query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
27-year-old white man presents to his family doctor complaining of being tired all the time and having a slight fever for the past two weeks. He recently returned from a trip to Las Vegas, where he indulged in some of the infamous nightlife. His physical exam is unremarkable except for a macular rash over his trunk and on the palms of his hands. There are no lesions or ulcers on the penis. What organism is causing this man's illness? | Treponema pallidum Transmitted through unprotected sexual activity with an infected individual. Presents with the symptoms of secondary syphilis, which includes malaise, mild fever, and rash on the palms and trunk. The primary lesion (chancre) may go unnoticed because it is painless and subsides in a few weeks. | 900 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is having a 90% associated with HLA B27 | Ref Robbins 9/e p205 A positive result meansHLA-B27 was found in your blood. You may have a higher-than-average risk of ceain autoimmune diseases, such as ankylosing spondylitis and reactive ahritis. | 901 | medmcqa_train |
Growth of oral structures is mainly influenced by factors: | Van Limborgh after review of the sutural theory, cartilaginous theory and functional matrix theory has summarized the following features:
1. Intrinsic genetic factor controls chondrocranial growth.
2. Epigenetic factors originating from skull cartilages and head tissues control desmocranial growth.
3. Local environmental factors, like tension forces and pressure, influence the growth of desmocranial growth.
4. General epigenetic and general environmental factors are less significant in craniofacial growth.
Key Concept:
Growth of oral structures is mainly influenced by factors Hereditary-influenced by environmental factors. | 902 | medmcqa_train |
Foramen of Morgagni refers to an opening in? | The sinus of Morgagni or ventricle of the larynx is a narrow fusiform cleft between the vestibular and vocal folds. the anterior pa of the sinus is prolonged upwards as diveiculum between the vestibular fold and the lamina of the thyroid cailage .this extension is known as the saccule of the larynx. The saccule contains mucous glands which help to lubricate the vocal folds.it is often called oil can of larynx. Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 256 | 903 | medmcqa_train |
A 10-year-old boy presents with increase bilirubin, increased bilirubin in urine and no urobilinogen Diagnosis is: | Ans. D. Obstructive jaundiceLaboratory tests in three different types of JaundiceConditionSerum BilirubinUrine UrobilinogenUrine BilirubinNormalDirect: 0.1-0.4mg/dL Indirect: 0.2-0.7mg/dL0-4mg/24hAbsentHemolytic anemiaIndirectIncreasedAbsentHepatitisDirect and indirectDecreased if micro-obstruction is presentPresent if micro-obstruction occursObstructive jaundiceDirectAbsentPresent | 904 | medmcqa_train |
All are true regarding fetal BBC's except – | Fetal RBC contains less 2, 3 DPG. | 905 | medmcqa_train |
NREM sleep is associated with:- | NREM sleep generation is associated with 5 anatomical sites: * Basal forebrain area Thalamus Hypothalamus Dorsal raphe nucleus Nucleus tractus solitaries of the medulla Preoptic lesions produce hyposomnia, whereas electrical and thermal stimulation of this area produces sleep changes. Thalamus (especially reticular formation) plays an active role in production of coical sleep spindles and delta waves. | 906 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the most specific test for Rheumatoid ahritis | to establish diagnosis of rheumatoid ahritis are * Clinical criteria * ESR and CRP * Ultrasound or MRI * Rheumatoid factor and anti-citrullinated peptide antibodies DAVIDSON&;S 22nd EDITION;PAGE NO 1100 | 907 | medmcqa_train |
A young male presents with ear discharge since three years; recently developed swelling in the neck below and behind the angle of mandible, toicollis; on the examination, the external auditory canal was filled with granulation tissue. What is the diagnosis? | Bezold's abscess It can occur following acute coalescent mastoiditis when pus breaks through the thin medial side of the tip of the mastoid and presents as a swelling in the upper pa of the neck. The abscess may Lie deep to sternocleidomastoid, pushing the muscle outwards. Follow the posterior belly of digastric and present as swelling between the tip of mastoid and angle of the jaw. Present in the upper pa of the posterior triangle. Reach the parapharyngeal space. Track down along the carotid vessels. Clinical features: Onset is sudden. Pain Fever Tender swelling in the neck Toicollis The patient gives a history of purulent otorrhoea. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 87) | 908 | medmcqa_train |
Not a pa of kangaroo mother care - | The 4 components of kangaroo mother care are all essential for ensuring the best care option especially for low bih weight babies. This include: Skin to skin contact on mothers chest Adequate nutrition through breast feeding Ambulatory care as a result of earlier discharge Suppo for mother and family in caring baby. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 537 | 909 | medmcqa_train |
A 6-year-old child has an accident and had elbow, after 4 years presented with tingling and numbness in the ulnar side of finger, fracture is | Ans. is 'b' i.e.lateral condyle humerus This child had lateral condyle of humerus 4 yrs back. He is now presenting with symptoms of tardy ulnar palsy. Lateral condyle of humerus may lead to cubitus valgus deformity because of diminished growth at the lateral side of distal humeral epiphyses. Cubitus valgus deformity leads to late ulnar palsy (tardy ulnar nerve palsy) because of friction neuritis of the ulnar nerve as it moves over the medial epicondyle every time the elbow is flexed and extended. Ulnar nerve palsy presents as tingling and numbness in the distribution of ulnar nerve.Treatment- Anterior transposition of ulnar nerve. | 910 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following can be used to treat alcohol dependence except | Naltrexone is orally effective opiod antagonist useful in alcohol withdrawal. Acamprosate an NMDA receptor antagonist is useful in preventing relapse. Disulfiram is used to make alcohol consumption an unpleasant experience. It inhibit the enzyme aldehyde dehydrogenase. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | 911 | medmcqa_train |
A 26 years old G2P1L1 at 10 weeks complains of pain abdomen and bleeding per vaginum. On examination products of conception are seen paially extruding through the cervix. What is your diagnosis? | Bleeding follows paial or complete placental separation and dilation of the cervical os in incomplete aboion. The fetus and the placenta may remain entirely within the uterus or paially extrude through the dilated os.Management is Evacuation or medical termination (if stable).Reference: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition; Chapter 18; Aboion | 912 | medmcqa_train |
Initial ECG change in Hyperkalemia is? | Ans.(a) Tall tented T wavesRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 310Serum potassium > 5.5 mEq/L is associated with repolarization abnormalities:* Peaked T waves (usually the earliest sign of hyperkalemia) Serum potassium >6.5 mEq/L is associated with progressive paralysis of the atria:* P wave widens and flattens* PR segment lengthens* P waves eventually disappearSerum potassium >7.0 mEq/L is associated with conduction abnormalities and bradycardia:# Prolonged QRS interval with bizarre QRS morphology# High-grade AV block with slow junctional and ventricular escape rhythms* Any kind of conduction block (bundle branch blocks, fascicular blocks)* Sinus bradycardia or slow AF* Development of a sine wave appearance (a pre-terminal rhythm)Serum potassium level of > 9.0 mEq/L causes cardiac arrest due to:* Asystole* Ventricular fibrillation | 913 | medmcqa_train |
