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Which of the following is not a feature of hallucination: September2010 | Ans. D: Always pathologicalA hallucination, in the broadest sense of the word, is a perception in the absence of a stimulus.In a stricter sense, hallucinations are defined as perceptions in a conscious and awake state in the absence of external stimuli which have qualities of real perception, in that they are vivid, substantial, and located in external objective space. Hallucinations can occur in any sensory modality -- visual, auditory, olfactory, gustatory, tactile, proprioceptive, equilibrioceptive, nociceptive, thermoceptive and chronoceptive. | 4,100 | medmcqa_train |
A child with 3 years age presents with weakness with Hb level <5 gm/100 ml. History of joint swelling and bleeding spot were present. What would be causative organism? | Signs and Symptoms Most children with hookworm infections have no signs or symptoms. However, especially when the infection is long term, it can cause iron deficiency and anemia (low red blood cells) because of bleeding from the bowel wall where the worm is attached. Other symptoms include mild diarrhea and stomach cramps. An itchy, red skin rash (ground itch) can appear on the feet where the larvae entered the body. Lung inflammation with cough, wheezing, and fever rarely occur while the larvae migrate through the lungs. Several weeks after exposure to this hookworm, a loss of appetite and weight loss may occur. Chronic infections can lead to poor nutrition. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | 4,101 | medmcqa_train |
For the following side effects, select the most likely medication to cause them.Disinterest in food with protein/calorie malnutrition. | Tricyclic antidepressants and SSRIs are both effective treatments for depression, but their side-effect profiles are different. Tricyclics can promote weight gain while weight loss is more common with SSRIs. | 4,102 | medmcqa_train |
Second constriction of oesophagus lies at the level of | (A) (Where aortic arch Crosses) (282-BDC-16(tm))CONSTRICTIONSNormally the oesophagus shows 4 constrictions at the following levels1. At its beginning 15 cm/6 inch form the incisor teeth where it is crossed by cricopharyngeus muscles2. Where it is crossed by the aortic arch, 22,5cm /19 inch from the incisor teeth3. Where it is crossed by the left bronchus, 27.5cm /11 inch from the incisor teeth4. Where it pierces the diaphragm 37.5 cm/15 inch from the incisor teethOESOPHAGUS* About 25 cm long (10 inch)* The pharyngo-oesophageal junction is the commoned part of the alimentary canal except for the vermiform appendix* It passes through the diaphragm at the level of the 10th thoracic vertebra to join the stomachImportant features of esophagus* Epithelium is stralified squamous non * keratinized epithelium* Muscularis mucosa contains only longitudinal layer and no circular layer* Mucosa is the toughest and strongest layer *** Serosa is absent* Muscmaris extern is made up skeletal muscle fibre only in the upper ihird, smooth muscle only in the lower third and both types of muscle fibres in middle third. At uppen end the longitudinal coat split into two bundles and the triangular interval between them is called Laimer's triangle which is filled with circular muscle fibers* Extent of esophagus is -C6 -T i j* Trachea bifurcates at carina, at the level of lower border of T4 or T4-T5 disc spaces* Oesophageal opening transmits1. Oesophagus2. Gastric or vagus nerve3. Oesophageal branches of the left gastric artery. With some oesophageal veins* Arterial supply- Upper third -inferior thyroid artery **- Middle third - Oesophageal branches of the ** descending thoracic aorta- Lower third - Left gastric artery ** | 4,103 | medmcqa_train |
Magnitude of action potential is determined by: | Maximum magnitude is determined by equilibrium potential of Na+ ion. | 4,104 | medmcqa_train |
Indications of prophylactic cholecystectomy are all except | Diabetes Mellitus Patients with diabetes may have a higher incidence of gallstones from the indirect effects of the metabolic syndrome, obesity, and a family history of gallstones No data show worse evolution of asymptomatic cholelithiasis in diabetes, and prophylactic cholecystectomy in asymptomatic gallstones carriers with diabetes is not recommended Ref: Blumga 5th edition Pgno : 486 | 4,105 | medmcqa_train |
The source of apo-E and apo C-II for the chylomicrons is: | Newly secreted or "nascent" chylomicrons and ApoB-48 apolipoprotein. HDL acts as a reservoir of lipoproteins and provide ApoE and ApoC to nascent chylomicrons to form mature chylomicrons. | 4,106 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about loop diuretics except: | Loop diuretics lead to hypocalcemia and hypomagnesimia. | 4,107 | medmcqa_train |
Panic attack is associated with a disturbance in all of the following neurotransmitters except - | The major neurotransmitter systems that have been implicated in panic disorder are those for norepinephrine, serotonin and GABA.
"An abnormal dopaminergic function has been hypothesized to be involved as an etiological factor in panic disorder as well as migraine" | 4,108 | medmcqa_train |
A 6 year old boy has been complaining of headache, ignoring to see the objects on the side for 4 months. On Examination, he is not mentally retarded, his grades at school are good & visual acuity is diminished in both the eyes, visual chaing showed significant field defect. CT scan of the head showed suprasellar mass with calcification. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis? | B i.e. Craniopharyngioma | 4,109 | medmcqa_train |
All-trans-retinoic acid is used in treatment of | Ref: Harrison 17th/389,447 All-trans-retinoic acid is used in the treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia. | 4,110 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are the risk factors for carcinoma gallbladder except: | Risk Factors of Carcinoma Gallbladder Gallstones >3 cm Porcelain gallbladder Anomalous pancreatobiliary junction Choledochal cysts Adenomatous polyps Primary sclerosing cholangitis Obesity Salmonella typhi infection | 4,111 | medmcqa_train |
Chances of blindness in diabetic patient as compared to non-diabetic patient is ? | Answer- D. 25 timesThe gravity of this problem is highlighted by the finding that individual with DM are 25 times more likely to become legally blind than individuals without DM. | 4,112 | medmcqa_train |
Tyrosine is required for the synthesis of all of the following except: | Ans. A. MelatoninMelatonin is a hormone, synthesized by pineal gland. The amino acid required is tryptophan. It is also called N-acetyl 5- methoxy serotonin. Melatonin is involved in circadian rhythms.Epinephrine, Nor-epinephrine and thyroxine are all synthesized by Tyrosine. | 4,113 | medmcqa_train |
Impulses generated in the taste buds of the tongue reach the cerebral cortex via the: | Functions of the Thalamus:
The main functions of the thalamus are as follows:
It is a sensory integration and relay station of all the sensory pathways except for the olfactory pathway which is projected directly to the cerebral cortex without being relayed in the thalamus.
