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A 7 year old boy presented with sudden onset petechiae and purpura. There was a history of URTI 2 weeks back. On examination, there was no hepatosplenomegaly. He is most probably suffering from: | Ans. (c) ITP(Ref: 9th/pg 657-658; 8th/pg 667-668)A 7 year old boy presented with sudden onset petechiae and purpura with a history of URTI 2 weeks back and there is no hepatosplenomegaly. He is most probably suffering from ITP. For complete discussion on ITP; Refer to pretext of this chapter. | 6,900 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following sympathetic receptors acts as vasoconstriction and vasodilatation: | (Ref: Katzung 14th ed. pg. 145-47)Alpha 1 and Beta 2 receptors present at blood vessels causing vasoconstriction and vasodilatation respectively.Sympathetic receptors, their location, function and G protein.ReceptorLocationFunctionG-Proteina1BV, smooth muscle, Salivary glandsVasoconstriction Increase secretionGqa2Presynapse Beta pancreatic cellBrake/Inhibit NA releaseDecrease insulin releaseGib1Heart JG cellInc Heart rate Renin releaseGsb2LungsSmooth muscle LiverBronchodilatation Relaxation of smooth muscles GlycogenolysisGsb3Adipocyte Detrusor muscleLipolysis, thermogenesis Bladder relaxGs | 6,901 | medmcqa_train |
H pylori is associated with of the following except? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Increased risk of adenocarcinoma of esophagus Diseases associated with H. Pylori infection Duodenal ulcer Gastric ulcer Chronic superficial gastritis Chronic atrophic gastritis Gastric adenocarcinoma Lymphoproliferative disease (MALT) Gastroesophageal reflux disease | 6,902 | medmcqa_train |
Hormone replacement therapy (H) is indicated in: | H Indications symptomatic women who suffer from oestrogen defeciency(therapeutic) high risk cases for menopausal complications like cardiovascular disease,osteoporosis,stroke,alzheimers disease,colonic cancer(prophylactic) premature menopause,spontaneous or following surgery(tubectomy,hysterectomy) gonadal dysgenesis in adolescents(therapeutic0 women demanding H as prophylaxis. SHAW'S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:70,16 th edition | 6,903 | medmcqa_train |
A young male patient presents with LDL 600mg/dl, triglycerides 140 mg/dl. What would be the most likely finding on physical examination | A i.e. Tendon Xanthoma | 6,904 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following can be prevented by screening - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ca cervix o This question is tricky one and is different from previous one. o In this question examinar is asking about the cancers which can be prevented by screening. o The cancers, which have well known precancerous condition, can be diagnosed and treated at pre-cancerous stage to prevent the development of cancer : - i) Cervix --> CIN ii) Colon ---> Polyp o On the other hand, in previous explanation, examinor had asked about the cancers for which survival can be prolonged by screening. This is done by early diagnosis and treatment of cancer which has already been developed. o So, two different questions can be framed : ? 1) Screening can increase the survival (screening is useful) in : - Colon (Colorectal) carcinoma Breast Carcinoma } Greatest Cervical carcinoma Prostate carcinoma l Moderate Kidney carcinoma 2) Screening can prevent Colon carcinoma Cervical carcinoma Breast, Prostate and kidney cancers cannot be prevented by screening, however, the survival rate can be increased by screening which caught them in early stage. | 6,905 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 year male presented with nausea, vomiting, epigastric pain, Na+ level is 125 meq/L. Treatment start with | (Give hypotonic saline) (758- 61 - CMDT- 08) (277-79, 2223-2224-Hl7th)* Treatment consist of replacement of lost volume with isotonic or half normal (0.45%) saline or lactated Ringer *s infusion in hypovolemic Hypotonic Hyponatremia* Asymptomatic hyponatremia - water restriction, 0.9% saline Demeclocycline. Fludrocortisone, selective renal vasopressin V2 antagonists (conivaptan. Mozavaptan, tolvaptan)* Hypervolemic hypotonic hyponatremia - water restriction Diuretics and V2 antagonists. Hypertonic (3%) saline | 6,906 | medmcqa_train |
Beta-2 microglobulin is a marker for? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Multiple myeloma * Serum b2 microglobulin is increased in multiple myeloma and is the most important prognostic factor and can substitute for staging.* b2 Microglobulin level:a) < .004g/L - Median survival of 43 months.b) .004 g/L - Median survival of only 12 months. | 6,907 | medmcqa_train |
Immunohistochemistry marker of histiocytosis X | . | 6,908 | medmcqa_train |
True abour Herpes virus | HSV encephalitis though rare is most common sporadic acute viral encephalitis in most pas of the world. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 8TH EDITION PAGE NO:469 | 6,909 | medmcqa_train |
Huhle cells seen in ? | Ans. is `b' i.e., Hashimoto ThyroiditisPathological features of Hashimoto's thyroiditis 1. Cross featuresDiffuse symmetrically enlarged thyroidAlthough the gland is symmetrically enlarged, the accentuation of lobulations may make the gland appear lobular on gross examination.Capsule is intactCut surface is pale, yellow firm and lobulated.2. Microscopic featuresAtrophy of thyroid follicles (atrophic follicles)Extensive lymphoplasmocytic infiltrate with abundant small lymphocytes and plasma cells with destruction of follicles.Oncocytic metaplasia (Huhle cell metaplasia) - The surviving follicular epithelial cells are commonly transformed into large cells with abundant pink cytoplasm and are known as Huhle cells.Oncocytic metaplasia (Huhle cell metaplasia) is also known "oxyphilic change" in epithelial cells and is considered the hallmark of Hashimoto's thyroiditis.Varying degree of fibrosis and foci of squamous metaplasia within atrophic follicles.Interstitial connective tissue is increased and may be abundant. | 6,910 | medmcqa_train |
A gravida 3 female with kilo 2 previous 2nd trimester aboion presents at 22 weeks of gestation with funneling of cervix Most appropriate management would be: | Ans. is d i.e. Apply MC Donald stitch In this question : A gravida 3 female is presenting with 2 previous 2nd trimester losses and with funneling of cervix at 22 weeks of gestation which means that the patient has incompetent cervix. Management of this condition as discussed in previous question is application of Mc Donald stitch Women who may have incompetent cervix and require treatment can be divided into 4 groups : Extra Edge Women presenting with acute presentation of incompetent cervix i.e. ? Complain of Pelvic / Rectal pressure of recent onset Increased mucous vaginal discharge. No contractions Remember * Most common factors associated with failure of rescue cerclage are -- Nulliparity -- Prolapsed membranes -- WBC > 14,000/mm3. -- CRP > 4 mg /dl -- Cervical dilatation > 4 cm -- Cervical length < 0.5 cm Contractions present | 6,911 | medmcqa_train |
Remnant of rostral neuropore is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Lamina terminalisThe cranial open end of neural tube is called as rostral (anterior) neuropore which closes on or before day 26 giving rise to lamina terminalis of brain. | 6,912 | medmcqa_train |