ANCA positive vasculitis include all of the following Except: | Answer is D (Good pasture's syndrome): Goodpasture's syndrome is not classified as an ANCA positive vasculitis. | 914 | medmcqa_train |
The type of estrogen found in highest concen- tration in adult female is- | Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Estradiol f Ref: Principles of medical physiology p. 216]o Estradial, estrone and estrial, all three are found in blood, but estradiol is the most potent estrogen.o Major estrogen in normal adult women - Estradiolo Major estrogen in postmenoapusal women - Estroneo Major estrogen in pregnant women - Estriol.o In post menopausal women estrogen is formed in peripheral tissues most commonly in adipose tissue, liver kidney and brain. | 915 | medmcqa_train |
Pro - inflammatory cytokine is? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., IL-1 Proinflammatory cytokinesi) Major:- IL-1, TNF- a, IL-6ii) Other:- IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-11, IL-12, IL-15, IL-21, IL-23, IFN- g, GM-CSFAnti-inflammatory cytokines* IL-4, IL-10, IL-13, and transforming growth factor-b (TGF-b). | 916 | medmcqa_train |
Direct standardization is used to compare the moality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in - | ref: Park&;s 23rd edition pg 58 A standard population is defined as the one for which the numbers in each age and sex group are known. | 917 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the most common cause of thrombocytopenia in an ICU patient? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sepsis Thrombocytopenias in ICU patients :* Thrombocytopenia is a common laboratory abnormality that has been associated with adverse outcomes in ICU patients.* Thrombocytopenia is defined as platelet count < 150 X 103 cells / mcL.* Following table depicts the probable mechanisms and the causes for presence of thrombocytopenia in ICU patients.Thrombocytopenia in ICU : mechanisms and causesSix possible mechanisms* Hemodilution* Increased consumption* Increased destruction* Decreased production* Increased sequestration* Laboratory artifact (pseudothrombocytopenia) Specific causes* Sepsis, multiorgan failure* Trauma or major surgery* Bone marrow failure (leukemia, aplastic anemia)* Immune-mediated platelet consumption (ITP)* Drug induced (heparin, GPIIb/GPIIa inhibitors, antibiotics)* TIP and related disorders (HUS, TMA, and peripartum HELLP syndrome)* Sepsis is the most common cause accounting for 48% of the total patients of thrombocytopenia in ICU patients.* More than 25% of the patients have more than one associated cause. | 918 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not primary amenorrhea? | Ans. is a, i.e. Sheehan's syndromeRef: Shaw 14th/ed, p256-257* Kallmann's sydnrome is due to hypothalamic dysfunction characterized by a deficiency of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) causing a hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism. This is associated with anosmia. It can occasionally be associated with optic problems, such as color blindness or optic atrophy, nerve deafness, cleft palate, cryptorchidism, renal agenesis, and mirror movement disorder.* MRKH syndrome, also known as Mullerian agenesis is due to anatomical absence of uterus. This is the second most common cause of primary amenorrhea.* Turner's syndrome is a type of gonadal dysgenesis and is overall the most common cause of primary amenorhea* Sheehan's syndrome is postpartum pituitary necrosis. It leads to secondary amenorrhea and not primary amenorrhea. | 919 | medmcqa_train |
A female undergone surgery for left breast cancer 3 yrs back now developed blue nodule on same side | Answer- A. LymphangiosarcomaAngiosarcoma is a vascular tumor which may arise de novo in the breast or as a complication of the radiation therapy. | 920 | medmcqa_train |
Day care anesthesia is best achieved with | Propofol | 921 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about post-transcriptional modification of RNA- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glycosyiution.m-RNA processingo Prokaryotic mRNA is functional immediately upon synthesis, i.e. prokaryotic primary transcript of mRNA is functional. Thus it does not require post-transcriptional modification. In Eukaryotes the primary transcript of mRNA is the hn RNA (hetrogeneous nuclear RNA). After transcription hnRNA is extensively modified to form functional mRNA. These modifications are as follows.The 51-cappingThis is the first processing reaction. 5l-end of mRNA is capped with 7-methylguansosine. This cap helps in initiation of translation (protein synthesis) and stabilizes the structure of mRNA by protecting from 5'-exonuclease.Addition of poly 'A' tail As the name suggests, multiple4A' (adenylate) residues are added at 31 end.This poly-A tail is not transcribed from DNA. but rather added after transcription. These tails helps to stabilize the mRNA (by protecting from 31-exonuclease), facilitate exit from the nucleus, and aid in translation. After mRNA enters the cytosol, the poly-A tail is gradually shortened. Some mRNAs do not have poly-A tail, e.g. mRNAs of histones and some interferons.Removal of introns (splicing) Eukaryotic genes contain some coding sequences which code for protein and some intervening non-coding sequences which do not code for protein. The coding sequences are called 'exons'and intervening non-coding sequences are called 'introns'. The process by which introns are excised and exons are linked to form functional mRNA is called splicing. Thus mature mRNA does not contain introns.# Spitcesome :- Splicesome is an assembly made up of small nuclear RNA (snRNA), some proteins and hnRNA. snRNA combines with proteins to form small nuclear ribnonucleoprotein particles (snRNPs or snurps) that mediate splicing. It is snRNA component of snurps that catalyzes splicing. Snurps are U1, U2, U3, U4, U5 and U6-o Only about 1[?]5% of human DNA has coding sequence (exons). Remaining is non-coding (introns).Alternate splicing :- The hn-RNA molecules from some genes can be spliced in alternative way in different tissues. Thus two or more different mRNA (and therefore 2 or more proteins) can be synthesized from same hnRNA. For example, difference isoforms of tropomyosin in different tissues in due to alternate splicing. | 922 | medmcqa_train |
Rigor mois not seen in: AIIMS 13 | Ans. Fetus < 7 months of age | 923 | medmcqa_train |
Most commonly used tuning fork in ear examination is | 512Hz is used normally Note: These tests are performed with tuning forks of different frequencies such as 128, 256, 512, 1024, 2048 and 4096 Hz, But for routine clinical practice, tuning fork of 512 Hz is ideal. Forks of lower frequencies produce a sense of bone vibration while those of higher frequencies have a shoer decay time and are thus not routinely preferred. Ref: Dhingra; 6th Edition; pg no 21 | 924 | medmcqa_train |
Subtrochanteric fractures of the femur can be treated by all of the following methods except | Smith Peterson Nail is a cannulated tri-flanged nail that was used for internal fixation of fracture neck of femur Results obtained by S-P nail were dissatisfactory and it is no more recommended for use these days.