The impulses from taste buds of tongue reach the cerebral cortex via this relay station.
It is capable of recognition, though poorly, of pain, thermal and some tactile sensations at its own level | 4,114 | medmcqa_train |
Sinusitis in children is commoner in which sinus: | The commonest sinus involved was ethmoidal in children and mixed sinus pathology in adults. The majority of patients responded to medical treatment. CONCLUSION: Orbital complications of sinusitis are commoner in children than adults and have orable prognosis. | 4,115 | medmcqa_train |
Most common of all psychiatric disorders are - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anxiety disorder o Anxiety disorders are the most common of all psychiatric illnesses. According to DSM-IV-TR following are anxiety disorder :-Panic disorder with or without agoraphobia.Agoraphobia with or without panic disorder.Specific phobia.Social phobia.Obsessive - compulsive disorder.Post traumatic stress disorder.Generalized anxiety disorder. | 4,116 | medmcqa_train |
What is the sequence which a retrovirus follows on entering a host cell - | when virus infect a cell viral RNA is transcribed by enzyme first into ssDNA then to dsDNA REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.571 | 4,117 | medmcqa_train |
The most appropriate drug used for chelation therapy in beta thalassemia major is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oral deferiprone Desferrioxamine is poorly absorbed from GIT and hence not recommended for oral administration, although it continues to be the chelating agent of choice for parentral administration. o Deferiprone is a recently introduced orally active iron chelating agent meant to be used as an alternative to injected desferrioxamine. o Oral Deferiprone is prefered over oral desferrioxamine. Remember o For acute iron poisoning desferioxamine is the DOC. o For chronic iron overload, e.g. thalassemia, oral deferipone is the DOC. | 4,118 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is true about follicular carcinoma of thyroid? | follicullar carcinoma is not a common thyroid cancer,occurance is 10-15%. it spreads mainly through blood into bones,lungs ,liver FNAC is inconclusive , because capsular and angioinvasion which can&;t be detected by FNAC It is a well localised, nonmobile, soft, fluctuant and pulsatile secondaries in the skull ref ;(page no;482) 5th edition of SRB&;S Manual of SURGERY | 4,119 | medmcqa_train |
ORS plus Zinc | Zinc supplementation with ORS therapy reduce Duration of diarrhea Severity of acute and persistent diarrhea Volume of diarrhea | 4,120 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for preventing Fetal Toxoplasmosis infection during pregnancy is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Spiramycin * Classic congenital toxoplasmosis is characterized by the tetrad described by Sabin in 1942: chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcification and convulsion.Signs such as intracranial calcification, microcephaly, hydrocephalus, and severe intrauterine growth restriction strongly suggest in utero infection in the presence of documented maternal infection.* Maternal-fetal transmission occurs between 1 and 4 months following placental colonization by tachyzoites* There are 2 goals of drug therapy for toxoplasmosis, depending on whether or not fetal infection has occurred. If maternal infection has occurred but the fetus is not infected, Spiramycin is used for fetal prophylaxis (to prevent spread of organisms across the placenta from mother to fetus). Spiramycin is a macrolide antibiotic that is concentrated in but does not readily cross the placenta, and therefore is not reliable for treatment of fetal infection. Use is aimed at preventing vertical transmission of the parasite to the fetus, and it is indicated only before fetal infection* It is given at a dose of 1 g (3 million U) orally every 8 hours.lt will be prescribed for the duration of the pregnancy if the amniotic fluid polymerase chain reaction is reported negative for T. gondii.* If fetal infection has been confirmed or is highly suspected, pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine are used for treatment. Pyrimethamine is a folic acid antagonist that acts synergistically with sulfonamides. This drug should not be used in the first trimester because it is potentially teratogenic. It produces a reversible, dose related depression of the bone marrow and therefore must be combined with folinic acid. The combination of pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine results in a significant decrease in disease severity. | 4,121 | medmcqa_train |
SIADH true is all except - | Water retention also occurs in the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of ADH (SIADH). In this condition, an endogenous source of ADH (either cerebral or tumour-derived) promotes water retention by the kidney in the absence of an appropriate physiological stimulus (Box 16.13). The clinical diagnosis requires the patient to be euvolaemic, with no evidence of cardiac, renal or hepatic disease potentially associated with hyponatraemia. Other non-osmotic stimuli that cause release of ADH (pain, stress, nausea) should also be excluded. Suppoive laboratory findings are shown in Box 16.13. In this situation, plasma concentrations of sodium, chloride, urea and uric acid are low with a correspondingly reduced osmolality. Urine osmolality, which should physiologically be maximally dilute (approximately 50 mmol/kg) in the face of low plasma osmolality, is higher than at least 100 mmol/kg and indeed is typically higher than the plasma osmolality. The urine sodium concentration is typically high (> 30 mmol/L), consistent with euvolaemia and lack of compensatory factors promoting sodium retention. Plasma and urine electrolytes and osmolality (Box 16.14) are usually the only tests required to classify the hyponatraemia. Doubt about clinical signs of ECF volume may be resolved with measurement of plasma renin activity. Measurement of ADH is not generally helpful in distinguishing between these categories of hyponatraemia. This is because ADH is activated both in hypovolaemic states and in most chronic hypervolaemic states, as the impaired circulation in those disorders activates ADH release through non-osmotic mechanisms. Indeed, these disorders may have higher circulating ADH levels than patients with SIADH. The only disorders listed in Box 16.12 in which ADH is suppressed are primary polydipsia and iatrogenic water intoxication, where the hypo-osmolar state inhibits ADH release from the pituitary. The treatment of hyponatraemia is critically dependent on its rate of development, severity and underlying cause. If hyponatraemia has developed rapidly (over hours to days), and there are signs of cerebral oedema such as obtundation or convulsions, sodium levels should be restored to normal rapidly by infusion of hypeonic (3%) sodium chloride. A common approach is to give an initial bolus of 100 mL, which may be repeated once or twice over the initial hours of observation, depending on the neurological response and rise in plasma sodium. On the other hand, rapid correction of hyponatraemia that has developed slowly (over weeks to months) can be hazardous, since brain cells adapt to slowly developing hypo-osmolality by reducing the intracellular osmolality, thus maintaining normal cell volume. DAVIDSON'S PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICE OF MEDICINE 22nd EDITION PAGE NO-438 | 4,122 | medmcqa_train |
