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All of the following statements are true regarding lipoproteins, EXCEPT:
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LDL receptor are present in all cells most abundant in hepatic cells and adrenal coex. When apo B100 in LDL bind to LDL receptor, receptor-LDL complex is internalized by endocytosis. A deficiency of functional LDL receptors causes a significant elevation in plasma LDL and therefore increase in plama cholesterol. Thus increased blood cholesterol will be associated with a decrease in LDL receptors and not with an increase in the receptors. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry By DM Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Pages 138-40 ; Lippincott Biochemistry, 2nd Edition, Page 215
| 7,100 |
medmcqa_train
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A 12 year old boy presents with recurrent attacks of conjunctivitis for the last 2 years with intense itching and ropy discharge. The diagnosis is:
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Vernal conjunctivitis
| 7,101 |
medmcqa_train
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A Sepsis Wound score includes all except
|
A Sepsis Wound score :
A - Additional treatement
Antibiotics for wound infections.
Drainage of pus under local Anaesthesia.
Debridement of wound under GA.
S - Serous Discharge.
E - Erythema.
P - Purulent Discharge.
S - Separation of deep tissues.
I - Isolation of bacteria from wound.
S - Stay as inpatient prolonged over 14 days.
| 7,102 |
medmcqa_train
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Antepaum hemorrhage occurs after how many weeks :
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28 weeks
| 7,103 |
medmcqa_train
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Treatment of choice of desmoids tumour is:
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Ans. (d) Surgery + Radiotherapy* Role of Radiotherapy in Abdominal wall desmoids is still controversial.* But there are studies showing better results with RT combined with surgery, rather than surgery alone.* So let us opt for both
| 7,104 |
medmcqa_train
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The L or D form of a sugar is determined by its relation to:
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An optical isomer can be named by the spatial configuration of its atoms.The D/L system does this by relating the molecule to glyceraldehyde.Glyceraldehyde is chiral itself, and its two isomers are labeled D and L
| 7,105 |
medmcqa_train
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Vitamin B level in chronic myeloid leukemia is
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Elevated CML there will be rise in B1, level LDH level And decreased levels of ALP.
| 7,106 |
medmcqa_train
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Serial 7 substraction is used to test ?
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Ans. A. Working memorySerial sevens substraction testSerial sevens, counting down from one hundred by sevens, is a clinical test used to test mental function; for example, to help assess mental status after possible head injury or in suspected cases of dementia.This well-known test, in active documented use since at least l944,was adopted as pa of the mini-mental state examination.The test is also used in determining when a patient is becoming unconscious under anaesthetic, for example prior to major dental surgery.
| 7,107 |
medmcqa_train
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Which of the following is false about Wilm's tumor: September 2010
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Ans. C: Spreads mostly by lymphatics Wilms' tumor or nephroblastoma is cancer of the kidneys that typically occurs in children, rarely in adults. The majority (75%) occur in otherwise normal children (1-6 years); a minority (25%) is associated with other developmental abnormalities. It is highly responsive to treatment, with about 90% of patients surviving at least five years. Most nephroblastomas are unilateral, being bilateral in less than 5% of cases. They tend to be encapsulated and vascularized tumors that do not cross the midline of the abdomen. In cases of metastasis it is usually hematogenous and to the lung.
| 7,108 |
medmcqa_train
|
Carriers for Herpes simplex virus is: March 2009
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Ans. A: Man Humans are the only natural hosts and the sources of infection are saliva, skin lesions or respiratory secretions. Asymptomatic carriers form the more impoant source of infection, especially in genital infection.
| 7,109 |
medmcqa_train
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After rupture of middle meningeal aery bleeding occurs in which region -
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Ans is 'b' ie Extradural bleed
| 7,110 |
medmcqa_train
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A 27-year-old woman comes to psychiatrist complaining of sleep difficulty since her breakup a month ago. On exploring fuher she repos difficulty in work, decision making, socializing without his help. Since early age she has struggled with low self-confidence and fears of rejection and abandonment. She appears anxious and sad but brightens easily. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
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Patient's excessive dependency on her boyfriend,indecisiveness, and fear of being alone are suggestive of dependent personality disorder. It is a cluster C PD .Additionally in this patient is uncomfoable when alone.
| 7,111 |
medmcqa_train
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Diencephalon represents
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The diencephalon is the pa of brain between the cerebrum and brainstem.The cavity within it is called third ventricleThe pas of diencephalon are:ThalamusMetathalamusEpithalamusSubthalamusHypothalamus(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy Second Edition pg -123)
| 7,112 |
medmcqa_train
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A 65-year-old male patient complains of loss of libido and is found to have a low free and total testosterone level. Treatment is commenced with testosterone supplemental therapy. What is the next step in management after testosterone administration?
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PSA levels can increase because both benign and malignant prostatic tissue are sensitive to testosterone (hormonal) therapy. There is increased prostatic growth with elevation of PSA and possible polycythemia.
| 7,113 |
medmcqa_train
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Naegler's reaction is due to:
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Ans. is. 'c' i. e. Lecithinase
| 7,114 |
medmcqa_train
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All form boundaries of triangle of auscultation except
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Ans. is 'd' i.e., Rhomboid major Triangle of auscultation has the following boundaries Superiorly and medially, by the inferior poion of the Trapezius. Inferiorly, by the Latissimus Dorsi. Laterally, by the medial border of the scapula. The superficial floor of the triangle is formed by the Serratus anterior and the lateral poion of the erector spinae muscles. Deep to these muscles are the osseous poions of the 6" and 7th ribs and the internal and external intercostal muscles. Typically, the Triangle of Auscultation is covered by the Scapula. To better expose the triangle and listen to respiratory sounds with a stethoscope, patients are asked to fold their arms across their chest, medially rotating the scapulae, while bending forward at the trunk, somewhat resembling a fetal position.
| 7,115 |
medmcqa_train
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Cholinomimetic drugs can be used for treatment of all of the following conditions except
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Refer kDT 6/e p 104 Cholinomimetic drugs can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect and this cannot be used for the treatment
| 7,116 |
medmcqa_train
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All of the following are risk factors for thoracic aoic aneurysm (TAA) rupture except:
|
TAAs are those occurring distal to the left subclan vein. The risk for rupture is increased with : Increasing aneurysm size Advanced age History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Concurrent dissection. Anticoagulation is not a risk factor for rupture.
| 7,117 |
medmcqa_train
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Acute angled septate hyphae are seen in -
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., .Aspergillus o Septate hyphae with acute branching-Aspergilluso Non septate hyphae with obtuse branching-Rhizopus/mucoro Septate hyphae with dichotomous branching into two equal divisons at a regular angle of 45deg are typical of Aspergillus.o Mucor and rhizopus are non-septate (aseptate) and penicillium has no hyphae (It is yeast like fungus).
