query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
False statement about impetigo – | Impetigo is a highly contagious (infectious) Gram-positive bacterial infection of the superficial layer of the epidermis. It occurs in two forms :-
Impetigo contagiosa (Non-bullous) → Caused by both staph aureus & streptococcus (group `A )
Bullous impetigo Caused by Staph.aureus.
Lesions of Impetigo contagiosa heal without scarring.
For treatment of Impetigo contagiosa, Systemic Erythromycin is given to cover and Staphylococcus Streptococcus.
Glomerulonephritis may occur after streptococcal skin (e.g. impetigo, ecthyma) or throat infection, whereas rheumatic fever can develop only after throat infection (not skin infection). Therefore, Impetigo can cause glomerulonephritis but not rheumatic fever. | 4,000 | medmcqa_train |
Mantoux test reading of less than 5mm indicates | Ref Robbins 9/e p371 Mantoux test is simply able to predict the presence or absent of cell mediated immunity against the tubercular antigens .it cannot differentiate between infection and disease Negative mantoux test just indicates that the individual has not been exposed to tuberculin bacilli | 4,001 | medmcqa_train |
Which Vitamin is involved in Redox reactions - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Riboflavin VitaminCoenzymeFunction as coenzymeEntity transferredThiamine (Vit B1)Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)Oxidative decarboxylation and transketolase reactionHydroxy-ethylRiboflavin (Vit B2)Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) and flavin mononucleotide (FMN)Oxidation and reduction reactionHydrogen atomsNiacinNicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP+)Oxidation and reduction reactionHydride ion (H-)Pyridoxin Q (Vit B6)Pvridoxal phosphate (PLP)Transamination, deamination, decarboxylation of amino acidsAmino groupBiotin QBiocytinCarboxylation reaction QCarbon dioxideFolic acid QTetrahydrofolate (THF)Carrier of one carbon group (other than CO2)One carbon groupPentothenic acid QCoenzyme A QAcyl carrierAcyl groupCyanocobalamine QMethylcobalamine and DeoxyadenosylcobalamineTransfer of H2 group and isomerizationAlkyl group or hydrogen atom | 4,002 | medmcqa_train |
A Wahin's tumour is | Wahin's tumor Is the second most common benign tumor of the parotid gland (1st is pleomorphic adenoma). It consists of both epithelial and lymphoid elements thus known as adenolymphoma (probably arises from remnants of parotid tissue trapped in lymphnodes within the parotid gland). Also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum. The tumor arises only in the parotid gland. Almost always arises in the lower poion of the parotid gland overlying the angle of mandible. Common in males. (Occurs most often in older white men) Age : 5th to 7th decade. Association is seen with smoking. Bilaterality is seen in 10% cases. Its well encapsulated, extremely slow growing tumor, never turns malignant. A peculiar feature of Wahins tumor is that it shows 'hot' spot in 99' Tc-peechnate scan. Other tumors of the parotid show 'cold' spot (Oncocytomas another benign parotid tumor also shows hot spot). (Because of the high mitochondrial content within oncocytes, the oncocyte-rich Wahin tumor and Oncocytomas incorporate technetium Tc 99m and appear as hot spots on radionuclide scans.) Also remember Godwin's tumor - Benign lymphoepithelial tumor of the parotid gland. Most salivary gland tumors are benign. However remember that the smaller the salivary gland, the higher is the chance of the tumor being malignant. Parotid gland - 80% benign Submandibular, Sublingual - 50% benign, 50% malignant Minor salivary glands - 25% benign, 75% malignant | 4,003 | medmcqa_train |
Natural killer cells | Natural Killer CellsThe function of NK cells is to destroy irreversibly stressed and abnormal cells, such as virus-infected cells and tumor cells. NK cells make up approximately 5% to 10% of peripheral blood lymphocytes. They do not express TCRs or Ig.NK cells are endowed with the ability to kill a variety of virus-infected cells and tumor cells, without prior exposure to or activation by these microbes or tumors.Two cell surface molecules, CD16 and CD56, are commonly used to identify NK cells. CD16 is an Fc receptor for IgG, and it confers on NK cells the ability to lyse IgG-coated target cells. This phenomenon is known as antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC). The function of CD56 isnot known.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 6; Diseases of the Immune System | 4,004 | medmcqa_train |
Radioisotope used systemically in Polycythemia rubra vera. | 32p - Polycythemia rubra vera.
Rhenium -186; Painful bone metastasis. | 4,005 | medmcqa_train |
Life span of CuT 380 A is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10 years o The longest life span is of CuT380A: 10 years.IUDsLife spanFirst generation:Lippe's loop (obsolete)--Second generationCopper-T--CuT-200-B4 yrCuT-2003yrCuT-220C--Nova-T5 yrMultiload - 2503 yr3755 yrCuT-3 80A10 yrThird generationProgestasert1 yrLNG-20 (Mirena)5 yr (Ref: Novak p263; Note that Park mentions the life span of mirena to be 10 yrs) | 4,006 | medmcqa_train |
Herpes simplex infection can lead to? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Temporal lobe involvement Pathology of Herpex simplex encephalitis:o Herpes simplex infection has a prediliction for the involvement of Temporal lobe.o The lesions in HSV encephalitis are intense hemorrhagic necrosis of the inferior and medial temporal lobe and the mediorbital part of frontal lobes.o The temporal lobe lesions are usually b/L but not symmetrical.o The distribution of the lesion is so characteristic that the diagnosis can be made by gross inspection or by their location and appearance on imaging studies.o In the acute stages of the disease, intranuclear eosinophilic inclusions are found in neurons and glial cells in addition to the usual microscopic abnormalities of acute encephalitis and hemorrhagic necrosis.C.S.F examination# Increased C.S.F pressure# Pleocytosis, cells are mostly lymphocytes# Red cells sometimes numbering in thousands and xantho chromia are found refecting the hemorrhagic nature of the brain lesions.# Protein content is increased in most cases.# Slight reduction of glucose.o Herpes simplex encephalitis is characterized bv "focal neurological symptoms"o Over 90% patients will have one of the following symptoms offocal neurological deficit, plus fever -# Focal cranial nerve deficits# Hemiparesis# Dysphasia# Aphasia# Ataxia# Focal seizure# Altered mentation and level of consciousnesso Most common area involved in herpes simplex encephalitis is "Temporal lobe"# Temporal lobe abnormalities on brain imaging are considered strong evidence for herpes simplex encephalitis.# Temporal lobe lesions are predominantly unilateral.# Most sensitive and specific investigation for HSV-1 encephalitic is MRI# In contrast, cranial CT scans have only 50% sensitivity and that too early in the disease.EEG findings in HSV-jencephalitis# Focal electroencephalogram (EEG) findings occur in >80% of cases typically showing prominent intermittent high amplitude slow waves (delta and theta slowing) and occasionally continuous "periodic lateralized epileptiform discharges ". | 4,007 | medmcqa_train |
Corbohydrate reserve of human body | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 350 gmCarbohydrate store of body is approximately 350 grams (70 grams hepatic glycogen and 280 grams muscle glycogen). | 4,008 | medmcqa_train |
Which cranial nerve is commonly involved in meningeal tuberculosis infection? | Meningeal involvement is pronounced at the base of the brain, paresis of cranial nerves (ocular nerves in paicular) is a frequent finding. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 1348 | 4,009 | medmcqa_train |
A 20 year old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is likely to be the causative agent - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 0157 : 117 | 4,010 | medmcqa_train |
MRI is unsuitable for: | (All of the above) (19-Sutton 7th)MAGNETIC RESONANCE IMAGINGADVANTAGESDISADVANTAGES* It is non-invasive technique* It is safe as it does not involve the use of ionising radiation* There is no adverse biological effect.* Images can be readily produced in any plane eg. Axial sagittal or coronal without changing position of the patient* It gives high intrinsic contrast* Very high cost of imaging* Inability to image bone and calcium* It is unsuitable for patients with cardiac pacemakers and other ferromagnetic implants.* Imaging time is long, hence movement or motion artifacts are quite like.* Highly operator dependent, hence require technical expertise | 4,011 | medmcqa_train |