Shoe polish like smell is seen in: | Ans. d. Nitrobenzene (Ref: Reddy 33/e p507; Industrial Hygiene and Toxicology. General Principles/p 174)Shoe polish like smell is seen in Nitrobenzene."Nitrobenzene is an oily yellow to yellow-brown liquid that smells like bitter almonds or shoe polish. Nitrobenzene dissolves only slightly in water and easily in other chemicals. It is man-made. The most common exposure is at workplaces that use nitrobenzene to produce dyes, drugs, pesticides or some types of rubber. "Characteristic Odours produced by ToxinsOdourToxinsAcrid (Pear smell)* ParaldehydeQ, Chloral hydrateQBitter almonds* CyanideQBurnt rope* Marijuana (Cannabis)QDisinfectant* Phenol (Carbolic acid), CreosoteGarlic* PhosphorusQ, Tellurium, Thallium* Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)Fish or raw liver (Musty)* Zinc phosphideQ. Aluminum phosphideQKerosene like* OrganophosphateMint* Methylsalicylate (Oil of Wintergreen), MentholMothballs* Naphthalene, Camphor, p-dichlorobenzenePepper* o-chlorobenzylidene malonitrile (Tear gas)Rotten eggs* Hydrogen sulphideQ, Carbon disulphideQ* Mercaptans DisulfiramQ, N -acetyIcysteineQShoe polish* NitrobenzeneVinegar* Acetic acidQ; Hydrofluoric acid | 4,123 | medmcqa_train |
A woman assaulted by neighbor was brought to you in the emergency depament with fracture of middle tooth. Injury was extended medially to the mouth and there was also contusion to bilateral leg. What is the nature of the injury | Ans. a. Grievous injury Fracture or dislocation of a bone or a tooth constitute Grevious injury. Grevious Injury (Sec 320 IPC) Emasculation Permanent privation of either eyedeg Permanent privation of either ear Privation of any member (pa, organ or limb) or joint Permanent disfiguration of head or facedeg Fracture or dislocation of a bone or a toothdeg Destruction or permanent impairing of powers of any member or joint Any hu which endangers life, or which causes the sufferer to be, during the space of 20 days, in severe body pain, or unable to follow his daily routinedeg. | 4,124 | medmcqa_train |
Protein requirement for 2 year old child (per day)- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 20 gm GroupageProtein/davInfant0-6 month6-12 month2.05/kg1.65,'TegChildren1-3 year4-6 year7-9 year10-12 year13-15 gm22 gm30 gm41 gm54 gm65-70 gm | 4,125 | medmcqa_train |
The cardiac silhouette can have an "egg on side" appearance in | Transposition of great vessels (TGA) is defined as aoa arising from the right ventricle and pulmonary aery from the left ventricle. In patients with TGA, the oxygenated pulmonary venous blood recirculates in the lungs whereas the systemic venous blood recirculates in the systemic circulation. The pulmonary aery saturation is thus always higher than the aoic saturation. Survival depends on the mixing available between the two circulations. Patients of complete TGA with intact ventricular septum are cyanotic at bih. Since the interatrial communication results in poor mixing, the neonates present with rapid breathing and congestive failure secondary to hypoxemia within the first week of life. Physical examination shows severe cyanosis, congestive failure, normal first sound, single second sound and an insignificant grade one to two ejection systolic murmur. The electrocardiogram shows right axis detion and right ventricular hyperophy. The thoracic roentgenogram shows cardiomegaly with a narrow base and plethoric lung fields. The cardiac silhouette can have an "egg on side" appearance: The right upper lung fields appear more plethoric than other areas. The thymic shadow is often absent. Patients of TGA with VSD have increased pulmonary blood flow; mixing at the ventricular level determines the severity of cyanosis. They develop congestive failure around 4-10 weeks of age. Physical findings consist of cyanosis, cardiomegaly, congestive failure, normal first sound, single or normally split second sound and grade II-IV ejection systolic murmur. Apical third sound gallop or a mid-diastolic rumble may be present. Electrocardiogram shows right axis detion with biventricular, right ventricular or left ventricular hyperophy. Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly, plethoric lung fields and features of pulmonary venous hypeension. The aerial switch operation is now established as the treatment of choice for TGA, Prostaglandin El can help reduce cyanosis in selected cases by keeping the PDA open. Interim palliation can be accomplished through a balloon atrial septostomy. Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 425 | 4,126 | medmcqa_train |
Characteristic features of benign prostate hyperophy include all of the following except : | Radiological features of BPH: 'Slit-like' elongated and compressed urethra Smooth filling defect/ indentation in bladder floor Periurethral and subvesical enlargement is very pronounced may produce rounded defect in floor mimicking Foley's balloon. Floor of bladder elevated and trigone pushed upwards, with distal ureteral 'J' or 'Fish Hook' deformity. Trabeculations and distension of bladder Bladder pseudodiveiculi and calculi Bilateral hydronephrosis and hydroureter may occur. On the IVU study the enlarged prostate gland (P) elevates the bladder floor and causes a J-hooking (fish-hooking) deformity of the distal ureters (arrow). | 4,127 | medmcqa_train |
Oakley-Fulthorpe procedure is: | *Various immunodiffusion test *Single diffusion in one dimension - Oudin procedure *Double diffusion in one dimension - Oakley fulthorpe procedure *Single diffusion in two dimensions - Radial immunodiffusion *Double diffusion in two dimensions - Ouchterlony procedure | 4,128 | medmcqa_train |
Priapism is seen in | The Spanish fly (Cantharis vesicatoria, blister beetle) is 2 x 0.6 cm in dimensions. Active principle: Cantharidin.Action: It is locally irritant and nephrotoxic agent Priapism in males and aboion in pregnant females may occur. The patient becomes prostrated with convulsions, and coma preceding death. TreatmentGastric lavage, demulcents (but not fat) and symptomatic treatment. Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine ; 5th ed; Page no: 486 | 4,129 | medmcqa_train |