Other three options are used for the treatment of the subtrochanteric fracture. | 925 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following side effects are produced by Cisplatin except | Cisplatin can cause ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, coasting effect (peripheral neuropathy) and severe nausea and vomiting.
Pulmonary fibrosis is seen with Bleomycin and Busulfan. | 926 | medmcqa_train |
Depressor reflex, Bezold-Jarisch reflex, produced by the following stimulus: | Ventricular distension can produce a powerful depressor reflex called the Bezold-Jarisch reflex; vagal afferents of this cardiopulmonary reflex are also activated by chemical stimulation (eg, prostanoids, cytokines, serotonin, and classically, Veratrum alkaloids). The central connections for this reflex are in the nucleus tractus solitarii, which has both sympathetic and parasympathetic synapses. Ref: Hoit B.D., Walsh R.A. (2011). Chapter 5. Normal Physiology of the Cardiovascular System. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e. | 927 | medmcqa_train |
Shape of birbeck granules is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tennis racket o Under the electron microscope, Birbeck granules have a pentalaminar, rodlike, tubular appearance and some- times a dilated terminal end resembling tennis-racket appearance. | 928 | medmcqa_train |
Extremely low birth weight - | Ans. (a) <1000 gmRef : OP Ghai 8th ed./125* Normal birth weight - 2800 gm- 3000gm* Low birth weight(LBW) - < 2500 gm* Very low birth weight(VLBW) - < 1500 gm* Extremely low birth weight (ELBW) - < 1000 gm. | 929 | medmcqa_train |
Memory T cells can be identified by using the following | Ref Harrison 17/e p2021 CD45 (lymphocyte common antigen) is a receptor-linked protein tyrosine phosphatase that is expressed on all leucocytes, and which plays a crucial role in the function of these cells. ... These CD45-associated molecules may play an impoant role in regulatingCD45 tyrosine phosphatase activity and function. Present on memory T cells | 930 | medmcqa_train |
A 4-month-old infant has undergone surgical treatment for meningomyeloencephalocele. At bih, an operation was carried out in the posterior cranial fossa to paially replace brain cerebellar contents to an intracranial position. In investigations for progressive hydrocephalus, it is noted that there is herniation of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum, and a diagnosis of Arnold-Chiari syndrome is established. This syndrome may also include which of the following? | Abnormal elongation of the medulla and lower cranial nerves may be evident in Arnold-Chiari syndrome. Additional features include fusion of the corpora quadrigemina, leading to a "beaked" tectum; paial or complete absence of the corpus callosum; and microgyria. | 931 | medmcqa_train |
A patient of RHD developed infective endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely organism causing this is - | Viridans streptococci Commensals in the mouth and upper respiratory tract. Cause transient bacteremia following tooth extraction or other dental procedures; -MC cause of subacute endocarditis: Streptococcus Viridans - MC Streptococcal species in Viridans group causing endocarditis: S. sanguis mc cause of Native valve endocarditis : S. aureus | 932 | medmcqa_train |
Disease highly transmitted during incubation period is - | Whooping cough is most infectious during the catarrhal stage. The infective period may be considered to extend from a weak after exposure to about 3 weeks after the onset of the paroxysmal stage although communicability diminishes rapidly after the catarrhal stage. (refer pgno:163 park 23 rd edition) | 933 | medmcqa_train |
Uveitis is associated most commonly with : | Ans. is 'c' ie Pauciarticular JRA Uveitis can be seen in both pauciarticular and polyarticular JRA but is much more commonly associated with pauciarticular JRA.It is seen in about 20-25% of cases of pauciarticular and only 5% of polyarticular JRA. | 934 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are seen in deep vein thrombosis except | Claudication occurs in arterial occlusion | 935 | medmcqa_train |
Integrated management of childhood illness (IMCI) intiative was taken to prevent morbidity and moality from all of the following except - | Ans. is `d' i.e., Neonatal tetanus Integrated management of childhood iliness.tIMCD The extent of childhood morbidity and moality caused by following diseases is substantial. i) Diarrhea iii) Malaria v) Malnutrition ii) ARI (pneumonia, otitis media) iv) Measles o Most sick children present with signs and symptoms of more than one of these conditions. o This overlap means that a signle diagnosis may not be possible or appropriate, and treatment may be complicated by the need to combine for several conditions. o Therefore, an integrated approach to menage Sick children is necessary. IMCI is a strategy for an integrated approach to the management of childhood illness as it is impoant for child health programmes to look beyond the treatment of a single disease. o This is cost effective and emphasizes prevention of disease and promotion of child health and development besides provision of standard case management of childhood illness. The target of IMCI --) Children < 5 years of age (0-2 months, 2 months - 5 years). o Health promotive and preventive components include:- I) Breast feeding: ii) Nutritional counseling; iii) Vitamin A & iron supplementation: iv) immunization; v) Treatment of helminthic infestation. | 936 | medmcqa_train |
Hostile witness is covered under IPC section | Sec 191 IPC states that whoever, being legally bound by an oath or by an express provision of law to state the truth, or being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject, makes any statement which is false, and which he either knows or believes to be false or does not believe to be true, is said to give false evidence. This is a hostile witness. REF: Dr K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 29th edition pg. 31. | 937 | medmcqa_train |
All statements are true except remifentanil is true except | Refer Goodman Gilman 11/e p 572 Remifentanil is shoest acting opioid due to its metabolism by plasma esterases Due to its sho duration of action, it is indicated for sho term painful procedures Intravenous bolus dosing is not practical Potency is equal to fentanyl | 938 | medmcqa_train |
EMLA constituent is – | Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetics (EMLA) is a mixture of 2.5% lidocaine and 2.5 prilocaine. | 939 | medmcqa_train |