| 7,118 |
medmcqa_train
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Comment on the site of damage for a patient exhibiting the following symptom?
|
Past pointing and intentional tremors- Lesion of neo-cerebellum. Archicerebellum lesion-Truncal ataxia. Damage to Substantia nigra -Parkinsonism- Resting tremor is seen.
| 7,119 |
medmcqa_train
|
The most common postoperative psychiatric condition is:
|
Delirium
| 7,120 |
medmcqa_train
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Prelabour pains are mediated through
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T11-T12 Pain pathways during labour The pain of labour arises from - Contraction of myometrium, against the resistance of cervix and perineum - Progressive dilatation of the cervix and lower uterine segment - Stretching and compression of pelvic and perineal structures Pain during the, first stage of labour is mostly visceral pain resulting from uterine contractions and cervical dilatation. It is usually confined to the T11-T12 dermatomes during the latent phase but eventually involves the TIO-LI dermatomes as the labour enters the the active phase. The visceral afferent fibres responsible for labour pain travel with sympathetic nerve.fibres.first to the uterine and cervical plexes then through the hypogastric and aoic plexes before entering the spinal cord with the T10-L1 nerve roots. The onset of perineal pain at the end of fist stage signals the beginning of the fetal descent and the second stage of labour. Stretching and compression of pelvic and perineal structures intensify the pain. Sensory innervations of the perineum is provided by the pudendal nerve (S2-S4) so pain during the second stage of labour involves the T10-S4 dermatosomes.
| 7,121 |
medmcqa_train
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Purkinje cells of cerebellum are connected to
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Purkinje cells are flask-shaped cells in the molecular layer of cerebellum. The entire output of the cerebellar coex is through axons of the Purkinje cells.Basket cells, stellate cells, granule cells and intracerebellar nuclei except flocculonodular lobe synapses with Purkinje cells.(Ref: vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 115)
| 7,122 |
medmcqa_train
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Mechanism of action of zeulton is?
|
ANSWER: (B) Inhibits LipoxygenaseREF: Goodman and Gillman s 11th ed page 479LEUKOTRIENE-SYNTHESIS INHIBITORS:The formation of leukotrienes depends on lip oxygenation of arachidonic acid by 5-lipoxygenase. Zileuton is a potent and selective inhibitor of 5-lipoxygenase activity and thus blocks the formation of all 5-lipoxygenase products. Thus, in addition to inhibiting the formation of the cys-LTs, zileuton also inhibits the formation of leukotriene B4 (LTB4), a potent chemotactic autacoidf and other eicosanoids that depend on leukotriene A4 (LTA4) synthesis.Logically, the therapeutic effects of a 5-lipoxygenase inhibitor would include all those observed with the CysLT-receptor antagonists, as well as other effects that may result from inhibiting the formation of LTB4 and other 5-lipoxygenase products.
| 7,123 |
medmcqa_train
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Hamaoma is
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Ref Robbins 8/e p262;7/e p272; 9/e p267 Hamaomatous Polyps Hamaomatous polyps occur sporadically and as compo- nents of various genetically determined or acquired syn- dromes (Table 14-6). As described previously, hamaomas are disorganized, tumor-like growths composed of mature cell types normally present at the site at which the polyp develops. Hamaomatous polyposis syndromes are rare, but they are impoant to recognize because of associated intestinal and extraintestinal manifestations and the need to screen family members. Juvenile Polyps Juvenile polyps are the most common type of hamaoma- tous polyp. They may be sporadic or syndromic. In adults, the sporadic form sometimes is also referred to as an inflam- matory polyp, paicularly when dense inflammatory infil- trates are present. The vast majority of juvenile polyps occur in children younger than 5 years of age. Juvenile polyps characteristically are located in the rectum, and most manifest with rectal bleeding. In some cases, prolapse occurs and the polyp protrudes through the anal sphincter. Sporadic juvenile polyps are usually solitary but in persons with the autosomal dominant syndrome of juvenile pol- yposis the number varies from 3 to as many as 100. Colec- tomy may be required to limit the hemorrhage associated with polyp ulceration in juvenile polyposis. Dysplasia occurs in a small propoion of (mostly syndrome- associated) juvenile polyps, and the juvenile polyposis syn- drome is associated with increased risk for the development of colonic adenocarcinoma. hamaomatous polyps and mucocutaneous hyperpigA mentation that carries an increased risk of several malig- nancies, including cancers of the colon, pancreas, breast, lung, ovaries, uterus, and testes, as well as other unusual neoplasms. Germ line heterozygous loss-of-function muta- tions in the gene LKB1/STK11 are present in approximately half of the patients with the familial form of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, as well as a subset of patients with the sporadic form. Intestinal polyps are most common in the small intestine, although they may also occur in the stomach and colon and, rarely, in the bladder and lungs. On gross evaluation, the polyps are large and pedunculated with a lobulated contour. Histologic examination demonstrates a characteristic arborizing network of connective tissue, smooth muscle, lamina propria, and glands lined by normal-appearing intestinal epithelium (Fig. 14-31, B
| 7,124 |
medmcqa_train
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Which of the following organism is most commonly associated with urinary tract infection in Healthcare facility?
|
Different type of such healthcare infection and their most common causative organism:-
| 7,125 |
medmcqa_train
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Most common paroxysmal symptom of pheochromocytoma:
|
Answer is A (Headache): The single most common paroxysmal symptom repoed in patients with pheochromocytoma is headache 'Most adult patients have paroxysmal symptoms, lasting minutes to hours, consisting of headache (80%), perspiration (70%), and palpitations (60%)' - Endocrine Tumors (PMPH-USA, 2003)/ 104 The three most commonly repoed paroxysmal symptoms in pheochromocytoma are Headache, Palpitations and Excessive or inappropriate sweating. Almost all patients will have one of three symptoms above and most will have at least two. The most common and predominant sign of Pheochromocytoma is Hypeension
| 7,126 |
medmcqa_train
|
False statement regarding HCG is:
|
The HCG secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast of the placenta is released into both the fetal and maternal circulation. Ref: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (Hgc) By Larry Cole, 2010, Page 20 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C.Dutta, 5th Edition, Page 59
| 7,127 |
medmcqa_train
|
Squamous cell carcinoma spreads commonly ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lymphatic spread Spread of carcinoma Commonly by lymphatics o Spread of sarcoma --> Commonly hematogenous
| 7,128 |
medmcqa_train
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Which of the following is true of cholera-
|
Vibrio causes secretory diarrhea.
