects of ethanol.* Factors associated with elevation of plasma FFA followed by increased output of triacylglycerol and cholesterol into the circulation in VLDL include emotional stress and coffee drinking.* Red wine increases HDL, because of its content of antioxidants.* Regular exercise lowers plasma LDL but raises HDL.NEWER DRUGS* Avasimibe is an inhibitor of enzyme ACAT-1 (acetyl coenzyme A: cholesterol acetyl transferase -1) which forms cholesterol ester from cholesterol.* Torcetrapib, Anacetrapib: increases HDL by inhibiting cholesterol ester triglyceride transport protein.ALCOHOL* Regular alcohol consumption inhibits hepatic oxidation of free fatty acids, thus promoting hepatic TG synthesis and VLDL secretion.* Regular alcohol use also raises plasma levels of HDL-C and should be considered in patients with the unusual combination of elevated TGs and elevated HDL-C.DrugEffect on LDLEffect on TriglyceridesEffect on HDLStatins||||||||Fibrates||||||||Niacin|||||||||Bile acid Winding resins|||Minimal/ slight increase|Cholesterol Absorption In tilts It ors|Minimal EffectMinimal Effect
Pharmacology
Hypolipidemic
8ffb2d72-7ba9-47a6-b523-17c56262f1b5
Which of the folloss mg features is not shared between `T cells' and 'II cells'
Positive selection during development
Class I MHC Expression
Antigen Specific Receptors
All of the above
0a
multi
Ans. a. Positive selection during development
Microbiology
null
93871c68-7564-4ba5-aa49-a23221c122c9
A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1st hour. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case –
Nutritional ricicets
Renal rickets
Hyperparathyroidism
Skeletal dysplasia
2c
single
You can solve the question just looking at calcium value. Amongst the given options only hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia. The patient in question has an increased serum Ca', decreased serum phosphorus and increased values of alkaline phosphatase, all of which characterize hyperparathyroidism.
Pediatrics
null
851c4026-8779-485c-b611-918d84f683d9
Receptors on cell membrane that activate ion channel after binding with agonists are
Nicotonic Cholinergic
Muscarinic Cholinergic
Optoid n receptors
All
0a
multi
A i.e. Nicotinic cholinergic receptorReceptors with intrinsic ion channelThese cell surface receptors enclose ion selective channels (Na+, Ca2+, CO within their molecule. Agonist binding opens the channels & causes depolarization / hyperpolarization depending on the ion that flows through.This includes: - Nicotinic cholinergic receptorQ Glutamate receptor Glycine receptor GABAA receptorQ - 5HT3 receptorReceptorActs'ThroughMuscarinic receptor, opioid andG- protein coupledGABABreceptorMl, M3 (muscarinic)IP3-DAGM2 muscarinic, Opioid 11,6CAMP TIC+, Ca+2,1.GABAB
Physiology
null
94185233-9fed-4356-a4ba-eaaa311b9788
Causative agent for the following lesion on Penis:
Treponema pallidum
HPV
EBV
HHV6
1b
multi
Ans. (b) HPV.The image shows dry, raised verrucous lesions caused by human papilloma called as Condylomata acuminat.Image source- style="font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif">
Microbiology
Virology
e9ef5b95-a4ca-4924-8d5a-4c39d550fd2b
Muscle relaxant excreted exclusively by kidney is:
Scoline
Atracurium
Vecuronium
Gallamine
3d
multi
Ans. is 'd' i.e. Gallamine 'Urinary Excretion of Gallamine is>95%. Its biliary excretion is <1 %."-Lee, 12/eGallamineIt is nephrotoxic so C/I in Renal Failure *.It crosses placenta so C/I in Pregnancy *.Some important facts about Muscle Relaxants which are frequently asked:M.R. undergone Hoffman's elimination - Atracurium*M.R. of choice in Ranal failure & Hepatic failure - Atracurium*M.R. causing maximum Histamine release - d-TC*M.R. causing minimum Histamine release - Vecuronium*M.R. C/I in Hepatic failure - d-TC*Pancuronium*Scoline*M.R. used in Bronchial Asthma - Atracurium* &Vecuronium*
Anaesthesia
Miscellaneous Muscle Relaxant
1d7428c6-d01e-48b8-8752-b52174ec13b3
Inventor of orthopantomographic machine is:
Hounsfield
Roentgen
Kell
Numata
3d
single
Paatero and, independently, Numata were the first to describe the principles of panoramic radiography. Figure given shows a schematic view of the relationships between the X-ray source, the patient, the secondary collimator and the image receptor during panoramic image formation.
Radiology
null
09e46772-f860-49c0-8ce3-b6a0cd07fab7
Soiling index is measure for -
Air pollution
Water pollution
Faecal contamination
Milk contamination
0a
single
Arts, is 'a' i.e., Air pollution Monitoring of air pollutiono Monitoring of air pollution is done by : -Sulphur dioxide.Gritt and dust measurement.Co-efficient of haze.Air pollution index.Smoke or soiling index
Social & Preventive Medicine
Environment and Health