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All are associated with EBV except - | EBV causes nadopharyngeal carcinoma,oral hairy luekoplakia&infectious mononucleosis REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.475 | 1,100 | medmcqa_train |
Single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status is | Serum ferritin is the single most sensitive tool for evaluating the iron status.It reflects the size of Iron stores in the body. Values below 10 mcg/L indicate an absence of stored iron.Park 23e pg: 623 | 1,101 | medmcqa_train |
Chandu 32 years male presents with abdominal pain and vomitting. He also complain of some psychiatric symptoms & visual hallucination. Most likely diagnosis is | D i.e. Intermittent porphyria | 1,102 | medmcqa_train |
In ARDS, all are seen except : | Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Aetiology and pathogenesis
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a diffuse neutrophilic alveolitis caused by a range of conditions and characterised by bilateral radiographic infiltrates and hypoxaemia. Activated neutrophils are sequestered into the lungs and capillary permeability is increased, with damage to cells within the alveoli. The pathophysiology is part of the inflammatory spectrum, and the triggers are similar: infective and non-infective inflammatory processes. These processes result in exudation and accumulation of protein-rich cellular fluid within alveoli and the formation of characteristic ‘hyaline membranes’. Local release of cytokines and chemokines by activated macrophages and neutrophils results in progressive recruitment of inflammatory cells. Secondary effects include loss of surfactant and impaired surfactant production. The net effect is alveolar collapse and reduced lung compliance, most marked in dependent regions of the lung (mainly dorsal in supine patients).
The affected airspaces become fluid-filled and can no longer contribute to ventilation, resulting in hypoxaemia (due to increased pulmonary shunt) and hypercapnia (due to inadequate ventilation in some areas of the lung): that is, ventilation–perfusion mismatch.
Reference: : Davidson P R I N C I P L E S and Practice O F M E D I C I N E 23rd edition page no 198 | 1,103 | medmcqa_train |
Population covered by a PHC in hilly region is – | One PHC for every 30,000 rural population in the plains.
One PHC for every 20,000 population in hilly, tribal and backward areas. | 1,104 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following factor determines the destructive power of bullet after firing? | A bullet's ability to injure is directly related to its kinetic energy at the moment of impact. Kinetic energy i.e. E = mv2 /2 The kinetic energy is directly propoional to weight (mass) of the bullet and the square of its velocity. Thus a bullet traveling at twice the speed of a second bullet of equal weight and similar size and shape, possesses four times much energy and injuring power. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 189. | 1,105 | medmcqa_train |
Baroreceptor stimulation producesa) Decreased heart rate & BPb) Increased heart rate & BPc) Increased cardiac contractilityd) Decreased cardiac contractility | Baroreceptors are present in carotid sinus and aortic arch. Increase in BP activates them which results in decrease in the sympathetic discharge. This leads to decrease in cardiac contraction, heart rate and BP. | 1,106 | medmcqa_train |
Dose of vitamin A prophytaxis given in age group 16 years - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 200000 iu | 1,107 | medmcqa_train |
The principle that is the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and the ventral roots are motor is known as - | (B) (Bell Magendie law's) (157 - Ganang 23rd)* Bell Magandie law - In the spinal cord dorsal roots are sensory and ventral roots are motors (DS - VM)* Weber Fachner law - Magnitude of sensation felt in proportionate to the log of intensity of the stimulus**.* Law of pro jection states than no matter where a particular sensory pathway is stimulated along its course to the cortex. The conscious sensation produced is referred to the location of the receptor (eg. Phantom limb).* Within physiological limits, the force of contraction of the ventricular muscle fibers is directly proportional to its initial length i.e. larger the initial length of the cardiac muscle fibers, greater will be the force of contraction of the ventricles. This is known as the Frank Starling Law of the heart.* All or none relationship between the stimulus and the response is called. All or none law, applies to the whole of the functional syncytium in the heart, the unit bring the entire atria or entire ventricle.Points to remember* Arterioles - Resistance vessel, capillaries - exchange vessels, veins - capacitance vessels, main arteries conduct (muscular) arteries.* Windkessel effect is seen in - large elastic vessels- Major reservoir of blood is veins- Highest compliance is seen in veinsa) Neurons of first order - Axon of bipolar cells (in Retina)b) Neurons of second order - Axons of ganglionic cell (Retina i.e. optic disc) optic nerve** (optic chiasma, optic tract).c) Neurons of third order : Axons from nerve cells in lateral geniculate body (optic radiation)* Dorsal root ganglia have - Pseudounipolar.* Neurons in sympathetic ganglia are - Multipolar | 1,108 | medmcqa_train |
Bullet that leaves a visible mark in its flight so that person can see the path is | Tracer bullet: It leaves a visible mark or 'trace' while in flight, so that the path of bullet can be seen . Dum - dum bullet: The nose of the bullet is not covered by jacket & exposed. It expands or mushrooms on striking the target, producing a large hole & more damage. Incendiary bullets: Incendiary bullets contain phosphorus. Type of army bullet used to cause fire in the target. Tandem bullet: Bullets ejected one after the other, when the first bullet having been struck in the barrel fails to leave the barrel and is ejected by a subsequently fired bullet. | 1,109 | medmcqa_train |
Of the following which does not categorise under Rape? Sexual intercourse with : | B i.e. Wife above 20 | 1,110 | medmcqa_train |
Congenital rubella syndrome - true is A/E? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Conduction defect | 1,111 | medmcqa_train |