About Other options:
Recent epidemics are due to O1 ElTor and also O139 serovar. (Classical still exists and few cases were reported from Bangladesh)
Vibriocidal antibodies in serum (titer 1:20) have been associated with protection against colonization and disease. …………… Jawetz 25/e p237
Endotoxin (LPS) does not play any role in pathogenicity of cholera but is responsible for immunity developed by killed vaccine.
| 7,129 |
medmcqa_train
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Lens develops from: September 2012
|
Ans. D i.e. Surface ectoderm Embryology of eyeball Structures derived from mesoderm: Corneal stroma & endothelium, Only smooth muscles of iris, All muscles (EXCEPT iris muscle) Structures derived from surface ectoderm: Conjunctival epithelium, Lens Structures derived from neuroectoderm: Epithelium of iris & ciliary body, Muscles of iris (constrictor & dilator pupillae)
| 7,130 |
medmcqa_train
|
Good prognosis in schizophrenia is indicated by -
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Affective symptoms o Presence of depression (affective symptom) is a good prognostic factor.PROGNOSTIC FACTORS FOR SCHIZOPHRENIAGood Prognostic FactorsPoor Prognostic Factorsl. Acute or abrupt onset1. Insidious onset2. Onset > 35 years of age (late onset)2. Onset < 20 years of age (early onset )3. Presence of precipitating stressor3. Absence of stressor4. Good premorbid adjustment4. Poor premorbid adjustment5. Catatonic subtype (Paranoid subtype has an intermediate prognosis)5. Disorganized, simple, undifferentiated, or chronic catatonic subtypes6. Short duration (< 6 months)6. Chronic course (> 2 years)7. Presence of depression7. Absence of depression8. Predominance of positive symptoms8. Predominance of negative symptoms9. Family history of mood disorder9. Family history of schizophrenia10. First episode10. Past history of schizophrenia11. Pyknic (fat) physique11. Asthenic (thin) physique12. Female sex12. Male sex13. Married13. Single, divorcedGood social supportPoor social supportPresence of confusion, perplexity, or disorientation in the acute phaseFlat or blunted affect16. Proper treatment, good treatment compliance, and good response to treatment16. Absence of proper treatment or poor response to treatment17. Outpatient treatment17. Institutionalization (long term hospitalization)18. Normal cranial CT scan18. Evidence of ventricular enlargement on cranial CT scan
| 7,131 |
medmcqa_train
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In twin pregnancy, Vaginal delivery is contraindicated in
|
Monoamniotic twins are at a great risk of developing cord accidents like entanglement which can lead to sudden fetal death. Therefore all monoamniotic twins have to be delivered by a Cesarean sections between 32-34 weeks , after ensuring lung maturation
| 7,132 |
medmcqa_train
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Duration of T.I.A (Transient Ischemic Attacks) is less than?
|
The standard definition of TIA requires that all neurologic signs and symptoms resolve within 24 hours regardless of whether there is imaging evidence of new permanent brain injury. Stroke has occurred if the neurologic signs and symptoms last for >24 hours.
| 7,133 |
medmcqa_train
|
Increased LH secretion just before ovulation is due to
|
Luteinizing hormone (LH) a gonadotropin of the anterior pituitary gland, acting with follicle-stimulating hormone to cause ovulation of mature follicles and secretion of estrogen by thecal and granulosa cells of the ovary; it is also concerned with corpus luteum formation. In the male, it stimulates development of the interstitial cells of the testes and their secretion of testosterone. Called also interstitial cell-stimulating hormone.LH peak is a positive feedback mechanism from estradiol. The levels keep rising through the follicular phase and when they reach an unknown threshold, this results in the peak of the LH. This effect is opposite from the usual negative feedback mechanism presented at lower levels. In other words, the mechanism(s) are not yet clear. The increase in LH production only lasts for 24 to 48 hours. This "LH surge" triggers ovulation, thereby not only releasing the egg from the follicle but also initiating the conversion of the residual follicle into a corpus luteum that, in turn, produces progesterone to prepare the endometrium for a possible implantation. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-407
| 7,134 |
medmcqa_train
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The median of values 2, 5, 7, 10, 10, 13, 25 ?
|
Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10
| 7,135 |
medmcqa_train
|
Salicylate intoxication is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
|
Salicylate intoxication is associated with hypehermia and not hypothermia, as the drug causes uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, resulting in increased metabolism. Mild chronic salicylate intoxication is called salicylism. When fully developed, the syndrome includes headache, dizziness, tinnitus, difficulty hearing, dimness of vision, mental confusion, lassitude, drowsiness, sweating, thirst, hyperventilation, nausea, vomiting, and occasionally diarrhea. Ref: Grosser T., Smyth E. (2011). Chapter 34. Anti-inflammatory, Antipyretic, and Analgesic Agents; Pharmacotherapy of Gout. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e.
| 7,136 |
medmcqa_train
|
Which muscle causes opening of the upper end of esophagus?
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cricopharyngeus of inferior constrictor Upper esophageal sphinctor* The upper esophageal sphincter surrounds the upper part of the esophagus.* It consists of skeletal muscle, but is not under voluntary control.* Opening of the upper esophageal sphincter is triggered by the swallowing reflex.* The primary muscle of the upper esophageal sphincter is the cricopharyngeal part of the inferior pharyngeal constrictor.
| 7,137 |
medmcqa_train
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Which of the following is the ego-expansion of JSY?
|
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY)
• Launched on 12th April 2005
• It is a ‘modification of National Maternity Benefit Scheme
• Objectives of JSY: Reduction of maternal mortality and infant mortality (through institutional deliveries and care especially for poor women.)
| 7,138 |
medmcqa_train
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Drug used in refractory glaucoma ?
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Alpha agonist Drug of choice for initial treatment of open angle glaucoma is either an topical b-blocker or topical PG analogue (latanoprost) It target IOT is not attained either change over to alternative drug or use both concurrently. In refractory cases (who are not responding to (3-blockers and PG analogues), topical a-agonist (Brimozidine) or topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (dorazolamide) is added. It target IOT is still not attained, laser trabeculoplasty is considered.
| 7,139 |
medmcqa_train
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A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm 1st hr. Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dL, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dL, alkaline phosphate 28 KA units and blood urea 32 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case-
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyperparathyroidism o You can solve the question just looking at calcium value. Amongst the given options only hyperparathyroidism causes hypercalcemia. The patient in question has an increased serum Ca', decreased serum phosphorus and increased values of alkaline phosphatase, all of which characterize hyperparathyroidism.
| 7,140 |
medmcqa_train
|
'Safe zone' of the eye ball is:
|
Ans. 8-9 mm behind the limbus
| 7,141 |
medmcqa_train
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Peutz Jeghers syndrome-all are true EXCEPT:March 2013
|
Ans. C i.e. Radiotherapy is the treatment of choict.
| 7,142 |
medmcqa_train
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A 45 year old male had multiple hypoaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is –
|
This patient has:-
Multiple lesions
Hypoesthetic
Bilateral symmetrical nerve thickening
These favour lepromatous end of the spectrum.
