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Drug of choice for relapsing remitting multiple sclerosis is: | Answer is option 2,beta interferon Early treatment with high-dose interferon beta-1a reverses cognitive and coical plasticity deficits in multiple sclerosis. Mori F1, Kusayanagi H, Buttari F, Centini B, Monteleone F, Nicoletti CG, Bernardi G, Di Cantogno EV, Marciani MG, Centonze D. Author information Abstract Acute inflammation is associated with cognitive deficits and alterations of coical plasticity in multiple sclerosis (MS). We tested whether early treatment with high-dose interferon (IFN) beta-1a, known to reduce inflammatory activity, improves coical function and cognitive deficits in MS. | 3,300 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about ischemia associated kidney injury, EXCEPT: | Healthy kidneys receive 20% of the cardiac output and 10% of resting oxygen consumption. despite constituting only 0.5% of the human body mass. The renal medulla is the site of one of the most hypoxic regions in the body. Ischemia alone in a normal kidney is usually not sufficient to cause severe AKI. Clinically, AKI more commonly develops when ischemia occurs in the context of limited renal reserve or coexisting insults such as sepsis, vasoactive or nephrotoxic drugs, rhabdomyolysis, and the systemic inflammatory states associated with burns and pancreatitis. Ref: Harrison-E-18, P-2295. | 3,301 | medmcqa_train |
Exposure of left subclan aery by supraclavicular approach does not require cutting of ? | Scalenus medius lies posterior to the subclan aery and thus need not be divided to expose the aery. Whereas, sternocleidomastoid & scalenus anterior lie anteriorly and omohyoid lies superiorly and thus are cut during exposure of the subclan aery. | 3,302 | medmcqa_train |
Bilayer cell membrane contains | The phospholipids are arranged in bilayers with the polar head groups oriented towards the extracellular side and the cytoplasmic side with a hydrophobic core (Fig. 2.4A). The distribution of the phospholipids is such that choline-containing phospholipids are mainly in the external layer and ethanolamine and serine containing phospholipids in the inner layer. The cholesterol content of the membrane alters the fluidity of the membrane. When cholesterol concentration increases, the membrane becomes less fluid on the outer surface, but more fluid in the hydrophobic core. The effect of cholesterol on membrane fluidity is different at different temperatures. At temperature below the Tm cholesterol increases fluidity and thereby permeability of the membrane. At temperatures above the Tm, cholesterol decreases fluidity.Ref: DM Vasudevan, page no: 11 | 3,303 | medmcqa_train |
Presence of Hbe Ag in patients with hepatitis indicates - | HBeAg appears in blood concurrently with HBsAg or soon afterward. Circulating HBeAg is an indicator of active intrahepatic viral multiplication, and the presence in blood of DNA polymerase, HBV DNA and virions, reflecting high infectivity. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-547 | 3,304 | medmcqa_train |
True about fibrolamellar carcinoma of the liver: | “A distinctive variant of hepatocellular carcinoma is the fibrolamellar carcinoma, constituting less than 5% of HCCs. This tumor occurs in young male and female adults (20 to 40 years of age) with equal incidence, has no association with HBV or cirrhosis risk factors, and often has a better prognosis
It usually presents as single large, hard "scirrhous” tumor with fibrous bands coursing through it. On microscopic examination, it is composed of well-differentiated polygonal cells growing in nests or cords and separated by parallel lamellae of dense collagen bundles"- Robbins 9th/872-73, 8th/879 | 3,305 | medmcqa_train |
A patient in emergency depament shows Mc Ewan sign. This sign is positive in the following condition: | Mc Ewan sign is seen in stage of coma of acute alcohol intoxication. Stage of coma of alcohol intoxication: In this stage, the motor and sensory cells are deeply affected, speech becomes thick and slurring, coordination is markedly affected, causing the patient to become giddy, stagger and possibly to fall. The person passes into a state of coma with steorous breathing. The pulse is rapid and temperature subnormal. The pupils are contracted, but stimulation of the person, e.g., by pinching or slapping, causes them to dilate with slow return (Mc Ewan Sign). Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 502. | 3,306 | medmcqa_train |
Sentinel lymph node is defined as - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Primary LN draining tumor | 3,307 | medmcqa_train |
Buonian line is seen in poisoning | Chr. Lead poisoning = Plumbism = Saturnism = Saturnine poisoning- ALA in urine, Coproporphyrin in urine, facial pallor, Basophilic stippling/Punctate basophilia (dark blue, pin-head spots in cytoplasm of RBCs), Buonian line (blue line gums' margin, PbS, 50-70% cases, near carious/diy teeth, Lead palsy, Pb encephalopathy, wrist drop, foot drop, Colic, Constipation, Menstrual irregularity, Sterility, Nephropathy, X-ray- radio-opaque bands at metaphyses of long bones, Pb >0.03mg% in blood is diagnostic.) Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology; 5th ed; Page no: 469 | 3,308 | medmcqa_train |
Avascular necrosis of bone is LEAST likely to be associated with? | Avascular necrosis is an infarction of bone that is associated with (1) long-term corticosteroid use, such as in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (most common cause), (2) sickle-cell disease, (3) trauma, (4) Legg-Perthes disease, or (5) Kienbock disease involving the scaphoid (navicular) bone. OsgoodSchlatter dis ease is a localized inflammation that produces pain in the tibial tuberosity at the point of attachment of the patellar tendon, which results in prominence of the tibial tuberosity that persists throughout life. It usually occurs during the pubertal growth spurt and is not an example of avascular necrosis. | 3,309 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are ketone bodies EXCEPT | Primary ketone body-Acetoacetate.
Secondary ketone bodies- Acetone, Beta-hydroxybutyrate.
Neutral Ketone body-Acetone.
Ketone body excreted through lungs-Acetone.
Site of synthesis of ketone bodies-Liver mitochondria.
Organs which do not utilize ketone bodies-Liver, RBCs.
Rate limiting step of ketone body synthesis-HMG CoA Synthase.
Ketone bodies that do not answer Gerhardt's test- Betahydroxybutyrate and Acetone.