Cytochrome P450 is identified to 11-ss hydroxylase is known as | Cytochromes P450 (CYPs) are a family of enzymes containing heme as a cofactor that function as monooxygenases. In mammals, these proteins oxidize steroids, fatty acids, and xenobiotics, and are impoant for the clearance of various compounds, as well as for hormone synthesis and breakdown Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:20,21,22 | 4,012 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding level of sugar in hyperosmolar non ketotic hyperglycemia is: September 2005 | Ans. D: Severely elevated Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is being diagnosed with increasing frequency in obese children with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2 DM). The syndrome is characterized by severe hyperglycemia, a marked increase in serum osmolality and dehydration without accumulation of beta-hydroxybutyric or acetoacetic ketoacids. Significant ketogenesis is restrained by the ability of the pancreas to secrete small amount of insulin. Prolonged phase of osmotic diuresis leads to severe depletion of body water, which exceeds that of sodium, resulting in hypeonic dehydration. These children, usually obese adolescents with T2 DM, present with signs of severe dehydration and depressed mental status but continue to have increased rather than decreased urine output and are at increased risk of developing rhabdomyolysis and malignant hypehermia. | 4,013 | medmcqa_train |
Premalignant bone lesion among the following is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pagets disease Paget's disease o Paget s disease is characterized by increased bone turnover and enlargement and thickening of the bone the internal architecture is abnormal and the bone is usually brittle, o Primary defect is in osteolastic. o It is marked by regions of furious osteolastic bone resorption which is followed by a period of hectis bone formation. The net effect is gain in bone mass. o It has the following three stages Initial osteocytic stage Mixed osteoclast osteoblastic stage Burned out quiescent osteosclerotic stage o Following complications can occur in Paget's Increased risk of development of sarcomas (osteosarcoma chondrosarcoma) Fractures in weight bearing bones Osteoarthritis High output cardiac failure Cranial nerve compression Otoscleosis | 4,014 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is the epithelial lining of vagina? | There are two types of stratified squamous epithelia: nonkeratinized and keratinized. Nonkeratinized epithelium exhibits live surface cells and covers moist cavities such as the mouth, pharynx, esophagus, vagina, and anal canal. Keratinized epithelium lines the external surfaces of the body. | 4,015 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for hypeension crises in systemic sclerosis is | One of the main causes of death is hypeensive renal crisis, characterised by rapidly developing malignant hypeension and renal failure. Hypeensive renal crisis is much more likely to occur in DCSS than in LCSS, and in patients with topoisomerase 1 antibodies. Hypeension should be treated aggressively with ACE inhibitors, even if renal impairment is present. DAVIDSON&;S 22nd EDITION;PAGE NO 1113 | 4,016 | medmcqa_train |
The conversion of an optically pure isomer into a mixture of equal amounts of both dextro and levo forms is called as- | Racemic Mixture - Equimolar mixture of optical isomers which has no net reaction of plane polarized light. | 4,017 | medmcqa_train |
Apoptosis is? | Ans. (a) Internally controlled, programmed cell deathRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /52* Apoptosis is internally controlled, programmed cell deathSalient Features of Apoptosis:* No inflammation* Cell shrinkage* Formation of apoptotic bodiesExample* PhysiologicahEmbryogenesis, Organogenesis, Men- struation* Pathological: Acute viral hepatitis- Councilman bodies | 4,018 | medmcqa_train |
Posterior ethmoidal sinus drains into (JIPMER May 2019) | - There are 3 groups of ethmoidal air sinuses Anterior Middle Posterior - Posterior ethmoidal sinus is opening in lateral wall of the nose. - Lateral wall of the nose has 3 elevations called superior, middle & inferior turbinates / conchae - Under each turbinate, there is space called meatus called superior, middle & inferior meatus - Posterior ethmoidal sinus is opening in superior meatus - Anterior & middle sinus is opening in middle meatus - Middle meatus have hiatus semilunaris At front of hiatus semilunaris frontal air sinus opens The anterior, middle ethmoidal sinus respectively Maxillary sinus opens slightly posterior; In the region of hiatus semilunaris in middle meatus - Naso-lacrimal duct opens in the inferior meatus on Anterior aspect - Inferior turbinate is largest turbinate & its meatus is largest meatus - Eustachian tube opens behind inferior turbinate in lateral wall of nasopharynx | 4,019 | medmcqa_train |
Following are the clinical features of Leber optic neuropathy except | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Males can transmit the disease Leber's Hereditary optic neuropathv Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy is characterized by sequential subacute optic neuropathy in males aged 11-30 years. The underlying genetic abnormality is a point mutation in mitochondria! DNA. Since mitochondrial DNA is exclusively derived from mother, males do not transmit the disease and the disease is transmitted by carrier females. It is characterizeed by bilateral, painless, subacute visual failure that develops during young adult life. Males are four to five times more likely than females to be affected. Affected individuals are usually entirely asymptomatic until they develop blurring affecting the central visual field of one eye; Similar symptoms appear in the other eye an average of two to three months late. In about 25% of cases, visual loss is bilateral at onset. On examination, patients generally have bilateral impairments of visual acuity. There is centrocecal scotoma that begins nasal to the blind spot and extends to involve fixation of both sides of the veical meridian. Pupillary reactions are often normal. Ophthalmoscopic examination shows fundus abnormalities in acute phase like swelling of the disc, peripapillary retinal telangiectasia, but characteristically there is no leak from the optic disc during fluorescein angiography. Later in atrophic phase, disc becomes atrophic and pale. | 4,020 | medmcqa_train |
Radiation of 5 Gy will kill patients in: March 2013 (b, c, d, e, f) | Ans. D i.e. 4-6 weeks | 4,021 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding anaplastic carcinoma which statement is false | More commonly seen in elderly women. Local infiltration is an early feature of these tumours with spread by lymphatics and by the bloodstream. They are extremely lethal tumours and survival is calculated in months. p53 mutations are found in 15% of tumors, Source : Sabiston 20th edition Pg: 910 | 4,022 | medmcqa_train |
A 56-year-old man is diagnosed with an extradural tumor in the posterior cranial fossa. When the patient protruded his tongue during physical examination, the tongue deviated to the right. Which of the following muscles and nerves are most likely injured? | The hypoglossal nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue and is therefore directly involved in alteration of shape and movement of the tongue. A lesion in this nerve would cause deviation of the tongue toward the injured side, which could be observed upon protrusion of the tongue. The genioglossus is the major muscle involved in protrusion of the tongue. The genioglossus muscles arise from the inside of the mandible and pass posteriorly to insert into the deep aspect of the tongue. When the genioglossi contract, they pull the tongue forward, and out of the mouth, in protrusion. If one genioglossus is paralyzed, it acts like a brake on one side of the tongue when the tongue is pulled forward, causing the tip of the tongue to point to the nonmoving side. The styloglossus muscle is responsible for retraction and elevation of the tongue. | 4,023 | medmcqa_train |