Now question arises, whether it is BL or LL.
Point two (Hypoesthetic) differentiates the two:-
Sensations
IL : Hypoesthetic or Normoesthetic
TT : Anesthetic
BT : Hypoesthetic sometimes anaesthetic
BB : Hypoesthetic
BL : Hypoesthetic
LL : Normoesthetic Late glove & stocking anaesthetic
| 7,143 |
medmcqa_train
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True of poisonous snakes are all, except: Delhi 06
|
Ans. Belly scales are small
| 7,144 |
medmcqa_train
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In Abetaltipoproteinemia result in absence of:
|
A i.e. Chylomicron, B i.e. LDL, C i.e. VLDLAbetalipoproteinemia: is a rare autosomal recessive disease due to defective synthesis or secretion of apo BQ & leads to absent or low level of chylomicrons, VLDL and LDLQ. [Apo protein B is major component of chylomicron (B-48), VLDL & LDL (B- 100)1
| 7,145 |
medmcqa_train
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The secondary attack rate of measles is more than mumps. What is the conclusion?
|
Ans. c (Measles is more infectious than mumps). (Ref: Park PSM 22nd/pg. 58, 96)SECONDARY ATTACK RATE# It is defined as "the number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of IP, following exposure to primary case"SAR =Number of exposed persons developing the disease within the range of IP------------------------------------------Total number of exposed/wsusceptible" contactsx 100# The primary case is excluded from both the numerator and denominator.# Case fatality rate is a measure of "killing power" of a disease.
| 7,146 |
medmcqa_train
|
Most common primary leading to secondaries in pancreas:
|
Ans. (a) LungRef: Blumgart 5/e p 930-933* Secondary deposits in Pancreas is mc from Renal cell cancer (But on Postmortem studies- Lung cancer has been the topmost to produce secondary to pancreas)
| 7,147 |
medmcqa_train
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Most common nerve injury associated with thyroid surgery
|
.The external branch of the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) is at risk of injury during thyroid operations when dissection of the superior pole and ligation of the superior thyroid vessels (STV) are carried out. From that perspective, EBSLN injury poses a threat to handicap all patients undergoing thyroid operations. ref Robbins 9/e pg 345
| 7,148 |
medmcqa_train
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Water is used for hardening in -
|
Water of crystallization is used in Baralime and silica is used in sodalime
| 7,149 |
medmcqa_train
|
In tumour lysis syndrome all of the following are seen EXCEPT:
|
. Hypercalcemia
| 7,150 |
medmcqa_train
|
Which of the following most strongly suggests the diagnosis of primary hyperparathyrodism?
|
Diagnostic criteria for primary hyperparathyroidism and its surgery Ref - semantischolar.org
| 7,151 |
medmcqa_train
|
Damage to lower pons, leaving upper pons intact, will result in:
|
Damage to lower pons will damage the apneustic center. This center was causing the breathing to be slow and deep. Upper pons has pneumotaxic center. It causes the breathing to be rapid and shallow. Since this center is intact (and apneustic is damaged), breathing will become shallow and rapid.
| 7,152 |
medmcqa_train
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Pagets disease increases the risk of
|
Osteosarcoma Osteosarcomas are bulky tumors that are gritty, gray-white, and often contain areas of hemorrhage and cystic degeneration (Fig. 26-24). The tumors frequently destroy the surrounding coices and produce soft tissue masses. They spread exten- sively in the medullary canal, infiltrating and replacing hemato- poietic marrow. Infrequently, they penetrate the epiphyseal plate or enter the joint. When joint invasion occurs, the tumor grows into it along tendoligamentous structures
| 7,153 |
medmcqa_train
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Mechanism of action on ondensetron -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 5HT3 antagonist Ondansetron* It is the prototype of a distinct class of antiemetic drugs developed to control cancer chemotherapy/radiotherapy induced vomiting, and later found to be highly effective in PONV and disease/drug associated vomiting as well.* It blocks the depolarizing action of 5-HT exerted through 5-HT3 receptors on vagal afferents in the g.i.t. as well as in NTS and CTZ.* Cytotoxic drugs/radiation produce nausea and vomiting by causing cellular damage release of mediators including 5-HT from intestinal mucosa activation of vagal afferents in the gut emetogenic impulses to the NTS and CTZ. Ondansetron blocks emetogenic impulses both at their peripheral origin and their central relay.* It does not block dopamine receptors.* Apomorphine or motion sickness induced vomiting is not suppressed.* A weak gastrokinetic action due to 5-HT3 blockade has been detected, but this is clinically insignificant.* A minor 5-HT4 antagonistic action has also been shown, but seems to have no clinical relevance.
| 7,154 |
medmcqa_train
|
DOC for Tenia Ungum
|
C i.e. Griseofulvin
| 7,155 |
medmcqa_train
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Mechanism of action of statins:
|
Ref: KDT 6th ed. pg. 614* HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors (statins): This class of compound is the most efficacious and best tolerated hypolipidaemic drugs.* MOA: Competitively inhibit conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate by the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase.* Drugs (Statins): Lovastatin, Simvastatin, Pravstatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin* All statins are given at night except: Rosuvastatin, Atorvastain (can be given at anytime)* Major side effects of statins: Myopathy* Most potent statin: Pitavastain
| 7,156 |
medmcqa_train
|
HU units value of bone -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., +1000 SubstanceHU unitsWaterDense cortical boneSoft tissueFatLung tissueAir0+ 1000 (+400 to + 1000)+ 40 to + 80- 60 to -100- 400 to -600- 1000
| 7,157 |
medmcqa_train
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What is histological appearance of vaginal mucosa ?
|
The vagina is a muscular tube. The lining epithelium is stratified squamous. Underneath the epithelium is a layer of lamina propria, which is rich in elastic fibres, and does not have any glands. Under the lamina propria layer is a layer of smooth muscle, which has an inner circular and outer longitudinal layer. Finally, there is an adventitial layer, which merges with that of the bladder (anteriorly) and rectum (posteriorly). ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg
| 7,158 |
medmcqa_train
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The influence of maternal smoking and LBW incidence is studied. Detailed smoking history is taken at first AN visit and smoking history and bih weight were studied later. The type of study is-
|
prospective coho studies is one which the outcome has not yet occurred at the time the investigation begins.most prospective studies begin in the present and continue into future. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 73
| 7,159 |
medmcqa_train
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Snellen's cha is used to test:
|
Ans. Vision
| 7,160 |
medmcqa_train
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Site of b-oxidation is ?