Ketone body that does not answer neither Rothera test nor Gerhardt's test-Betahydroxybutyrate. | 3,310 | medmcqa_train |
Fasciculation are caused by | Fasciculations are the characteristic feature of depolarising block. Succinylcholine is the depolarising muscle relaxant. d-tubocurare, vecuronium and pancuronium are the non-depolarising muscle relaxants. | 3,311 | medmcqa_train |
A young man weighing 65 Kg was admitted to the hospital with severe burns in a severe catabolic state. An individual in this slate requires 40 KCal per Kg body weight per day 1 gm of protein/Kg body weight/da. This young man was given a solution containing 20% glucose and 4.25% protei. If 3000 ml of solution in infused per day. | Calories are calculated by catabolism of glucose (not proteins) Glucose: Amount of glucose in 20% glucose in 3000 ml of solution: 3000*20/100 = 600 gms. 1 gm glucose on catabolism produces: 4.2 KCal. 600 gms of glucose would produce: 600*4.2 = 2520 KCal. Protein: Percentage of protein in fluid: 4.25% Percentage of protein in 3000ml of fluid: 3000*4.25/100= 127.5 gms. Calories required for the patient: 40*65 = 2600 KCal Proteins required for the patient: 2*65 = 130 gms. Required amount Supplied by solution Calories 2600 KCal 2520KCal Proteins 130 gms 127.5 gm Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno: 119 | 3,312 | medmcqa_train |
The most effective contraceptive available is: | - Amongst the choices, third generation is most effective with a failure rate of only 0.2/HWY. PEARL INDEX OF DIFFERENT CONTRACEPTIONS: Male condoms 2-14 / HWY Female condoms 5-21 / HWY Centchroman 1.84 - 2.84 /HWY OCPs 0.1 - 2 /HWY Sterilization 0.1 / HWY Vaginal sponge 9-20 / HWY | 3,313 | medmcqa_train |
Endogenous triglycerides in plasma aremaximally carried in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., VLDL | 3,314 | medmcqa_train |
'Cayenne pepper' stippling due to hemosiderin is found in : | C i.e. Plasma cell balantitis of zoon | 3,315 | medmcqa_train |
Vomiting centre is situated in which part of brain? | The area postrema (AP) has been implicated as a chemoreceptor trigger zone for vomiting (emesis) for over 40 years. The AP is located on the dorsal surface of the medulla oblongata at the caudal end of the fourth ventricle. It is one of the so-called circumventricular organs that serve as an interface between the brain parenchyma and the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)- containing ventricles. The AP lacks a specific blood-brain diffusion barrier to large polar molecules (i.e., a “blood-brain barrier”) and is thus anatomically positioned to detect emetic toxins in the blood as well as in the CSF.
The NTS (nucleus of the solitary tract) may serve as the beginning of a final common pathway by which different emetic inputs trigger vomiting. | 3,316 | medmcqa_train |
A 41 year old male complains of pain in lower right back tooth region. Intraoral examination reveals deep caries in relation to 47 and IOPA examination reveals deep dentinal caries not involving the pulp. Dentist excavates the caries and restored it with zinc oxide eugenol. Which of the following substance can be used to clean this cement from the instruments? | MANIPULATION
Powder/liquid system:
Powder/liquid ratio - 4:1 to 6:1 by weight.
The bottles are shaken gently. Measured quantity of powder and liquid is dispensed onto a cool glass slab. The bulk of the powder is incorporated into the liquid and spatulated thoroughly in a circular motion with a stiff bladed stainless steel spatula. Zinc oxide eugenol exhibits pseudothickening. Although it appears to thicken early during spatulation, further vigorous spatulation or stropping loosens the mix. Smaller increments are then added, until the mix is complete.
For temporary restorations, a thick putty-like consistency is recommended.
Oil of orange is used to clean eugenol cement from instruments.
Reference – Manappallil p; 101 | 3,317 | medmcqa_train |
The parents of a 2-year-old boy with hyposadias (urethra opens on the ventral aspect of the penis) visit a genetic counselor to discuss the chances that a similar birth defect will occur in their future offspring. This birth defect shows which of the following patterns of inheritance? | The inheritance of a number of birth defects is multifactorial. Most normal human traits are inherited neither as dominant nor as recessive mendelian attributes, but rather in a more complex manner. For example, multifactorial inheritance determines intelligence, height, skin color, body habitus, and even emotional disposition. Similarly, most of the common chronic disorders of adults represent multifactorial genetic diseases and are well known to "run in families." Such maladies include diabetes, atherosclerosis, and many forms of cancer and arthritis, and hypertension. The inheritance of a number of birth defects is also multifactorial (e.g., cleft lip and palate, pyloric stenosis, hypospadias, and congenital heart disease). The concept of multifactorial inheritance is based on the notion that multiple genes interact with various environmental factors to produce disease in an individual patient. Such inheritance leads to familial aggregation that does not obey simple mendelian rules (see choices A, B, D, and E). As a consequence, the inheritance of polygenic diseases is studied by the methods of population genetics, rather than by the analysis of individual family pedigrees.Diagnosis: Hypospadias, multifactorial inheritance | 3,318 | medmcqa_train |
A 12-year-old male is admitted to the hospital with profuse rectal bleeding but appears to be free of any associated pain. Which of the following is the most common cause of severe rectal bleeding in the pediatric age group? | Ileal (Meckel) diverticulum, which is an outpouching of the distal ileum, is twice as prevalent in males as in females. The diverticulum is clinically important because ulceration of the diverticulum with pain, bleeding, perforation, and obstruction is a complication that may require emergent surgery. Signs and symptoms frequently mimic appendicitis or peptic ulcer. Internal hemorrhoids are thrombosed tributaries of the middle rectal vein, which can prolapse into the anal canal. External hemorrhoids are thrombosing in the veins of the external rectal venous plexus. Diverticulosis is ordinarily an outpouching of the wall of the large intestine. This primarily affects the aged and does not cause bleeding in most cases. Borborygmi are sounds created by gas and intestinal contents as they pass through the gastrointestinal tract. | 3,319 | medmcqa_train |
Valve of Hasner | Ref BDC volume3,6th edition pg 76Nasolacrimal duct begins at the lower end of the lacrimal sac, runs downwards, backward and laterally and opens into the inferior meatus of the nose.A fold of mucous membrane called hasners valve forms an imperfect valve at the lower end of the duct. | 3,320 | medmcqa_train |