Staphylococcus differs from streptococcus by: | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Catalase test(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 200 and 8th/e, p. 196)* Coagulase test is used to differentiate the different species of staphylococci (staph, aureus, staph, epidermidis).* Catalase test is used to differentiate staphylococci from streptococci.* Coagulase test cannot be used to differentiate streptococci from staphylococci because certain species of staphylococci are coagulase negative (coagulase negative staphylococci) as streptococci. | 4,024 | medmcqa_train |
A 6-month old infant presented with multiple papules and exudative lesions on the face, scalp, trunk and few vesicles on the palms and soles for 2 weeks. His mother had a history of itchy lesions.The most likely diagnosis is : | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Scabies Vesicobullous lesion in an infant can be seen in Scabies Infantile eczema Seborrheic dermatitis The clincher here is involvement of palms and soles. This is a characteristic feature of scabies in infants * Differential diagnosis Scabies Infantile eczema Characteristic distribution: Lesions present on palms, soles and genitalia Spares palms and soles Burrows present. Absent Typical lesions in a family member May have atopic diathesis in family H/O asthma not relevant History of Asthma Infantile Seborrheic dermatitis Infantile eczema Begin in infants <3 months In infants > 3 months Asymptomatic Extremely itchy Scalp, major flexures (axillae, groins) Face, other parts of the body Family or personal history of atopy. Also, know, In scabies in adults, the scalp, face, palms, and soles are characteristically spared, but in infants scalp, face, palms, and soles are typically involved. | 4,025 | medmcqa_train |
In tandem bullet, number of bullet/ bullets coming out of the gun is/are: | 2 | 4,026 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following conditions may be associated with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly, Except | Answer is A (Aplastic Anemia) Splenomegaly is typically absent in patients with aplastic anemia, and if present, the diagnosis of aplastic anemia should be questioned and search for another associated pathology be initiated Splenomegaly, Lymphadenopathy and Hepatomegaly in Aplastic Anemia The finding of splenomegaly or lymphadenopathy or hepatomegaly at presentation in patients with Aplastic Anemia is unusual and if present should cause one to question the diagnosis of aplastic anemia. Splenomegaly may develop later in the course of disease or after several blood transfusions. Myelofibrosis and Hairy cell Leukemia are typically associated with Pancytopenia and Splenomegaly. Hypersplenism is also often associated with .splenomegaly and Pancvtopenia. | 4,027 | medmcqa_train |
If both parents are sickle cell anemia patients then the likelyhood of offsprings having the disease is- | Sickle cell anemia is autosomal recessive. | 4,028 | medmcqa_train |
Scotochromogens are: (PGI Dec 2008) | Ans: A (Mycobacterium Gordonae) M. Marinum & M. Kansasii are photochromogenes while M. intracellulare & M. avium are non-photochromogenes.Scotochromogens# M, Gordonae (formely M.aquae) - Often found in tap water (hence called 'the tap water scotochromogen), is a common contaminant in clinical specimens and a rare cause of pulmonary disease.# M. Scrofulaceum - It is principally associated with scrofula or cervical lymphadenopathy, but also cause pulmonary disease.# M, szulgai - An uncommon cause of pulmonary disease & bursitis. It is a scotochromogen when incubated at 37degC but a photochromogen at 25degC.Table (Greenwood): Principal types of opportunist mycobacterial disease in man and the usual causative agentsDiseaseUsual causative agentLymphadenopathyM. avium complexM. scrofuiaceumSkin lesions Post-trauma abscessesM. chelonaeM. fortuitumM.terraeSwimming pool granulomaM. marinumBuruli ulcerM. ulceransPulmonary diseaseM avium complexM. kansasiiM. xenopiM. malmoenseDisseminated disease AIDS-relatedM. avium complexM. genevenseNon-AIDS-relatedM. avium complexM. chelanae A typical = Nontuberculous = Paratubercle Mycobacterium = MOTTClassified into four group by Runyon | | | | |1. PhntnchroiiiogenesProduce no pigment in dark & yellow orange pigment when exposed to light.i M.SimiaeQii M. AsiaticumQiii M. kansasiiQiv M. MarinumQ 2. Scotochromogenes: Form yellow-orange red colonies even in the darki. M. ScrofulaceumQii M.Szulagaiiii. M. GordonaeQ 3. NonphotochromogenesDo not form pigment even on exposure to lighti M. AviumQii M. XenopiQiii M. UlceransQiv M. JntracellulareQv M.Matmoensevi M. Shinshuensevii M. Paratuberculosisviii M. Sylvaticumix M. Lepraemuriumx M. terraexi M. Nonchromogenicumxii M. trivialexiii M. Haemophiiumxiv M. Genevense 4. Rapid growers: Thevare capable of rapid growth, colonies appearing within seven days of incubation at 37deg C or 25deg C.i M. ChelonaeQii M. ForuitumQiii M. SmegmatisQiv M. fiavescensQv M. VaccaeQ | 4,029 | medmcqa_train |
A 3 month baby can do: | Social smile appears at 3 months | 4,030 | medmcqa_train |
Child of 6 weeks with Hemoglobin of 10 gm% pale on examination, diagnosis is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Physiological anemia o Physiologic Anemia of InfancyHemoglobin drops to low point at age 6 to 8 weeksErythropoietin nadir drops HemoglobinTerm Infants: Hemoglobin drops to 9-11 g/dlPreterm Infants: Hemoglobin drops to 7-9 g/dlo No work-up or treatment unless Hemoglobin lower than expected Other point -# Hemoglobin g/dl cut off-. (WHO/UNU-1996)# 6mo-5yr <11.0;5-11 yr. - 11.5;# 12-13 yr -12.0g/dl; Men - 13.0# Women Non-pregnant - 12.0;Pregnant -11.0 | 4,031 | medmcqa_train |
A 15 year old girl was admitted to the infectious disease hospital with a provisional diagnosis of rabies. The most suitable clinical sample that can confirm the antemortem diagnosis is- | For the antemortem diagnosis of rabies, viral antigens can be demonstrated in the corneal smear, skin biopsy from the face or neck or saliva. | 4,032 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are microsomal enzyme inhibitors except | Other inhibitors- Ketoconazole, Metronidazole, Allopurinol, Erythromycin, OCPs, Omeprazole | 4,033 | medmcqa_train |
Amount of radiation used in mammography - | Ans. is'b'i.e.,0.7 mSvScreening mammography and radiation A screening mammogram is an X-ray of the breast tissue for women without any breast symptoms.It uses low doses of radiation (about 0.7mSv for 4 X-rays). | 4,034 | medmcqa_train |
The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle | The structure that lies lateral to distal radial tubercle are: Tendons of Extensor carpi radialis brevis and longus. Distal radial tubercle (Lister's tubercle) is located at the distal dorsal aspect of the radius It is a bony prominence that can be easily palpated. Function: It acts as a pulley for the Extensor Pollicis Longus tendon, changing it's mechanical direction of action. | 4,035 | medmcqa_train |
Best imaging study for the earliest diagnosis of cerebral infarct- | Diffusion-weighted MRIDiffusion-weighted MRI detects cytotoxic edema in just a few hours of infarction. | 4,036 | medmcqa_train |
Effect of infusion of hypotonic saline? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased in both ICF and ECFAfter infusion of hyptonic saline causes a decline in plasma osmolality and a shift of water into interstial space (as water moves from higher osmolarity to lower osmolarity), causing decrease in ICF osmolality.This results in shift of water from ECF to ICF.Finally, both ECF and ICF compaments are increased (due to increases water) and osmolality of both compament are decreased. | 4,037 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following structures are developed from Septum transversum, EXCEPT: | Structures developed from septum transversum:1. Diaphragm (central tendon)2. The fibrous pericardium3. The falciform ligament4. The stroma and capsule of the liver5. The triangular and coronary ligaments6. The lesser omentum The round ligament of the liver (ligamentum teres hepatica) is an embryological remnant of the umbilical vein. | 4,038 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 year old male patient complains of diminished vision during night and dryness of eyes. Patient gives history of recurrent bacterial infections. Ophthalmic examination reveals white triangular plaques on conjunctiva. This patient is suffering from deficiency of: | Night blindness (nyctalopia) is one of the earliest symptoms of vitamin A deficiency. Severe deficiency of vitamin A leads to xerophthalmia. This is characterized by dryness in conjunctiva and cornea, and keratinization of epithelial cells. In certain areas of conjunctiva, white triangular plaques known as Bitot's spots are seen.
Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-123 | 4,039 | medmcqa_train |
Which helps in the production of more glucose? | Reversal of the reaction catalyzed by pyruvate kinase in glycolysis involves two endothermic reactions. Mitochondrial pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate, Key Gluconeogenic Enzymes 1. Pyruvate carboxylase.Pyruvate Carboxylase Reaction Pyruvate in the cytoplasm enters the mitochondria. Then, carboxylation of pyruvate to oxaloacetate is catalysed by a mitochondrial enzyme, pyruvate carboxylase (Fig. 9.24). It needs the co-enzymes biotin and ATP.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, Chapter 9 | 4,040 | medmcqa_train |
8000 rads dosage in Cancer cervix is given to - | Ans- A a. External beam via cobalt or linear accelerator & brachytherapy (e.g. Radium, cobalt or cesium) are used in the treatment of carcinoma cervix. b. The radium dosage is calculated with respect to the amount of irradiation received at 2 theoretical points a & b. c. Point a lies 2cm above & 2cm lateral to the base of the radium tube in the cervical canal. It approximates to the position in the pelvis where the uterine artery & ureter cross. d. Point b lies 3cm lateral to point a & roughly corresponds to the position of obturator nodes. e. 8000 rads is the dosage given to point a in cancer cervix. f. The manchester method of radiotherapy for a ca cervix is a variation of the stockholm technique & uses rubber avoids loaded with radium in plate of the platinum boxes for vaginal vault. | 4,041 | medmcqa_train |
HPV vaccine is ? | Both bivalent and Quadrivalent Currently, there are two types of cervical cancer vaccines available Gardasil vaccine (quadrivalent vaccine) Cervavarix vaccine (Bivalent vaccine) Gardasil vaccine Gardasil is a quadrivalent human papillomavirus vaccine. Gardasil is the only vaccine that helps protect against 4 types - types 6, 11, 16, 18 - of HPV. - The vaccine helps prevent diseases such as cervical cancer, abnormal and precancerous cervical lesions, vaginal lesions, vulvar lesions, and genital was, caused by these strains of HPV. Gardasil contains recombinant virus like paicle (VLPs) assembled from the Ll proteins of HPVs 6, 11, 16 and 18. - Since VLPs lack the viral DNA, they cannot induce cancer. They do, however, trigger an antibody response that protects vaccine recipients from becoming infected with the HPV Ives represented in the vaccine. Gardasil is recommended to be given to females aged between 9 to 26 years Gardasil provides 98% protection against cervical pre-cancers caused by HPV types 16 & 18, which are responsible for 70% of all cervical cancer cases worldwide. Similarly, in large placebo controlled, double blind, randomized, multicentric studies, the vaccine has also been proven to be 90% effective in the prevention of genital was caused by HPV types 6 and 11, which are responsible for 90% of all genital was cases worldwide. According to the Indian Academy of Pediatrics Committee of Immunization (L4PC01) 2008 recommendations : "This vaccine has a .orable tolerability profile and the IAP-001 recommends offering HPV vaccine to all females as per label. The recommended age for initiation of vaccination is 10-12 years and catch up vaccination is permitted up to the age of 26 years. It is recommended to be given in three doses at 0, 2 and 6 months". Gardasil is usually given in the arm muscle. Three shots are given on the following schedule: - Dose 1 -? - Dose 2 --4 2 months after Dose 1 - Dose 3 -4 6 months after Dose 1 Cervarix Cervarix is a vaccine against HPV types 16 and 18, which currently cause about 70% of cervical cancer cases. - Cervarix is a preventative cervical cancer vaccine, not therapeutic; Cervarix vaccine will not block infection .from cervical cancer-causing HPV strains other than HPV 16, 18, 31 and 45. Cervarix is using the "L1 protein" of the viral capsid. The viral proteins induce the .fonnation of neutralizing antibodies. The vaccine contains no live virus and no DNA, so it cannot infect the patient. Cervari data from patients show that at 18 months after the first of a three-dose regimen, 100 percent of women up to age 55 vaccinated with cervarix vaccine had antibodies present against the two most common cancer-causing human papillomavirus types, 16 and 18. Cervarix Vs. Gardasil: which is the better cervical cancer vaccine ? Cervarix is "bivalent" -effective against only two strains of the virus-vaccine. While Gardasil is "quadrivalent" vaccine (effective against four common strains of HPV). The question now arises which vaccine to be the vaccine of choice?? On the face of it a quadrivalent vaccine seems to be the better choice. In reality that is not so - The vaccine protects against the HPV viruses 16, 18, 6, 11, of which only the .first two are responsible for cervical cancer, while the other two are responsible for genital was. On the other hand cervarix gives protection against 16 and 18. It is better because, there is cross-reactive protection against the virus strains 45 and 31, two other viruses causing cervical cancer. Cervarix is formulated with ASO4, a propriety adjuvant that boosts the immune system response .for a longer period of time. Both vaccines are against the human papillom virus but cervarix seems to be more effective against cancer cervix. Cervarix can be given to females between 10 to 45 yrs old whereas Gardasil can be given to females between 10 to 26 yrs only. Both the vaccines are given in the schedule of 0, 1, 6 months, Cervarix is the costlier one being priced at Rs.3200 per dose. "Cervarix seems to win against Gardasil because of its stronger immune response and broader protection". | 4,042 | medmcqa_train |
The prognosis is best in rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis associated with: | Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis may occur in association with the five diseases mentioned and also with periaeritis (polyaeritis) nodosa, Wegener's granulomatosis, and essential cryoglobulinemia. Some cases arise without a known antecedent disease (idiopathic). Although the prognosis is poor in all types of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, post streptococcal disease has a better prognosis than the other types, and up to 50% of patients may recover sufficient renal function to avoid chronic dialysis or transplantation. Ref: Wyatt C., Kemp W.L., Moos P.J., Burns D.K., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 16. Pathology of the Kidney and Bladder. In C. Wyatt, W.L. Kemp, P.J. Moos, D.K. Burns, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | 4,043 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following causes a dead end infection? | Ans. A. C. tetani.Since, there is no further human to human transmission, tetanus is a dead end infection.Dead end infections in humans-Tetanus, Legionnaire's disease, Leptospirosis, Lyme's diseaseRabies, JE, West Nile fever, Equine encephalitis, KFDCysticercosis, Hydatid disease, Trichinellosis, Babesiosis | 4,044 | medmcqa_train |
Phossy jaw is caused by- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., White Phosphorus o Phossy jaw is caused by phosphorus poisoning. All phosphorus poisoning are caused by white (yellow) phosphorus (Red phosphorus is nontoxic).Phosphorus poisoningo Phosphorus is a protoplasmic poison affecting cellular oxidation and causing anoxic necorbiosis, classically affecting liver. It increases fat deposition and inhibits glycogen deposition in liver. It is used in fire works (Diwali poisoning) and as rat poison. Lethal dose is 60-120 mg.o Phosphorus occurs in two formsWhite/yellow phosphorus: It is white, and becomes yellow on exposure to air. It is translucent, waxy, luminous and crystalline cylinders. It has garlic like odor. It is insoluble in water and luminous in dark. Its fumes show phosphorescence.Red phosphorus : It is reddish brown, inert, odourless and tasteless. It is nontoxic (thus poisoning occurs only due to white phosphorus). It is put on the sides (striking surface) of match box (along with powdered galss).Acute poisoningo It has following stages :1st Stage <GI irritation): There is nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and garlic odor. This stage lasts for 8 hours to 3 days.2nd Stage (Asymptomatic): This stage lasts for 3 days.3rd Stage : There is liver and kidney damage due to absorbed phosphorus. Initially liver is enlarged due to acute fatty infiltration. Later liver shruks due to necrosis, i.e. acute yellow atrophy.Chronic poisoningo Toothache is the first symptom which is associated with loosening of teeth, necrosis of gums and osteomyelitis of jaw. Therefore chronic phosphorus poisoning is also know as phossy jaw (or glass jaw).Postmortem appearanceo There is garlic odor. Viscera and stool glow in dark (due to luminosity).o To preserve luminosity, viscera are preserved in saturated saline solution. Rectified spirit is not used as it causes loss ofluminosity. | 4,045 | medmcqa_train |