Mesencephalo-oculo-facial-angiomatosis is seen in: | D i.e. Wyburn-Mason syndrome - Wyburn-Mason syndrome (or Bonnet-Dechaume Blanc syndrome mesencephalo-oculo-facial or mesencephalo-optico retinal angiomatosis syndrome) is characterized by neuro (mesencephalo) - optico / oculo / retinal - facial angiomatosis (vascular-malformations). - Wyburn-Mason syndrome presents with telangiectasia of skinQ (i.e cutaneous vascular nevi) on face + retinal cirsoid aneurysmQ and aerio-venous malformation (AVM) involving the visual pathways and midbrainQ (= entire optic tract = optic nerve, thalamus, geniculate bodies and calcarine coex). The lesions are typically unilateral mostly. It may be a/w AVMs of postrior fossa, neck, mandible/maxilla presenting in childhood. Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome (hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia) is AD neurocutaneous syndrome that result in a variety of systemic fibrovascular dysplasia (i.e. telangiectasia, AVM, AV hemangioma/fistula, and aneurysm) affecting mucous membrane, skin, lung, brain and GI tract-Q. Telangiectasi is primarily found in the skin & mucous membranes. AVM and fistula are found manly in liver > brain > lung > spine. Aneurysm can invovle any size vessel. Frequent bleeding into mucous membrane, skin, lungs, genitourinary and gestrointestinal system is d/ t vascular weakness. Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome (KTS) is angio-osteo-hyperophy i.e. hyperophy of soft tissue & over growth of bone IR abnormalitie of finger/toes /limb and venous varicosities d/t large angiomatous nevus (AVM). Several KTS patients exhibit CNS findings of Sturg-Weber syndrome and are called Klippel-TrenaunayWeber syndrome. They exhibit cutaneous angiomata, soft tissue /bony hyperophy and leptomeningeal vascular malformation. | 1,112 | medmcqa_train |
The following drug has anxiolytic action with least sedation | Features of Buspirone Non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic agentDoes not produce significant sedation or cognitive/functional impairmentDoes not interact with BZD receptor or modify GABAergic transmissionDoes not produce tolerance or physical dependence Does not suppress BZD or barbiturate withdrawal syndrome Has no muscle relaxant or anticonvulsant activity (Refer: KD Tripathi's Essentials of Medical Pharmacology, 7th edition, pg no: 466-467) | 1,113 | medmcqa_train |
Age of gestation when ovaries and testis are first distinguishable : | 8 weeks | 1,114 | medmcqa_train |
The testis descends the inguinal canal during...month. | C i.e. 7th | 1,115 | medmcqa_train |
Index measuring deprivation in basic dimensions of human development | The Human Povey Index (HPI) was considered to better reflect the extent of deprivation to the HDI. In 2010 it was supplanted by the UN&;s Multidimensional Povey Index. | 1,116 | medmcqa_train |
A child with vesicoureteric reflex of grade 2 comes to OPD. What is the
preferred treatment method | Prophalyctatic antibiotics is given to all vesicoureteric reflex pts. | 1,117 | medmcqa_train |
A 60 yr old person presents with a mass located at central bronchus causing distal bronchiectasis and recurrent pneumonia. Which of the following findings is expected from biopsy of the mass? | Ans. (d) Small round cells and hyperchromatic nuclei with nuclear moulding(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 715-717)This typical presentation of 60 yr/M presenting with a mass located at central bronchus causing distal bronchiectasis and recurrent pneumonia is suggestive of small cell Carcinoma.In Small cell Ca lung, location in lungs are most commonly central and usually presents with mass within the bronchus.Light Microscopy feature of Small cell Ca is:Small cells with salt and pepper pattern, hyperchromatic nuclei, Q, nuclear molding Q is prominentBasophilic staining of vascular walls due to encrustation by DNA from necrotic tumor cells (Azzopardi effect) QAbout other options:A. Abundant osteoid matrix formation points towards metastatic Osteosarcoma;B. Contains all three germ layers: is consistent with a Teratoma;C. Spindle cells with abundant stromal matrix is suggestive of Sarcoma; | 1,118 | medmcqa_train |
patient has decreased weight, need for thinness, the diagnosis is | Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Intense fear of becoming fat * Restriction of food intake * Restricting type * Binge eating and purging type * Amenorrhea is not needed for diagnosis, previously amenorrhea is considered as a diagnostic criteria for diagnosis, in recent DSM 5 amenorrhea is considered for a diagnosis * Association= * OCD and depression * Decreased interest in sex * Complication * 7-14% moality * ECG changes * Hypokalemic alkalosis because of induced vomiting * Gastric dilation * Drugs * Cypro hepatidine * SSRI * Management * Admit in severe cases * Prevent vomiting by making restroom inaccessible for 2 hours after food intake * Avoid laxatives * Small frequent meals * Avoid refeeding syndrome Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 509 | 1,119 | medmcqa_train |
All cause viral hepatitis except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Rhinovirus Impoant viruses causing hepatitis:? 1) Hepatotropic viruses : HAV, HBV, HCV, HD V, HEV. 2) Herpes viruses : CMV, EBV, HSV-1, VZV. 3) Flaviviruses : Yellow fever, dengue fever. 4) Filoviruses : Marburg virus, Ebola virus. 5) Occasinal causes Measles virus, adenovirus, Echoviruses, Coxsackieviruses, influenza virus, parvoviruses, reoviruses, mumps virus. | 1,120 | medmcqa_train |
Krukenberg tumor is associated mostly with which cancer? | Krukenberg tumor is a distinctive bilateral tumor metastatic to the ovaries by the transcoelomic spread. The tumor is generally secondary to a gastric carcinoma but other primary sites where mucinous carcinomas occur (e.g. colon, appendix, and breast) may also produce Krukenberg tumor in the ovary. Rarely, a tumor having the pattern of Krukenberg tumor is primary in the ovary.Grossly, Krukenberg tumor forms rounded or kidney-shaped firm large masses in both ovaries. Microscopically, it is characterized by the presence of mucus-filled signet ring cells which may lie singly or in clusters. It is accompanied by a sarcoma-like cellular proliferation of ovarian stroma HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 750 | 1,121 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about Nizatidine except | Nizatidine is a H2 blocker with anticholinesterase activity, thus enhances gastric emptying and can also cause bradycardia. | 1,122 | medmcqa_train |
The Halstead Retain battery involves all except : | In Halstead - Reitan battery test, the battery is composed of ten tests :
Category test.
Tactual performance test.
Rhythm test.
Finger - oscillation test.
Speech-sound perception test.
Trail - making test.
Critical flicker frequency.
Time sense test.
Aphasia screening test.
Sensory - perceptual test. | 1,123 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about post - traumatic stress disorder? | Treatment of choice for PTSD is psychotherapy in the form of cognitive behavior therapy often in combination with pharmacotherapy.
There is no evidence that single - session individual psychological briefing is a useful treatment for PTSD.
Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) is an effective treatment for PTSD.
Symptoms of PTSD develop within 6 months of the stressor, however, 10% patients have delayed onset.