Sensory supply to tongue is by all, EXCEPT: | The sensory innervation of the tongue reflects its embryological development. The nerve of general sensation to the presulcal pa is the lingual nerve, which also carries taste sensation derived from the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve. The nerve supplying both general and taste sensation to the postsulcal pa is the glossopharyngeal nerve. An additional area in the region of the valleculae is supplied by the internal laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve.Ref: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 33. | 3,321 | medmcqa_train |
Spalding sign is seen in ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Maceration Dead born : A deadborn child is one which has died in utero and shows one of the following signs after it is completely born :? 1) Rigor mois : Rigor mois may occur in dead fetus before bih or at bih. 2) Maceration : Maceration is a process of aseptic autolysis. It occurs when a dead fetus remains in the uterus for 3-4 days surrounded by liquor amnii but with exclusion of air. Skin slippage is the earliest sign (occurs within 12 hours). There is gas in the great vessels and chambers of hea (Robe's sign). Except for lung and uterus, which remain unchanged for a long time, all other organs become soft, oedematous and loose there morphology. The one impoant radiological sign suggestive of maceration is 'Spaulding's sign' i.e. skull bones override each other. The smell is somewhat rancid. 3) Putrefaction (decomposition) : If the membranes are ruptured after death of fetus and air gains entry into liquor amnii, fetus undergoes putrefaction instead of maceration. Body is greenish, foul smelling and bloated. 4) Mummification : It results when there is deficient blood supply, scanty liquor and no air enters uterus. Body is thin, shrivelled dark brown and emitting smell like rotten cheese. | 3,322 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following modes of intervention covers the process of advising a patient to change his lifestyle in order to prevent any risk factor for a disease ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Health promotion | 3,323 | medmcqa_train |
A 'case' in TB is defined as - | - the case in tuberculosis is defined as the one in which sputum positive for acid fast bacilli is detected. Reference: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:182 <\p> | 3,324 | medmcqa_train |
Most common hallucination in schjizophrenia is: | A. i.e. Auditory | 3,325 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements is false about Brucella? | Brucellae are strict aerobes and do not grow anaerobically. Brucellae consists of very small, non-motile, aerobic, Gram-negative coccobacillus that grows poorly on ordinary media and has little fermentative powers. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayana and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg:345 | 3,326 | medmcqa_train |
Dukes classification is used for | Dukes' classification was originally described for rectal tumours but has been adopted for histopathological repoing of colon cancer as well. Dukes' classification for colon cancer is as follows: A: confined to the bowel wall; B: through the bowel wall but not involving the free peritoneal serosal surface; C: lymph nodes involved.Dukes himself never described a D stage, but this is often used to describe either advanced local disease or metastases to the liver.Dukes classified carcinoma of the rectum into three stages: A: The growth is limited to the rectal wall (15%); prognosis excellent. B: The growth is extended to the extrarectal tissues, but no metastasis to the regional lymph nodes (35%): prognosis reasonable. C: Secondary deposits in the regional lymph nodes (50%); prognosis is poor. These are subdivided into C1, in which the local pararectal lymph nodes alone are involved, and C2, in which the nodes accompanying the supplying blood vessels are implicated up to the point of division.A stage D is often included, which was not described by Dukes which signifies the presence of widespread metastases, usually hepatic.Reference : page 1180 and 1230 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 25th edition | 3,327 | medmcqa_train |
A 19-year-old female with sho stature, wide spread nipples and primary amenorrhea most likely has a karyotype of: (AI 2003) | Given features suggests the diagnosis of Turner's syndrome. Turner's syndrome Most common sex chromosomal disorder in phenotypic females. Results from complete or paial loss of one X chromosome (45, XO) Characterized by hypogonadism in phenotypic females. | 3,328 | medmcqa_train |
RNA polymerase is | Ans. is 'a' i.e., DNA dependent RNA polymerase The major enzyme involved in transcription (i.e. synthesis of DNA to RNA) is RNA polymerase.It is DNA dependent RNA polymerase.DNA dependent DNA polymerase DNA plymerase (In DNA replication)DNA dependent RNA polymerase - RNA polymerase (In transcription)RNA dependent DNA polymerase -> Reverse transcripatase (In reverse transcription) | 3,329 | medmcqa_train |
Lateral aberrant thyroid is node from | Ans. (a) Papillary cancerRef: Page 765. Bailey and love 26th edition* Lateral aberrant thyroid is a metastatic node from papillary cancer which is not palpable | 3,330 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements about High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) is false: | HDL prevent oxidation of LDL in complex in vitro models as a result HDL function as a naturally acting antioxidant which protect vessel wall from oxidative damage and resulting atherogenesis. Ref: Current Pharmaceutical Design, Page 6. | 3,331 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is an impoant step in acute inflammation? | Stages of acute inflammation:Vasodilation (after a transient vasoconstriction) Increased vascular permeabilityMovement of white blood cells from blood vessels into soft tissue at the site of inflammation: The steps required are rolling, pavementing, and transmigration. Chemotaxis is the process by which white blood cells are drawn to the site of acute inflammation.Ref: Wyatt C., Kemp W.L., Moos P.J., Burns D.K., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 2. Inflammation and Repair. In C. Wyatt, W.L. Kemp, P.J. Moos, D.K. Burns, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | 3,332 | medmcqa_train |
Mercaptopurine is | Ref: Katzung, 14th ed. pg. 960; KDT, 6th ed. pg. 820* Mercaptopurine is synthetic purine used in cancer chemotherapy.* Use: Childhood acute leukemia. | 3,333 | medmcqa_train |
In multibacillary leprosy, the follow-up examination after adequate treatment should be done yearly for – | Surveillance after treatment
Clinical surveillance of cases after completion of treatment is an important part of the current recommendations for multidrug therapy.