Gene duplication plays an impoant role in the evolution of aEUR' | mRNA (most likely) Gene duplications are impoant forces of genome evolution which change genome size and lead to the evolution of new gene functions. Gene duplication (or chromosomal duplication or gene amplification) is any duplication of a region of DNA that contains a gene; it may occur as an error inhomologous recombination, a retrotransposition event, or duplication of an entire chromosome. The second copy of the gene is often free from selective pressure-- that is, mutations of it have no deleterious effects to its host organism. Thus it accumulates mutations faster than a functional single-copy gene, over generations of organisms. This freedom from consequences allows for the mutation of novel genes that could potentially increase the fitness of the organism or code for a new function. The two genes that exist after a gene duplication event are called paralogs and usually code for proteins with a similar function and/or structure. By contrast, ohologous genes are ones which code for proteins with similar functions but exist in different species | 4,130 | medmcqa_train |
Upper motor neuron lesion is characterized by:March 2013 | Ans. A i.e. Weakness and spasticity | 4,131 | medmcqa_train |
Surgical staging of ovarian Ca all done except; | <p> Steps of surgical laparotomy in ovarian carcinoma; Ascites and peritoneal washing for cytology Systematic exploration of abdomen and pelvis Biopsy of suspicious areas Sampling of diaphragm Infracolic omentectomy Pelvic and paraoic node evaluation Careful documentation of operative findings Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no :278 <\p> | 4,132 | medmcqa_train |
Lardaceous spleen is due to deposition of amyloid in: | Amyloidosis of the spleen may be inapparent grossly or may cause moderate to marked splenomegaly (up to 800 g). Two patterns of deposition is seen:- The deposits limited to the splenic follicles, producing tapioca-like granules on gross inspection, designated sago spleen. The deposits involves the red pulp,Fusion of the early deposits gives rise to large, maplike areas of amyloidosis, creating what has been designated lardaceous spleen. | 4,133 | medmcqa_train |
Wide pulse pressure is seen in | Wide pulse pressure is when SBP increases by more than 50%. It is seen in:
Aortic regurgitation
PDA
Anemia
Beri beri
Hyperthyroidism
Fever
Complete heart block
AV shunts | 4,134 | medmcqa_train |
The following virus can be grown only in suckling mice- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Coxsackie virus . It is necessary to employ suckling mice for the isolation of coxsackie viruses. . Inoculation is usually made by intracerebral, subcutaneous and intraperitoneal route. . Adult mice are not susceptible. | 4,135 | medmcqa_train |
Nephrocalcinosis is seen in all except : | Medullary cystic kidney Nephrocalcinosis Conditions associated with nephrocalcinosis are :- . Hyper ox aluri a . Hyperparathyroidism . Prolonged immobilization . Hypervitaminosis D . Hypophosphatemic rickets excessive bone destruction in metastatic . Coical necrosis malignancies (such as multiple myeloma) . Cushing syndrome . Hypehyroidism . Hyperuricosuria . Excessive calcium intake . Renal candidiasis (milk alkali syndrome) . Sarcoidosis . Renal tubular acidosis (distal) . Medullary sponge kidney Nephrocalcinosis is a diffuse deposition of calcium salts in the interstitium of the kidney. Symptoms The earliest functional defect is the inability to produce a concentrated urine. Other tubular defects such as tubular acidosis and salt losing nephritis might occur. It is radiologically demonstrated by small opacities in the renal papillae. | 4,136 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following relaxes bronchial smooth muscles? | Introduction. A major symptom of asthma is an excessive contraction of airway smooth muscle cells (SMCs) which results in airway hyper-reactivity. To allete this acute and chronic airway constriction, b-adrenergic agonists, that relax SMCs, are commonly administered Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:331,332,333 | 4,137 | medmcqa_train |
Progestase has to be replaced after : | The US Food and Drug Administration (USFDA)-approved effective life is only 1 year. The contraceptive effectiveness of the progestase is similar to that of Cu IUDs; it reduces menstrual loss but has to be replaced every year. | 4,138 | medmcqa_train |
Cholesterol is a(an) | Ref: DM Vasudevan - Textbook of Biochemistry, 6th edition, page no: 146 | 4,139 | medmcqa_train |
Most common site of metastasis in skeleton ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Veebrae Metastasis Metastatic bone disease is the commonest malignancy of bones and is much more common than primary bone tumors. The commonest sites for bone metastases are veebrae (most common), pelvis, the proximal half of the femur and the humerus. Extremities distal to elbow and knee are least commonly involved sites. Spread is usually the blood stream; occasionally, visceral tumors spread directly into adjacent bones e.g., the pelvis and ribs. Ceain tumors are known to be common sources of bone metastasis. The following primary tumors are the most common to metastasize in the bone; breast, prostate, lung, thyroid, kidney, and gastrointestinal tract. The commonest source of metastatic bone disease is carcinoma of the breast. In males most common source is prostate carcinoma. Bladder and uterine carcinomas are less common sources. In children, skeletal metastases originate from neuroblastoma, Ewing's sarcoma, and osteosarcoma. | 4,140 | medmcqa_train |
All are features of hyperparathyroidism except? | Hyperparathyroidism leads to increase PTH. PTH increases serum calcium by increasing dietary absorption of vitamin D3. It also ensures that the proximal convoluted tubule sta losing phosphate in urine leading to decreased serum phosphate. The increase in serum calcium leads to deposition of calcium in kidney parenchyma forming calcium phosphate stones. The increased level of calcium also leads to constipation. Therefore severe abdominal pain is a feature of hyperparathyroidism. Renal Colic is due to stones and severe constipation. Diarrhea is not seen with hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism. | 4,141 | medmcqa_train |
FALSE statement about polyaeritis nodosa (PAN) is: | Polyaeritis nodosa (PAN) It is a multisystem, necrotizing vasculitis of small and medium-sized muscular aeries. Involvement of the renal and visceral aeries is characteristic. PAN does not involve pulmonary aeries, although bronchial vessels may be involved; Granulomas, significant eosinophilia, and an allergic diathesis are not observed. Ref: Harrisons principles of internal medicine, 18th edition, Page: 2794. | 4,142 | medmcqa_train |
A 60-year-old woman, Sridevi presents with a murmur suggestive of mitral stenosis and an echocardiography confirmed a mass attached to the fossa ovalis of the left atrial septum. What is the most likely diagnosis? | Atrial myxoma is the most common benign cardiac tumor. It usually presents with symptoms of valvular obstruction (mural or tricuspid valve). It is attached by a pedicle to the fossa ovalis of the left atrial septum. It is treated by resection. | 4,143 | medmcqa_train |
The cardiac output can be determined by all except | Methods to determine the Cardiac output