patient having inguinal mass likely diagnosis ? | Lymphatic drainage of anal canal is through the mesorectal (also known as inferior rectal) nodes to the inguinal and femoral nodes. Anal cancers are more likely to produce inguinal adenopathy, with internal iliac adenopathy also occurring when the tissues near the anorectal junction are involved. ref : bailey and love | 6,913 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are poor prognostic factors for Hodgkin's disease, Except: | Answer is A (Younger age) Lymphocyte depletion subtype, presence of mediastinal disease and systemic manifestation are all established poor prognostic factors Stomach involvement reflects advanced stage of disease and is likely to be associated with a poor prognosis. | 6,914 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not the criteria for diagnosis of Metabolic syndrome? | Metabolic syndrome/Syndrome X: Central obesity: Waist circumference >102cm in males,>88cm in females. Hyperiglyceridemia: >150mg% Low HDL cholesterol: <40mg%I(male), <50mg% (female) Hypeension: >130/80 mmHg Fasting blood glucose >100 mg% / previously diagnosed type 2 diabetes. NOTE:Raised LDL is NOT a feature of Metabolic syndrome. | 6,915 | medmcqa_train |
A region is divided into 50 villages for the purpose of a survey. 10 villages are then selected randomly for the purpose of a study. This type of sampling is termed as: | Cluster samples may be chosen where individuals fall naturally into groups or clusters. In the above scenario, a sample of the clusters is chosen at random, and then a random sample of units is chosen from within this selection of clusters. The villages are naturally formed groups or clusters in the region. Ref: Encyclopaedic Companion to Medical Statistics, Editors Brian S. Everitt and Christopher R. Palmer, Second Edition; Oxford Handbook of Medical Statistics, By Janet L. Peacock, Philip J. Peacock, Oxford University Press 2011, Page 55. | 6,916 | medmcqa_train |
Life span of mosquito is? | Under orable conditions of temperature and food supply, the life cycle from the egg to adult is complete in 7-10 days. Normally the adult mosquito lives for about 2 weeks. The males are generally sho-lived Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg | 6,917 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with long standing constipation enters a clinical research study. After a complete physical examination,a small intraluminal balloon is inseed through the anus to the rectum. Transducers are also inseed to measure internal and external anal sphincter pressures. Inflation of the rectal balloon causes the external anal sphincter to contract, but the internal anal sphincter, which exhibits normal tone, fails to relax and the urge to defecate is not sensed. Which of the following structures is most likely damaged? | The defecation reflex that is evoked when the rectum is distended involves three responses: 1) the internal anal sphincter relaxes, 2) the external anal sphincter contracts, and 3) a conscious urge to defecate is perceived. This neural reflex involves the pelvic nerve, which provides the parasympathetic preganglionic innervation to the internal anal sphincter (composed of smooth muscle) and also carries the sensory afferent information from the rectum to the spinal cord, and the pudendal nerve, which carries the somatic efferent inputs to the external anal sphincter (composed of skeletal muscle). In the patient described above, the pelvic nerve is most likely damaged since neither the reflex relaxation of the internal anal sphincter nor the urge to defecate is evoked by rectal distention. Damage to the internal anal sphincter would most likely cause resting tone to be low and, if anything, lead to fecal incontinence rather than constipation. Fuhermore, damage to the internal anal sphincter could not explain the failure of the appearance of the urge to defecate. The external anal sphincter appears to function normally since distention of the rectum evokes the expected contraction. The normal contraction of the external anal sphincter also suggests that the pudendal nerve is intact. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 12. Pelvis and Perineum. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | 6,918 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a contraindication for medical management of Gall stones: | Contraindications for medical management are: 1. Radio-opaque concretions 2. Gallstones >20mm in diameter 3. Non opacified gall bladder 4. Acute &/or chronic cholecystitis 5. Complications of gallstones 6. Poor patient compliance In carefully selected patients with a functional GB and with radiolucent stones of <10 mm diameter medical management has been useful. Ref: Gallstone disease in the elderly By Giuseppe Del Favero, Pilotto, F. Di Mario, Page 61; Harrison's 16th/1884 | 6,919 | medmcqa_train |
Cremasteric muscle is supplied by: | A. i.e. Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve | 6,920 | medmcqa_train |
Most common malignant tumor of kidney in children is: | Wilms' tumor is the most common primary malignant tumor of the kidney in children. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | 6,921 | medmcqa_train |
Breast milk at room temperature stored for | Breast milkCan be stored at room temperature for 8-10 hoursIn a refrigerator for 24 hoursIn a freezer for 3 months(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 286 - 290) | 6,922 | medmcqa_train |
Excitatory Neurotransmitters are : | D i.e. Glutamate | 6,923 | medmcqa_train |
Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs in | Fracture of the neck of fifth metacarpal occurs usually due to striking the closed hand against a firm surface(Boxer's fracture) occurs in boxers. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 179 | 6,924 | medmcqa_train |
The state of social dysfunction is called as: | "Sickness" refers to a state of social dysfunction. "Disease" is a physiological/psychological dysfunction. "Illness" is a subjective state of the person who feels aware of not being well. | 6,925 | medmcqa_train |
KF ring in Wilson's disease is seen at the level of: | Ans: A (Descemet's membrane) Ref: BASAK Essentials of Ophthalmology. 5th edition, pg no 163Explanation: (See the following table)In KF ring, the copper deposits are seen in the vertical meridian (6 &12o'clock position) in the early stages.It is seen in all Wilson's patients if CNS is involvedWith penicillamine therapy . it disappears.Other manifestations of Wilson's disease are sunflower cataract & defective accommodation. | 6,926 | medmcqa_train |
A patient of rectal carcinoma found to have tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the perirectal tissues, and two enlarged lymph nodes. How will you manage the patient? | Stage of rectal cancer in the given scenario- Tumor invading through the muscularis propria into the perirectal tissues- T3 Two enlarged lymph nodes- N1b Thus, making it stage 3 Management of rectal cancer according to its stage- Stage Management Tis Polypectomy I Segmental resection II Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgical resection III Preoperative chemoradiation followed by surgical resection IV Palliation, metastatectomy | 6,927 | medmcqa_train |
True about vagal nuclei are all except? | Ans. is'd'i.e., Spinal trigeminal nucleus is not a vagal nucleus(Ref: 'Functional and chemical anatomy of the afferent vagal system". Autonomic Neuroscience. 85 (I-3): I-17.)The vagus nerve includes axons which emerge from or converge onto four nuclei of the medulla.They are present deep in the medulla in the floor of the 4th ventricle. | 6,928 | medmcqa_train |