Keratic precipitates are most commonly seen in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Uveitis o Keratic precipitates (KPs) are proteinaceous cellular deposits occurring at the back of cornea (corneal endothelial deposits). Keratic precipitates are formed by the aggregation of polymorphonuclear cells, lymphocytes, and epitheloid cells. In the setting of uveitis, the bimicrosopic appearance of KP may yeild important diagnostic clues for the identification of the underlying inflammatory disorder1) Mutton fat KP Large, yellowish KPs, are characteristic of granulomatous uveitis .These are composed of epitheloid cells and macrophages. They are large, thick fluffy, lardaceous KPs, having a greasy or waxy appearance.2) Small or medium KPs (granular KPs):- These are composed of lymphocytes and are characteristic of nongranulomatous uveitis. These are small, round and whitish precipitates3) Red KPs:- Composed of RBCs and inflammatory cells. These are seen in hemorrhagic uveitis.4) Old KPs:- In healed uveitis. The above described KPs shrink, fade, become pigmented and irregular in shape with crenated margins. | 940 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding glutathione which of the following is/are true: | Ans:C.)It helps in membrane transpo. GLUTATHIONE: Glutathione is a tripeptide made up of glutamate, cysteine and glycine (T-glutamyl-cysteinyl-glycine). Glutathione is present in all mammalian cells except neurons. The sulphydryl (-SH) group of cysteine residue is the reactive poion of glutathione which can undergo oxidation and reduction. Thus, glutathione may exist as the reduced (G-SH) or oxidized form (G-S-S-G) and can play a role in some oxidation-reduction reactions. In oxidized form two molecules of glutathione are linked by disulfide bond. Cysteine in glutathione act as reducing agent FUNCTIONS : - It helps in keeping some enzyme in active state by preventing the oxidation of sulphydryl (-SH) group of enzyme. It helps in detoxification of H2O2 by reducing it. Superoxide anion (O2) first conveed to H2O2 by superoxide dismutase. Glutathione helps in membrane transpo H2O2 is then reduced to H2O2 by glutathione perioxidase, a reaction requires reduced glutathione. Thus, glutathione scavenges free radicals and superoxide anion. It helps in detoxification of xenobiotics by their conjugation (conjugation reaction). Reduced form of glutathione (GSH) with a free sulphydryl (-SH) group serves as a redox buffer, regulating redox state of the cell. Reduced glutathione is essential for maintaining the normal structure of RBCs and for keeping hemoglobin iron in ferrous state (prevents formation of methemoglobin). It is involved in the transpo of amino acids across the cell membane of kidney and intestine. | 941 | medmcqa_train |
Presenting symptom of nasal myiasis is | Clinical features of nasal myiasisInitial symptoms (3-4 days maggots):- Intense irritation, sneezing, headache, blood stained discharge, lacrimationLater:- Maggots may crawl out of the nose and there is a foul smellRef: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 181 - 182 | 942 | medmcqa_train |
Fouh ventricle develops from? | Lateral ventricle develops from the cavity of telencephalon. Third ventricle develops from diencephalon. Cavity of mesencephalon remains narrow and forms the aqueduct, while the cavity of rhombencephalon forms the fouh ventricle. | 943 | medmcqa_train |
Diabetic neuropathy is a | Diabetic neuropathy causes substantial morbidity and increases moality. It is diagnosed on the basis of symptoms and signs, after the exclusion of other causes of neuropathy . Depending on the criteria used for diagnosis, it affects between 50% and 90% of patients with diabetes, and of these, 15-30% will have painful diabetic neuropathy (PDN). Like retinopathy, neuropathy occurs secondary to metabolic disturbance, and prevalence is related to the duration of diabetes and the degree of metabolic control. Pathological features can occur in any peripheral nerves. They include axonal degeneration of both myelinated and unmyelinated fibres, with thickening of the Schwann cell basal lamina, patchy segmental demyelination and abnormal intraneural capillaries (with basement membrane thickening and microthrombi). Ref - Davidsosn 23e p780 | 944 | medmcqa_train |
Chronotrophic means: March 2010 | Ans. B: Drugs affecting hea rate Chronotropic effects are those drugs that change the hea rate. Chronotropic drugs may change the hea rate by affecting the nerves controlling the hea, or by changing the rhythm produced by the sinoatrial node. Positive chronotropes increase hea rate; negative chronotropes decrease hea rate. A dromotrope affects Atrioventricular node (AV node) conduction. A positive dromotrope increases AV nodal conduction, and a negative dromotrope decreases AV nodal conduction. A lusitrope is an agent that affects diastolic relaxation. Inotropes affects contractility of the hea. Chronotropic variables in systolic myocardial performance can be split left and right. Left sided systolic chronotropy can be appreciated as Aoic Valve open to close time. Right sided variables are represented by Pulmonary valve open to close time. Inveed as diastolic chronotropy, the variables are aoic valve close to open and pulmonic close to open time. | 945 | medmcqa_train |
For pericardial calcifications, which is the best investigation- | Calcification anywhere in the body - IOC is CT scan Except for gall stones - IOC is USG So, for pericardial calcifications, the best investigation is CT scan. Figure: An incidental discovery of focal calcific plaque within the visceral pericardium. The patient was asymptomatic. | 946 | medmcqa_train |
Most specific test for organophosphorous poisoning is: | B i.e. Plasma cholinesterase level | 947 | medmcqa_train |
Lambda is meeting point of: | The lambda is the meeting point between the sagittal and lambdoid sutures. In the foetal skull, this is the site of the posterior fontanelle which closes at two to three months of age. | 948 | medmcqa_train |
CSF examination in a one day old term male infant with convulsions reveals cell count -- 10 RBCs/HPF, 50 cells; protein -- 70 mg/dl.; sugar -- 30 mg/dl/Blood sugar 40 mg/di The child is likely to be suffering from | (B) Intracranial bleed # RBCs are normally not present in the CSF and their presence indicates traumatic tap or subarachnoid hemorrhage.# CSF characteristics:> Idiopathic seizures --Clear CSF with normal protein, normal glucose, no WBC's, no RBC's, normal opening pressure and normal % Gamma globulin.> Bacterial meningitis --Milky CSF with increased protein, decreased glucose, high WBC's (PMN predominate), few RBC's, mildly increased opening pressure and normal % Gamma globulin.> Guillain Barre Syndrome --Yellow CSF with very high protein (up to a gram), normal glucose, no WBC's, no RBC's, normal opening pressure and normal % Gamma globulin> Subarachnoid haemorrhage -- Yellow CSF with increased protein, normal glucose, few WBC's, inumerable RBC's, mildly increased opening pressure & normal % Gamma globulin.> Benign intracranial hypertension --Clear CSF with normal protein, normal glucose, no WBC's, no RBC's, increased opening pressure and normal Gamma globulin. | 949 | medmcqa_train |
Feature of osteoahritis is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Heberden node Joint involvement in OA Common joints : Knee, Hip, Spine (cervical, lumbosacral), Hand (PIP, DIP, first carpometacarpal), first tarsometatarsal. Uncommon joint : Shoulder Spared : Wrist, elbow, ankle, metacarpophalangeal. In osteoahritis of hand : Distal interphalangeal joint :- Heberden's node. Proximal interphalangeal joint :- Bouchard's node | 950 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of UTI in a neonate is | Causative agents of UTI:Uncomplicated UTIComplicated UTI*E.coli *Klebsiella*Proteus species*Enterobacter*Staphylococcus saprophyticus*Enterococci *Chlamydia , Neisseria *Ureaplasma, Mycoplasma . Adenovirus *E.coli *Klebsiella*Proteus species*Serratia marcescens*Pseudomonas *Enterococci Staphylococci Ref:Harrison's infectious disease 2nd edition, p296 | 951 | medmcqa_train |
In Patey's mastectomy all the following are removed except | Ans. (a) Pectoralis major(Ref. Bailey and Love 26th edition Page 813)Structures removed in Patey's mastectomy:* Breast, nipple, areola including the skin overlying the tumor* Level 1,2,3 Lymphnodes* Fascia over Pectoralis major* Pectoralis minor muscle | 952 | medmcqa_train |
Axis is the name for: | Second cervical vertebra (axis)
Presence of odontoid process.