Flowmeter
Cardiometer
- Indirect method- Used in humans
Fick’s principle method
Indicator dilution method
Thermodilution method
Doppler echocardiography
Cineradiography | 4,144 | medmcqa_train |
Headache is commonly seen with which anti-anginal drug? | Nitrates produce headache because of vasodilatation of meningeal vessels. Ref katzung 12th ed. | 4,145 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs is effective against pseudomonas infection? | Polymyxin 8 and Colistin Polymyxin and colistin were obtained in the late 1940s from Bacillus polymyxa and B. colistinus respectively. They are active against gramnegative bacteria only; all except Proteus, Serratia and Neisseria are inhibited. Both have very similar range of activity, but colistin is more potent on Pseudomonas, Salmonella and Shigella. Mechanism of action They are rapidly acting bactericidal agents; have a detergent-like action on the cell membrane. They have high affinity for phospholipids: the peptide molecules (or their aggregates) orient between the phospholipid and protein films in gram-negative bacterial cell membrane causing membrane distoion or pseudopore formation. As a result ions, amino acids, etc. leak out. Sensitive bacteria take up more of the antibiotic. They may also inactivate the bacterial endotoxin. They exhibit synergism with many other AMAs by improving their penetration into the bacterial cell. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:734 | 4,146 | medmcqa_train |
Infliximab ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chimeric antibody against TNF alpha | 4,147 | medmcqa_train |
Alpha methyldopa primarily used for | Methyldopa was primarily used in the past but is now used widely for pregnancy induced hypeension. Refer katzung 11e p173 | 4,148 | medmcqa_train |
A 22 year old woman developed small itchy wheals after physical exeion, walking in the sun, eating hot spicy food and when she was angry. The most likely diagnosis is: | D i.e. Cholinergic Uicaria | 4,149 | medmcqa_train |
All are features of Lobar pneumonia except | Consolidation in Lobar pneumonia in Non - segmental. | 4,150 | medmcqa_train |
Frame shift mutation DOESN'T occur in multiples of: | Ans: (b) 3Ref: Harper's Biochemistry 30th edn. / 417-18* Frame-shift mutations* The genetic code is read in form of triplets of nucleotides which are known as codons.* If one or two base pairs from the code are removed or inserted, the genetic code will be misread from that change onwards, because the genetic code is not punctuated. Therefore the amino acid sequence translated from the change onwards will be completely changed. This is known as frame shift mutation.* However if the removal /insertion happens in multiples of three, rest of the reading frame doesn't change and hence the amino acid sequence will not change. | 4,151 | medmcqa_train |
Among the following, which one is considered as 'pathologic problem' while planning treatment in orthodontics? | Inadequate attached gingiva around crowded incisors indicates the possibility of tissue dehiscence developing when the teeth are aligned, especially with non-extraction (arch expansion) treatment.
proffit page 173 | 4,152 | medmcqa_train |
Best view for nasal bone ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lateral | 4,153 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true regrading spinal cord and neuraxial blockade | Spinal cord ends at upper border of L3 in children , and at lower border of L1 in adults. The dural sac extends upto S3 in children and S2 in adults. | 4,154 | medmcqa_train |
All are seen in ARDS, except : | Answer is C (Hypercapnia): ARDS results in Type I Respiratory failure and is characterized by normal or low PaCO2 (Hypocapnia) and not Hypercapnia (see previous explanation on types of respiratory failure). ARDS (Acute Respiratory distress syndrome) ARDS is an acute form of lung injury characterized by: Increased permeability of alveolar capillary membrane. Diffuse alveolar damage. Accumulation of proteinaceous pulmonary edema (non cardiogenic pulmonary edema Q) | 4,155 | medmcqa_train |
The highest E.S.R. is seen in following conditions except: | Polycythemia rubra | 4,156 | medmcqa_train |
Pit viper beongs to - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Crotalidae o Poisonous snakes are divided into six families:Viperidae - Russell's viper, gaboon viper, saw scaled viper, puff adder. They are found in all parts of world except America.Crotalidae - Rattlesnakes, pigmy rattlesnakes, copperheads, pit viper & bush master. They are found in Asia and America.Elapidae - Cobras, kraits, mambas, tiger snake, death adder, copperhead snakes and coral snakes. They are found in all parts of world except Europe.Hydrophidae or sea snakes - All sea snakes are poisonous but they seldom bite.Colubridae - Boomslangs, bird snake of the African continent.Atractaspididae - African & Middle Eastern burrowing asps or stiletto snakes. | 4,157 | medmcqa_train |
"Pointing index" is due to paralysis of: | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Median nerve Pointing index:On asking the pt. to make a fist, it is noticed that the index finger remains straight.This is d/t Paralysis of the flexor digitorum superficialis and that of lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle (to the index finger) in median nerve palsy at a level of proximal to elbow.*Some other related questions:* Wrist drop is seen in*-Radial nerve palsy* Foot drop is seen in*-Common peroneal nv palsy.Winging of the scapula*Claw hand(Main -en -griffe):-Long thoracic nerve palsy.* Partial claw hand*-Ulnar nerve palsy* Complete claw hand*-Ulnar +Median nerve palsy* Ape thumb deformity*-Median nerve palsy* Pointing index*-Median nerve palsy* Policeman's tip deformity*-Also k/a Erb's paralysis d/t injury in the region of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus.Nerve roots involved are mainly C5 & partly C6. | 4,158 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 years old female comes to your clinic for evaluation of infertility. A hysterosalpingogram reveals Asherman's syndrome. What symptoms will the patient have? | Ans. is d, i.e. HypomenorrheaThe typical presenting symptom in adenomyosis is hypomenorrhea, i.e. less blood loss during menstruation. | 4,159 | medmcqa_train |
Anticancer drug also used in RA, produces acrolein in urine that leads to hemorrhagic cystitis | Cyclophosphamide IMPOANT POINTS ON HEMORRHAGIC CYSTITIS: Drugs causing: Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Metabolite responsible: Acrolein - In Cyclophosphamide Chloracetaldehyde - In Ifosfamide Treatment: Mesna. Nitrogen mustards: 1. Cyclophosphamide: Powerful vesicant Prodrug - Activated by hepatic biotransformation to aldophosphamide. Acrolein - One of its degradation products. Responsible for hemorrhagic cystitis - Characteristic adverse effect. Use: DOC for Wegener's granulomatosis. Adverse effects: Hemorrhagic cystitis (Characteristic) - Treated by mercapto ethane sulfonic acid (mesna). May cause cardiac dysfunction, pulmonary toxicity & syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. 2. Ifosfamide: Produces chloracetaldehyde & acrolein as metabolites. Adverse effects: HIGHER risk of neurotoxicity & hemorrhagic cystitis. Chloracetaldehyde - Responsible for nephrotoxic. | 4,160 | medmcqa_train |