Local lymph nodules are enlarged near the infected wound. Increased amount of macrophages, lymphocytes, lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of plasma cells were revealed on histological examination. What process in the lymphatic nodules represent these histological changes? | In the given question there is enlargement of local lymph nodes near the infected wound. Histologically:- Presence of Macrophages, Lymphocytes, Lymphatic follicles in the coical layer and large amount of Plasma cells. It is because the antigens from the wound are going to be drained to the lymph node. These antigens will cause B cell activation, once the B cell are going to be activated, they are going to get conveed into the Plasma cell and that is responsible for causing enlargement of the lymph node. Therefore, after any kind of infection or any kind of inflammation the reactive lymph node enlargement will occur and this is explained on the basis of Antigen stimulation. | 6,929 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following antibacterial antibiotics are not recommend for lactating mothers ? | Chloroquine, proguanil, and mefloquine are considered compatible with breastfeeding. The Center for Disease Control and Prevention indicates that atovaquone may be used during breastfeeding where the infant weighs at least 5kg. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | 6,930 | medmcqa_train |
Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells? | With respect to cancer, when tumor cells divide rapidly their telomeres often shorten.
Such telomeres (usually detected in leukocytes because of ease of obtaining them) have been implicated as a risk factor for many, but not all, solid tumors (eg, breast cancer).
Short telomeres appear to be of predictive value regarding the progression of chronic inflammatory diseases (such as ulcerative colitis and Barrett esophagus) to cancer.
The activity of telomerase, the main enzyme involved in synthesizing telomeres, is frequently elevated in cancer cells, providing one mechanism for overcoming telomere shortening.
Selective inhibitors of telomerase have been considered as possible drugs for treating cancer, but have not as yet been translated into successful clinical usuage.
Key Concept:
Telomerase is the main enzyme that is seen elevated in cancer cells.
Ref : Harper’s illustrated biochemistry, 31st edition. | 6,931 | medmcqa_train |
"Reward pathway" is associated with | (A) Nucleus accumbens# NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS has a significant role in the cognitive processing of motivation, pleasure, and reward and reinforcement learning, and hence has significant role in addiction. | 6,932 | medmcqa_train |
Which is most commonly implicated in genital (vulval) warts? | Ans. is d, i.e. HPV 6Ref: Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p619"Low Risk HPV types 6 and 11 cause nearly all genital warts." - Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p67Genital Warts:* Genital warts are lesions created from productive infection with HPV (most common type 6 and 11).* They display various morphologies and appearances ranging from flat papules to the classic verrucous, polyphytic lesions, termed "condyloma acuminata".* Sites: External genital warts may develop at sites in the lower reproductive tract, urethra, anus, or mouth.* Diagnosis: They are typically diagnosed by clinical infection, and biopsy is not required unless co-existing neoplasia is suspected. HPV serotyping is not required for routine diagnosis.Treatment:* Condyloma acuminata may remain unchanged or resolve spontaneously.* Effect of treatment on future viral transmission is unclear. However, many women prefer removal, and lesions can be destroyed with sharp or electrosurgical excision, cryotherapy, or laser ablation. In addition, very large, bulky lesions may be managed with cavitational ultrasonic surgical aspiration.Medical Management of Genital Warts:* Topical 5-percent imiquimod cream (immunomodulator)* Podophyllin (antimitotic agent)* Trichloroacetic acid (proteolytic agent)* Bichloroacetic acid (proteolytic agent)* Intralesion injection of interferonNote: Intralesion injection of interferon has high cost, is painful and is inconvenient to administer, So this therapy is not recommended as a primary modality and is best reserved for recalcitrant cases.Therapy of choice: No data suggest the superiority of one treatment. Thus in general treatment should be selected based on clinical circumstances and patient and provider preferences. | 6,933 | medmcqa_train |
Most common type of optic nerve glioma is – | Most common type of optic nerve glioma is juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma. | 6,934 | medmcqa_train |
License to blood bank is given by: | Drugs controller General of India GUIDELINES FOR OPENING AND LICENSING OF BLOOD BANK Blood Bank: - Blood bank means, a centre within an organisation or an institution for collection, grouping, cross-matching, storage, processing and distribution of Whole Human Blood or Human Blood Products from selected human donors. Licensing policy and legal framework for Blood Banks:? An adequate legal framework has been provided in Schedule X B of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act/Rules published in The Gazette of India: Extraordinary (Pa II-Sec.3 (i) which stipulates mandatory testing of blood for Blood transmissible Diseases, including HIV. The rules provide for adequate testing procedures, quality control, standard qualifications and experience for blood bank personnel, maintenance of complete and accurate records, etc. The Drugs Controller General (India) is the Central Licence Approving Authority whereas the regulatory control remains under the dual authority of the State and the Central Government. The blood banks under the Act require a manufacturing licence. | 6,935 | medmcqa_train |
Strong correlation with colorectal cancer is seen in | NON NEOPLASTIC POLYPSPOLYPSLOCATIONHISTOLOGICAL TYPERISK OF MALIGNANCYASSOCIATED LESIONSHyperplastic polypscolonHyperplastic colonic epithelial celssRareJuvenile polypsLarge and small intestine, stomachHamaomasrarePeutz jeghers syndromeJejunum(mainly)hamaomasrarePigmentation in the mouth.tumours of the ovary, breast, endometrium, and pancreas.NEOPLASTIC POLYPSTubular adenomatous polypsLarge and small intestine, stomachadenoma1-3%Villous adenomasLarge intestineadenoma40%Familial polyposis coliLarge intestineadenoma100%Gardner's syndromeLarge and small intestineadenoma100%Bone and soft tissue lesions, ampullary cancer, congenital hyperophy of pigment epitheliumTurcot's syndromeLarge intestineadenoma100%Brain tumors(Ref: Harrison's 18/e768,769,7770) | 6,936 | medmcqa_train |
The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about: | The average number of adult female mites on an individual suffering from the common form of scabies is about 12. Only in crusted (Norwegian) scabies are large numbers of mites present. Ref: Rook's textbook of dermatology, 8th edition Pg 38.37. | 6,937 | medmcqa_train |
A patient is trying to make a fist, but can only paially flex Index and Middle finger. Which nerve is damaged most probably: | Median nerve injury leads to 'Benediction hand deformity', as observed in this patient. Hand of benediction occurs as a result of prolonged compression or injury of the median nerve at the forearm or elbow. Note: The answer can't be Anterior Interosseous Nerve, because in that case, Flexor digitorum superficialis (intact median nerve supply) will be functional and patient can do flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joint. | 6,938 | medmcqa_train |
What is the total dose of Vitamin - A given under national immunisation schedule | 1 lac IU @ 9 months age.