|
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mitochondria
| 7,161 |
medmcqa_train
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About H. Influenza all true except aEUR'
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Capsular polypeptide protein is responsible for virulence Hemophilus Infl uenzae Hemophilus influenzae is a grain negative rod. The name hemophilus influenzae shows some of its features. Hemophilus means "blood loving" This organism requires blood containing medium.for growth H. influenzae requires 2 erythrocyte factors for growth. Factor X hemin --> It is required, for synthesis of cytochrome Factor V nicotinanti- --> It is essential for oxidation de adenine dinucleotide reduction In the laboratory it is usually grown on chocolate blood agar which is prepared by adding blood to an agar base at 80degC. The heat releases X and V factors from the RBC and turn the medium a chocolate brown colour. Pathogenesis :? The pathogenesis of H. influenzae infection is not completely understood although the presence of type B polysaccharids capsule is known to be the major factor in virulence. H. influenzae does not secrete any exotoxins, the polysaccharide capsule is considered to be the major factor in virulence. -There are "6" types of capsule designated a, b, c, d, e and f of these type "b" is conunonly associated with invasive Hemophilus influaenzae disease in children. The polysaccharide capsule of type 'b' strain is composed of ribose ribitol and phosphate "(PRP)" capsule and is the proven determinance of virulence. The "PRP capsule" exes its effect in the following way :? It is antiphagocytic It does not induce the alternative complement pathway This allows the bacterium to invade the blood or cerebrospinal .fluid without attracting phagocytes or provoking an inflammatory response and complement mediated bacteriolysis. For this reason anticapsular antibody which promotes both phagocytosis and lysis of bacteria is the main factor in immune defense against H. influenzae infection. Non typable or nonencapsulated strains of bacteria are less virulent. They lack the invasiveness of their capsulated strains and can only cause local reactions. They frequently cause otitis media in children as well as respiratory disease in adults weakned by preexisting lung disease such as chronic bronchitis from smoking or recent viral influenza infection. Hemophilus influenzae is associated with two types of infection -Invasive infections - Non invasive infections Host defenses Host defenses include the :- - Activation of the alternative and classical complement pathways and - Antibodies to the PRP capsule H. influenzae is susceptible to lysis by antibody and complement. Antibodies to the Hib capsule plays the primary role in conferring immunity against H. influenzae. These bactericidal antibody directed against PRP capsule of H. influenzae type h is entirely responsible for host resistance. Newborns have low risk of infection The mother possesses antibodies against the "b" capsule which she has acquired in her life time. She passes these antibodies to the fetus transplacentally and in her breast milk. These passively acquired antibodies last for about 6 months as a result infants are immune to H Influenzae infections. When these transplacental antibodies to the capsule wane infants are at high risk for developing invasive H. influenzae disease. It takes 3-5 years of hemophilus influenzae colonization and infection for children to develop their own antibodies. So there is a "window" during which children are prone to be infected with hemophilus influenzae.
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In a case of chest pain with pericarditis and pericardial effussion, pain is referred by?
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Phrenic nerveThe pericardium is composed of two layers.The tough external layer, the fibrous pericardium. The parietal layer of serous pericardium is attached to its internal surface. The visceral layer of serous pericardium is fused to the hea.The fibrous and parietal pericardia are supplied by the phrenic nerve (C3-05). They are sensitive to pain.The visceral pericardium or epicardium is supplied by autonomic nerves, not sensitive to pain.
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A 60 yrs old male comes to casualty with acute retention of urine since 12 hrs. On examination there was distended bladder. His wife gives a history of taking some drug by the patient since 2 days as he is suffering from depression. The most likely drug is:
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Anticholinergic effects of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are most common. These effects result in dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, blurred vision, and confusion. They are more common with teiary amine TCAs such as amitriptyline and imipramine than with the secondary amine TCAs desipramine and noriptyline. The potent alpha blocking propey of TCAs often results in ohostatic hypotension. H1 antagonism by the TCAs is associated with weight gain and sedation. The TCAs are class 1A antiarrhythmic agents and are arrhythmogenic at higher doses. Sexual effects are common, paicularly with highly serotonergic TCAs such as clomipramine. The TCAs have a prominent discontinuation syndrome characterized by cholinergic rebound and flulike symptoms. Ref: DeBattista C. (2012). Chapter 30. Antidepressant Agents. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e.
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Root value of intercostobrachial nerve is
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The intercostobrachial nerve is a lateral cutaneous branch of the second intercostal nerve that supplies sensation to the skin of the Axilla . It leaves the second intercostal space at the midaxillary line and subsequently pierces the serratus anterior muscle to enter the subcutaneous tissues of the axilla. The nerve may be injured during axillary surgery such as nodal clearance for breast cancer The anterior divisions of the second, third, fouh, fifth, and sixth thoracic nerves, and the small branch from the first thoracic, are confined to the walls of the thorax, and are named thoracic intercostal nerves respectively . They pass forward in the intercostal spaces below the intercostal vessels. At the back of the chest they lie between the pleura and the posterior intercostal membranes, but soon they run between the internal intercostals and the innermost intercostals then anteriorly they lie between the pleura and the internal intercostals . Ref - radiology assistant.com
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What is the most probable diagnosis in this neonate shown below?
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a. Infant of diabetic mother(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 898-899)Large for date baby with hairy pinna suggests a diagnosis of Infant of diabetic mother.
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True about boundaries of inguinal canal are all, EXCEPT:
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Conjoint tendon is formed by the condensation of fibers of internal oblique and transverse abdominis. It forms the posterior wall of inguinal canal.Boundaries of inguinal canal:Anterior wall of inguinal canalis made up of external oblique aponeurosis with some fibers of internal oblique which attach to lateral pa of inguinal ligament.Posterior wall is formed from transversalis facia, except medially where the conjoint tendon from transversus abdominis intervenes.Inferior wall (floor) is formed from the inguinal ligament as it turns inward, and it is composed medially of lacunar ligament.Roof consist of lowermost fibers of internal oblique and transversus abdominis as they arch over the canal to join together as conjoined tendon.
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Which of the following is the investigation of choice for assessment of depth of penetration and perirectal node involvement in rectal cancer?