Transverse processes are small and lack the anterior tubercle.
Anterior margin of the inferior surface of the body projects downwards to a considerable extent.
Foramen transversarium is directed superolaterally (expand in typical vertebrae it is directed vertically)
Inferior surface presents a deep and wide inferior vertebral notch placed in front of the inferior articular process. The superior vertebral notch is shallow and is present behind the superior articular process.
Key concept:
Second cervical vertebra is called the axis. it is identified by the presence of the dens or odontoid process which is a strong, tooth-like process projecting upwards from the body. The dens is usually believed to represent the centrum or body of the atlas which has fused with the centrum of the axis. | 953 | medmcqa_train |
Reed sternberg cells are found in- | Hodgkin&;s lymphoma is characterised by the presence of neoplastic giant cells called Reed Sternberg cells.These cells release factors that induce the accumulation of reactive lymphocytes, macrophages, and granulocytes, which typically make up greater than 90% of tumour cellularity. RS cells are derived from the germinal centre or post germinal centre B cells. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 607 | 954 | medmcqa_train |
16 yr unmarried girl came for vaccination against cervical cancer. Which vaccine to he given: | Ans. (A) Gardasil(Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynecology 16th Ed; Page No 495)Gardasil is the vaccine of choice in this situation.Other options:Biovac: It is freeze-dried live attenuated vaccine indicated for the prevention of Hepatitis A in persons of age 1 year or older.Rabivac: It is monovalent inactivated rabies vaccine for cats and dogs.Tvac: It is tetanus vaccine.HPV vaccinesHPV vaccines have been developed from the inactivated capsid coat of the virus.HPV vaccines were earlier of two types. During its Feb 2015, meeting Advisory Committee on Immunization Practises (ACIP) recommended 9-valent HPV vaccine (9V HVP) as one of the three vaccines for preventive HPV.CharacteristicBivalent (2V HPV)Quadrivalent (4V HPV)9 Valent (9VHPV)Brand nameCervarixGardasilGardasil-9HPV subtypes16,186,11,16,186, 11, 16, 18, 31, 33, 45, 52, 58Protects againstCIN, Ca cervixAnogenital warts, CIN, Ca cervixAnogenital warts CIN, Ca cervix, vulva intraepithelial neoplasia, vaginal intraepithelial neoplasiaManufacturingTrichoplusia insect line infected with L1 encoding baculovirusSaccharomyces cerevisiae expressing L1Saccharomyces cerevisiaeexpressing L1Adjuvant500 mcg aluminum hydroxide with monophosphoryl lipid A225 mcg Al(OH)PO4 SO4 500 meg Al(OH)PO4 SO4 Dose0.5 mL0.5 mL0.5 mLAdministration1/m1/m1/mAdministered to males or femalesOnly femalesBoth males and femalesBoth males and femalesAge in females Ideal age range11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-26 yearsAge in males Ideal age range---11-12 years9-26 years11-12 years9-15 years--FDA approved9-26 years--ACIP recommendation | 955 | medmcqa_train |
Insulin stimulated glucose entry in seen in- | Insulin stimulated glucose entry in seen in Cardiac muscles. Name Location Features GLUT-1 & GLUT-3 Brain, RBC, placenta Concerned with basal uptake of glucose GLUT-2 Liver, kidney, b-cells of pancreas Allows both entry & release of glucose GLUT-4 Skeletal muscles, adipocytes, cardiac muscles Insulin dependent transpoer GLUT-5 Spermatozoa, testis, intestines Transpos fructose | 956 | medmcqa_train |
Cribriform hymen is seen - | Ref: Textbook of Forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.354 Hymen is a thin fold of connective tissue, covered by mucous membranes, about 1 mm in overall thickness, situated at the vaginal orifice. They are of different types. cribriform is one of them, characterized by many small holes. As a result of sexual intercourse, hymen is usually tornfrom posteriorly, with unilateral or bilateral tears extending to the point of its attachment to the vaginal wall. So presence of hymen most probably indicate virginity. | 957 | medmcqa_train |
In metabolic alkalosis, which Is true about excretion in urine | The NH3 production is greatly increased in metabolic acidosis and negligible in alkalosis. It is also observed that activity of renal glutaminase is enhanced in acidosis. The NH3 mechanism is a valuable device for the conservation of fixed base. Under normal conditions, 30 to 50 mEq of H+ ions are eliminated per day, by combination with NH3 and about 10 to 30 mEq, as titratable acid, i.e. buffered with PO4. Ammonia Mechanism A third mechanism operates in the distal renal tubule cells, for the elimination of H+ ions and the conservation of Na+, by production of NH3 by the renal tubular epithelial cells. Source of NH3 in Distal Tubular Epithelial Cells 1. NH3 is produced by the hydrolysis of Glutamine by the enzyme Glutaminase which is present in these cells. 2. In addition to above, if the cells require NH3 more *NH3 can also be formed from other amino acids by oxidative deamination by L-amino acid oxidase. *NH3 can also be formed from glycine by glycineoxidase. The NH3 thus formed forms NH+4 ions by combining with H+ ions and NH+4 ions can exchange Na+ ion from NaCl. NH+4 ions formation *NH3 can diffuse into the tubular filtrate and there forms NH+4 ions in combination with H+ ions. *NH3 can combine with H+ ions inside the cells and then NH+4 ions come into tubular filtrate. This probably is not the principal mechanism as NH+4 ions are less SECTION FIVE readily permeable to tubular epithelial cells (Fig. 41.4).Ref: M.N. Chatterjea - Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, page no: 716 | 958 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following condition local excision in rectal carcinoma can not be done? | Suggested criteria for local excision in rectal cancer: Physical examination Imaging Histology Tumor <3 cm Tumor <30% of bowel circumference Tumor within 15 cm of dentate line Tumor freely mobile Tumor limited to submucosa (T1) No lymph node involvement (N0) Well to moderately differentiated Absence of lymphovascular invasion or perineural invasion No mucinous or signet cell component | 959 | medmcqa_train |
Electron microscopy finding indicating irreversible cell injury is: | Irreversible injury is associated morphologically with:- Mitochondrial swelling Plasma membrane damage which forms myelin figures Lysosomal swelling. Large, flocculent, amorphous densities develop in the mitochondrial matrix | 960 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following excludes painful stimuli from awareness? | Repression is the defense mechanism which removes painful memories or unacceptable desires away from the consciousness or awareness. | 961 | medmcqa_train |
Risk factor for suicide - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Unmarried Causes/Risk factors for suicidePsychiatric disorders : - Depression (most common), alcoholism (2nd me), Drug/Substance dependence, Schizophrenia, Dementia.Physical illness : - Cancer, AIDS, Multiple sclerosis, Head trauma.Psychosocial factors : - Failure in love, marital difficulties, family dispute, illegitimate pregnancy.Biological factors : - Decrease in serotoninOther - Male sex, Age > 40 years. Single (Unmarried, divorced or widowed), previous suicide attempt, social isolation. | 962 | medmcqa_train |
At the level of Arch of aoa, the relationship of left vagus nerve and left phrenic nerve? | Phrenic nerve anterior, vagus nerve posterior | 963 | medmcqa_train |
ACE inhibitor contraindicated in which of the following condition: | Ans. (a) Bilateral renal artery stenosisRef. Katzung's pharmacology 10th ed. Ch 11* ACEI inhibits the converting enzyme peptidyl dipeptidase that hydrolyzes angiotensin I to angiotensin II and (under the name plasma kininase) inactivates bradykinin, a potent vasodilator, which works at least in part by stimulating release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin.* Drugs under this class are: Captopril, Enalapril, Lisinopril, Benazepril, fosinopril, moexipril, perindopril, quinapril, ramipril, and trandolapril.* ACE inhibitors have a particularly useful role in treating patients with chronic kidney disease because they diminish proteinuria and stabilize renal function (even in the absence of lowering of blood pressure).* ACE inhibitors have also proved to be extremely useful in the treatment of heart failure, and after myocardial infarction, and* There is recent evidence that ACE inhibitors reduce the incidence of diabetes in patients with high cardiovascular risk. | 964 | medmcqa_train |