2 lac IU every 6 months therefter, till the age of 5 years. | 6,939 | medmcqa_train |
False about pioglitazone? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., It acts on insulin gene and even in absence of insulin helps in metabolism of carbohydrate Pioglitazone has insulin sensitizing action, i.e., enhancing the effect of cinilating insulin. Therefore, insulin is neces? sary for the action of Pioglitazone, and it does not lower blood glucose in persons that lack endogenous insulin. o Pioglitazone is selective agonist for the nuclear PPAR-y which enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes. o Pioglitazone is contraindicated in CHF. Metabolism of Pioglitazone o Pioglitazone is extensively metabolized by hydroxylation and oxidation in liver. o Multiple CYP isoforms are involved in the metabolism of pioglitazone. The cytochrome p450 isoforms primarily involved are CYP 2C8 (major) and CYP3A4 (to a lesser degree). | 6,940 | medmcqa_train |
Glutathione peroxidase contains ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Se | 6,941 | medmcqa_train |
Oliguric phase of ARF is characterized by A/E | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hypokalemia | 6,942 | medmcqa_train |
I/V contrast is not used in - | In myelography the contrast agent is injected into the subarachanoid space. | 6,943 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are true about branchial cyst except: | Ans: A (It occurs at lower 2/3rd of sternocleido-mastoid) Ref: Bailey & Love '5 Short Practice of Surgery, 25th Edition, pg. 728Explanation:Branchial cyst is located at the junction of the upper third and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle at its anterior border.BRANCHIAL CYSTAetiopathologyDevelops from the vestigial remnants of the second branchial cleftLined by squamous epithelium.Contents - thick, turbid fluid full of cholesterol crystals.Clinical FeaturesPresents in the upper neck in early or middle adulthood.At the junction of the upper third and middle third of the sternomastoid muscle at its anterior border.Soft, fluctuant swellingTransillumination may be presentMay be difficult to palpate in early stages because of soft consistency.ComplicationsMay get infected-becomes erythematous and tender may be difficult to differentiate from a tuberculous abscess.InvestigationsUltrasound neckFine-needle aspirationTreatmentComplete surgical excision.Surgery is best done when the lesion is quiescent.Technical DetailsAnterior aspect of the cyst is easy to dissect.Passes backwards and upwards through the bifurcation of the common carotid artery as far as the pharyngeal constrictors.It passes superficial to the hypoglossal and glossopharyngeal nerves, but deep to the posterior belly of the digastric.These structures and the spinal accessory nerve are at risk of injury during surgery. | 6,944 | medmcqa_train |
Old age pigment is? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lipofuscin o It is an insoluble pigment, also known as lipochrome and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.Lipofuscino It is an insoluble pigment, also known as I and wear or tear or aging pigment. Lipofuscin is not injurious to the cell or its functions.o Its importance lies in being the tell-tale sign of free radical injury and lipid peroxidation.o It is seen in cells undergoing slow, regressive changes and is particularly prominent in the liver and heart of aging patients or patients with severe malnutrition and cancer cachexia,o On electron microscopy, the granules are highly electron dense, often have membranous structure in their midst and are usually in perinuclear location. In tissue section it appears as yellow brown pigment.o Deposition of lipofuscin in the heart is referred as brown atrophy | 6,945 | medmcqa_train |
In a patient only HBs Ag is positive ins serum, all other markers are negative, This indicates - | Presence of only HBsAg indicate immunisation. REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.546&548 | 6,946 | medmcqa_train |
A 35-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a complaint of shortness of breath. During physical examination it is noted that there is wide splitting in her S2 heart sound. Which of the following valves is/are responsible for production of the S2 heart sound? | The S2 heart sound refers to the second (dub) heart sound. This sound is produced by the closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves. The closure of mitral/bicuspid and tricuspid valves produce the first S1 (lub) heart sound. | 6,947 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are grievous injuries except - | Facial bum (causing disfiguration), fracture and emasculization are grievous injuries. | 6,948 | medmcqa_train |
Edward Jenner died in - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 1823 o Edward Jenner was born on 17 may 1749 and died on 26 January 1823. o Edward Jenner discovered samll pox vaccine in 1796, which was the first ever vaccine to be discovered. o Edward Jenner also coined the term 'vaccine'. | 6,949 | medmcqa_train |
Causes of exudative retinal detachment | C i.e. Harada's syndrome | 6,950 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about pituitary gland ? | Ans. is'b'i.e., Coicotrophs are acidophilicPituitary gland is situated in sella turcica.Anterior pituitary develops from Rathke's pouch and posterior pituitary develops from infundibular process from diencephalon.Coicotroph are basophils.ADH is secreted from posterior pituitary. | 6,951 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following flipped pattern of LDH is seen in myocardial infarction: | In normal person, LDH-2 is more than LDH-1 in serum. BUT in myocardial infarction, LDH-1>>LDH-2. This is known as Flipped ratio of LDH in Myocardial Infarction. ADDITIONAL EDGE ON ISOENZYMES OF LDH: LDH-2 is raised in haemolytic anemia. (LDH-2 is mainly found in blood (Both WBC and RBC; WBC conc. > RBC conc.) | 6,952 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are diagnostic criteria of Allergic Fungal Sinusitis (AFS), EXCEPT: | The diagnostic criteria for allergic fungal sinusitis (AFS) are the presence of characteristic allergic mucin, type I hypersensitivity (eosinophilic-lymphocytic inflammation), absence of fungal invasion, immuno-compromised individuals and radiological confirmation (areas of high attenuation on CT scan). | 6,953 | medmcqa_train |
The couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of the | Functional anatomy of the liver is based on couinaud's division of liver into eight (subsequently nine) functional segments, based upon the distribution of poal venous branches and location of hepatic veins in the parenchyma Couinaud 1957 | 6,954 | medmcqa_train |
Rollover phenomenon in audiometry is seen in | Roll over phenomenon:- it is seen in retro cochlear hearing loss . With increase in intensity above paicular level phonetically balanced score (PB score) falls rather than maintain a plateau as in cochlear type of sensineural hearing loss . | 6,955 | medmcqa_train |