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Investigations for rectal carcinoma: For Diagnosis: Best diagnosed by sigmoidoscopy (rigid not flexible) and biopsy of tumour Barium enema For Staging: TRUS (transrectal ultrasonography) CT MRI TRUS (Transrectal Ultrasonography) The depth of the tumour invasion can be accurately determined by TRUS, but it cannot detect cancer metastasis in lymph nodes (though it can detect enlarged lymph nodes, but it cannot predict if- cancer infiltration is present or not). CT Scan CT scan is also helpful for cancer extension, but again CT scan also cannot tell clearly about node invasion by cancer cell. MRI Scan It has become the most useful investigation tool (specially with the use of transrectal coils) for rectal carcinoma. It can very well predict the invasion of tumour in rectum as well as lymph node invasion with high accuracy. Ref: Maingot's 11/e, Page 701.
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"White plague" is
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In 1700s,TB was called "White Plague" due to the Paleness of Patients. Ref: Pg No: 317, IAPSM Textbook of Community Medicine
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Upon contact between the sperm head and the zona pellucida, penetration of the sperm into the egg is allowed because of:
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Ans. A. The acrosome reactionThe acrosome reaction causes a fusion of the plasma membrane and the acrosomal membrane of the sperm, with subsequent release of proteolytic enzymes that help the sperm enter the ovum. The zona reaction and Pro nuclei formation occur after the sperm has entered the ovum. Sperm enter the perivitelline space after penetration; there is no evidence that this space has any role in penetration. Cumulus expansion assists in movement of the sperm through the mass of granulosa cells for the sperm to get to the surface of the zona pellucida. However, the cumulus cells do not assist in actual penetration of the zona.
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QRS complex is due to -
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Ans. is "d" i.e., Ventricular depolarization Event of ECGCauseP-waveAtrial depolarizationQRS complexVentricular depolarizationTwaveVentricular repolarizationPR intervalRepresents time taken by impulse to travel from SA node to ventricle (Atrial depolarization and AV conduction)QT intervalDuration of full ventricular contraction (Ventricular depolarization + Repolarization)
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The symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include:
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Ans. (d) All of the aboveClinical features of Hypoparathyroidism:* Weakness* Fatigue* Polydipsia, Polyuria, Nocturia,* Bone and Joint Pain* Constipation, Decreased appetite, heart burn* Pruritus* Depression* Memory loss* CapO4 and Ca. Oxalate Renal calculi
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Anorectal anomalies are commonly associated with:
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Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th editionExplanation:Anorectal malformations (ARMs)or Imperforate anusThese are birth defects in which the rectum is malformed.The cause of ARMs is unknownThe genetic basis of these anomalies is very complexAnorectal Malformation in Currarino Syndrome represent the only association for which the homeobox gene HLXB9 has been identified.The new classification is in relation of the type of associated fistula.The classical classification was in low and high anomalies:A low lesionThe colon remains close to the skin, stenosis (narrowing) of the anus, or the anus may be missing altogether, with the rectum ending in a blind pouch.A high lesionThe colon is higher up in the pelvisThere is a fistula connecting the rectum and the bladder, urethra or the vagina.A persistent cloaca in which the rectum, vagina and urinary tract are joined into a single channel.Imperforate anus is associated with an increased incidence of some other specific anomalies (VACTERL association)V - Vertebral anomaliesA - Anal atresiaC - Cardiovascular anomaliesT - Tracheoesophageal fistulaE - Esophageal atresiaR - Renal (Kidney) and/or radial anomaliesL - Limb defectsCurrarino syndrome (Currarino triad)The sacrum dysgenesisPresacra I massAnorectal MalformationsIt can also cause an anterior meningocele or a presacral teratoma.
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A transection made at the lower end of medulla through the pyramids would cause all/except:
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B. i.e. Involuantry movements LMN involves anterior horn cells, anterior spinal nerve root and peripheral nerve.- Involuantry movements & tremors are characteristic features of extrapyramidal disorder- Inocordination (ataxia) is mostly seen in cerebellar lesions but UMN lesions may also present with incordination due to spasticity & weakness.
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A 48-year-old woman presents with complaints of moderate weight loss over the past 6 months, heat intolerance, palpitations, and fine tremors in the hands. Physical examination reveals the presence of a diffuse goiter and exophthalmos. Which of the following laboratory findings would be expected in this individual?
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The description given above is of an individual with Graves' disease. Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone because of stimulation of the TSH receptor by thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins results in excessive movement of thyroglobulin from the colloid to the plasma. The presence of exophthalmos is thought to be pa of the autoimmune disorder in Graves' disease. It is postulated that the thyroid and orbital muscles may share a common antigen. Lymphocytic infiltration and inflammation of orbital muscle then produces the ophthalmopathy. Serum T4 is increased in Graves' disease. Because of excessive stimulation of the thyroid by the thyroid stimulating immunoglobulins, radioactive iodine uptake, which assesses iodine trapping, is increased. The increase in free T4 due to hypersecretion by the thyroid shifts the equilibrium between free and bound T4 toward an increase in thyroxine binding globulin (TBG)-bound hormone. Concomitantly, the concentration of unbound TBG falls. Hence, the radioactive T3 in the resin T3 uptake test would preferentially bind to the resin and resin uptake would be increased. Ref: Jaume J.C. (2011). Chapter 2. Endocrine Autoimmunity. In D.G. Gardner, D. Shoback (Eds), Greenspan's Basic & Clinical Endocrinology, 9e.
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Causative agent of malaria -
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Malarial parasite infecting human belongs to genus plasmodium. P.vivax, P.falciparum,P.malariae,p.ovale.They are protozoa causing malaria in man.In India P.vivax and P. Falciparum are very common.(refer pgno:54 baveja 3 rd edition)
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Morbid jealousy is diagnostic of-
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Morbid (pathological) jealousy is seen in alcoholism.
| 7,177 |
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All of the following have a causative association with primary epistaxis in an elderly patient except:
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Factors associated with Primary adult Epistaxis: 1. CHRONOBIOLOGY The frequency of admission is greatest in the autumn and winter months.This seasonal variation correlates with fluctuations in environmental temperature and humidity. A chronobiological rhythm is also observed at the circadian level where onset of bleeding and hospital admission show a biphasic pattern with peaks in the morning and late evening. 2. NON-STEROIDAL ANTI-INFLAMMATORY DRUGS (NSAID): The action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is mediated an anti-platelet aggregation effect due to altered platelet membrane physiology. 3. ALCOHOL Epistaxis patients are more likely to have consumed alcohol within 24 hours. The use of alcohol by epistaxis patients is associated with a prolongation of the bleeding time despite normal platelet counts and coagulation factor activity. HYPEENSION (NOT A Causative Factor) This has long been considered a cause of epistaxis. However,a number of large studies have failed to show a causal relationship between hypeension and epistaxis. The apparent hypeension in acute admissions of epistaxis may be a result of anxiety associated with hospital admission and the invasive techniques used to control the bleeding.
| 7,178 |
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Calabar swelling is produced by-
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Calabar Swelling: Localized angioedema and erythema usually on the extremities, characterized by fugitive, swollen lumps of subcutaneous tissue caused by a parasitic filarial worm (Loa loa) endemic to Central and West Africa.