It is essential for the assurance of the long-term success of treatment and for the early detection of any relapses.
The recommendations are -
i) Paucibacillary leprosy → clinical examination at least once a year for a minimum period of 2 years after completion of treatment.
ii) Multibacillary leprosy → clinical examination at least once a year for a minimum period of 5 years after completion of treatment. | 3,334 | medmcqa_train |
In all of the following enzyme deficiencies, hyperammonemia is a common feature, EXCEPT: | Excess ornithine from urea cycle is taken by enzyme OAT (Ornithine amino transferase) OAT deficiency leads to gyrate atrophy. In this deficiency, plasma, urine, spinal fluid and aqueous humour concentration of ornithine levels are 10-20 times higher than normal Hyperammonemia is absent because urea cycle is not disrupted in this deficiency Hyperammonemia occurs in enzyme deficiency of Urea cycle | 3,335 | medmcqa_train |
Interleukin secreted by macrophages, stimulating lymphocytes is: | Macrophages release IL-1 which stimulates the T-helper cells.
The T-cells in response proliferate and release IL-2 which in turn stimulates still further T-cell proliferation and B cell proliferation and differentiation into plasma cells.
Thus
Macrophages release→IL-1*
T-helper cells release→ IL-2* | 3,336 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is associated with acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis - | Acute hemorhagic conjunctivitis is caused by Enterovirus 70. REF:ANATHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:493 | 3,337 | medmcqa_train |
In traumatic brain injury, Glasgow outcome score of 4 stands for | Glasgow Outcome Score (GOS)Good recovery 5Moderate disability 4Severe disability 3Persistent vegetative state 2Dead 1Bailey and Love 26e pg:320 | 3,338 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following cardiac valves is not commonly involved in rheumatic fever? | In chronic disease the mitral valve is viually always involved. The mitral valve is affected in isolation in roughly two thirds of RHD, and along with the aoic valve in another 25% of cases. Tricuspid valve involvement is infrequent, and the pulmonary valve is only rarely affected. | 3,339 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the below given bone is best suitable for sex determination | Ans. (B) Pelvis"Krogman's degree of accuracy"The accuracy of estimating the sex from skeletal remains depends upon the number of bones available.If the entire skeleton is available, the accuracy is 100%;Pelvis alone is available, it is 95%Skull alone, it is 90%Skull + pelvis, the accuracy is 98% | 3,340 | medmcqa_train |
All are catalase positive Except | S.dysenteriae (subgroup A): This species of mannitol non-fermenting bacilli consists of ten serotypes. It is indole negative and is the only member of the family that is always catalase-negative. S.flexineri, S.boydii, and S.sonnei are catalase positive. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Aanthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Edition; Pg:292 | 3,341 | medmcqa_train |
Pneumatosis Intestinalis is associated with? | Pneumatosis Intestinalis is the presence of intramural air seen in Stage IIb of Necrotising Enterocolitis / Intestinal ischemia. | 3,342 | medmcqa_train |
Earliest detection of pregnancy by ultrasound is by: | Ans. is a i.e. Gestational sac "The first definitive sonographic finding to suggest pregnancy is visualization of the gestational sac." First sign of intrauterine pregnancy is presence of yolk sac within the gestational sac.deg Extra Edge The position of a normal gestational sac is in the mid to upper uterus. As the sac implants into the decidualized endometrium it is adjacent to the linear central cavity echo complex without displacing this echogenic anatomic landmark. This is known as Intradecidual Sign. As the sac enlarges it gradually impresses on and deforms the central cavity echo complex giving rise to the characteristic sonographic appearance of the double decidual sac signdeg This sign is most effective with transabdominal sonography, performed at 5 - 6 weeks gestational age because using this approach, sonographer can confirm the presence of an intrauterine pregnancy before a yolk sac is identified. | 3,343 | medmcqa_train |
The drug that causes first dose phenomenon in elderly patients - | The side effect postural hypotension also known as "First Dose Hypotension" is observed with drugs ending with 'zosin' eg. Prazosin, Terazosin,Doxazosin These drugs cause blocking of a1 receptors, leading to vasodilation, that can cause Postural Hypotension. Acarbose - Inhibition of intestinal absorption of carbohydrates. S/E - flatulence, abdominal discomfo, loose stool. Metformin - S/E - Abdominal Pain, Anorexia, bloating, nausea, metallic taste mild diarrhea & tiredness. Noradrenaline (Pressor agent)- stimulates a1 and a2 receptors, thus increases peripheral vascular resistance and result in increase BP. It acts on b1 adrenergic receptors, causing increase In hea rate and cardiac output. S/E = Transient restlessness, headache, palpitations, Anxiety, tremor. | 3,344 | medmcqa_train |
Definitive criteria for PID is | Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease manifest as Hydrosalpinx Chronic pyosalpinx Tubo ovarian abscess or cyst Tubercular tubovarian masses Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 340. | 3,345 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 years old male c/o recurrent abdominal pain but biochemical assays and ultrasound abdomen is normal. He also complains of constant headaches. He suddenly complains of loss of vision of bilateral eyes. Ophthalmologist finds nothing on examination. Symptoms are most probably due to | Ans. D. Factitious disorderFactitious disorderIt is also known as Hospital addiction, hospital hoboes, or Professional patient.The term Munchausen syndrome is used for those patients who repeatedly simulate or fake diseases (intentionally) for the sole purpose of obtaining medical attention. There is no other recognizable motive (in contrast to malingering).The typical presentation of Munchausen syndrome is characterized by a restless journey from doctor to doctor and hospital to hospital, an ever-changing list of complaints and symptoms.The patient tries to maintain the sick role to obtain medical attention. There may be evidence of earlier treatment usually surgical procedure, for example, multiple surgical scars (gridiron abdomen). | 3,346 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following denotes the trend of events that pass with time? | Ans. c (Line chart) (Ref. Text book of biostatistics by B K Mahajan, Vlth /pg. 20; Park PSm 22nd/788)Line diagrams are used to show the trend of events with the passage of time.Type of dataQualitative dataQuantitative dataDefinitionCharacteristics same, only frequency variesCharacteristics as well as frequency both varyExampie Method of presentation of