Diffuse mesothelioma is seen with - | - asbestos enters the body by inhalation and fine dust may be deposited in the alveoli. - the dust deposited in the lungs causes pulmonary fibrosis leading to respiratory insufficiency and death. - it also causes mesothelioma of the pleura or peritoneum. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:807 <\p> | 6,956 | medmcqa_train |
Oximes are contraindicated in which poisoning: NEET 13 | Ans. Carbamate | 6,957 | medmcqa_train |
High environmental temperature, best step for malaria control- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Remove breeding place "The most important step in reducing number of mosquitoes is to eliminate their breeding places "..............ParkAntilarval MeasuresEnvironmental control(source reduction)Chemical control(Larvicidal agents)Biological controlThe most important step in reducing number of mosquitoes is to eliminate their breeding places.Methods include :a) Minor engineering methodsy Levellingy Fillingy Drainage of breeding placesb) Water management:y Intermittent irrigationy Changing salinity of water (making water unsuitable for mosquito breeding)Employs usage of chemical insecticides that act as larvicides]i.) Mineral oilsii) Paris green (copper aceto- arsenite)iii)Synthetic insecticidesy Fenthiony Chlorpvrfosy AbateEmploys usage of small fish that feed on mosquito larvae# Gambusia affinis# Lebister reticulatus | 6,958 | medmcqa_train |
A 42 yr old male from srilanka presented with multiple polyps in nose .the causative agent might be | Rhinosporidiosis -common in India, Srilanka .pt presents with multiple friable polyps in nose, mouth or eye. It is a chronic granulomatous disease Ref: Baveja 5th ed pg: 552 | 6,959 | medmcqa_train |
A 50 year old male patient complains of heaviness of face, headache and blocked nose. Patient gives history of chronic sinusitis. Waters view x-ray was taken. If the patient’s mouth is open during x-ray, the sphenoid sinus is seen superimposed over- | Waters view-
The image receptor is placed in front of the patient and perpendicular to the midsagittal plane. The patient’s head is tilted upward so that the canthomeatal line forms a 37-degree angle with the image receptor. If the patient’s mouth is open, the sphenoid sinus is seen superimposed over the palate.
White and Pharoah, Oral radiology, ed 7th, pg-161 | 6,960 | medmcqa_train |
Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome is due to liberation of- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyrogenic exotoxin . Streptococcal toxic shock syndrome ---> Pyrogenic exotoxin 'A' . Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome -Toxic shock Syndrome Toxin Type - 1 (TSST-1) also known as enterotoxin-F or Pyrogenic exotoxin C. Rarely enterotoxin B or C may also cause TSS. | 6,961 | medmcqa_train |
Symptoms of opioid withdrawal are all, EXCEPT: | Opioid withdrawal syndrome may resemble a severe flu-like illness. The syndrome is characterized by rhinorrhea, sneezing, yawning, lacrimation, abdominal cramping, leg cramping, piloerection (gooseflesh), nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dilated pupils, fever, and insomnia. Heroin and methadone withdrawal symptoms peak in 36-72 hours and 72-96 hours, respectively, and may last for 7-10 days and at least 14 days, respectively. | 6,962 | medmcqa_train |
NSAIDs attenuate action of which of the following diuretics: | Loop diuretics increase prostaglandin production by stimulating Cycloxygenase enzyme (COX) and NSAIDs attenuate the diuretic action of these drugs. | 6,963 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following needs cholesterol and other lipids for growth - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Mycoplasma . Unique among prokaryotes is the requirement of most mycoplasma for cholesterol and related sterols, which are incorporated in their surface membrane. | 6,964 | medmcqa_train |
A CKD patient had to undergo dialysis. His Hb was 5.5. So two blood transfusions were to be given. First bag was completed in 2 hours. Second was staed and midway between he developed shoness of breath, hypeension. Vitals: BP 180/120 mm Hg and pulse rate 110/min. What is the cause? | Usually 1 bag takes 4 hr. Option A- Allergic it is very nonspecific symptom Here word mismatch blood transfusion would be a better answer. Option B- TACO As he has been administered with 2 units of blood at a very fast rate causing volume overload Contributing to pulmonary edema Volume expansion-HTN- Compensatory tachycardia Option C- TRALI Ruled out d/t fact that in this case as 1st unit of blood was given much faster even though it wasn't an emergency from the perspective that he is not bleeding, Fast transfusion given to patients with bleeding, moreover it was wrong to give patient with CKD blood transfusion ideally SHOULD Be given erythropoietin injection or packed RBC to patient. If we do volume expansion of patients, chances of pulmonary edema are high. TRALI ruled out because in a question above there are symptoms of volume overload mentioned. TRALI could be answer if Normal BP & no volume overload (it is a non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema.) Option D- Febrile non hemolytic transfusion Rxn causes fever, chills and rigors but does not result in development of HTN, |HR in patients. | 6,965 | medmcqa_train |
A 30-year-old male, Rajinder presents to your office with fatigue, muscle weakness and headache. His blood pressure is 170/120 mm Hg and his hea rate is 100/min. Laboratory evaluation reveals hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and decreased plasma renin activity. On CT scan, a mass was noted on left suprarenal gland. Patient was prescribed a drug for few weeks and the symptoms subsided. Laboratory values and blood pressure returned to normal values. The likely drug given to this patient is? | Mosty likely diagnosis in this patient is aldosterone secreting tumor (adenoma) leading to primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's Syndrome). Aldosterone excess will cause hypeension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and depressed renin. Aldosterone antagonists such as spironolactone or eplerenone can be used as medical therapy for Conn's syndrome. | 6,966 | medmcqa_train |
Reduction of diametervat the muzzle end of a barrel of shotgun is called | Choking Reduction of diameter at the muzzle end of the barrel of a shotgun is called choking Choking reduces the dispersion of pellets and holds the pellets together for a longer distance Choke- bore means diameter of the barrel is reduced at the muzzle end. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 137 | 6,967 | medmcqa_train |
CSF pressure depends primarily on: | Rate of CSF absorption | 6,968 | medmcqa_train |
Meig's syndrome is commonly associated with: | Meig's syndrome is present with ovarian fibroma, ascites and right sided pleural effusion Any other ovarian tumor or a pedunculated fibroid causing ascites with pleural effusion is known as Pseudo Meig's syndrome Most common cause of Pseudo meig's syndrome is Brenner tumor. | 6,969 | medmcqa_train |
The phase I reactions of drug metabolism include the following except: | Biotransformation reactions can be classified into:
Nonsynthetic/Phase 1/Functionalization reactions:
A functional group (- OH, -COOH, -CHO, H2, - SH) is generated or exposed- metabolite may be active or inactive.