The kidney stone whose development is seen most commonly is:- | Commonest stone seen in in kidney - Calcium oxalate Other types of kidney stones : Triple phosphate - Ca, NH4+ ,MgP04 Uric acid Cysteine stones | 4,046 | medmcqa_train |
A 25-year-old man requests cholesterol screening because of a family history of premature coronary artery disease (CAD). His lipid levels reveal an elevated total and LDL cholesterol. The high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and triglyceride values are normal. His physical examination is completely normal. Which of the following is the most common cause of genetic dyslipidemia? | Familial combined hyperlipidemia has an incidence of 1/100. It is an autosomal dominant disorder and different affected family members may display different dyslipidemic phenotypes. Familial hypercholesterolemia (1/500) and familial defective Apo B (1/1000) are also common. The other two disorders (Apo C-II deficiency and lipoprotein lipase deficiency) are extremely rare. | 4,047 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following can be administered in acute highpeension during labour except | Ref - KDT7/e p572 Sodium nitroprusside is contra indicated in eslampsia | 4,048 | medmcqa_train |
Labetalol is an | Labetalol is a commonly used a 1 and non-selective b-adrenergic blockerDose: 200-2400mg/day, orally in two to three divided dosesIn an emergency: 20mg IV, followed by 20-80mg every 20min to a maximum of 220mg. Avoid in patients with Asthma, congestive cardiac failure, Liver failure(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | 4,049 | medmcqa_train |
True about Ringer's Lactate - | Ringer's lactate solution (RL), also known as sodium lactate solution and Hamann's solution, is a mixture of sodium chloride, sodium lactate, potassium chloride, and calcium chloride in water. It is an isotonic solution .it is used for replacing fluids and electrolytes in those who have low blood volume or low blood pressure.It may also be used to treat metabolic acidosis and to wash the eye following a chemical burn. It is given by injection into a vein or applied to the affected area Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 370 | 4,050 | medmcqa_train |
Submandibular gland is divided into superficial and deep parts by - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mylohyoid Submandibular glando This walnut sized gland lies belowr the mandible in the anterior part of digastric triangle. It is J-shaped and consists of a large superficial and a small deep parts, separated by mylohyoid muscle and continuous with each other around the posterior border of mylohyoid muscle.Superficial parto It is situated in the anterior part of digastric triangle. The gland is partially closed in a capsule formed by two layers of deep cervical fascia. It has three surfaces: (i) inferior, (ii) lateral, and (iii) medial.Inferior surface is covered by skin, platysma, cervical branch of facial nerve, deep fascia, facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes.Lateral surface is related to submandibular fossa (on mandible), medial pterygoid (insertion) and facial artery.Medial surface is related to mylohyoid, hyoglossus and styloglossus muscles.Deep parto It lies on the hyoglossus muscle deep to mylohoid. It is related above to lingual nerve and submandibular ganglion; and below to hypoglossal nerve. | 4,051 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of choice for genital was in pregnancy is: | During pregnancy, electrocoagulation, cryotherapy, or CO2 laser therapy should be administered at approximately 32 weeks to avoid, on one hand, post-treatment necrosis, which may last as long as 4-6 weeks, and to prevent, on the other hand, recurrence if treated too early. Podophyllin, podofilox, and imiquimod should not be used during pregnancy. Also know: Treatment of Condyloma Acuminata: Applied by health care provider Bichloracetic acid or trichloroacetic acid, 50-80% solution Podophyllin 10-25% in tincture of benzoin Cryosurgery, electrosurgery, simple surgical excision, laser vaporization Applied by patient Podofilox 0.5% solution or gel Imiquimod 5% cream (topically active immune enhancer that stimulates production of interferon and other cytokines) Ref: Bornstein J. (2013). Chapter 39. Benign Disorders of the Vulva & Vagina. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | 4,052 | medmcqa_train |
Apgar stands for: (Asked twice in exam) | ANS. C | 4,053 | medmcqa_train |
The false statement associated with Kaposi's sarcoma is: | Kaposi sarcoma, a vascular tumor ,induced by HHV 8. The lesions of KS are characterized by the proliferation of spindle-shaped cells that express markers of both endothelial cells and smooth muscle cells. There is also a profusion of slit like vascular spaces, suggesting that the lesions may arise from primitive mesenchymal precursors of vascular channels. KS lesions display chronic inflammatory cell infiltrates. Solid organ transplant (SOT) patients are highly susceptible to development of KS Kaposi's sarcoma is 550-1000 times M/C among SOT recipients than in normal population Mainstay treatment active Retroviral therapy. | 4,054 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent in a patient with cardiac arrest: | Answer is A (Amiodarone) Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent jiff resuscitation in a patient with cardiac arrest. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic agent for resuscitation, In patients with VF/VT that does not respond to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. Amiodarone is the first-line antiarrhythmic agent given during cardiac arrest because it has been clinically demonstrated to improve the rate of ROSC (Return of Spontaneous Circulation) and hospital admission in adults with refractory VF/pulseless VT. Amiodarone should be considered when VF/VT is unresponsive to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressor therapy. If Amiodarone is unavailable, Lidocaine may be considered, but in clinical studies Lidocaine has not been demonstrated to improve rates of ROSC and hospital admission compared with Amiodarone. Procainamide may be used for stable wide QRS Tachycardia but not for pulseless cardiac arrest and must be avoided in Torsades De Pointes. Magnesium sulphate should be considered only for Torsades de pointes associated with a long QT interval | 4,055 | medmcqa_train |
Raygat's test is based on: | Hydrostatic test/ Raygat's test: Principle: Specific gravity of lung before respiration is 1.04-1.05 and it becomes 0.94-0.95 after respiration. This makes the respired lung to float. Procedure: Dissect out the fetal lungs & Put into a trough of water and observe. Liver is used as control Inference: If they sink--unrespired lung. If they float--remove them from water, cut into small pieces and then squeeze or compress firmly between sponges, and again put into water. If they sink--unrespired lung. If they float--respired lung. Explanation: Floatation observed for second time is because of residual air that remains in the lungs which cannot be squeezed out by pressing, if the fetus has breathed after bih. | 4,056 | medmcqa_train |
What is a percentage of endothelial cell loss during Descemet's stripping automated endothelial keratoplasty – | Endothelial cell loss is a known phenomenon of endothelial keratoplasty (including DSAEK).