dataMales, females1. Bar diagramLength of the bars, drawn vertical or horizontal, indicates the frequency of a character. Bar may be drawn in ascending or descending order of magnitude. Spacing between any two bars should be nearly equal to half of the width of the bar. There are four types of bar diagrams,a) Simple bar diagram:Here bars can be arranged vertically or horizontally. A suitable scale must be used to present the length of the bars.b) Multiple bar diagram:Here two or more bars are grouped together.c) Component bar diagram:The bars may be divided into two or more parts. Each part represents a certain item.d) Proportional bar diagram:Each bar represents 100%. The bars may be divided into two or more parts. Each part is proportional to the magnitude of that particular itemHeight, weight, blood pressure1. Histogram - To construct a histogram the class intervals are plotted along X axis (horizontal line) and corresponding frequencies (or no. of observations) on Y-axis (vertical line). Rectangles are constructed such that height of a rectangle is proportional to the frequency of class and width is equal to length of the class. If all classes are of equal length then all the rectangles will have equal width. Histogram is an area diagram.2. Pie diagramThe frequencies of the groups are shown in a circle. Degrees of angle denote the frequency and area of the sector. Size of each angle is calculated by the formula as: Angle (Degrees) = Class frequency X 360deg/Total observations2. Frequency polygon - It is an area diagram of frequency distribution developed over a histogram. Join the midpoints of class intervals at the height of frequencies by straight lines. It gives a polygon, i.e., figure with many angles.3. Pictogram -- It is a popular method of presenting data to the layman. Here each picture indicates a unit of characteristic. These charts can be used for illiterate persons. Because of its attractive presentation it can be utilized for the man on the street.3. Frequency curve - when the no. of observations is very large and group intervals are reduced, the frequency polygon tends to lose angulations giving place to a smooth curve known as frequency curve.4. Spot map - These maps are prepared to show geographical distribution of frequencies of characteristic4. Line chart - This is a frequency polygon presenting variations by line. It shows the trend of an event occurring over a period of time-rising, falling or showing fluctuations. Cumulative frequency curve (Ogive) - Successive class frequencies are added and a frequency polygon is drawn. Number or percent of observations falling below or above a specific value can be presented in this graph. Any point below which there are certain percent of observations is called as percentile and graph drawn out of such points is a 'percentile graph'.5. Scatter (Correlation) diagram: It is graphic representation made to show the nature of correlation between two variable characters X and Y in the same person(s) or group(s) such as height and weight in men aged 20 years, hence it is also called correlation diagram. The characters are read on the base (X-axis) and vertical (Y-axis) and the perpendiculars drawn from these readings meet to give one scatter point. Varying frequencies of the characters give a number of such points or dots that show a scatter. A line is drawn to show the nature of correlation at a glance. | 3,347 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following tests are used to screen for gestational diabetes in a 22 year old primigravida? | Glucose challenge test (GCT) is commonly used in screening for gestational diabetes. No special preparation is needed for this test. Fifty grams of oral glucose is given between 24-28 weeks of gestation irrespective of the time or the meal and blood glucose is determined 1 hour later. A plasma value of 140 mg/dl is considered significant to perform the confirmatory diagnostic test. Ref: Essential of Obstetrics By Arulkumaran, 2004, Page 149 ; Dutta, 6th ed, Page 285 | 3,348 | medmcqa_train |
A child scratches his hand with a pen. A red wheel appears which persists for 30 minutes. What would be the diagnosis? | Ans. b. DermographismWhite dermographism is seen in atopic dermatitisDermographism is seen in urticaria | 3,349 | medmcqa_train |
Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally:- | Ideal contraceptive for a couple who are living separately in two cities and meets only occasionally is Condom as long term contraception is not desirable. - Also OCPs and IUCD are required for long term contraception and both of them have few side effects too; so they are not desirable in this case. - Inj. DMPA is an injectable hormonal formulation which given contraception for 3 months which is not desirable here. | 3,350 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is malignant intraocular tumor of children: September 2010 | Ans. A: Retinoblastoma The most common primary malignant intraocular tumor in children is retinoblastoma. Neuroblastoma is the most common cause of orbital metastases in children. Rhabdomyosarcoma is the most common orbital tumour of children. | 3,351 | medmcqa_train |
After tonsillectomy, secondary haemorrhage occurs | After tonsillectomy primary haemorrhage occurs during surgery reactionary bleeding with in 24 hrs, secondary haemorrhage between 5-10 days Secondary haemorrhage is the result of sepsis and premature separation of the membrane Simple measures like removal of clots, application of adrenaline or hydrogen peroxide usually suffice. For profuse bleeding, electrocoagulation is done Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition; Pg no: 430 | 3,352 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment for scabies is | (B) Benzene hexachloride | 3,353 | medmcqa_train |
All the following manifestations suggest the development of lymphoma is sjogren syndrome except: | Low C4 Complement levels suggest the development of lymphoma. | 3,354 | medmcqa_train |
1729. A 28 yr old female presented with malaise and generalised weakness since 6 month. Her appetite Is reduced and she has giddiness and palpitations on and off. There was no organomegaly. Laboratory Study showed normochromic to hypochromic anaemia and MCV-80. What Is the diagnosis | <p> Iron deficiency anemia is much more common in women between the age of 20 & 45 yrs than in men.The onset of this anemia is generally slow .The usual symptoms are weakness ,fatigue ,palpitations ,dyspnoea on exeion & pallor of skin, sclera & mucous membrane.</p><p>Also MCV will be less than 80fl in iron deficiency anemia .</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 298.</p> | 3,355 | medmcqa_train |
According to WHO, exclusive breast milk is given upto – | Exclusive breast feeding : The baby should be given only breast milk and nothing else (not even water) for first 6 months of life. Weaning should be started by 6 months of age with semisolid food, in addition to continuing breast feeding.