Synthetic / Conjugation / Phase lI reactions:
An endogenous radical is conjugated to the drug- metabolite is mostly inactive; except few drugs, e.g. glucuronide conjugate of morphine and sulfate conjugate of minoxidil are active.
Certain drugs already have functional groups and are directly conjugated, while others undergo a phase I reaction first followed by a phase II reaction. | 6,970 | medmcqa_train |
Oblique popliteal ligament is pierced by ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Middle genicular branch of popliteal aery Oblique popliteal ligament It is an expansion from the tendon of semimembranosus attachment to intercondylar line of femur.It is closely related to popliteal aery and is pierced by middle genicular vessels and nerve and the terminal pa of the posterior division of the obturator nerve. | 6,971 | medmcqa_train |
A nurse is giving instructions to a client who is receiving Mycophenolate mofetil (CellCept) and Mycophenolic acid (Myfortic) after undergoing a heart transplant. The nurse tells the client to anticipate the following side effects, except? | These medications can cause diarrhea, vomiting, sepsis, back pain, neutropenia and hypertension. | 6,972 | medmcqa_train |
Mechanism of action of theophylline in bronchial asthma is: | Ans. (A) Phosphodiesterase 4 inhibition(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p345; KDT 8th/e p245)Theophylline is used in bronchial asthma. Its mechanism of action is:Inhibition of phosphodiesterases particularly PDE-4.Antagonism of adenosine receptors.Enhancement of histone deacetylation. Acetylation of histone is required for activation of inflammatory gene transcription. By inhibiting this process, low-dose theophylline may restore responsiveness to corticosteroids. | 6,973 | medmcqa_train |
Structure forming medial boundary of femoral ring is: | Ans. C i.e. Lacunar ligament | 6,974 | medmcqa_train |
Following admission to the hospital for intestinal obstruction, a 48-year-old woman states that she previously had undergone cholecystectomy and choledochoduodenostomy. The most likely indication for the performance of the choledochoduodenostomy was: | Multiple stones were present in the CBD at the previous operation. During exploration of the CBD, most stones can be removed by using Desjardin's forceps or under direct vision using a choledochoscope and Dormia basket. However, if there are multiple stones impacted in the lower part of the CBD, a drainage procedure may be indicated. The CBD must be dilated before considering performing a choledochoduodenostomy at the time of gallbladder surgery (Figure below). If a stone is present in a dilated CBD after previous cholecystectomy, a choledochoduodenostomy is performed, because the rate of recurrent jaundice is high (>20%). Alternatively ERCP and sphincterotomy could be considered.Treatment for invasive gallbladder cancer is cholecystectomy and a wedge resection of the liver along with a regional lymphadenectomy. The wedge resection of the liver is illustrated. Segments 4 and 5 together with the lymph node regions should be removed. | 6,975 | medmcqa_train |
Normal role of Micro RNA is | MicroRNA (abbreted miRNA) is a small non-coding RNA molecule (containing about 22 nucleotides) found in plants, animals, and some viruses, that functions in RNA silencing and post-transcriptional regulation of gene expression.miRNAs (microRNAs) are sho non-coding RNAs that regulate gene expression post-transcriptionally. They generally bind to the 3&;-UTR (untranslated region) of their target mRNAs and repress protein production by destabilizing the mRNA and translational silencing. | 6,976 | medmcqa_train |
Malignant tumor associated with Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia includes - | Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia is a syndrome in which high levels of IgM lead to symptoms related to hyperviscosity of the blood. It occurs in older adults , most commonly associated with lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma. Smoldering myelomas an uncommon variant of multiple myeloma defined by a lack of symptoms and a high plasma M component. Primary effusion lymphoma presents as a malignant pleural or ascitic effusion in patients with advanced HIV and older adults. Mycosis fungoides is a slowly evolving cutaneous T cell lymphoma occuring in middle aged adult males. Reference; Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 596,598 Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology, 7th edition.Pg no.359 | 6,977 | medmcqa_train |
Death occurs faster in: MP 08 | Ans. Fresh water drowning | 6,978 | medmcqa_train |
All are to access platelet functions EXCEPT: | Prothrombin time REF: Wintrobe's hematology lied page 1242 Tests for platelet function: Bleeding time: Hemostasis in a small superficial wound, such as that produced when measuring the bleeding time, depends on the rate at which a stable platelet plug is formed and, thus, provides a measure of the efficiency of the vascular and platelet phases. However, it does not discriminate between vascular defects, thrombocytopenia, and platelet dysfunction. Platelet enumeration Platelet volume measurements Platelet aggregation Clot Retraction: Clot retraction usually is deficient when the platelet count is below 50,000411 and in a rare disorder of platelet function (Glanzmann thrombasthenia). It is normal in most other disorders of platelet function. This test is primarily of historical interest; Glanzmann thrombasthenia is typically diagnosed using platelet aggregation