PTSD patients are high risk for alcohol abuse. | 1,124 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following malignancy shows least lymph node involvement: | Ans: c (Glottic cancer) Ref: Dhingra, 3rd ed, p. 372; 4th ed, p. 286No lymphatics in vocal cords so nodal metastasis are practically never seen in cord lesions unless the disease spreads beyond the membraneous cord. SupraglottisGlottisSubglottisSiteEpiglottisAryepiglottic foldArytenoidVentricular bandsVentricles & sacculeTrue vocal cordsAnt.commissurePost.commissureWall of subglottis upto lower border of cricoid cartilageFrequencyLess frequent than glotticMost commonLeast commonNodal metsNodal mets earlyNo lymph node metsNodal mets as common as in supraglottic varietySymptomsOften silent, hoarseness lateHoarsenessStridor | 1,125 | medmcqa_train |
Complex polysaccharides are converted to glucose and absorbed by the help of: | Ans: b (Sucrase) Ref: Vasudevan, 4th ed, p.Sucrase or invert sugar converts sucrose (which is a complex polysaccharide) into 1 molecule of glucose and 1 molecule of fructose.Na+k+ ATPase is a membrane protein.Enterokinase is a brush border enzyme in intestinal mucosa which will activate trypsinogen to trypsin.Proteolytic enzyme are secreted as zymogens which are converted into their active forms in the intestinal lumen. This will prevent the auto digestion of secretory acini. Once activated trypsin activates other molecules.Carboxypeptidase is a proteolytic enzyme present in pancreatic juice. | 1,126 | medmcqa_train |
A 47-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with signs of cavernous sinus thrombosis. Radiographic examination reveals a pituitary tumor involving the cavernous sinus, confirming the initial diagnosis. During physical examination it is suspected that the right abducens nerve of the patient has been damaged by the tumor. In which direction will the physician most likely ask the patient to turn her right eye to confirm the abducens nerve damage, assuming she is unable to perform this task? | (b) Source: GAS 849-852, 855; GA 450, 465, 536The right abducens nerve innervates the right lateral rectus, which mediates outward movement (abduction) of the right eye. Inward movement is accomplished by the medial rectus, supplied by the oculomotor nerve. Downward movement in the midline is accomplished by joint activation of the superior oblique and inferior rectus muscle. Downward movement of the pupil from the adducted position is a function of the superior oblique alone, which is supplied by the trochlear nerve. Down and out motion is mediated by the combined actions of the lateral rectus and inferior rectus, which are innervated by the abducens and oculomotor nerves. Downward movement of the pupil from a forward gaze is a result of combined actions of inferior rectus and superior oblique muscles, supplied by oculomotor and trochlear nerves, respectively. | 1,127 | medmcqa_train |
False about osteoahritis is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., It is an inflammatory ahritis Osteoahritis (OA) is a chronic disorder of synol joints in which there is progressive softening and disintegration of aicular cailage accompanied by new growth of cailage and bone at the joint margins (osteophytes), cyst formation and sclerosis in the subchondral bone, mild synovitis and capsular fibrosis. The term osteoahritis is a misnomer as it is a non-inflammatory condition. The right term is osteoahrosis or degenerative joint disorder because it is a degenerative wear - and - tear process occuring in joints. | 1,128 | medmcqa_train |
Orange-skin cornea results due to: | Ans. Mustard gas | 1,129 | medmcqa_train |
Fracture of the hyoid bone results from all except : | C i.e. Choking - Burking is a method of homicidal smothering and traumatic asphyxiaQ. In smothering lips, gums, tongue, inner side of mouth & nose may show bruising or lacerationQ. Asphyxial signs (eg congestion, cynosis & patechiae) are severe except when the head & face is enclosed in plastic bag. In smothering, choking, gagging, there is no fracture of hyoid bone, because in these throat (neck) is not touched. | 1,130 | medmcqa_train |
Accordian sign is seen in | The 'Accordion sign' (also known as 'conceina sign') is seen on CT examinations of the abdomen Refers to the similarity between the thickened oedematous wall of Pseudomembranous colitis and the folds of an accordion. This appearance is the result of hyperaemic enhancing mucosa stretched over markedly thickened submucosal folds. Also seen when contrast is trapped between oedematous haustral folds and pseudomembranes formed on the luminal surface of the colon. | 1,131 | medmcqa_train |
Melting temperature of DNA is directly proportional to | GC pairs have 3 hydrogen bonds and therefore melt at higher temperature compared to AT pairs which have 2 hydrogen bonds. | 1,132 | medmcqa_train |
Phase 2 of Damage control surgery occurs at | Deadly triad of trauma Following a trauma protracted surgery in physiologically unstable patient, the three factors that carry moality are Hypothermia Acidosis Coagulopathy Hence originated a phenomenon - DAMAGE CONTROL SURGERY Phases of damage control surgery Phase1 :Initial exploration Phase 2: Secondary Resucitation Phase 3: Definitive operation Phase 1(initial exploration) Control of active hemorrhage and contamination Midline incision--4 quadrant packing done GIT perforation done with sutures or staples External drains kept for pancreatic or bile duct injuries Temporary closure of abdomen using plastic sheet known as OPSITE This technique of closure is known as VACPAC or OPSITE SANDWICH Phase 2( secondary resuscitation) Transfer to ICU Ventilatory suppo Correct the deadly triad Hypothermia, acidosis, Coagulopathy Phase 3(definitive treatment) Planned re exploration and definitive surgery Done 48-72 hrs after secondary phase Complex reconstruction must be avoided Ref : Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno: 318-326, 378-380, 426 | 1,133 | medmcqa_train |
Romana's sign is seen in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trypanosoma cruzi Romana's signo The classic finding in acute Chagas disease, which consists of unilateral painless edema of the palpebrae and periocular tissues - can result when the conjunctiva is the portal of entry.o These initial local signs may be follwed by malaise, fever, anorexia, and edema of the face and lower extremities.o Generalized lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly may develop. | 1,134 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly diabetic with excruciating pain in ear, appearance of granulation in meatus, skull base infection with facial paralysis should be treated with | All clinical features are suggestive of malignant otitis externa, an inflammatory condition of the external ear. Malignant otitis externa (also k/a Necrotizing external otitis) Malignant otitis externa is an inflammatory condition of the external ear usually spreading deep to cause osteomyelitis of temporal bone and base of skull. It occurs primarily in immunocompromised persons, especially older persons with diabetes mellitus, and is often initiated by self-inflicted or iatrogenic trauma to the external auditory canal [May also be seen in pts. who received radiotherapy to skull base I The most frequent pathogen is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Others may be S. aureus, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Aspergillus, Actinomyces, and some gram-negative bacterial. One of the hallmarkof