Nipple retraction in Ca breast due to infiltration of | Answer- B. Lactiferous ductsIt is seen in breast carcinoma due to infltration of the lactiferous ducts by carcinoma.It is due to extention of the growth along the lactiferous ducts and subsequent fibrosis.Nipple retraction is circumferential in carcinoma and slit like in periductal mastitis. | 965 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding spring catarrh, all of the following are true, except: | Limbus conjunctival thickening | 966 | medmcqa_train |
All the following malignancies are associated with HIV, except- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Astrocytoma Neoplastic disease in AIDS o Kaposi sarcoma (most common tumor) o Non Hodgkin lymphoma Immunoblastic lymphoma (most common lymphoma) Primary CNS lymphoma (associated with EBV) Burkitt's lymphoma Other less common neoplasm are Hodgkin's disease Leukemia Cervical Ca Brain tumor Testicular Ca Multiple myeloma Melanoma Lung Ca Anal Ca Oral Ca o Not sure about option | 967 | medmcqa_train |
Genetic material is transferred from one bacteria to another by all except | Transfection is the method by which DNA is transferred into eukaryotic cell. | 968 | medmcqa_train |
True about Hodgkin's lymphoma are all except? | HODGKIN'S LYMPHOMA : - HL arises in lymphoid tissue & spreads to adjacent lymph node areas in a relatively orderly fashion. -Patients commonly present with painless, non-tender, firm, rubbery, cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy and usually some degree of mediastinal involvement. HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY IS A FEATURE BUT NOT ALWAYS PRESENT - Chemotherapy & radiation therapy are both effective in treatment of HL. TREATMENT- A- Adriamycin (Doxorubicin) B - Bleomycin V - Vinblastine D - Dacarbazine | 969 | medmcqa_train |
25 years old female has palatal ulcer and skin blister most likely diagnosis is – | Skin blister
Oral mucosa involvement (palatal ulcer) | 970 | medmcqa_train |
Concerning contraction of the diaphragm: | When the diaphragm contracts, it becomes flatter The phrenic nerves that innervate the diaphragm come from high in the neck, that is, cervical segments 3, 4, and 5. Contraction of the diaphragm causes the lateral distance between the lower rib margins to increase and anterior abdominal wall to move out. The intrapleural pressure is reduced because the larger volume of the chest cage increases the recoil pressure of the lung. | 971 | medmcqa_train |
Infants of diabetic mothers are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly: | Ans. is d, i.e. Transposition of great arteriesRef. Fernando Arias 3/e, p 454As VSD is not given in the options, transposition of great vessels is the single best answer. | 972 | medmcqa_train |
Congo red staining of abdominal fat has confirmed a diagnosis of Amyloidosis in a 28-year-old man. Which is the most common cause of death in primary AL Amylodosis? | Cardiac failure is the most common cause of death in primary or AL amyloidosis. Cardiac involvement is seen in 40% of patients with AL amyloidosis. Amyloid involvement of myocardium, intramural coronary aeries and conduction system may cause congestive hea failure, ischemic syndrome and rythm disturbances. Diagnosis of amyloidosis should be considered in patients with unexplained nephropathy, cardiomyopathy (diastolic dysfunction), neuropathy, enteropathy, or pathognomonic soft tissue findings of macroglossia or periorbital ecchymoses. Pathologic diagnosis of amyloid fibrils can be made by congo red staining of aspirated abdominal fat or of an involved organ biopsy specimen. | 973 | medmcqa_train |
A 38-year-old woman complains to her physician of chronic pelvic pain that is much worse during her menstrual periods. Pelvic examination demonstrates an enlarged uterus with multiple palpable masses. Ultrasound shows that a large number of ball-like masses up to 6 cm diameter are present in the uterus. Most cases of this type of tumor are found at which of the following sites? | The vast majority of leiomyomas are found in the uterine fundus or body; with only 3% being found in the cervix. Of the leiomyomas in the fundus or body, 95% are intramural, with the remainder being located subserosally or submucosally. | 974 | medmcqa_train |
A 9-month-old girl is brought with PR bleed, vomiting, mass in right lumbar region with masked liver dullness. She is in shock like condition. Management should include all of the following EXCEPT? | * In patients with prolonged intussusception with signs of shock, peritoneal irritation, intestinal perforation, reduction (with barium, saline or air) should not be attempted * Urgent laprotomy should be planned * But the first priority is urgent resuscitation ie A, B, C (airway, breathing, circulation). Hence in case of shock, and as the child in question is also vomiting, she should be made NPO and Nasogastric tube inseion should be done. | 975 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a feature of consolidation | Answer is D (Tracheal shift to side of consolidation): Trachea stays in midline in consolidation (no mediastinal shift). Consolidation is usually caused by pneumonia. In this situation alveoli are full of inflammatory exudates but the size of the lung is unaffected so the trachea remains in its normal midline position. | 976 | medmcqa_train |
Cadaveric position of vocal cords ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3.5 mm from midline Position of vocal cords The position of the vocal cords may be described as being in various positions. These are : ? 1. Median position The vocal cords are in midline. This is the position of normal larynx during phonation and in recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy. 2. Paramedian position Just off midline (1.5 mm form midline) This position occurs in normal larynx during strong whisper. This is the resting position of vocal cords after long-term recurrent laryngeal nerve injury. 3. Cadeveric (Intermediate) position (3.5 mm from midline) It is 15-20deg from midline. This is the position of immediate total denervation of both recurrent laryngeal nerve as well as superior laryngeal paralysis, as in high vagal paralysis. 4. Gentle abduction (7 mm from midline) This position is seen during quiet respiration in normal larynx and in paralysis of adductors (very rare). 5. Abduct position (9.5 mm from midline) It is 30-45deg from midline. This is the position of maximum adduction during deep inspiration. | 977 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following phenomena is closely associated with slow wave sleep: | C i.e. Sleep walking | 978 | medmcqa_train |
2-year-old child presents with sho stature and cafe-au lait spots. Bone marrow aspiration yields a little material and mostly containing fat. What is your diagnosis: | - All features given in the question suggests the diagnosis of Fanconi anemia Common physical findings in Fanconi Anemia (FA): - Skin pigment changes including Cafe-au-lait spots (55% cases) - Sho stature (in 50% cases) - Microcephaly - Thumb and radial malformations - Renal and cardiac malformations - Hypogonadism - Associated with Aplastic anemia. | 979 | medmcqa_train |
The following statements are true regarding Chlamydia except: | Unique properties of Chlamydia are
Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular parasite. This means they can survive only by establishing residence inside
Animal cells
They need their host's ATP as an energy source for their own cellular activity. They are energy parasites using a
Cell membrane transport system that uses ATP from the host system and gives out ADP.