The WHO recommends exclusive breast feeding for the first six months of life and then breast feeding up to two years or more.___ Internet
Complementary feeding means giving the child other nutritious foods in addition to breast milk. Breast feeding is sufficient food for first 6 months. Thereafter, concentrated energy dense complementary foods are essential in order to maintain an adequate velocity of growth for the infant. | 3,356 | medmcqa_train |
The skin overlying the region where a venous "cut-down" is made to access the Great saphenous vein is supplied by - | Great saphenous vein on its course is accompanied by saphenous nerve which is a branch of femoral nerve. | 3,357 | medmcqa_train |
'Second gas effect' is exerted by which of the following gas when co-administered with halothane: | Concentration-effect, second gas effect and diffusion hypoxia are seen with inhalational agents used in high concentrations (like N2O). | 3,358 | medmcqa_train |
Mount Fuji sign is a feature of | Mount Fuji sign refers to the presence of gas (pneumocephalus) between the tips of the frontal lobes with a heaped-up appearance giving the appearance of Mount Fuji or M like appearance. | 3,359 | medmcqa_train |
After falling on the pavement, a 72-year-old woman is found to have a fracture of the radius and ulna (Colles' fracture). What is true of this fracture? | The distal radial metaphysis is displaced dorsally. This fracture was described by Colles over 150 years ago. The impact is caused by a fall on the flexor surface of the wrist. The distal segment is displaced dorsally. The reverse injury, involving a fall on the extensor surface of the wrist and flexor deformity, is a Smith fracture. Colles fracture occurs more commonly in older women. The styloid of the ulna not the shaft of this bone is fractured. | 3,360 | medmcqa_train |
Identical twins may not have : | B i.e. Same finger print | 3,361 | medmcqa_train |
Denominator of infant mortality rate is? | Ans. (c) Per 1000 live birthsRef: Park 20thed./488 | 3,362 | medmcqa_train |
Increased ventilation at sta of exercise is due to? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proprioceptors[Ref Ganong 23'd/e p. 636)In moderate exercise the abrupt increase in ventilation at the sta of exercise is due to psychic stimuli and afferent impulsE from proprioceptors in muscles, tendons and joints.Aerial pH, PCO2, and PO2, remain constant during moderate exercise because increase in ventilation is propoionate to increase in O, consumption. | 3,363 | medmcqa_train |
A 19-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of primary amenorrhea. Her physical examination is normal, and she has female sex characteristics and breast development. The only abnormality is the absence of body hair. Among other investigations she also has genetic testing that reveals an XY chromosome pattern. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to explain her phenotypic pattern and amenorrhea? | Androgen receptor defect such as androgen insensitivity will result in the phenotypic characteristics seen in this patient. Other disease states due to abnormal intracellular receptors include cortisol resistance; vitamin D-dependent rickets, type II; thyroid hormone resistance; and pseudo-hypoaldosteronism. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is caused by a mutation in the androgen receptor, and it affects 1 in 100,000 chromosomal males. Because the androgen receptor is X-linked, it only affects males. The phenotypic presentation can vary from complete androgen insensitivity (female external features) to partial insensitivity causing ambiguous or normal male features and infertility. There are several different types of cell membrane receptors. | 3,364 | medmcqa_train |
Epitheliod granulomatous lesions are found in all of the following disease except | ref Robbins 9/e p98 Pneumocystis carinii causes bilateral diffuse pneumonitis in immunocompromised patients and no discernible disease in otherwise healthy individuals. Clinical features are to some extent age-dependent. In premature and debilitated infants, onset is subtle, staing with mild tachypnea. Within a week or so, respiratory distress is apparent, with marked tachypnea, flaring of the nasal alae, retractions, and cyanosis. The illness may last 4 to 6 weeks and has a moality rate of 25 to 50 percent. In the immunodeficient child or adult onset is abrupt, with fever, tachypnea, and respiratory distress. Deterioration progresses to death in almost all cases if no treatment is given. In both types of patient, aerial oxygen tension is low, aerial pH usually increased, and carbon dioxide retention usually does not occur | 3,365 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not an extra aicular feature of Rheumatoid ahritis? | Answer- D. ProteinuriaExtra-aicular manifestations in RASystemic manifestations: Fever, weight loss, fatigue.Dermatological: Subcutaneous nodule.Cardio-pulmonary: Pericardial & pleural effusion, constrictive pericariditis, pulmonary fibrosis, lung nodules.Eye : Sjogren syndrome (Keratoconjunctivitis sicca), scleritis.Nervous : Carpal tunnel syndrome, tarsal tunnel syndrome, mononeuritis multiplex | 3,366 | medmcqa_train |
Vitamin required for hydroxyproline to proline conversion: | A i.e. Vitamin C | 3,367 | medmcqa_train |
Bone with a bone appearance is seen in | Bone within bone appearance is seen in : Osteopetrosis Acromegaly Bisphophonate therapy sickle cell anemia Healed phase of rickets and scurvy. Normal neonate. | 3,368 | medmcqa_train |
In pancreatic scanning radio-isotope used is | se75 is used for pancreatic scanning Cr51 is used to label red blood cells for measurement of mass or volume I131 is used for treating hypehyroidism and thyroid cancer I123 and Tc99 are used for thyroid scanning | 3,369 | medmcqa_train |
UV radiation - | The oncogenic effect of UV rays merits special mention because it highlights the impoance of DNA repair in car cinogenesis. Natural UV radiation derived from the sun can cause skin cancers (melanomas, squamous cell carcino mas, and basal cell carcinomas). At greatest risk are fair skinned people who live in locales such as Australia and New Zealand that receive a great deal of sunlight. Non melanoma skin cancers are associated with total cumula tive exposure to UV radiation, whereas melanomas are associated with intense intermittent exposure--as occurs with sunbathing. UV light has several biologic effects on cells. Of paicular relevance to carcinogenesis is the ability to damage DNA by forming pyrimidine dimersThis type of DNA damage is repaired by the nucleotide excision repair pathway. Reference: Robbins Basic Pathology. Pg no:200,201 | 3,370 | medmcqa_train |
Which wall of hea is enlarged first in a patient with mitral stenosis ? | Wall of hea enlarged in mitral stenosis - left atria | 3,371 | medmcqa_train |