I am not sure about the answer as various studies have given different values at a different time (post-operatively).
First read following statements which are supporting my answer:-
"Current modifications of EK such as DSAEK have shown a significantly higher cell loss at just 6-12 months after DSAEK surgery".
–Corneal endothelial transplant
"Reports of endothelial cell loss have been very variable from as high as 50% at 6 months to 26% after 2 years in the Busin series. Other reports suggest that there is no difference between cell loss with a 40% loss at 1 year for both PLK and PK and a recent study comparing endothelial cell loss in historic PK Vs DSAEK or other PLK techniques showed no measurable difference".
–Cornea & External eye disease
"The 12-month cell loss for 2 diagnoses (Pseudophakic/aphakic corneal edema and Fush's dystrophy) was comparable, i.e. 41% and 37%.
–Internet
"One-year endothelial cell loss after DSAEK is 15 - 40% (average 27%)".
—XXIV Annual Meeting European Eye Bank Association
"There have been several publications showing endothelial cell loss to be in the range of 24-50% at 12-24 months post DSAEK".
Now read the statements, which have different values at different post-operative period:
"The 1, 3, and 5-year endothelial cell losses derived from the models after DSAEK were 56%, 66%, and 73%, respectively and after THPK were 24%, 50% and 64% respectively".
"The 5-year endothelial cell loss after DSEK compared favourably with that measured after penetrating Keratoplasty in the cornea donor study (53% Vs 70%)".
"At 1-year post DSAEK, Bahar et al. published 36% cell loss, Busin et al. reported 24% cell loss; Covert and Koening published 57% and Gorovoy et al. 40%. At 2 years, the rate of endothelial cell loss is between 41% (Price & Price) and 36% (Terry et al).
However, amongst the given options, option 'c' fits best in all the data mentioned above. | 4,057 | medmcqa_train |
About scurvy, all are true EXCEPT: September 2012 | Ans. C i.e. Raised serum alkaline phosphataseScurvyBleeding into skin & joints,Wimberger sign,Pseudoparalysis etc. | 4,058 | medmcqa_train |
Nitric oxide is synthesized from which amino acid: | NO is also called as Endothelium Derived Relaxing Factor (EDRF). NO (nitric oxide) is synthesized from arginine by enzyme NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) in the endothelial cells. It requires 5 cofactors:- NADPH FAD FMN Heme and Tetrahydrobiopterin (BH4). The vasodilator - nitroglycerin also enters smooth muscle cells, where its metabolism also leads to the formation of NO. NO synthase :-There are three isoforms of NOS (Nitric oxide synthase) 1. nNOS - neuronal 2. iNOS- inducible 3. eNOS- endothelial EC no. 1 (oxido-reductase) Mono oxygenase (one oxygen is added in substrate) Usually belongs to EC no 4 but NO synthase is an exception. | 4,059 | medmcqa_train |
For spinal anesthesia, lignocaine is used as | Lignocaine is used as 5% (heavy) for spinal anaesthesia. | 4,060 | medmcqa_train |
Post dislocation of hip leads to which attitude of the lower leg: | B i.e. Adduction , internal rotation and flexion | 4,061 | medmcqa_train |
Regarding rheumatoid ahritis, all of the following statements are true except- | Rheumatoid nodules occur almost exclusively in RF or ACPA positive patients, usually in extensor tendons . Theyare frequently asymptomatic but some may be complicated by ulceration and secondary infection . Ref Davidsons 23e p1023,1024 | 4,062 | medmcqa_train |
Difference between rantidine & cimetidine is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ranitidine is 5 times more potent than cimetidine o Ranitidine has several desirable features compared to cimetidine:5 times more potent than cimetidine.No antiandrogenic action, does not increase prolactin secretion or spare estradiol from hepatic metabolism - no effect on male sexual function or gynaecomastia.Lesser permeability into brain.Less marked inhibition of hepatic metabolism of other drugs.Overall incidence of side - effects is lower. | 4,063 | medmcqa_train |
In a slow sand filter, the element responsible for yielding bacteria-free water is the - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vital layer | 4,064 | medmcqa_train |
Name the intrauterine contraceptive device: | Above image is of Multiload-375 -- Device is available in a sterilized sealed packet with an applicator. There is no introducer and no plunger. It has 375 mm2 surface area of copper wire wound around its veical stem. Replacement is every 5 years. | 4,065 | medmcqa_train |
A father forced his relictant son to bring a glass of water and the child dropped the glass on the way. This is an example of | Passive aggression is an immature defense mechanism where a person indirectly expresses anger towards others. | 4,066 | medmcqa_train |
NOT a feature of Horner's syndrome | (A) Exophthalmos # HORNER'S SYNDROME:> Enophthalmos, Ptosis, Miosis, & Ipsilateral loss of sweating (Anhydrosis)> Malignant pleural effusion often leads to dyspnea.> Pancoast's (or superior sulcus tumor) syndrome results from local extension of a tumor growing in the apex of the lung with involvement of the eighth cervical and first and second thoracic nerves, with shoulder pain that characteristically radiates in the ulnar distribution of the arm, often with radiologic destruction of the first and second ribs.> Often Horner's syndrome & Pancoast's syndrome coexist. | 4,067 | medmcqa_train |
The most impoant sign of significance of renal aery stenosis on an angiogram is: | B i.e. Presence of collaterals | 4,068 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following lies lateral to sheath of femoral hernia? | Femoral vein lies lateral to sheath of femoral hernia.Femoral sheath - funnel shaped sleeve of fascia enclosing upper 3-4 cm of femoral vessels. The sheath is divided into three compaments by septa- Lateral compament - femoral aery and femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve Intermediate compament- femoral vein Medial compament - Also known as Femoral canal - Contains lymph node of Cloquet Femoral hernia - The femoral canal is an area of potential weakness in the abdominal wall through which abdominal contents may bulge out forming a femoral hernia. It is more common in females. So lateral to femoral canal lies femoral vein. | 4,069 | medmcqa_train |
Iron and folic acid supplement during pregnancy: | Ans. (b) 100mg iron + 500mcg folic acidRef: D.C. Dutta 8th ed. / 241* Adult iron+folic acid tablet given in pregnancy: 1 tab/ day x 100 days* Kids iron+folic acid tablet given: 1 tab/day x 100 days per year- 0 to 5 years of age.Iron and Folic acid tablet content IronFolic acidAdult tab100mg500mcgKids tab (l/5th)20mg100mcg | 4,070 | medmcqa_train |
Carvallo's sign is seen in | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1548 A prominent RV pulsation along the left parasternal region and a blowing holosystolic murmur along the lower left sternal margin, which may be intensified during inspiration (Carvallo's sign) and reduced during expiration or the strain phase of the Valsalva maneuver, are characteristic findings. The murmur of TR may sometimes be confused with that of MR unless attention is paid to its variation during the respiratory cycle and the extent of RV enlarge- ment is appreciated. | 4,071 | medmcqa_train |
A newborn baby who was apparently healthy at bih develops aspiration pneumonia in the first two days of life. All attempts to feed the infant cause it to cough and choke. Which of the following abnormalities is the most likely cause of the infant's difficulties? | The infant probably has esophageal atresia, which is typically caused by posterior detion of the tracheoesophageal septum. Attempts at feeding cause fluid to spill into the trachea, and secondarily cause aspiration pneumonia. Emergent surgical correction is usually required. Bronchogenic cysts are centrally located cysts that are often asymptomatic and may be associated with cysts of other organs. Congenital pulmonary cysts are often multiple and located in the lung periphery without connection to the bronchi; they are vulnerable to infection and rupture complicated by pneumothorax and/or hemoptysis. Pulmonary immaturity produces progressive difficulty in breathing beginning in the first few hours of life. Ref: Thilo E.H., Rosenberg A.A. (2012). Chapter 2. The Newborn Infant. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | 4,072 | medmcqa_train |