This obligate intracellular existence makes it impossible to culture these organisms on nonliving artibacterial media.
Due to their small size and failure to grow in cell - free media they were considered to be viruses.
Chlamydiae grows in cultures of a variety of eukaryotic cell lines Me Coy or HeLa cells. It may be necessary to
Treat cells with poly anionic compounds such as DEAD-dextran to reduce the electrostatic barrier to infection.
Antimetabolite such as cycloheximide is added to favour competition for host cell amino acid pools. All types of
Chlamydiae proliferate in embryonated eggs particularly in the yolk sac.
The special features in structure and chemical composition of chlamydiae are
The outer cell wall resembles the cell wall of gram negative bacteria It has a relatively high lipid content
It is rigid but it does not contain typical bacterial peptidoglycan; perhaps it contains a Tetrapeptide linked matrix.
N Acetyl muramic acid also appears to be absent from chlamydiae cell wall
Antibiotic susceptibility of chlamydiae.
Penicillin binding proteins occur in chlamydiae cell wall and chlamydiae cell wall formation is inhibited by penicillins
And other drugs that inhibit transpeptidation of bacterial peptidoglycan. But remember the important point about t/t,
That cell wall inhibitors result in the production of morphologically defective forms but are not effective in clinical
Disease.
• Inhibitors of protein synthesis (tetracyclines, erythromycins) are effective in most clinical infections. Erythromycin
Or tetracyclines are considered the drug of choice for chlamydiae infections. | 980 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following tests is best for differentiating ACTH secreting pituitary tumour from Ectopic ACTH production? | 24 hour urinary coisol levels are elevated in both subsets: ACTH secreting pituitary tumour and Ectopic ACTH secretion. Overnight Dexamethasone suppression test involves overnight 1mg dexamethasone tablet and measurement of 8am morning serum or urinary coisol. It is used to diagnose hypercoisolism but cannot identify etiology of Cushing syndrome. High dose dexamethasone suppression test involves giving 6 hourly dexamethasone 2mg, which leads to etiological diagnosis.( differentiates between ACTH secreting pituitary tumor from Ectopic ACTH ) Serum Coisol> 5mg/dl: Ectopic ACTH production. | 981 | medmcqa_train |
Forceps delivery is done in all except: | Option ‘a’
Mentoposterior: Before going on to mentoposterior, lets see mentoanterior.
Mentoanterior
Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 390
In mentoanterior face presentation there is place for spontaneous vaginal delivery and liberal episiotomy is all that is required. In case of delay, forceps delivery is done.
In mentoposterior: 20 to 30% cases rotate anteriorly through 3/8 of circle and deliver as mento anterior, there fore trial of labour may be given in hope of anterior rotation of chin, followed by spontaneous/forceps delivery. In the rest 70-80%, incomplete anterior rotation/ non rotation occurs.
In these persistent mentoposterior: cesarean section is the only management. Therefore in mentoposterior per se forceps is not applied, only when it rotates anteriorly and becomes mentoanterior, forceps are applied.
Option ‘b’
Deep transverse arrest
Management options in case of deep transverse arrest are:
Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 372
Ventouse: Ideal for all cases
Cesarean section: If the pelvis is android or there is CPD, cesarean section should be done. In modern obstetrics, traumatic vaginal delivery causing intracranial hemorrhage is to be avoided at all costs and so there is increasing use of cesarean section for deep transverse arrest.
Other options are:
Manual rotation followed by outlet forceps application.
Forceps rotation and delivery using Keilland forceps.
Craniotomy if the baby is dead.