This x-ray is suggestive of | Boot shaped heart - Tetralogy of fallot. | 3,372 | medmcqa_train |
40-year-old male presents with fever and abdominal pain and diagnosed with HIV and TB. How will you give treatment? | If a patient is diagnosed with HIV & TB, treatment for TB should be given first, to decrease bacterial load in the body & decrease chances of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome. Then, treatment of HIV should be given. | 3,373 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 year old male brought to the emergency room with a stab injury to the chest.On examination pt is found to be hemodynamically stable. The neck veins are engorged and the hea sounds are muffled .The following statements are true for this pt except ? | Ans is 'b' Immediate emergency room thoracotomy should be done There is no need for emergency thoracotomy in a hemodynamically stable pt. Cardiac tamponade is quite common in stab injuries to the chest. The classical signs of tamponade are:? (a) Muffled hea sounds (b) Distended neck veins k/a Beck's Triad (c) Hypotension The tamponade can be easily diagnosed by echocardiography (identifying abnormal amount of pericardial fluid) and is managed by pericardiocentesis or surgical pericardiotomy | 3,374 | medmcqa_train |
A one month old infant with a congenital cardiac lesion shows increased sweating during feeding. Which of the following is the sure sign of congestive cardiac failure in this infant? | Congestive hea failure (CHF) is unusual in childhood. When it does present, it is usually as a manifestation of congenital hea disease and is seen in the first year of life. The classic triad of symptoms for pediatric CHF is tachypnea, tachycardia, and hepatomegaly. There may also be a history of poor feeding, sweating or color change with feeding, and poor weight gain. Lower extremity edema and jugular venous distention are less likely in the pediatric population. Ref: Stephan M., Caer C., Ashfaq S. (2011). Chapter 50. Pediatric Emergencies. In R.L. Humphries, C. Stone (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Emergency Medicine, 7e. | 3,375 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about Ondansetron except? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dopamine antagonist Ondansetron is 5-HT3 receptor antagonist at CTZ and NTS, as well as in GIT. | 3,376 | medmcqa_train |
Tyrosine kinase inhibitors are first line treatment in: | lmatinib This novel antineoplastic drug inhibits the tyrosine protein kinases in chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) cells and the ones that are activated by platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) receptor, stem cell receptor and c-kit receptor found in gastrointestinal stromal tumour (GIST), a rare tumour. Stricking success has been obtained in chronic phase of CML as well as in accelerated phase, and in metastatic kit-positive GIST. Adverse effects are fluid retention, edema, vomiting, abdominal pain, myalgia and liver damage. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:828 | 3,377 | medmcqa_train |
The expression of the following oncogene is associated with a high incidence of medullary carcinoma of thyroid: | - RET proto-oncogene is mutation is associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid - RET proto-oncogene is mutated in MEN-2A & 2B syndromes, hence these are also associated with medullary carcinoma of thyroid. - Prophylactic thyroidectomy is indicated in pt with family history of RET mutation | 3,378 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a part of secondary granules in neutrophils? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., LactoferrinLvsosomal enzymes:o These are present in the lysosomes of neutrophils and monocytes. Lysosomes contain two types of granules; Primary (azurophilic) and Secondary (specific) granules.Lvsosomal granulesPrimary (azurophilic) granulesSecondary (specific) granuleso Require high level of agonist to be released extracellularlyo Potentially more destructiveo Secrete:y Myeloperoxidase (MPO)y Acid hydrolasey Elastasey Defensiny Phospholipase A2y Non-specific collagenaseo Secreted at lower concentration of agonistso Secreted extracellularly more readilyo Secrete:y Lysozymey Lactoferriny Alkaline phosphatasey Type IV collagenasey Phospholipase A2 | 3,379 | medmcqa_train |
The best indicator for a potential explosiveness of plague outbreak is- | Question repeated | 3,380 | medmcqa_train |
A 4-year-old child presented with palpable purpura and polyahralgia without any frank ahritis along with colicky abdominal pain associated with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and the passage of blood and mucus per rectum. Urine examination revealed proteinuria and microscopic haematuria. Laboratory studies revealed mild leucocytosis, normal platelet count, normal PT and aPTT, eosinophilia, normal serum complement components and elevated IgA levels. Skin biopsy specimen was taken. | Perivascular neutrophils, leukocytoclasis and fibrinoid degeneration involving the small dermal blood vessels with subsequent hemorrhage in a skin biopsy of a patient with HSP. Skin biopsy showing positive immunofluorescence of the small blood vessels for IgA. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP) Acute immunoglobulin A (IgA)-mediated Generalized vasculitis involving the small vessels of the skin, the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, the kidneys, the joints, and, rarely, the lungs and the central nervous system (CNS). It is the most frequent vasculitis in childhood, the incidence decreasing with age. Subsequently, symptoms develop, of which the following are the most common: Rash, especially involving the legs; this is the hallmark of the disease Abdominal pain and vomiting Joint pain especially involving the knees and ankles Subcutaneous edema Scrotal edema Bloody stools | 3,381 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following structures are at risk of damage in anterior cranial fossa fracture, EXCEPT? | Fracture of the anterior cranial fossa can damage the roof of the orbit, roof of the nose, frontal, sphenoid and ethmoid sinus. It can result in anosmia, black eye, subconjunctival hemorrhage, bleeding into nose and mouth and CSF leak if meninges is involved. Fracture of the middle cranial fossa is accompanied by leakage of CSF into the mouth or into the middle ear and external acoustic meatus, facial paralysis and deafness due to involvement of VIIth and VIIIth cranial nerves.Fracture of the posterior cranial fossa may damage glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory or hypoglossal nerves. | 3,382 | medmcqa_train |
Functions of basal ganglia include | The clear and best known function of basal ganglia is planning and programming of motor functions. Mainly- Complex actions such as writing alphabets and skilled movements such as using scissors to cut. | 3,383 | medmcqa_train |