malignant otitis externs is granulation tissue in the external auditory canal, especially at the hone-cailage junction. As the infection spreads to the temporal bone, it may extend into the cranium and result in cranial nerve palsies (commonly the facial nerve) Cranial nerve involvement indicates poor prognosis. Death is usually due to intracranial complications such as sigmoid sinus thrombosis. It has high moality rate due to which the name 'malignant' is used for this disease. Treatment Includes correction of immunosuppression (when possible), local treatment of the auditory canal, long-term systemic antibiotic therapy, and in selected patients, surgery. - In all cases, the external ear canal is cleansed and a biopsy specimen of the granulation tissue sent for culture. - IV antibiotics is directed against the offending organism. - For Pseudomonas aeruginosa, the most common pathogen, the regimen involves an antipseudomonal penicillin or cephalosporin (3rd generation-piperacillin or ceftazidime) with an aminoglycoside. A fluoroquinolone antibiotic can be used in place of the aminoglycoside. Ear drops containing antipseudomonal antibiotic e.g. ciproflaxacin plus a glucocoticoid is also used. - Early cases can be managed with oral and otic fluoroquinolones only. - Extensive surgical debridement once an impoant pa of the treatment is now rarely needed. | 1,135 | medmcqa_train |
Digoxin toxicity may result from the concurrent administration of digoxin with all of the following drugs EXCEPT | Triamterene is a potassium-sparing diuretic that may protect against diuretic-induced digoxin toxicity. Digoxin toxicity may be caused by drugs that increase serum digoxin levels or increase the binding of digoxin to its receptor, the sodium-potassium adenosine tn phosphatase (ATPase). Quinidine decreases digoxin volume of distribution and clearance. Verapamil also decreases the clearance of digoxin. Both drugs may
thereby increase serum digoxin levels and precipitate digoxin toxicity. Diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, furosemide) may cause hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia, both of which may predispose to cardiac arrhythmias. Furthermore, hypokalemia increases di-goxin binding to sodium-potassium ATPase. | 1,136 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated along with spironolactone | CONTRAINDICATIONS / PRECAUTIONS Adrenal insufficiency, anuria, diabetes mellitus, hyperkalemia, renal disease, renal failure, renal impairment. ... Acid/base imbalance, metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis. ... Ascites, biliary cirrhosis, hepatic disease. ... Menstrual irregularity. | 1,137 | medmcqa_train |
A 3-year-old male has come for a routine dental check up. Intra-oral examination reveals good oral hygiene and open proximal contacts. During previous dental appointments, he was cooperative. Which radiographic assessment should be done for this patient? | The American Dental Association (ADA), the American Academy for Pediatric Dentistry (AAPD), the European Academy for Pediatric Dentistry (EAPD), and other organizations have published criteria that are meant to guide the dental professional in decision-making regarding appropriate radiographic imaging (Table 2-5). These guidelines clearly state that if the patient cannot cope with the procedure, one should attempt other strategies to handle the situation. The guidelines all acknowledge that, in some cases, radiographs are not possible, in which case, one should balance the benefit against the risk even more carefully. Sometimes it is better to postpone the radiographic exposure until the patient is older or better conditioned. The guidelines also clearly state that if there are no clinical signs of pathology, the need for a radiographic assessment is up to the professional’s judgment, and that these decisions have to be made on an individual patient basis. Radiographs are never to be used for economic and screening reasons since they involve a potential health risk for the patient. A 3-year-old with a sound dentition and open proximal contacts does not need a radiographic assessment. In contrast, for a 3-year-old with only 10 teeth visible in the mouth and no history of dental treatment, the dental professional should make a radiographic assessment. If a 4-year-old shows rampant decay, a radiographic assessment is certainly justifiable and indicated. | 1,138 | medmcqa_train |
First to recover from post-operative ileus: | POST-OPERATIVE ILEUS - Following most abdominal operations or injuries, the motility of GI tract is transiently impaired. - Proposed mechanisms responsible for this dysmotility are surgical stress-induced sympathetic reflexes, inflammatory response mediator release, and anesthetic / analgesic effects; each of which can inhibit intestinal motility. Return of normal motility: small intestineQ (within 24 hours) > Gastric (48 hours)Q>Colonic(3-5 days) Post-operative ileus is most pronounced in colon. - Because small bowel motility is returned before colonic and gastric motility, listening for bowel sounds is not a reliable indicator that ileus has fully resolved. | 1,139 | medmcqa_train |
Watershed zone of large intestine ? | There are areas of colon with poor blood supply resulting from incomplete anastomosis of marginal aeries. These are watershed areas of colon and include :Splenic flexure (Griffith point) : Watershed area between superior mesenteric aery and inferior mesenteric aery.Rectosigmoid junction (Sudeck's point) : Watershed zone between inferior mesenteric aery and internal iliac aery. | 1,140 | medmcqa_train |
Oxidative deamination is catalyzed by ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glutamate dehydrogenase | 1,141 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is indicated by the term 'mittelschmerz'? | The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming what is sometimes called a corpus hemorrhagicum. Minor bleeding from the follicle into the abdominal cavity may cause peritoneal irritation and fleeting lower abdominal pain ("mittelschmerz"). The granulosa and theca cells of the follicle lining promptly begin to proliferate, and the clotted blood is rapidly replaced with yellowish, lipid-rich luteal cells, forming the corpus luteum. Ref: Alford C., Nurudeen S. (2013). Chapter 4. Physiology of Reproduction in Women. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | 1,142 | medmcqa_train |
Best prognostic indicator for head injured patients: AIIMS 10 | Ans. GCS | 1,143 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are cyanotic hea disease except | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1523 Patent ductus aeriosus is not classified as a cyanotic congenital heayh disease. PDA is an acyanotic hea disease with left to right shunt. | 1,144 | medmcqa_train |
Aicular cailage is made up of- | Ans. is `b' i.e., Type H Collegen type Tissue distributionUbiquitous in hard & soft tissuesII & IX Cailage, interveebral disc, vitreousIn Hollow organs & soft tissuesIV Basement membraneV Blood vesselsVI Ubiquitous in microfibrilsVII Dermoepidemal junctionIX Cailage & VitrousNote : Amongst these type I, II, III, V & IX are fibrillary Interstitial collegen, all others are nonfibrillary collegen. | 1,145 | medmcqa_train |