The swollen areas migrate with the worm through the body at a speed of about 1 cm per minute and may become as large as a small egg.
| 7,179 |
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Following several days of 12-hour daily rehearsals of the symphony orchestra for a performance of a Wagnerian opera, the 52-year-old male conductor experienced such excruciating pain in the posterior aspect of his right forearm that he could no longer direct the musicians. When the maestro's forearm was palpated 2 cm distal to, and posteromedial to, the lateral epicondyle, the resulting excruciating pain caused the conductor to weep. Injections of steroids and rest were recommended to ease the pain. Which of the following injuries is most likely?
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The Deep radial nerve courses between the two heads of the supinator and is located just medial and distal to the lateral epicondyle. It can be compressed by hyperophy of the supinator causing pain and weakness. The Median nerve passes into the forearm flexor compament. Superficial radial nerve courses down the lateral aspect of the posterior forearm and would not cause pain due to pressure applied to the posterior forearm.
| 7,180 |
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Which of the following will occur in an exclusively breast fed baby -
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Ans. is 'a' i.e., Jaundice o "13% of breast fed infants develop unconjugated hyperlbilirubinemia in the 1st week of life. The breast fed infants have higher, bilirubin levels than formula fed infants." o It is due to inhibitory substances (Pregananediol and free fatty acids) in breast milk that interfere with bilirubin conjugation.
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The chemotherapy drug fluorouracil undergoes a series of chemical changes in vivo that result in a covalent complex such that it is bound to both thymidylate synthase and methylene-tetrahydrofolate. The inhibition of deoxythymidilate formation and subsequent blockage of cell division is due to
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Since rapidly multiplying cancer cells are dependent upon the synthesis of deoxythymidilate (dTMP) from deoxyuridylate (dUMP), a prime target in cancer therapy has been inhibition of dTMP synthesis. The anticancer drug fluorouracil is conveed in vivo to fluorodeoxyuridylate (FdUMP), which is an analogue of dUMP. FdUMP irreversibly forms a covalent complex with the enzyme thymidylate synthase and its substrate N5,N10-methylene- tetrahydrofolate. This is a case of suicide inhibition, where an enzyme actually paicipates in the change of a substrate into a covalently linked inhibitor that irreversibly inhibits its catalytic activity.
| 7,182 |
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In the evaluation of a 26-year-old patient with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea, you order serum prolactin and b-hCG assays. The pregnancy test is positive, and the prolactin comes back at 100 ng/mL (normal <25 ng/mL in this assay). This patient requires
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There is a marked increase in levels of serum prolactin during gestation to over 10 times those values found in nonpregnant women. If this woman were not pregnant, the prolactin value could easily explain the amenorrhea and further evaluation of hyperprolactinemia would be necessary. The physiologic significance of increasing prolactin in pregnancy appears to involve preparation of the breasts for lactation.
| 7,183 |
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Knee with leg x- ray of an adolescent boy is shown. Probable diagnosis:
|
Chondromyxoid Fibroma Disease of adolescent Knee X-ray Sclerotic lesion around the coex in the tibia. . Small eccentric lytic lesion which lie parallel to the long axis of the bone. * Bone cyst with fracture will show a larger lesion and is mostly unilateral. * Osteitis Fibrosis cystica will present with multiple lesions and also has a history of abdominal groans, psychic moans and renal stones. * Osteosarcoma is a malignant lesion usually occurs above the joint.
| 7,184 |
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Centrilobular necrosis of liver may be seen with -
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Ans. is 'c' i.e., CC14 Hepatocellular necrosis: - o Liver necrosis is a common manifestation of many liver diseases and it can present in various ways, o If severe it can cause liver failure. o In some cases however the necrosis is subclinical, revealed only by elevations of liver enzymes in serum, o Various diseases can cause different patterns of necrosis. These are -] Focal Necrosis - Randomly occurring necrosis of single cells or small clusters of cells. It can involve any area of the lobule All lobules are not involved. Characteristic features on biopsy are - Councilman bodies Areas of lysed liver cells surrounded by collection of kupffer cells and inflammatory cells. Causes of Focal necrosis - Viral hepatitis, Bacterial infections, Toxic damage Zonal necrosis - The characteristic of zonal necrosis is that identical regions of liver lobules are involved. All liver lobules are involved. The necrosis is divided according to the zone involved (Note: In focal necrosis any area of lobule and some lobules are involved.) Types of zonal necrosis Centrizonal necrosis (centrilobular) ->> Necrosis in the cells surrounding central hepatic vein, seen in - i) Cardiac failure or shock iii) Chloroform toxicity ii) Carbon tetrachloride toxicity (CC14) iv) Viral hepatitis Peripheral zonal necrosis (periportal) - Necrosis is seen in areas around the portal tracts, Seen in i) Eclampsia ii) Phosphorus poisoning Midzonal necrosis - Rare, seen in yellow fever Also know - o Submassive necrosis - Occurrence of liver cell necrosis that is not limited by lobular boundaries i.e., the necrosis extends beyond lobular boundaries. o Massive liver necrosis - In this large areas of liver cell undergo necrosis. Only small areas are left intact, o Massive and submassive fiver necrosis are clinically manifested as. # Acute fiver failure of variable severity # Serum enzyme levels are very high
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medmcqa_train
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Most diffusable ion in excitable tissue is -
|
Points to note
Concentration of ions
Na+ concentration higher in ECF
K+ concentration higher in ICF
Cl- concentration higher in ECF
K+ leak channels allow K+ to move from ICF to ECF
Na+ is prevented from entering the cell.
Thus diffusion is highest for K+, then Cl- and least for Na+, when the cell is at rest.
| 7,186 |
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which of the following tricyclic antidepressent used for peripheral neuropathy
|
TCA * MECHANISM This is an antidepressant with three rings. It acts by blocking the transpoers of neurotransmitters resulting in increased neurotransmitters in synapse DRUGS AMITRYPTILLINE IMIPRAMINE CLOMIPRAMINE DESIPRAMINE NORIPTILLINE DOXEPINE * USE AMITRYPTILLINE========PAIN WITH DEPRESSION IMIPRAMINE==========CHILDHOOD ENEURESIS CLOMIPRAMINE========OCD * SIDE EFFECTS ANTI HISTAMINERGIC==== sedation, weight gain ANTI MUSCURANIC=======dryness of mouth ANTI ADRENERGIC========hypotension, giddiness SWITCH TO MANIA when used in BIPOLAR DEPRESSION REf. kaplon and Sadock,synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition,pg no. 955
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Which aery does not contribute to Little's area
|
LITTLE'S AREA (Anterior inferior pa of nasal septum) - Usual site for epistaxis in children. Four Aeries anastomose here and form Kiesselbach's Plexus. Anterior ethmoidal aery(Ophthalmic aery) Sphenopalatine(Maxillary aery) Septal branch of superior labial(Facial aery) Greater palatine aery(Maxillary aery) Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 197.