methods or flow cytometer. Tests of Coagulation Phase: Paial thromboplastin time: The PTT is a simple test of the intrinsic and common pathways of coagulation. When a mixture of plasma and a phospholipid platelet substitute is re-calcified, fibrin forms at a normal rate only if the factors involved in the intrinsic pathway (prekallikrein, high-molecular-weight kininogen, and factors XII, XI, IX, and VIII) and in the common pathway (factors X and V, prothrombin, and fibrinogen) are present in normal amounts. The PTT is somewhat more sensitive to deficiencies of factors VIII and IX than to deficiencies of factors XI and XII or factors involved in the common pathway Prothrombin time The production of fibrin by means of the extrinsic and common pathways requires tissue factor and factor VII, in addition to factors X and V, Prothrombin, and fibrinogen Thromboplastin generation test: The thromboplastin generation test is impoant for historical reasons. This two-stage test measures the amount and rate of prothrombinase formation by way of the intrinsic pathway Assay of plasma fibrinogen Interpretation of Common Tests of Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation Test Normal Range a (+-2 Common Causes of Abnormalities SD) and Reference Platelet count Thrombocytopenia, thrombocytosis Phase microscopy 140,000-440,000/u1 Automated 177,000-406,000/111 Paial thromboplastin 26-37 sec Deficiencies or inhibitors of prekallikrein; high? time(activated)* molecular-weight kininogen; factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, and V; Prothrombin or fibrinogen; lupus inhibitors; heparin Prothrombin time* 12.0-15.5 sec Deficiencies or inhibitors of factors VII, X, and V; prothrombin or fibrinogen; dysfibrinogenemia; lupus inhibitors; heparin Thrombin time* 18-22 sec A/dys/hypo/hyper-fibrinogenemia; inhibitors of thrombin (heparin) or fibrin polymerization (fibrin degradation products, Para proteins) Fibrinogen assay* 150-430 mg/dl Afibrinogenemia, dysfibrinogenemia, and hypofibrinogenemia; inhibitors of thrombin or fibrinpolymerization Factor VIII assay* 50-150 U/dl Hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease; acquired antibodies to factor VIII Fibrin degradation 0-5 pg/m1 Disseminated intravascular coagulation; fibrinogenolysis; product assay thrombolytic drugs, liver disease; Dysfibrinogenemia NOTE: (1 mark signifies tests affected by heparin | 6,979 | medmcqa_train |
Gluconeogenesis can occur from all except | Substrates for gluconeogenesis are lactate (lactic acid), pyruvate, glycerol, glucogenic amino acids (all amino acids except leucine and lycine), propionate and intermediates of the citric acid cycle. | 6,980 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following vasculitis is ANCA negative | ANCAs are not seen in Polyarteritis nodosa. | 6,981 | medmcqa_train |
Anitskov's cells are modified: | Ans: b (Macrophages) Ref: Robbins, p. 593In acute rheumatic fever, focal inflammatory lesions found in the heart are called Ashoff bodies. They consist of foci of swollen eosinophils, collagen surrounded by lymphocytes, but occasionally they contain plasma cells and plump macrophages. These plump macrophages are called Anitschkow cells.They are pathognonomic of rheumatic fever.Some other important cells:-LEcell- Neutrophil in SLETart cell- lymphocyte in SLELangerhan'scell- Ag presenting cells in epidermis (modified macrophages)Langhan's cell- Giant cells in granulomaGlitter cells- leucocytes in pyelonephritisGitter cells- microglia in CNSFlame cells- plasma cells in multiple myelomaFoam cells- lipid containing macrophages in leprosyHofbauer cells- placentaArmani Ebstein cells- Epithelial cells of PCT in DM | 6,982 | medmcqa_train |
Increased blood volume in tissue is known as - | Hyperemia is an active process due to aeriolar dilatation and increased blood inflow, resulting in high blood volume at tissues. Basic Pathology, Robbins. Page no.: 75 | 6,983 | medmcqa_train |
Deformity is most commonly seen in primary osteoarthritis of the knee joint - | In knee joint osteoarthritis, medial joint space is affected earliest and causes asymmetrical joint space narrowing. This results in varus deformity (genu varus). | 6,984 | medmcqa_train |
First increase of reticulocyte count occurs after how many hours of iron therapy | Ans: a (48 - 72 hrs) Ref: OP Ghai, 6th ed, p. 302Rise in reticulocyte count occurs by 48 - 72 hrs after start of Iron therapy.Course of events after starting iron therapy :1. Child becomes less irritable and appetite improves within 24 hrs2. Bone marrow response is observed within 48 hrs3. Rise in reticulocyte count by 2nd to 3rd day4. Elevation of hemoglobin occurs next which may take upto 2 months depending on the severity of anaemiaNote:Dosage for parentral iron (iron dextran)Iron (mg) = Wt (kg) x Hb deficit (gm/dl) x 4 | 6,985 | medmcqa_train |
Tongue anomaly is called as: | A completely cleft or bifid tongue is a rare condition that is apparently due to lack of merging of the lateral lingual swellings of this organ. A partially cleft tongue is considerably more common and is manifested simply as a deep groove in the midline of the dorsal surface. The partial cleft results because of incomplete merging and failure of groove obliteration by underlying mesenchymal proliferation. Interestingly, it is often found as one feature of the oral-facial-digital syndrome in association with thick, fibrous bands in the lower anterior mucobuccal fold eliminating the sulcus and with clefting of the hypoplastic mandibular alveolar process.