Mechanism of action of the sulfonylureas is | Ans. is 'a' i.e., K ATP channel blocker * Sulfonylurease provoke a brisk release of insulin from pancreas. They act on the so called "Sulfonylurea receptors" (SUR1) on pancreatic b-cell membrane - cause depolarization by reducing conductance of ATP sensitive K+ channels. This enhances influx of Ca+2 - degranulation. They do not cause hypoglycemia in pancreatectomized animals and type 1 diabetes (Presence of at least 30% of functional b-cells in essential for their action). A minor action reducing glucagon secretion by increasing insulin and somatostatin release has been demonstrated. | 1,146 | medmcqa_train |
Lower lobe fibrosis is seen in : | Answer is D (Asbestosis): Lower lobe fibrosis is seen in Asbestosis. Silicosis, Sarcoidosis and Cystic Fibrosis are all associated with Upper Lobe Fibrosis Upper Lobe Fibrosis Fibrotic Disease Old Granulomatous Infection (Tuberculosis; Histoplasmosis; Coccidioidomycosis) Sarcoidosis Silicosis, Berylliosis Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis Ankylosing Spondylitis Radiation Pneumonitis Chronic Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis Airway Disease Cystic Fibrosis Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA) Fibrotic Disease Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis Asbestosis Collagen Vascular Disease (SLE; Systemic Sclerosis; RA) Drugs (Busulphan; Bleomycin; Methotrexate etc.) Airway Disease Chronic Aspiration Basal Bronchiectasis | 1,147 | medmcqa_train |
Which ocular muscle does NOT arises from apex of orbit | D. i.e. Inferior oblique | 1,148 | medmcqa_train |
Ghotna is:- | Ghotna: Rolling a wooden log over the thighs up and down, while the log is weighed by one or two policemen standing on it Cattle prod: Electric shock especially over the genitals Sham execution: Victim is blind folded and asked to stand before a wall and then threatened that a vehicle is going to hit him. He hears the sound of a vehicle very near to him, causing fear and shock. | 1,149 | medmcqa_train |
Epiphyseal enlargement occurs in - | Epiphyseal enlargement
Most common causes of epiphyseal enlargement are chronic inflammation (e.g. JRA) or chronic increase in blood flow. Causes of Epiphyseal enlargement are:-
a) Solitary (Enlargement of particular epiphysis)
Post-inflammatory (JRA, Septic arthritis)
Perthe's disease (in repair stage)
Status post hip dislocation
Hemophilia (Hemophilic arthropathy)
Turner syndrome
Klippel-trenaunay syndrome (angiohypertrophy syndrome)
Kascibach - Merritt syndrome
Beckwith - Wiedemann syndrome (Hemihypertrophy)
Trevor disease (Dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelica)
b) Generalized
Hyperthyroidism
Acromegaly or cerebral gigantism
Adrenogenital syndrome iv) Rickets
Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
McCune-Albright syndrome
Kniest syndrome | 1,150 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of Hodgkin&;s disease - | <p>The ABVD(doxorubicin,vinblastine,bleomycin,dacarbazine) is used in the treatment of Hodgkin&;s disease .Thd incidence of infeility & secondary myelodysplasia /ALL is low with this regime. </p><p>Reference :Davidson&;s principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no 1043 </p> | 1,151 | medmcqa_train |
DOC of GTCS in pregnancy | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lamotrigine | 1,152 | medmcqa_train |
When patient is on isotretinoin therapy, monitoring of which of the following is done | Isotretinoin is indicated in severe nodulo cystic acne vulgaris. It may result in hyperlipidemia, arthralgia and myalgia | 1,153 | medmcqa_train |
If GCS score is 8, head injury is classified as: | Head injury can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe. For patients with a history of head trauma, classification is as follows: severe head injury if the GCS score is 3 to 8, moderate head injury if the GCS score is 9 to 12, and mild head injury if the GCS score is 13 to 15. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 42. | 1,154 | medmcqa_train |
All pencillins act by: September 2007 | Ans. B: Inhibiting cell wall synthesis All penicillin derivatives produce their bacteriocidal effects by inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis. Specifically, the cross linking of peptides on the mucosaccharide chains is prevented. If cell walls are improperly made cell walls allow water to flow into the cell causing it to burst and bacterial lysis occurs. | 1,155 | medmcqa_train |
Cause of Coxa vera ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Coxa vera Coxa vera refers to reduced angle between the neck and shaft of the femur. Coxa vera may be congenital or acquired. 1. Congenital (developmental / Infantile) coxa vera This is coxa vara resulting from some unknown growth anomaly at the upper femoral epiphysis. It is noticed as a painless limp in a child who has just staed walking. In severe cases, shoening of the leg may be obvious. On examination, abduction and internal rotation of the hip are limited and the leg is sho. X - rays will show a reduction in neck - shaft angle. The epiphyseal plate may be too veical. There may be a separate triangle of bone in the inferior poion of the metaphysis, called Fairbank's triangle. Treatment is by a subtrochanteric corrective osteotomy. 2. Aquired coxa - vera Aquired coxa-vera is seen in :- SCFE (slipped capital femoral epiphysis) Sequelae of avascular necrosis of femoral epiphysis Legg-Calve Pehe's disease Femoral neck fracture Traumatic hip dislocation Post reduction of CDH Septic necrosis Associated with pathological bone disorders Osteogenesis imperfecta Fibrous dysplasia Osteopetrosis | 1,156 | medmcqa_train |
Strength of topical ophthalmic preparations of tobramycin is : September 2009 | Ans. A: 3 mg/ml Tobramycin works by binding to a site on the bacterial 30S and 50S ribosome, preventing formation of the 70S complex. As a result, mRNA cannot be translated into protein and cell death ensues. Sterile Tobramycin Ophtha Solution (eye-drops) contains tobramycin concentration of 0.3%. It is mixed with 0.01% benzalkonium chloride as a preservative. This concentrations result in 3 mg per ml. | 1,157 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is given to prevent methotrexate toxicity? | Ans. d (Calcium leucovorin) (Ref. Harrison 18th/ p 476, 607)# Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which regenerates reduced folates from the oxidized folates produced when thymidine monophosphate is formed from deoxyuridine monophosphate.# Without reduced folates, cells die a "thymineless" death.# N-5 tetrahydrofolate or N-5 formyltetrahydrofolate (leucovorin) can bypass this block and rescue cells from methotrexate, which is maintained in cells by polyglutamylation.METHOTREXATE - Side Effects:# In addition to bone marrow suppression and mucosal irritation, methotrexate can cause renal failure itself at high doses owing to crystallization in renal tubules; therefore high-dose regimens REQUIRE ALKALINIZATION OF URINE with increased flow by hydration.6# Less frequent adverse effects include reversible increases in transaminases and hypersensitivity-like pulmonary syndrome.# Chronic low-dose methotrexate can cause hepatic fibrosis.# When administered to the intrathecal space, methotrexate can cause chemical arachnoiditis and CNS dysfunction.# Trimetrexate is a methotrexate derivative that is not polyglutamylated and does not use the reduced folate carrier.# The effects of folate antagonists that inhibit dihydrofolate reductase can be counteracted by folinic acid (5-formyl tetrahydrofolate ) in a dose of 100 to 200 mg/d, which circumvents the block in folate metabolism by providing a form of folate that can be converted to 5,10-methylene THF.Methotrexate(Antimetabolite)# A folic acid analog that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase; decreased dTMP levels hinder DNA and thus protein synthesis# S-phase specificNeoplastic indications: leukemia, lymphomas, breast cancer, choriocarcinomaNonneoplastic indications; rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, termination of pregnancy (e.g., ectopic) Toxicities: suppresses bone marrow reversibly; folinic acid (leucovorin) is used to "rescue"; fatty change in liver | 1,158 | medmcqa_train |