Under the Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme, amount of monthly pension is: | Under the Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme, amount of monthly pension is Rs. 200 for BPL persons aged between 18 to 59 years with multiple disabilities. Ref: Health policies and programmes in India, D.K. Taneja 11th edition page: 393 | 4,073 | medmcqa_train |
Epigenetic deals with genetic modifications that do not alter the sequence of DNA. All of the following can detect epigenetic modification except: | Ans. a. HPLC (Ref: Robbins 9/e p180, 319-320 8/e p180-181)Methylation specific PCR, Bisulphite method and ChlP on Chip can detect epigenetic modification but not the HPLC.'Epigenetics is defined as the study of heritable chemical modification of DNA or chromatin that does not alter the DNA sequence itself Examples of such modification include the methylation of DNA, and the methylation and acetylation of histones. Since traditional Sanger sequencing alone cannot detect DNA methylation; other techniques have been developed to uncover these chemical modifications. One common approach is to treat genomic DNA with sodium bisulfite, a chemical that converts unmethylated cytosines to uracil, white methylated cytosines are protected from modification. An assay termed methylation-specific PCR uses two PCR primer sets to analyze single DNA loci: one to detect a DNA sequence with unmethylated cytosines (which are converted to uracils after bisulfite treatment) and the other to detect DNA sequences with methylated cytosines (which remain cytosines after bisulfite treatment).Additional techniques are evolving that provide a genome-wide snapshot of epigenetically altered DNA. These techniques are based on the ability to detect histone modifications such as methylation and acetylation (which, like DNA methylation, are important regulators of gene expression) by using antibodies against specifically modified histones. Such antibodies can be used to pull down bound DNA sequences, a method termed chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP). These pulled- down sequences can be amplified and analyzed by hybridizing to microarrays ('ChIP on Chip') or sequencing ('ChIP- Seq') to map epigenetically modified genes throughout the genome. - Robbins 8/e p180 Isolation of cells of the immune response* Use the correct number of cells: 1 x 106 x to 10 x 106* Collect biological replicates of cells* Choose an appropriate control for antibody specificity (knockout or RNAi knockdown)Fragmentation by sonication or MNase treatment* Shear chromatin to a size range of ~ 150-300 bp* Sonicate chromatin extracts for non-histone proteinsSonication conditions should be determined empirically for each cell typeTreat chromatin extracts with MNase for analysis of histone modificationsDo not overdigest chromatinChIP analysis of histone modifications, transcription factors or epigenetic regulators* Select antibody: monoclonal versus polyclonal* Choose reference control (Input or IgG)* Perform ChIP with established protocols* Purify DNALibrary construction* Do end repair and adapter ligation* Perform PCR using primers compatible with sequencing platformAvoid overamplifying DNA Sequencing* Determine sequencing depth on the basis of the prevalence of binding throughout the genome: more sequencing tags may be needed for diffuse signals (such as H3K27me3)* Perform single-end or paired-end sequencingEpigenetic AlterationsEpigenetics is defined as the study of heritable chemical modification of DNA or chromatin that does not alter the DNA sequence itself.Examples of such modification include the methylation of DNA. and the methylation and acetylation of histonesQ.Since traditional Sanger sequencing alone cannot detect DNA methylation, other techniques have been developed to uncover these chemical modifications.One common approach is to treat genomic DNA with sodium bisulfite, a chemical that converts unmethylated cytosines to uracil, while methylated cytosines are protected from modificationQ.An assay termed methylation-specific PCR uses two PCR primer sets to analyze single DNA loci: one to detect a DNA sequence with unmethylated cytosines (which are converted to uracils after bisulfite treatment) and the other to detect DNA sequences with methylated cytosinesQ (which remain cytosines after bisulfite treatment).Additional techniques are evolving that provide a genome-wide snapshot of epigenetically altered DNA.These techniques are based on the ability to detect histone modifications such as methylation and acetylation (which, like DNA methylation, are important regulators of gene expression) by using antibodies against specifically modified histones. Such antibodies can be used to pull down bound DNA sequences, a method termed chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChlP).These pulled-down sequences can be amplified and analyzed by hybridizing to microarrays ('ChlP on Chip') or sequencing ('ChIP-Seq') to map epigenetically modified genes throughout the genome. | 4,074 | medmcqa_train |
Cutaneous sign of diabetes mellitus are all except | Ans: d (Angiokeratomas)Ref: IADVL, 3rd ed. vol. 2 pg. 1369- 1371Angiokeratoma corporis diffusum is a manifestation of Fabry's disease. All others are dermatological manifestations of diabetes mellitus.Skin manifestations of diabetis mellitus: Diabetic dermopathy Pigmented pretibial papules Shin spots Necrobiosis lipoidicaClear cell syringoma Diabetic bullae Xanthoma rubeosis | 4,075 | medmcqa_train |
Recurrent aboion occurs in a woman, USG abdomen shows a non-echoic region in the central pa of the uterus. What is the probable diagnosis | Septate uterus is most common It causes about 25% of spontaneous first trimester aboions 6% second trimester aboions Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 72. | 4,076 | medmcqa_train |
If somebody develops resistance to INH, patient will develop simultaneously resistance to which drug? | Ref: KD Tripathi, 7th ed. pg. 767* Rifampicin is considered as effective as isoniazid. This agent is active against slow and intermittently dividing bacterium (spurters).* If someone develops resistance to INH, they are most likely to develop resistance to rifampicin as well.* In MDR-TB, there is resistance to INH and rifampicin. | 4,077 | medmcqa_train |
Exotropia occurs due to | Answer- A. Third nerve palsyCauses and associations ofexotropia (Divegent squint)Third nerve palsyCongenitalPrevious strabismus surgeryThyroidophthalmopathyIatrogenic trauma following retinal detachment surgery | 4,078 | medmcqa_train |
Urethritis in males is not caused by: | Hemophilus ducreyi causes soft sore/chancroid. Chocolate agar withIsoVitale Xis used for its culture. Infectious causes of urethritis- Neisseria gonorrhoeae Chlamydia trachomatis Trichomonas vaginalis Mycoplasma genitalium Herpes simplex virus Adenovirus | 4,079 | medmcqa_train |
Snowstorm appearance of knee joint with multiple loose bodies is seen in? | ANSWER: (D) Synovial chondromatosisREF: The Journal of bone and joint surgery: British volume: Volume 71, Pages 549-912, http:// www.springerlink.com/content/17m54n357304205m/Snowstorm knee:Seen in Synovial chondromatosisTraumatic etiologyJoint effusionNumerous brilliant white rice-grain size free bodies in arthroscopy (not radiographically) | 4,080 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of metastatic disease in retinoblastoma is – | Treatment of choice for metastasis is chemotherapy. | 4,081 | medmcqa_train |
Absolute contraindication to ECT is: | There are no absolute contraindications for ECT. Earlier, raised intracranial tension and space occupying lesions were considered as absolute contraindications, hence the best answer here is brain tumor. | 4,082 | medmcqa_train |