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Erythrophagia and Mononuclear cell infiltration ulcers are seen in -
|
Erythrophagocytosis (erythrophagia) is characteristic of typhoid ulcer.
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Velvety appearance of stomach is seen in poisoning with:(1995)
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Ans: cRef: Parikh, 6th ed, p. 9.10 and 5th ed, p. 748
| 7,190 |
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All are used for the treatment of Pulmonary hypeension except
|
Refer kDT 6/e p 297 Vasodilators are used for the treatment of Pulmonary hypeension. Treatments include: endothelin receptor antagonists - such as bosentan, ambrisentan and macitentan phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors - sildenafil and tadalafil prostaglandins - epoprostenol, iloprost and treprostinil soluble guanylate cyclase stimulators - such as riociguat calcium channel blockers - nifedipine, diltiazem, nicardipine and amlodipine
| 7,191 |
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Which of the following is the national level system that provides annual national as well as state level reliable estimation of feility and moality -
|
.
| 7,192 |
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The classification proposed by the International Lymphoma Study Group for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma is known as:
|
Answer is B (REAL Classification) In 1994, a group of hematopathologists, oncologists and molecular biologists came together (International Lymphoma Study Group) and introduced a new classification, called the 'Revised European-American Classification of Lymphoid Neoplasms (REAL). WHO has now reviewed and updated the real classification resulting in inclusion of additional rare entities. WHO Classification / Modified 'REAL' Classification I. Precursor B-cell Neoplasm Precursor-B lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma II. Peripheral B-Cell Neoplasms Chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia Lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma Splenic and nodal marginal zone lymphomas Extranodal marginal zone lymphomas Mantle cell lymphoma Follicular lymphoma Marginal zone lymphoma Hairy cell leukemia Plasmacytoma/plasma cell myeloma Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma Burkitt lymphoma III. Precursor T-Cell Neoplasms Precursor-T lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma iv Peripheral T-Cell and NK-Cell Neoplasms T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia Large granular lymphocytic leukemia Mycosis fungoides/Sezary syndrome Peripheral large cell lymphoma, unspecified Anaplastic large cell lymphoma Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma Hepatosplenic y8 T-cell lymphoma Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type NK cell leukemia V. Hodgkins LF mphoma - Classical subtypes - Nodular sclerosis - Mixed cellularity - Lymphocyte-rich - Lymphocyte depletion Lymphocyte predominance
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Normal intracranial pressure in a child is:
|
Normal intracranial pressures : - Newborns : < 5mm of Hg - Infants : 6-15 mm of Hg - Children : 10-15mm of Hg ICP is considered severely elevated, if raised above 40mm of Hg
| 7,194 |
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MIC-2 is a marker of? -
|
Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition In Ewings sarcoma - the cell surface marker by the tumor cells of ES / PNET group is CD99 which is a product of MIC2 gene located on X and Y chromosome. .
| 7,195 |
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Cause of hairy leukoplakia which is characterised by severe discomfort on lateral part of the tongue
|
(B) EBV # Hairy leukoplakia is a distinctive oral lesion that is seen in immunocompromised patients.> Approximately 80% of patients with hairy leukoplakia have been infected with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV); the presence of this lesion sometimes calls attention to the existence of the infection.> Hairy leukoplakia takes the form of white, confluent patches of fluffy ("hairy") hyperkeratotic thickenings, almost always situated on the lateral border of the tongue.> The distinctive microscopic appearance consists of hyperparakeratosis and acanthosis with "balloon cells" in the upper spinous layer.
| 7,196 |
medmcqa_train
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Which of the following is an impoant disinfectant on account of effectively destroying gram positive and gram negative bacteria, viruses and even spores at low pH levels -
|
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chlorine
| 7,197 |
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Which of the following infection, if occurs in the first trimester, leads to maximum incidence of congenital malformations: March 2010
|
Ans. A: Rubella T = toxoplasmosis: Caused by protozoan - Toxoplasma gondii - Domestic cat is the definitive host with infections : Ingestion of cysts (meats, garden products), Contact with oocysts in feces - Much higher prevalence of infection in European countries - Acute infection usually asymptomatic 1/3 risk of fetal infection with primary maternal infection in pregnancy - Infection rate higher with infection in 3rd trimester - Fetal death higher with infection in 1st trimester - Mostly (70-90%) asymptomatic at bih Classic triad of symptoms: Chorioretinitis Hydrocephalus Intracranial calcifications 0=other (syphilis) - Early congenital (typically 1st 5 weeks): Cutaneous lesions (palms/soles) Jaundice Anemia Snuffles Periostitis and metaphysial dystrophy Funisitis (umbilical cord vasculitis) - Late congenital: Frontal bossing Sho maxilla High palatal arch Hutchinson teeth 8th nerve deafness Saddle nose Perioral fissures R = rubella Sensorineural hearing loss (50-75%) Cataracts and glaucoma (20-50%) malformations (20-50%) Neurologic (10-20%) Others to include growth retardation, bone disease, thrombocytopenia, "blueberry muffin" lesions C = cytomegalovirus (CMV) 90% are asymptomatic at bih Up to 15% develop symptoms later, notably sensorineural hearing loss Symptomatic infection Petechiae, jaundice, chorioretinitis, periventricular calcifications, neurological deficits >80% develop long term complications Hearing loss, vision impairment, developmental delay H=herpes simplex (HSV) Most are asymptomatic at bih - 3 patterns of equal frequency with symptoms between bih and 4 weeks: Skin, eyes, mouth (SEM) CNS disease Disseminated disease (present earliest) Initial manifestations very nonspecific with skin lesions NOT necessarily present
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All are antioxidant except -
|
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Glutamineo There are two types of antioxidant systems :-Enzymatic antioxidant systemThis includeCatalaseSuperoxide dismutase (SOD)Glutathione peroxidaseNon-enzymatic antioxidant systemThis is further subdivided intoVitamins : Vitamin E, Vitamin A & beta carotene. Vitamin C.Minerals : Selenium, Copper, Zinc, ManganeseTissue proteins : Transferrin, ferritin, lactoferrin, ceruloplasminAmino acids : Glutathione, Cysteine
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