Which drugs are used for prenatal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia? | High risk pregnancies should be staed of Dexamathasone, that readily crosses placenta, in an amount of 20 mu/kg in 2-3 divided doses. This surpasses secretion of steroids by fetal adrenals, including secretion of fetal adrenal androgens. If staed 6 weeks of gestation, it ameliorates virilization of external genitals in affected female fetus. Ref: Kligman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 577, "Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia", In the book, "Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Page 2364 | 1,159 | medmcqa_train |
In Breslau's second life test, organ tested is | D i.e. Stomach & Intestine Breslau's second life (or Stomach Bowel) test says that air will be swallowed & so may pass into stomach & small intestine when respiration establishes. | 1,160 | medmcqa_train |
A person with eyes closed & mind wondering will have the following wave in | (A) a-waves # Alpha Rhythm> In adult humans who are awake but at rest with the mind wandering and the eyes closed, the most prominent component of Ihe EEG is fairly regular pattern of waves at a frequency of 8-12 Hz and an amplitude of 50-100 pV when recorded from the scalp> This pattern is the alpha rhythm.> It is most marked in the parieto-occipital area. | 1,161 | medmcqa_train |
Which drug is used for topical application in respiratory papillomatosis? | Cidofovir Gold standard treatment for respiratory papillomatosis is Laser MLS/ Powered MLS (using microdebrider). Cidofovir is a recent drug which is used intralesionally or topically. Its active metabolite, cidofovir diphosphate, inhibits viral replication by selectively inhibiting viral DNA polymerase. | 1,162 | medmcqa_train |
30 years old lady presented with acute pain abdomen, constipation and vomiting suspecting acute intestinal obstruction. The investigation of choice for the patient is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e. X-ray abdomen erect posture | 1,163 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following reflex is NOT prominent in child at bih? | Tonic neck reflex is prominent between 2nd and 4th months. Persistence of reflex beyond the age of 6-9 months is abnormal. Impoant neonatal reflexes: Sucking, rooting, and swallowing reflexes Grasp reflex Moro's reflex Glabellar tap Crossed extension Ref: Essential paediatrics by OP Ghai, 6th edition, Page 146. | 1,164 | medmcqa_train |
Most potent statin is? | Rosuvastatin - most potent best bioavailability: fluvastatin most commonly prescribed- atorvastatin safe for children- pravastatin Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | 1,165 | medmcqa_train |
Niacin is synthesized from: | The liver can synthesize niacin from the essential amino acid tryptophan, but the synthesis is extremely inefficient; 60 mg of tryptophan are required to make one milligram of niacin. The 5-membered aromatic heterocycle of the essential amino acid, tryptophan, is cleaved and rearranged with the alpha amino group of tryptophan into the 6-membered aromatic heterocycle of niacin. | 1,166 | medmcqa_train |
What is irregular astigmatism- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Non perpendicular principal meridians ASTIGMATISMo Astigmatism is a type of refractive error wherein the refraction varies in the different meridia. Consequently, the rays of light entering in the eye cannot converge to a point focus but form focal lines. The refractive error of the astigmatic eye stems from a difference in degree of curvature refraction of the two different meridians (i.e.,, the eye has different focal point in different planes). For example, the image may be clearly focused on retina in the horizontal plane, but not in the vertical plane.o The most common cause of astigmatism is abnormality of corneal curvature. Other less common causes are lenticular (curvature abnormality of lens,oblique position of lens) and retinal (oblique placement of macula). Types of astigmatismBased on axis of the principal meridiansRegular stigmatism : Principal meridians are perpendicularo With-the-rule astigmatism-the vertical meridian is steepest.o Against-the-rule astigmatism-the horizontal meridian is steepest.o Oblique astigmatism-the steepest curve lies in between 120 and 150 degrees and 30 and 60 degrees.Irregular astigmatism - principal meridians are not perpendicular.Based on focus of the principal meridiansSimple astigmatismo Simple hyperopic astigmatism - first focal line is on retina while the second is located behind the retinao Simple myopic astigmatism - first focal line is in front of the retina while the second is on the retina.Compound astigmatismo Compound hyperopic astigmatism-both focal lines are located behind the retina,o Compound myopic astigmatism-both focal lines are located in front of the retina.Mixed astigmatism-focal lines are on both sides of the retina (straddling the retina).Treatment of Astigmatismo Treatment of astigmatism consists : -Optical treatment: - It consists of cylindrical power spectacles or contact lens. Types of contact lenses used are permeable contact tens, Soft toric contact lens (for high degree astigmatism), hybrid lens, i.e,, soft on hard lens, hard contact lens.Surgical treatment: - Non-laser (astigmatic keratotomy) or laser (PRK, LASIK). | 1,167 | medmcqa_train |
Pterygium all are true except: | Ans. Arise from any pa of conjunctiva | 1,168 | medmcqa_train |
Gradient in pulmonary aery wedge pressure and left ventricular end diastolic pressure is seen in | Answer is C (Left atrial myxoma) An increased gradient during diastole is suggestive of an obstructive lesion between Left atrium and Left ventricle that is not allowing pressures to normalize between the atria and ventricle such as atrial myxoma. Pulmonary aery wedge pressure represents Left atrial pressure. Left ventricular end diastolic pressure represents Left ventricular pressure. Gradient between Left atrial pressure (PCWP) and Left ventricular pressure during diastole: Normally there is no gradient during diastole as both pressures are equal. An increased gradient during diastole is suggestive of an obstructive lesion between Left atrium and Left ventricle that is not allowing pressures to normalize between the atria and ventricle. This may thus be seen in obstructive lesions between Left atria and ventricle such as : Mitral stcnosis Atrial myxomas | 1,169 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following opioid can be given intranasally? | Butorphanol is full agonist at kappa & antagonist at μ receptor that can be given intranasally. | 1,170 | medmcqa_train |
A 55-year-old woman was found to have Ca cervix, FIGO stage 2-3, locally advanced. What would be the management?: | As discussed in detail in preceeding text best for cervical cancer of (stages II B to IV A) is chemoradiation (i.e. chemotherapy and radiotherapy), where by cisplatin is used as a radiosensitiser to increase the sensitivity of the cells to radiotherapy before giving radiotherapy.