The various habits of the lips can be divided into following, except: | The various habits of the lips can be divided into following:
Lip sucking
Lip thrust
Lip insufficiency | 4,083 | medmcqa_train |
Xanthoproteic reaction is due to the formation of | Nitric acid is a powerful oxidising agent and reacts with organic matter to produce trinitrophenol, liberating nitrogen monoxide (xanthoproteic reaction). | 4,084 | medmcqa_train |
What is the paial pressure for carbon-di-oxide in the expired air? | Paial pressure of CO2 in expired air (PE CO2) - 32 mm Hg Carbon-di-oxide: Paial pressure of CO2 in inspired air (Pi CO2) 0.3 mm Hg Paial pressure of CO2 in alveolar blood (PA CO2) 40 mm Hg Paial pressure of CO2 in expired air (PE CO2) 32 mm Hg. | 4,085 | medmcqa_train |
Marker for malignant melanoma is- | S 100 | 4,086 | medmcqa_train |
A 62 year old male patient presented with signs and symptoms of stroke. MR angiography revealed thrombus in the posterior cerebral aery. All of the following structures may be affected by the lesion except | The poserior cerebral aery (PCA) does not supply the pons The branches of the posterior cerebral aery are : Coical branches Occipital lobe- Visual coex Temporal lobe- medial and inferolateral surfaces Central branches Thalamus Subthalamus Lentiform nucleus Midbrain Pineal gland Superior and inferior colliculi Medial and lateral geniculate bodies Choroidal branches : Choroid plexus of Lateral ventricle Third ventricle Ref: Snell's Clinical neuroanatomy 8th edition Pgno: 467 | 4,087 | medmcqa_train |
Features of Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) include all of the following EXCEPT: | FEATURES of ankylosing spondilitis- enthesitis and this ultimately leads to joint ankylosis Both bony as well as fibrous ankylosis occurs in AS Marginal syndesmophytes are seen on X-ray Roos test is used for thoracic outlet syndrome. | 4,088 | medmcqa_train |
Wood&;s lamp is made up of - | WOOD'S LAMP Hand held device used to diagnose various dermatological conditions. It is a mercury vapour long wave,ultraviolet lamp with an inbuilt wood's filter made of barium silicate with 9% nickel oxide. Opaque to all wavelengths except those between 320 nm and 400 nm with a peak at 365 nm.Flourescence occurs when wood's light is absorbed and radiation of longer wavelengths is emitted.Examination done in dark room. Tinea capitis-greenish fluorescence extent of pigmentation. Epidermal/dermal bacterial infection- pseudomonas infection yellowish-greeen fluorescence diagnosis of prophyria- reddish fluorescence in urine iadvl textbook of dermatology page 109 | 4,089 | medmcqa_train |
Method used for acid fast staining - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ziehl Neelsen Acid fast stainingo After staining with aniline dye, acid fast organisms resist decolourisation with acids,o Method most commonly used is modified Ziehl Neelsen.Smear stained by carbolfuschin|Decolourization by 20% sulphuric acid|Counterstaining by methylene blueAcid fast organismsNon acid fast organismsRetain fiischin (red colour)Take colour of methylene blue (blue colour)Acid fastness depends uponMycolic acid Integrity of cell wall | 4,090 | medmcqa_train |
Wof are components of Waldeyer&;s ring | WALDEYER'S RING Scattered throughout the pharynx in its subepithelial layer is the lymphoid tissue which is aggregated at places to form masses, collectively called Waldeyer's ring. The masses are: 1. Nasopharyngeal tonsil or the adenoids 2. Palatine tonsils or simply the tonsils 3. Lingual tonsil 4. Tubal tonsils (in fossa of Rosenmuller) 5. Lateral pharyngeal bands 6. Nodules (in posterior pharyngeal wall). Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-238,239 | 4,091 | medmcqa_train |
Lysine is deficient in: | Maize | 4,092 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of choice in a postmenopausal lady with atypical endometrial hyperplasia is ; | Hysterectomy | 4,093 | medmcqa_train |
During angiogenesis recruitment of pericytes and peri-endothelial cells is due to - | Angiogenesis
o Blood vessels formation in adults is known as angiogenesis or neovascularization. It can occur by two ways:-
1. Angiogenesis from pre-existing blood vessels
The major steps in this process are
i. Vasodilatation by NO, and VEGF-induced increased permeability of the pre-existing vessel.
ii. Proteolytic degradation of the basement membrane by metalloproteinases (MMPs) and disruption of cell-to-cell contact between endothelial cells by plasminogen activator.
iii. Migration of endothelial cells towards angiogenic stimulus.
iv. Proliferation of endothelial cells, just behind the leading front of migrating cells.
v. Maturation of endothelial cells.
vi. Recruitment of periendothelial cells (pericytes and vascular smooth muscle cells) to form the mature cells.
2. Angiogenesis from endothelial precursor cells (EPCs)
EPCs can be recruited from the bone marrow into tissues to initiate angiogenesis. Growth factors involved in the process of angiogenesis
o VEGF is the most important growth factor in adult tissues undergoing angiogenesis.
o The most important receptor for VEGF is VEGFR-2, a tyrosine kinase receptor.
o VEGF induces the migration of EPCs in the bone marrow, and enhances the proliferation and differentiation of these cells at sites of angiogenesis.
o FGF 2 can also stimulate endothelial cell proliferation, differentiation and migration.
o Newly formed vessels are fragile and need to become stabilized, which requires the recruitment
of pericytes and smooth muscle cells (peri-endothelial cells). Angiopoietin 1 and 2 (Ang 1 & 2), PDGF and TGF-fl participate in stabilization process.
Remember
o VEGF transcription is regulated by the transcription factor HIF, which is induced by hypoxia. | 4,094 | medmcqa_train |
Basal cell carcinoma is seen in most commonly in which pa of the eyelid? | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 384)*Basal cell carcinoma is the commonest malignant tumor to the lids (90%) usually seen in elderly people *It is locally malignant and involves most commonly lower lid (50%) followed by medial canthus (25%), upper lid (10-15%) and outer canthus"Basal cell carcinoma is seen in the lower lid near the inner canthus usually | 4,095 | medmcqa_train |
Field instrument used to measure bih weight:- | - Field instrument to measure bih weight is Salter's Spring balance (kind of sling balance on which child is hung) - Average bih weight = 2.8kg - According to WHO, Low bih weight = < 2.5kg Very Low bih weight = < 1.5 Kg Extremely Low bih weight = < 1 Kg - Bih weight Doubles by 5 months Triples by 12 months Quadruples by 2yrs | 4,096 | medmcqa_train |
In a drive for swachta abhiyaan, few group of young social activist markers cleaned sewers, after that they complain of fever, headaches. On examination, a non-catalase, non-glucose fermenting organism is isolated.
Which of the following is most likely responsible: | Leptospirosis
Leptospira organisms are found in damp environments and affect people working there, like
Stagnant water (sewer workers)
Wet soil (agricultural workers)
Mine workers
Infected person can develop mild febrile illness, headache to jaundice and renal failure. Human acts as an end host of these organisms. | 4,097 | medmcqa_train |
In the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modern society, the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabitation resulting in no offspring for a couple to be declared infeile is: | 90% of couple who are cohabiting for at least one year with out contraception will have a conception. This is on monthly conception rates of 20 - 25 % in normal young couples attempting pregnancy. | 4,098 | medmcqa_train |
What is the percentage of immunoglobulins present in proteins? | Immunoglobulins constitute 20 to 25% of total serum proteins. Based on physiochemical and antigenic differences, five classes of immunoglobulins have been recognized: IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE.(Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th edition, p93) | 4,099 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.