Ref:Shafer’s Ed 7th Pg 26 | 6,986 | medmcqa_train |
Lymphocytic colitis | The characteristic feature of LC is an infiltration by lymphocytes into the colonic epithelium. Collagenous colitis (CC) shares this feature but additionally shows a distinctive thickening of the subepithelial collagen table. LC and CC have been suggested to represent different phases of a single pathophysiologic process, with LC possibly being a precursor or earlier phase of CC; however, this has not been proven. REFERANCE. MEDSCAP.COM IMAGE REF: | 6,987 | medmcqa_train |
A Bone marrow transplant receipient patient, developed chest infection. ON chest Xray Tree in Bud appearance is present. The cause of this is: | D i.e. (RSV) - Most common cause of tree in bud (bronchiectasis) appearance is Mycobacterium tuberculosis (endobronchial). Most common specific cause of tree in bud appearance in HSL (bone marrow) transplant patients is CMV (30-70%) > RSV (18%) > M. tuberculosis (5-6%) > Pneumocystis > Invasive aspergillosis. Tree in Bud appearance 6 Months) - Pneumocystis - S.pneumoniae - CMV, Seasonal respiratory virus (RSV & para influenza viruses) - Pneumocystis - Toxoplasma " v:shapes="_x0000_s1031">Tree in bud appearance (or gloved finger appearance) is depiction of normally invisible branching course of intralobular bronchiole on HRCT. It indicates the endobronchial spread of disease lit bronchiolar luminal impaction with mucus, pus or fluid, bronchiolar wall thickening, peribronchiolar inflammation and dilatation of distal bronchioles. On HRCT, it appears as peripheral (within 5mm of pleural surface) small (2-4mm) centrilobular well defined nodules connected to linear branching opacities with more than one contiguous branching sites. | 6,988 | medmcqa_train |
A newborn baby presents with shock, hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia. What is the most likely diagnosis- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Congenital adrenal hyperplasia | 6,989 | medmcqa_train |
Dissociated sensory loss is seen in | Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. * The classical presentation in syringomyelia is a central cord syndrome consisting of a dissociated sensory loss and areflexic weakness in upper limbs | 6,990 | medmcqa_train |
Subacute combined degeneration of cord is due to deficiency of:- | Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to:- Megaloblastic anemia Pernicious anemia Sub-acute combined degeneration of spinal cord Peripheral neuropathy Infeility Atrophic glossitis. | 6,991 | medmcqa_train |
H.P. inclusion bodies in trachoma are seen to be: | Ans. Intracytoplasmic | 6,992 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum effect of bronchodilatation in asthma is caused by - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., b2-Agonist b-agonists in Asthmao Bronchi have b2-adrenergic receptors which cause bronchodilatation - So, the adrenergic drugs used in asthma are selective b2 agonists.o b2-agonists are the most effective bronchodilatorso b2-agonists have some other effects also on airways (other than bonrchodilatation), that are responsible for beneficial effects in asthma:Inhibition of release of mast cells mediators -mast cells stabilizing action.Inhibition of exudation and airway edema.Increased mucociliary clearanceDecreased cougho b2-agonists have no effect on inflammation - no antiinflammatory action. | 6,993 | medmcqa_train |
The diluent used for BCG is - | <p>BCG Aim- To induce a benign,aificial primary infection which will stimulate an acquired resistance to possible subsequent infection with virulent tubercle bacilli, and thus reduce the morbidity and moality from primary tuberculosis among those most at risk. WHO recommends the &;Danish 1331&; strain for vaccine production. Stable for several weeks at ambient temperature in a tropical climate and for upto 1 year if kept away from direct light and stored in a cool environment below 10 deg celcius. Vaccine must be protected from light ( wrapped up in a double layer of red/ black cloth). Normal saline is recommended as diluent for reconstituting the vaccine as distilled water may cause irritation. Reconstituted vaccine may be used within 3 hours. Dosage-0.1 mg in 0.1 ml volume. The dose of newborn below 4 weeks is 0.05 ml. Administered intradermally using tuberculin syringe. Injected slightly above the inseion of left deltoid. If injected too high / too low adjacent lymph nodes may become involved and tender. The vaccine must not be contaminated with an antiseptic/detergent. If alcohol is used to swab the skin , it must be allowed to evaporate before the vaccine is given. Phenomenon after vaccination:/ 2-3 weeks after a correct intradermal injection of a potent vaccine, a papule develops at the site of vaccination. It increases slowly in size and reaches a a diameter of about 4-8 mm in 5 weeks. It then subsides or breaks into a shallow ulcer but usually seen covered by a crust. Healing occurs within 6-12weeks leaving a permanent,tiny, round scar (4-8 mm in diameter).This is a normal reaction. Normally the individual become mantoux postive after 8 weeks has elapsed. Adverse reactions: prolonged severe ulceration at the site of vaccination, suppurative lymphadenitis, osteomyelitis and disseminated BCG infection. Contraindications: BCG should not be given to patients with generalised eczema, infective dermatosis, hypogammaglobulinemia , those with history of deficient immunity, patients under immunosuppressive treatment and in pregnancy. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.196}</p> | 6,994 | medmcqa_train |
Adverse reaction following whole cells pertussis immunization is - | Ans. is 'd' i.e.. All of above Advese effect with pertusis (used in DPT)o Local pain, swelling, rednesso Fevero Convulsiono Anaphylaxiso Hypotensive, hyporesponsive episod. | 6,995 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following arises from infraglenoid tubercle - | Ans. is'b' i.e., Long head of tricepsSupraglenoid tubercle of scapula : origin oflong head ofbiceps.Infraglenoid tubercle of scapula : origin of long head of triceps | 6,996 | medmcqa_train |
Thickness of lead apron to prevent radiation - | lead aprons of thickness 0.5mm will reduce the intensity of scattered X rays over 90% and should be worn by all workers regularly exposed to X ray procedures. Radiation protection is the youngest bramch of hygiene and is called radiation hygiene. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.page no: 745 | 6,997 | medmcqa_train |
The names Brechner and Bethune are associated with which of the following devices? | Ans. d. End tidal capnography (Ref: Bethune, R. W. M., and Brechner, V. L. (1968). Detection of venous air embolism by carbon dioxide monitoring. Anesthesiology, 29, 178)Brechner and Bethune are associated with end-tidal capnography. | 6,998 | medmcqa_train |
Sexually active male comes with complaints of recurrent ulcers over the glans which heals with hyperpigmentation . Lesions characteristically recur after intake of sulfonamidees, probable diagnosis is - | Fixed drug eruption It characteristically recur at the same site following administration of offending drugs or occasionally a member of the same group of drugs. They occur 30min to 8hrs after drug administration Most common drugs: Sulfonamides NSAIDS Dapsone Batbiturates Ciprofloxacin Phenytoin Griseofulvin Metronidazole Antituberculous drugs Pathomechanism Drug induced CD8 positive Tcells induce INFs and TNFalpha dependent damage to keratinocytes Clinical features Single / multiple, round / oval lesions Well demarcated erythematous edematous plaques that resolve with violaceous /hyperpigmented macules Associated burning/ stinging and pruritus Most common sites: oral mucosa; glans penis; hands and feet Bulbous fed: generalised well defines erythematous and bulbous lesions bilateral and symmetrical. Pseudoephedrine causes nonpigmented FDE lesion heal without pigmentation Investigations: oral or topical provocation test. Test drug is taken orally or applied topically Treatment Discontinue the offending drug Coicosteroids: topical and systemic Antihistamines IADVL textbook of dermatology page 1668 | 6,999 | medmcqa_train |
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