Since in this question –chemotherapy + radiotherapy is given as one of the options, hence, we will mark it as the correct option. | 1,171 | medmcqa_train |
What is TRUE about Lovastatin | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Inhibits HMG CoA reductase 'c' i.e., Myositis results from prolonged use 'd' i.e., Decrease synthesis of cholesterol and cause lenticular opacityLovastatin:Mechanism of actionInhibition of HMGCoA reductase Mode of actionDecreased cholesterol synthesis Increased LDL receptors Lipoproteins affectedLDL- DecreasedVLDL- DecreasedTG- DecreasedHDL- IncreasedSite EffectsHepatic dysfunction Severe myositis, | CPK Lens opacities ContraindicationsImpaired renal function andIn combination with Gemfibrozil or Nicotinic acid Risk of myositis is increased in these conditions | 1,172 | medmcqa_train |
Which cancer is most commonly associated with increased estrogen levels? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Breast Important risk factors for breast cancer1) Increased age8) High fat diet2) Female sex9) High socioeconomic status3) Western countries10) Irradiation4) Early menarche11) Hormone replacement therapy5) Late menopause12) Family history positive6) Obesity13) Somatic mutation in p53 gene (in 40% cases)7) Nulliparity * Most of these factors are related to increased exposure of estrogen to breast.* Breast feeding is protective against breast cancer. Thus women who avoid breast cancer are at increased risk to develop breast cancer. Oral contraceptives and smoking do not appear to increase the risk of breast cancer.* 3 most important cancer associated with estrogen are breast, endometrium and uterine.Note - There is also an increased risk of ovarian cancer with long term large dose estrogen therapy, but much less common as compared to breast cancer. | 1,173 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following occupation is a risk factor for this presenting illness? | Ans. (a) A lifeguard in swimming poolCutaneous larva migrans (CLM) is a clinical syndrome consisting of an erythematous migrating linear or serpiginous cutaneous track;It is also called as creeping eruptionsIndividuals at greatest risk include travelers, children, swimmers in lakes, and laborers whose activities bring their skin in contact with contaminated soilLarva migrans:* It is caused by nematodes that usually cause infection to animals* When they accidentally enters humans - it cannot complete the cycle and hence gets arrested in the body causing larva migrans* It is of two types:# Cutaneous larva migrans# Visceral larva migransComparison between Cutaneous and visceral larva migransCutaneous larva migransVisceral larva migrans* Ancylostoma braziliense (M/c)* Toxocara can is* Ancylostoma caninum (second M/c)* Toxocara cati* Necator americanus* Gnathostoma* Ancylostoma duodenale* Anisakis* Gnathostoma spinigerum * Strongloides * Loa loa * Fasciola * Paragonimus * The question is quite a tricky one. A lifeguard in swimming pool has risk comparatively, as poultry has no link with these organisms. Most of the organisms are dog and canines sources. | 1,174 | medmcqa_train |
Vaccination causing intussusception is | Rotavirus vaccination - there is a potentially high risk of intussusception with the first dose when this vaccine is given to infants aged more than 12weeks. Ref: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition. | 1,175 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of urethral stricture is | Urethral stricture CAUSES The common causes of urethral stricture are: * Inflammatory * Secondary to urethritis * Secondary to balanitis xerotica obliterans (BXO) * Traumatic (MC) * Bulbar urethral injury * Pelvic fracture urethral disruption injury * Iatrogenic * Secondary to urethral instrumentation including cath- eterisation and transurethral prostatectomy * Secondary to radical prostatectomy * Secondary to radiotherapy for prostate cancer * Idiopathic CLINICAL FEATURES Symptoms are usually hesitancy of micturition, straining to void and a poor urinary stream. The relative youthfulness of the patient often rules out prostatic enlargement, which characteristically occurs after the age of 50. As the stream becomes narrower, micturition is prolonged and is followed by postmicturition dribbling as a result of urine trickling from the dilated urethra proximal to the stricture. Urinary frequency by day and night is common and is due to incomplete bladder emptying, coexisting detrusor overactivity or urinary infection. If the stricture is tight enough, the patient will go into acute retention, although this is rare. If this happens, there is a danger that clumsy attempts to pass a urethral catheter will result in a false passage. If a patient has gone into retention because of a urethral stricture, its lumen will be too narrow to pass even a tiny catheter and suprapubic catheterisation is required. Investigation involves uroflowmetry, urethroscopy, urethrography and ultrasound scanning to assess bladder emptying and to detect any upper tract dilatation. The urinary flow rate is typically prolonged and plateau shaped while urethroscopy allows the stricture to be viewedas a circumferential scar. Openings of false passages commemorate previous misguided attempts to pass a urethral catheter. Urethrography using a water-soluble contrast medium will show the extent and severity of the stricture Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1482 | 1,176 | medmcqa_train |
Egg on side appearance of heart is seen in the radiograph of? | Ans. (b) TGARef: Sutton 7thed different pages. Pediatrics Radiology: The Requisites by Johan G. Blickman, Bruce R. Parker; M.D. Patrick D. Barnes p-52 | 1,177 | medmcqa_train |
Which amino acid migrates fastest on paper chromatography on methylcellulose medium? | Chromatography paper contains about 15-20% water, held to the paper fibers. This water acts as the stationary phase in paper chromatography. Amino acids are separated according to their solubility in the water and in an organic solvent (the mobile phase) moving up the paper. The most non-polar amino acids migrate the farthest, due to their greater solubility in the organic solvent.
Paper also acts as an adsorbent, having an affinity for polar groups.
Among the given options, Glycine and Valine are non-polar amino acids (hydrophobic). Aspartic acid and Lysine are polar amino acids. Valine is more non-polar than glycine. | 1,178 | medmcqa_train |
An eleven year old boy is having tinea capitis on his scalp. The most appropriate line of treatment is – | Systemic therapy for all dermatophytosis
Terbinafm → DOC
Griseofulvin → 2nd choice
Once the mainstay of systemic therapy for dermatophytic infection, has now replaced by terbinafine. | 1,179 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following metabolic abnormality is seen in multiple myeloma - | Ans: C | 1,180 | medmcqa_train |
IPC 193 is for - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Punishment for perjury Perjury, Hostile witness and false certificate* 191 IPC: (i) Giving false evidence (perjury) under oath and (ii) hostile witness.* 192 IPC: Fabricating false evidence (perjury).* 193 IPC: Punishment for false evidence (punishment for perjury): imprisonment upto 7 years + fine.* 194 IPC: Giving or fabricating false evidence to procure conviction of capital offence.* 195 IPC: Giving or fabricating false evidence to procure conviction of offence punishable with imprisonment for life.* 197 IPC: Issuing or signing (attesting) false certificate by a doctor is a criminal offence.* 201 IPC: Causing disappearance of evidence. | 1,181 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following types of bronchogenic carcinomas are most likely to develop within a residual area of peripheral scar tissue? | Adenocarcinomas are the most common primary lung cancer to develop within an area of peripheral scar. Scar tissue formation may be secondary to previous granulomatous disease (tuberculosis), infarction, or interstitial diseases of the lung associated with fibrosis (e.g., progressive systemic sclerosis). The pathogenesis of scar carcinoma is not completely understood. One theory is that scar tissue blocks lymphatic drainage, causing an increased concentration of anthracotic pigment-containing carcinogens. Persistent hyperplasia of tissue and the potential for a mutation leading to cancer are other mechanisms that may be similar to those of cancers that develop in fistulous tracts draining pus (e.g., chronic osteomyelitis). | 1,182 | medmcqa_train |
Provison of PHC was done by | Ans. is 'a' i.e.,Bhore Committe Bhore CommitteIt is also known as 'Health Survey and Development Committee'. Its recommendations were :1) Integration of preventive and curative services at all administration levels2) Sho term and long term recommendationsSho term : PHC to cater to a population of 40,000Long term (3 million plan) : PHC units to be set up with 75 bedded hospital for each 10,000 to 20,000 population3) Major charger in medical education including 3 months training in social and preventive medicine to prepare 'social physicians'. | 1,183 | medmcqa_train |
What is the most common malignancy affecting spleen | The most common neoplastic tumour is lymphoma(Hodgkin) and the most common benign tumour is a hemangioma, rest like angiosarcoma, secondaries and hamaomas are rare tumours of the spleen. Bailey and love&;s 24 the edition page no. 1091 | 1,184 | medmcqa_train |
A key gluconeogenic amino acid is: | Alanine is a key gluconeogenic amino acid. The rate of hepatic gluconeogenesis from alanine is far higher than from all other amino acids. The capacity of the liver for gluconeogenesis from alanine does not reach saturation until the alanine concentration reaches 20 to 30 times its normal physiologic level.