Hyponasal voice is seen in all except | Causes of hyponasality are Common cold Nasal allergy Nasal polyp Nasal growth Adenoids Nasopharyngeal mass Familial speech pattern Habitual Ref: PL Dhingra; Textbook of EAR, NOSE and THROAT; edition 7; Page - 357 | 4,161 | medmcqa_train |
Receptor for HIV? | Ans. (a) CD4 | 4,162 | medmcqa_train |
While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along: | A i.e. Upper border of rib: | 4,163 | medmcqa_train |
In circulatory biomechanics which of the following is true? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cardiac output is increased in anemia Cardiac output is increased in conditions which cause decrease in peripheral vascular resistance :- Exercise AV fistula or shunt Severe anemia Thyrotoxicosis Wet beri-beri About other options Blood viscosity is low in anemia and high in polycythemia. | 4,164 | medmcqa_train |
Local anesthetic that is not used topically is? | Bupivacaine REF: Miller 6th e p. 590 Topical ( surface ) anesthetics Not used as surface (topical) ) anesthetics * Lignocaine * Procaine * Tetracaine * Bupivacaine * Dibucaine * Mepivacaine * Prilocaine * Cocaine | 4,165 | medmcqa_train |
Mycobacterium scrofulaceum which cause scrofula, belongs to which groups of atypical mycobacteria - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Scotochromogens | 4,166 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is best for transport of the newborn with maintenance of warm temperature – | "Preferably mother should accompany and baby can be transported in KlI4C position. Even father can provide KII/IC during transport if mother can not a company | 4,167 | medmcqa_train |
cove sensitization is used for | In cove sensitization also called as imagined punishment, the individual who wants to quit alcohol will be asked to think about adverse consequences of taking alcohol like getting arrested for drunken driving or facing a accident underintoxicated state. He would be told to dream as if if he is drunk and lies intoxicated in the road and has to be brought back to the home by family members where he will be given lot of advice from neighbours and there would be a loss of respect. While these imagined exposure the patient feels bad and makes sure thet he should quit alcohol and his thoughts ahgainst alcohol increases. Ref.kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 845 | 4,168 | medmcqa_train |
A 6 month old baby brought to emergency depament with features of cardiac failure. On examination, she found to have developmental delay and a large tongue. Echocardiography shows severe concentric LVH. The most probable diagnosis is: | The type of glycogen storage disease that primarily involves the hea is Pompe disease (GSD IIa) in which acid maltase, necessary for hydrolysis of the outer branches of glycogen, is absent. There is marked deposition of glycogen within the myocardium. Affected infants are well at bih, but symptoms of growth and developmental delay, feeding problems, and cardiac failure occur by the sixth month of life. Physical examination reveals generalized muscular weakness, a large tongue, and cardiomegaly without significant hea murmurs. Chest radiographs reveal cardiomegaly with or without pulmonary venous congestion. The ECG shows a sho PR interval and LVH with ST depression and T-wave inversion over the left precordial leads. Echocardiography shows severe concentric LVH. Children with Pompe disease usually die before age 1 year. Death may be sudden or result from progressive HF. Ref: Darst J.R., Collins K.K., Miyamoto S.D. (2012). Chapter 20. Cardiovascular Diseases. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | 4,169 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following complement components attaches to the crystallizable fragment of immunoglobulin M ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clqrs Only IgM and IgG activate or fix complement the classic pathway. Of the IgGs, only IgG subclasses 1, 2 and 3 fix complement; IgG4 does not.CI, which is bound to a site in the Fc region, is composed of three proteins: Clq, CI r and Cls. Clq is an aggregate of polypeptides that bind to the Fc poion of IgG and IgM.The antibody-antigen immune complex bound to CI activates C I s, which cleaves C4 and C2 to form C4b2b. The latter is an active C3 convease, which cleaves C3 molecules into two fragments: C3a and C3b. | 4,170 | medmcqa_train |
All of the folowing opens into middle meatus except: | Superior Meatus The superior meatus lies below the superior concha. It receives the openings of the posterior ethmoid sinuses.Middle MeatusThe middle meatus lies below the middle concha. It has a rounded swelling called the bulla ethmoidalis that is formed by the middle ethmoidal air sinuses, which open on its upper border.A curved opening, the hiatus semilunaris, lies just below the bulla. The maxillary sinus opens into the middle meatus through the hiatus semilunaris.The opening of the frontal air sinus is seen in the anterior pa of the hiatus semilunarisInferior MeatusThe inferior meatus is below and lateral to the inferior nasal concha; the nasolacrimal duct opens into this meatus under cover of the anterior pa of the inferior concha. | 4,171 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following instruments is shown below? | Ans. (d) Slit lamp biomicroscope. | 4,172 | medmcqa_train |
About cushing syndrome, true Is - | most cases the cause is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia due to hyper secretion of pituitary ACTH or ectopic production of ACTH by a non pituitary source ( Harrison 17 pg 2255) | 4,173 | medmcqa_train |
Best test for Small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates is : | Answer is C (D-xylose test) D-xylose absorption test is the most commonly employed test for carbohydrate absorption - Harrison An endoscopic mucosal biopsy is the more specific test and is now considered essential. As endoscopic small intestinal biopsy' is not provided in the options 'D-xylose test' is the answer of the choke Evaluation of small intestine malabsorption of carbohydrates due to altered small intestinal mucosal function Urinary D-xylose test Non invasive test of choice Endoscopic mucosal biopsy Test of choice / preferred test `The ease of obtaining a mucosal biopsy of the small intestine by endoscopy and the false negative rate of the Dxylose test have led to its diminished use. When small intestinal disease is suspected, a small intestinal biopsy should be performed' - Harrison | 4,174 | medmcqa_train |
String sign is a radiological feature of - | String sign → Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, Ileocecal tuberculosis.