As far as options ‘c’ and ‘d’ are concerned: In after coming head of breech, and in heart disease forceps are routinely applied. | 982 | medmcqa_train |
Pentamidine therapy causes all, EXCEPT ? | Ans. is None o Patients who receive aerosolized pentamidine have increased frequency of upper lobe infiltrates. Pneumothorax also occurs. o Risk factor for extrapulmonary spread in patients with HIV is the administration of aerosolized pentamidine. o In patients with PCP who have been receiving aerosolized pentamidine for prophylaxis, one may see an X-ray picture of upper lobe cavitary disease. | 983 | medmcqa_train |
True about hepatitis C virus are all except - | Ans. is 'b1 i.e., Has live attenuated vaccineHEPATITIS C VIRUS (HCV)o The hepatitis 'C' virus has been classified as a new' genus Hepacivirus in the family flaviviridae.o The virus can not be cultured but can be cloned in Escherichia coli.o It is the commonest cause of post transfusion hepatitis and chronic hepatitis.o Incubation period is 50 days (15 - 160 days),o Modes of transmission of HCV are :-Blood transfusion : Most common mode of transmission and HCV is the most common cause of post-transfusion hepatitis.Percutaneous transmission : By needle punctures.Perinatal transmission : Transmission appears to be a function of the degree of maternal viremia which is detected by PCR for HCV RNA.Sexual transmission.o Among hepatitis viruses, HCV has the maximum propensity for chronic hepatitis and chronic carrier state. It can also cause cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma.o The most common indication for liver transplantation currently is cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis ;C' infection.o HCV usually does not cause acute liver failure (vary rare with HCV)o Extrahepatic manifestation with HCV infection may be essential mixed cryoglobulinemia (more than HBV), porphyria cutanea tarda, pulmonary fibrosis and membrano-proliferative GN.Among the Hepatitis viruses, vaccine is available for HAV and HBV.Live attenuated vaccine is available for HAV only (among hepatitis viruses). | 984 | medmcqa_train |
Digestion of disaccharides occurs at ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Small intestine Digestion of disaccharides (maltose, sucrose and lactose) occurs by the enzymes present in brush border os small intestinal epithelial cells. Maltase (a-glucosidase) breaks 1: 4 linkages in maltose and maltotriose and releases glucose (two molecules of glucose from maltose and three molecules of glucose from maltotriose). Isomaltase (a-limit dextrinase) breaks 1 : 6 a linkages of alpha-limit dextrin and releases glucose. Isomaltase dextrinase) is the only enzyme that attacks 1 : 6a linkage. Sucrose is hydrolysed into fructose and glucose by sucrase (an enzyme present in brush border of intestinal epithelium). Lactose is hydrolysed into galactose and glucose by lactase ((3-glucosidase). Trehalase hydrolyzes trehelose (a 1:1 a - linked dimer of glucose) into two glucose molecules. Trehalose is found in mushrooms. | 985 | medmcqa_train |
A person's X-ray chest showing homogenous opacity on right side with shifting of mediastinum on opposite side. Most probable diagnosis is/are: | Answer- (B) Pleural effusionPneumonectomy chest (Early sip: within 24 hr): Paial filling of thorax, ipsilateral mediastinal shift & diaphragmatic elevation.Homogenous opacityShift of mediastinum to the opposite sideConcave upper border (Ellis's curve) | 986 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following causes coloured halos except | Halos can sometimes be a normal response to bright lights. Halos can also be caused by wearing eyeglasses or corrective lenses (contact lenses), or they can be a side effect of cataract or LASIK surgery. ... Thehalos are a result in diffraction of light entering your eye | 987 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a function of liver ? | Ans. (c) Production of vitamin KRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. Z821* Vitamin K is produced by the bacteria of gut and is used by liver for gamma carboxylation of factor 2/7/9/10.# Liver produces albumin which falls in liver cirrhosis producing ascites/edema.# Ammonia is combined with carbon dioxide to produce urea which in turn is excreted by the liver.# The cytochrome P450 is responsible for metabolism of drugs. | 988 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly woman suffering from schizophrenia is on antipsychotic medication. She developed purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of cheeks. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be involved in this side effect - | Purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of checks suggest the diagnosis of tardive dyskinesia (an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotics).
Clozapine does not produce extrapyramidal side effects. | 989 | medmcqa_train |
Cluster testing is used in the detection of- | .Cluster testing is used in the detection of of STD S.here the patients are asked to name other persons of either sex ho move in the same socio-sexual environment.these persons are then screened .this technique ha been shown almost to double the number of cases found ref:park&;s textbook,ed22,pg no 312 | 990 | medmcqa_train |
Ethmoidal polyp is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Recurrent | 991 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not seen in Tuberous sclerosis ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., McCollon Plaques | 992 | medmcqa_train |
A 35 yr old pregnant female at 40 weeks gestational age presents with pain and regular uterine contractions every 4-5min . On arrival the patient is in a lot of pain and requesting relief immediately. Her cervix is 5 cm dilated. What is most appropriate method of pain control for this patient | When complete relief of pain is needed throughout labor epidural analgesia is safest and simplest | 993 | medmcqa_train |
Schistosomiasis is an example of - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Meta-zoonoses Zoonoseso Zoonoses are diseases and infections which are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animal and man.o The zoonoses may be classified according to the direction of transmission of disease : -AnthropozoonosesInfection is transmitted to man from lower vertebrate animals.Examples - Rabies, plague, hydatid disease, anthrax, trichinosis,ZoonthroponosesInfection is transmitted from man to lower vertebrate animalsExamples - Human tuberculosis in cattle3. AmphixenosesInfection is maintained in both man and lower vertebrate animals that may be transmitted in either direction.Examples - T. cruzt S. japonicum.Based on the type of life cycle of infecting organism, zoonoses are divided into four categories : -Direct zoonosesTransmitted from an infected vertebrate host to a susceptible vertebrate host by direct contact, by contact with a fomite or by a mechanical vector.The agent itself undergoes little or no propagative changes and no essential developmental change during transmission.Example are - Rabies, Trichinosis, Burcellosis.Cyclo - zoonosesRequire more than one vertebrate host species, but no invertebrate host, in order to complete the developmental cycle of the agent.Example - Taeniasis, echinococcosis (hydatid disease).Meta-zoonosesTransmitted biologically by invertebrate hostIn invertebrate host, the agent multiplies or develop.Examples - Arbovirus infections (e.g., JE, KFD), plague. Schistosomiasis,Sporo - zoonosesThere is non-animal developmental site or reservoir e.g., organic matter (food). Soil and plants.Examples -Larva migrans and some mycoses. | 994 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of hydatid cyst | Puncture - aspiration- injection -reaspiration (PAIR) done percutaneously because it is safe, less invasive, easier to do with low morbidity and moality. Reference: SRB 5th edition page no. 604 | 995 | medmcqa_train |
The structure damaged in the given condition is responsible for all except: | The condition given here is Bell's palsy i.e. LMN (lower motor neuron) lesion of Facial nerve . In this the ipsilateral half of the face is affected. The facial nerve emerges from the pons of the brainstem, controls: Muscles of facial expression, and Carries taste sensations from the anterior two-third of the tongue (chorda tympani branch of facial nerve) Supply lacrimal, nasal and palatal glands secretions greater petrosal nerve. Glossopharyngeal nerve supplies parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland the otic ganglion and cause parotid gland secretion. | 996 | medmcqa_train |
H. pylori has been implicated in all, except | H pylori infection is almost always present in the setting of active chronic gastritis and is present in most patients with duodenal (80% to 95%) and gastric (60% to 90%)ulcers. Most patients with gastric cancer have current or past H. pylori infection.There is also a strong association between mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)lymphoma and H. pylori infection.Sabiston 20e pg: 1223 | 997 | medmcqa_train |
A 41 year old man presented with swelling over parotid area. He has only mild pain. Which is the commonest tumor of the parotid? | Pleomorphic adenomas or benign mixed tumors, are the most common neoplasms of the salivary glands. They represent approximately 60-70% of all parotid tumors and 90% of submandibular benign tumors. These neoplasms affect females more than males and are commonly seen in the third to sixth decades of life. Histologically, pleomorphic adenomas arise from the distal poions of the salivary ducts, including the intercalated ducts and acini. | 998 | medmcqa_train |
Depression is not a side effect of | Answer is option4, flupenthisol. The antidepressive and anxiolytic efficacy of flupenthixol has been investigated in numerous controlled and open trials involving patients with endogenous, reactive as well as senile depressions. When administered at a mean daily single or multiple dose of 1-2 mg, flupenthixol proved to be a very effective and well-tolerated antidepressant. As opposed to some of the currently available antidepressants, flupenthixol has a rapid onset of action which is often displayed within the first 2-3 days following its application. Ref: | 999 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.