Ref: Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page no: 289 | 1,185 | medmcqa_train |
NARP syndrome is seen in | NARP syndrome (neuropathy ,ataxia, & retinitis pigmentosa) is a condition related to changes in mitochondrial DNA Refer Harrison 17/316-317 Robbins 8/1328 | 1,186 | medmcqa_train |
Most common post splenectomy infection is: | Pneumococcus | 1,187 | medmcqa_train |
Hand signs of liver cell failure are all except? | The hand manifestations of CLD consist of: Spider naevi (invariably on the upper half of the body), Palmar erythema (mottled redness of the thenar & hypothenar eminences) Dupuytren's contractures Clubbing. | 1,188 | medmcqa_train |
Membranous urethral rupture causes collection of blood in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Deep perineal pouch | 1,189 | medmcqa_train |
Function of peroxisomes is: | Peroxisomes are associated with: Production of peroxides and degradation of peroxides | 1,190 | medmcqa_train |
Protrusion of tongue not possible in damage of ? | Ans. is 'd i.e., Genioglossus | 1,191 | medmcqa_train |
Which disease doesn't require chemoprophylaxis? | Measles prevention is only by immunisation and vaccination. No chemoprophylaxis(Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st Edition page no.136) | 1,192 | medmcqa_train |
Alpha la adrenergic blocker giving symptomatic relief in BPH? | ANSWER: (A) TamsulosinREF: KDT 7th ed p. 135, Goodman Gillman s 11th ed p. 173Tamsulosin:This unselective alpha! ./alpha blocker has been found to be as effective as terazocin for symptomatic control of BPHPrazosin: blocks all subtypes of alpha receptors equally, used for symptomatic control of BPH Terazosin: long acting, more popular for BPH due to single daily dose | 1,193 | medmcqa_train |
True about glycolysis are all except ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Two carbon end product is formed Impoant facts about glycolysis An impoant biochemical significance is the ability of glycolysis to provide ATP in the absence of oxygen (anerobic glycolysis) and allows tissues to survive anoxic episodes. It occurs in cytosol 3 Carbon atoms end product (pyruvate or lactate) is produced. Irreversible steps are catalyzed by : - Glucokinase/Hexokinase, phosphofructohnase-I, and pyruvate kinase. Reversible steps are catalyzed by : - Phosphohexose isomerase, aldolase, phosphotriose isomerase, glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase, Phosphoglycerate kinase, Phosphoglycerate mutase, Enolase. Energy (ATP) using steps are catalyzee by : - Hexokinase/glucokinase, phosphofurctokinase. Energy (ATP) production at substrate level are catalyzed by : Phosphoglycerate kinase, Pyruvate kinase. Reducing equivalent (NADH) production is catalyzed by : Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. Cancer cells derive nutrition from glycolysis as they have lack of 02 supply because of lack of capillary network. Glycolysis (anaerobic glycolysis) is the only metabolic pathway in the body which can provide energy by glucose metabolism in anerobic conditions. | 1,194 | medmcqa_train |
A 68-year-old male is brought to the outpatient by his wife due to increasing forgetfulness. On taking history in details, wife repoed that for around 6 months patient is having trouble in organising the finances and paying bills, something he has done all his life. He has also become withdrawn and has decreased meeting people. The patient also behaved inappropriately with a female neighbour couple of says back, which is much against his usual nature. The patient denies having any problems and seems indifferent to his wife's concern. He has a medical history of hypeension and type 2 diabetes mellitus There is a family history of Alzheimer disease. On MMSE, score came out to be 23. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | The history is suggestive of executive dysfunction (trouble in organising the finances and paying bills), apathy and disinhibition (decreased socialisation and inappropriate behaviour with women), lack of insight (denies having any problem) and memory disturbances. This is suggestive of frontotemporal dementia, in which personality changes are prominent, memory disturbances appear later in frontotemporal dementia. In contrast, in alzheimers disease memory disturbances are prominent early in the disorder and personality changes later. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease which is caused by a prion manifests with rapidly progressive dementia, myoclonus, and cerebellar dysfunction. | 1,195 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the anesthetic agent of choice in a case of status asthmaticus? | Ketamine along with adjunctive therapy is the standard therapy in the treatment of children with status asthmaticus and impending respiratory failure. Ketamine cause bronchodilation through the inhibition of vagal tone, release of endogenous catecholamines and by direct muscle relaxation. | 1,196 | medmcqa_train |
In starvation activities of all of the following enzyme is increased except ? | In starvation activity of all enzymes responsible for gluconeogenesis are increased.
Pyruvate kinase is the enzyme of glycolysis. Activity of enzymes of glycolysis are suppressed in starvation. So pyruvate kinase activity is suppressed in starvation.
All other enzymes given in this question are gluconeogenic
enzyme whose activity is enhanced in starvation. | 1,197 | medmcqa_train |
A 22 year old man had a Beef sandwich and Potato salad. He Vomited 2 hours after the meal. What is the probable diagnosis | Preformed toxin of S. aureus causes nausea within 1-6 hours of ingestion.
Common food associated are: Poultry, potato and egg salad. | 1,198 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an alkaloid | Neostigmine, sold under the brand name Prostigmin among others, is a medication used to treat myasthenia gravis, Ogilvie syndrome, and urinary retention without the presence of a blockage. It is also used together with atropine to end the effects of neuromuscular blocking medication of the non-depolarizing type. Refer 7/105 | 1,199 | medmcqa_train |
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