String sign of Kantor → Crohn's disease
String of bead sign → Small bowel obstruction | 4,175 | medmcqa_train |
Alarm system (a reminder technique for digit sucking in mature children) was developed by: | Norton and Gellin developed 3 alarm system. | 4,176 | medmcqa_train |
Which level of prolactin definitely suggest hyperprolactinemia? | Elevations in prolactin may cause amenorrhea or galactorrhea. Amenorrhea without galactorrhea is associated with hyperprolactinemia in approximately 15% of women. In patients with both galactorrhea and amenorrhea, approximately two-thirds will have hyperprolactinemia; of those, approximately one-third will have a pituitary adenoma. In more than one-third of women with hyperprolactinemia, a radiologic abnormality consistent with a microadenoma (<1 cm) is found. Normal Prolactin levels Males: 2-20 ng/mL Females (non-pregnant): 2-30 ng/mL Pregnant females: 10-200 ng/mL A prolactin level of more than 200 ng/mL is usually due to a pituitary tumour and requires pituitary evaluation | 4,177 | medmcqa_train |
Bulge sign in knee joint is seen after how much fluid accumulation- | BULGE TEST is a useful method of testing when there is very little fluid in the joint.Usually occurs in medial meniscal injury. It can detect even 30 ml of fluid accumulation. After squeezing any fluid out of the suprapatellar pouch,the medial compament is emptied by pressing on the inner aspect of the joint; that hand is lifted away and the lateral side is sharply compressed-a distinct ripple is seen on the flattened medial surface as fluid is shunted across. REF:APLEY'S 9TH EDITION PAGE NO.550 | 4,178 | medmcqa_train |
An 11-year-old boy was brought to the pediatric OPD with multiple abscesses over his face, chest, and back. The child has a history of recurrentrespiratory infections. On examination, he has atopic excoriating skin and multiple cold abscesses on his back. What is the most probable diagnosis? | From the above clinical history and examination, the most probable diagnosis is Hyper IgE syndrome (Job's syndrome). It is an autosomal dominant primary immunodeficiency disease caused by a mutation of STAT3 gene. Neutrophils do not generate an immune response, probably due to a defect in chemotaxis. Patients present with recurrent staphylococcal skin abscesses, recurrent lung infections (pneumatoceles), eczema, eosinophilia and high serum levels of lgE. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | 4,179 | medmcqa_train |
Material used in verterbroplasty is : | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Polymethyl methacrylate Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty are interventional radiologic procedures for the treatment of the intense pain refractory to medical management or bracing caused by vertebral compression fracture associated with osteoporosis, tumors, and trauma.Vertebroplasty and kyphoplasty involve intraosseous injection of acrylic cement- polymethyl methacrylate under local anesthesia and fluoroscopic guidance.Pain reduction or elimination is immediate, and the risk of complications is low. Neither vertebroplasty nor kyphoplasty are intended for the treatment of intervertebral disc disease or arthritis.Vertebroplasty may also be applied prophylactically to an at-risk vertebra between 2 other abnormal vertebrae.Vertebroplasty does not restore the height of the compressed vertebral body. A related procedure, kyphoplasty, is intended to restore lost height by inflating a balloon pump within and between the fracture fragments prior to the infusion of the cement. Both procedures result in similar relief of pain due to vertebral compression fractures.The risks of the procedure are low and include extravasation of cement into the epidural space causing myelopathy, or fatal pulmonary embolism from extension of cement into paraspinous veins. | 4,180 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are false regarding Vacuum assisted closure Except - | VACUUM ASSISTED CLOSURE/NEGATIVE PRESSURE WOUND THERAPY(NPWT) NPWT promotes wound healing by applying a vacuum through a special sealed dressing. Continued vacuum draws out the fluid (interstitial fluid) from wound and increase blood flow to the area. As a result, bacterial counts decrease and cell proliferation increases, thereby creating a suitable bed for graft or flap cover. Intermittent negative pressure of -125 mm Hg appears to hasten debridement and formation of granulation tissue in chronic wounds and ulcers. Contraindications for NPWT Use Malignancy in the wound Untreated osteomyelitis Non-enteric & unexplored fistula Necrotic tissue with eschar | 4,181 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not found in cerebral palsy? | Cerebral palsy is a static encephalopathy and a disorder of posture and movement often associated with seizures and deficit in the motor, language, and social milestones due to insult to the developing brain.MICROCEPHALY is a feature of cerebral palsy because of insult to the developing brain.DYSTONIC CP is associated with hypotoniaEXTRAPYRAMIDAL CP is associated with ataxiaCerebral palsy is an upper motor neuron disease characterized by rigidity.Flaccid paralysis is a feature of lower motor neuron disease. Hence flaccid paralysis not a feature of cerebral palsy.Spastic cerebral palsy is the common type( 65%)Spastic CP - prognosis for normal intellectual development is good compared to other types of cerebral palsy.BIH ASPHYXIA accounts for only 8 -10% of cerebral palsy. | 4,182 | medmcqa_train |
When observations are made before and after the exposure to the factor, it is - | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 Tests of significance: Qualitative: Chi- square : 2 or more than 2 groups Mc Nemar test : 1 group. ( before and after intervention) Quantitative: Paired T test: 1 group Student T test/ unpaired T test: 2 groups Anova: more than 2 groups. | 4,183 | medmcqa_train |
The symmetrical radiopacities marked with arrow are most likely: | On periapical radiographs of the mandibular central incisors, the mental ridge (protuberance) may occasionally be seen as two radiopaque lines sweeping bilaterally forward and upward toward the midline. They are of variable width and density and may be found to extend from low in the premolar area on each side up to the midline, where they lie just inferior to or are superimposed on the mandibular incisor roots. The image of the mental ridge is most prominent when the beam is directed parallel with the surface of the mental tubercle (as when using the bisecting-angle technique).
Ref: White and Pharoah, pg- 145 | 4,184 | medmcqa_train |
An absent kidney is found in | About 1 in 1400 people have a single kidney. Sometimes a ureter and renal pelvis are present with no kidney. The contralateral kidney is typically hyperophied. Reference: page 1282 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 26th edition ( note : according to 27th edition Complete absence of one kidney occurs in 1 in 500-1000 bihs ) | 4,185 | medmcqa_train |
A 50 years old male presents with massive splenomegaly. His differential diagnosis will include all, except | Diseases Associated with massive splenmegaly.
Chronic myclogenous leukemia
Gaucher's disease
Lymphomas
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Hairy cell leukemia
Sarcoidosis
Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Polycythemia vera
Diffuse splenic human giomatosis | 4,186 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statements regarding nasolabial cyst are TRUE, EXCEPT: | Nasolabial cyst are common developmental cyst arising outside the bone in the nasolabial fold below the alae nasi. It usually affects women in their 4th to 5th decade. Microscopically the cyst is lined by non cililated pseudostratified columnar epithelium. Complete surgical excision is the treatment of choice. | 4,187 | medmcqa_train |
Darrier's sign is seen in - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Urticaria pigmentosao Urticaria pigmentosa is a familial cutaneous disorder characterised by generalised distribution of red brown macules,o Each lesion represents a collection of mast cells in the dermis with hyperpigmentation of overlying epidermis,o The most characteristic features is that these lesions urticate on scratching.o Light scratching with the point of forceps or rounded tip of a pen or even rubbing causes these mast cells to degranulate leading to localized urticaria (become red swollen and enlarged) - Darrier's Sign Extensive release of histamine from mast cell degranulation may result in - Headache, flushing diarrhea and pruritis. | 4,188 | medmcqa_train |
Melatonin is secreted by parenchymal cells of pineal gland. Fever causes: | Thermoregulatory centre to shift to new level | 4,189 | medmcqa_train |
An adult presented with hematemesis and upper abdominal pain. Endoscopy revealed a growth at the pyloric antrum of the stomach. CT scan showed growth involving the pyloric antrum without infiltration or invasion into surrounding structures and no evidence of distant metastasis. At laparotomy neoplastic growth was observed to involve the posterior wall of the stomach and the pancreas extending 6cm up to the tail of the pancreas. What will be the most appropriate surgical management | Palliative procedures like palliative paial gastrectomy, anterior gastrojejunostomy, Devine's exclusion procedure, luminal stenting in proximal inoperable growths, chemotherapy are used in inoperable cases. * In early carcinoma proper lymph nodal clearance is impoant. Antrectomy is also called as hemi-gastrectomy. Removal of 60-75% stomach is called a paial gastrectomy. Removal of more than 80% of the stomach is called a subtotal gastrectomy. Distal pancreatectomy or central pancreatectomy or total pancreatectomy for cystadenocarcinoma of pancreas depending on the extent and size of a tumour . Ref: SRB&;s manual of surgery,3 rd ed, pg no 636 | 4,190 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an anti-coagulant for atrial fibrillation in a patient with prior history of stroke, with reduced risk of haemorrhage? | Anticoagulants are the treatment of choice in patients with atrial fibrillation and prior stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA). Vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin have long been the mainstay of therapy, but a new set of anticoagulants has emerged as a reasonable alternative that may indeed prove to have better efficacy and a reduced risk of hemorrhage. Apixaban is one such oral direct factor Xa inhibitor; it was recently shown to be likely more effective compared with warfarin in the Apixaban for the Prevention of Stroke in Subjects With Atrial Fibrillation (ARISTOTLE) trial. Clopidogrel combined with aspirin was more effective than aspirin alone in preventing vascular events, principally stroke, but increases the risk of major bleeding. Ref: 1. Easton JD et al. Apixaban compared with warfarin in patients with atrial fibrillation and previous stroke or transient ischaemic attack: A subgroup analysis of the ARISTOTLE trial. Lancet Neurol 2012;11:503. 2. Smith W.S., English J.D., Johnston S.C. (2012). Chapter 370. Cerebrovascular Diseases. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | 4,191 | medmcqa_train |
The cause of oedema in nephritic syndrome | Robbins page no p922 Glomerular diseases presenting with a nephritic syn- drome are often characterized by inflammation in the glomeruli. The nephritic patient usually presents with hematuria, red cell casts in the urine, azotemia, oliguria, and mild to moderate hypeension. Proteinuria and edema are common, but these are not as severe as those encountered in the nephrotic syndrome, discussed later. The acute nephritic syndrome may occur in such multi- system diseases as SLE and microscopic polyangiitis. | 4,192 | medmcqa_train |
Triple assessment for carcinoma breast includes : | Triple assessment comprises of :
Clinical examination (palpation).
Radiological imaging (mammography or USG).
Pathological assessment (Biopsy or cytology). | 4,193 | medmcqa_train |
EC O157:H7, shiga toxin-producing strain of E. coli can be distinguished from other strains of E.coli by using the following medium: | Shiga toxin-producing E coli (STEC) are named for the cytotoxic toxins they produce. There are at least two antigenic forms of the toxin referred to as Shiga-like toxin 1 and Shiga-like toxin 2. STEC has been associated with, Hemorrhagic colitis Severe diarrhea Hemolytic uremic syndrome resulting acute renal failure Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia Thrombocytopenia Of the E coli serotypes that produce Shiga toxin, O157:H7 is the most common. STEC O157:H7 does not use sorbitol, unlike most other E coli, and is negative (clear colonies) on sorbitol MacConkey agar (sorbitol is used instead of lactose); which serves as an impoant criterion that distinguishes it from other strains of E. coli. O157:H7 strains also are negative on MUG tests. Many of the non-O157 serotypes may be sorbitol positive when grown in culture. Ref: Brooks G.F. (2013). Chapter 15. Enteric Gram-Negative Rods (Enterobacteriaceae). In G.F. Brooks (Ed), Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 26e. | 4,194 | medmcqa_train |
Amylin is secreted by which cell of pancreas? | Amylin, or islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP), is a 37-residue peptide hormone. It is cosecreted with insulin from the pancreatic b-cells in the ratio of approximately 100:1.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 315 | 4,195 | medmcqa_train |
Putrefaction process is delayed by : | Carbolic acid delays the process of putrefaction.
Peritonitis, ansarca, sepsis enhances the process of putrefaction. | 4,196 | medmcqa_train |
Initial preferred investigation for thyroid nodule is: | Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test(TFT) Investigation of choice in STN for diagnosis is FNAC Solitary Thyroid Nodule: Initial investigation done in STN is thyroid function test (TFT) If TFT is raised, next investigation is thyroid scan , (For hot nodules, RAI ablation or surgery is done; For warm or cold nodules follow-up or surgery) If TFT is normal, USG is done (Aspiration in cystic lesion, FNAC for solid or heterogenous lesions) Investigationn of choice in STN for diagnosis is FNAC. Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 890 | 4,197 | medmcqa_train |
Longest fetal diameter: | Ans is d, i.e. MentoverticalFetal diameters-AP diameters are always longer than Transverse diameter of fetal head.Longest diameter is-Mentovertical diameter (14 cms) followed by submentovertical diameter. | 4,198 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is an impoant distinguishing characteristic of H. pylori as compared to Campylobacter species? | Both Campylobacter and Helicobacter Belong to the family Campylobacteriaceae. Both are GNspiral-shaped or comma-shaped bacteria. Catalase and oxidase positive. Urease however, is produced only by Helicobacter. | 4,199 | medmcqa_train |
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