Who described that P. intermedia is responsible for pregnancy gingivitis? | Kornman and Loesche reported that the subgingival flora changes to a more anaerobic flora as pregnancy progresses; the only microorganism that increases significantly during pregnancy is P. intermedia. | 3,384 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true about the main respiratory control neurons? | The main respiratory control neurons called the Pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC), are located in the medulla. Pre-Botzinger complex (pre-BOTC) is located on the either side of the medulla, between the nucleus ambiguus and the lateral reticular nucleus. They send out regular bursts of impulses to inspiratory muscles phrenic nerve during quiet respiration. Option A: Expiration is passive during quiet breathing. There is no discharge of any neurons. Option B: Pain stimulates respiration. There are NK1 receptors and m-opiod receptors in Pre-Botzinger complex, and, in vivo, substance P stimulates and opioids inhibit respiration. Option C: Impulses from cerebral coex also influence the Pre-Botzinger complex. Ref: Ganong&;s Review of Medical Physiology 26th edition Pgno: 645-657 | 3,385 | medmcqa_train |
Swelling of deep lobe of parotid gland presents as swelling in:- | Swelling of deep lobe of parotid gland presents as swelling in parapharyngeal space. The parotid gland is the most common site for salivary tumours. Most tumours arise in the superficial lobe and present as slow-growing, painless swellings below the ear, in front of the ear or in the upper aspect of the neck. Less commonly, tumours may arise from the accessory lobe and present as persistent swellings within the cheek. Rarely, tumours may arise from the deep lobe of the gland and present as a parapharyngeal mass. Symptoms include difficulty in swallowing and snoring. Clinical examination reveals a diffuse firm swelling in the soft palate and tonsil. | 3,386 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a parameter in Bishop's score: March 2009 | Ans. C: Position of Head | 3,387 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is primary prevention - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Use of mosquito net Level of preventionExampleso Primordial preventiono Discouragement from adapting a harmful lifestyle, e.g. smokingo Primary preventiono Immunization (vaccination)o Chemoprophylaxiso Nutritional supplementation programmeso Chlorination of watero Using a mosquito neto Health educationo Secondary preventiono Screening testo Case finding programmeso Early diagnosis & treatmento Tertian,' preventiono Disability limitationy Resting the affected limb in neutral position in PRPP to prevent deformityo Rehabilitationy Establishing schools for blindy Provision of aids for crippledy Reconstructive surgery in leprosyy Muscle re-education and graded exercise in neurological disorder like polioy Changing profession for a more suitable one | 3,388 | medmcqa_train |
The closest speaking space was suggested by: | The space between the teeth during casual repetition of the sound “s”. It is considered the closest relationship of the occlusal surfaces and incisal edges of the mandibular teeth to the maxillary teeth during function and rapid speech.
This phonetic method is one of the several techniques to determine vertical dimension of occlusion in dentate and edentate patients. This method was proposed by Silverman. | 3,389 | medmcqa_train |
Absolute contraindication for IUCD is/ are | Who category 4: absolute contraindications for use of IUP:
Immediate post spec abortion
Uterine anomaly
Pregnancy
Pelvic tuberculosis
Vaginal bleeding supicious/unexplaned
Current pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)/ Current STDs
Puerperal sepsis
Malignant trophoblast disease
Cervical cancer
Current STSs
Endometrial cancer
Uterine fibrosis with distortion of the uterine cavity | 3,390 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following complications is currently the major limitation to the long-term success of cardiac transplantation? | Currently, graft aeriosclerosis (AKA graft vascular disease) is the most impoant limit to the long-term success of hea transplantation. For unknown reasons, the coronary aeries of transplanted heas undergo intimal thickening associated with hyperplasia of myocytes and fibroblasts and deposition of matrix. This results in luminal stenosis and myocardial ischemia. Patients may develop myocardial infarction, which is clinically silent because the hea is denervated. The overall survival after hea transplantation is 80% at 1 year and 60% at 5 years. Do not confuse graft aeriosclerosis with graft atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is caused by accumulation of cholesterol esters and development of atheromas. Atherosclerosis may recur in the coronary aeries of transplanted heas, but is not a limiting factor in long-term success of hea transplantation. Allograft rejection is ceainly a major postoperative problem. However, thanks to early diagnosis based on periodic endomyocardial biopsy and the availability of immunosuppressant therapy, this complication can be prevented or successfully treated. Although oppounistic infections and development of Epstein-Barr related lymphomas are undesired effects of profound immunosuppression, these complications do not constitute a significant limitation to the overall outcome of cardiac transplantation. Ref: Lin P.H., Kougias P., Bechara C., Cagiannos C., Huynh T.T., Chen C.J. (2010). Chapter 23. Aerial Disease. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | 3,391 | medmcqa_train |
Infliximab - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chimeric antibody against TNF alphaMonoclonal AntibodyTargetIndicationTrastuzumabTositumomabRituximabIbritumomabDaclizumabBasiliximabAbciximabPalivizumabInfliximabEtanerceptOfatumumabBelimumabEpratuzumabOcrelizumabAdalimumabAlefaceptAlemtuzumabBevacizumabCetuximabGemtuzumabEfalizumabOmalizumabNatalizumabDonesumabTocilizumabPanitumumabRanibizomabNimotuzumabEculizumabher-2/neuCD 20CD 20CD 20II-2R (CD-25)II-2R (CD-25)GpII/IIIaFusion proteinTNF aTNF aCD 20BLySCD 22CD 20TNF aLFA-3CD 52VEGFEGFRCD 33CD 11a chain of LFAIgEIntegrin-a4RANK ligandIL-6REGFRVEGFEGFRC5 complement componentBreast cancerB-cell NHLB-cell NHLB-eell NHLImmunosuppressantImmunosuppressantAntiplateletRSVRA .Crohn's diseaseRA (rheumatoid arthritis)SLESLESLESLERAPlaque psoriasisB cell CLLColorectal carcinomaColorectal carcinomaAMLPsoriasisBronchial asthmaMultiple sclerosisOsteoporosisSLEColorectal carcinomaNeovascular macular degenerationSquamous cell carcinoma, gliomaParoxysomal nocturnal hemoglobinuria | 3,392 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following ovarian tumors is most radiosensitive - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dysgerminoma o Dysgerminoma is the most radiosensitive among the ovarian tumors, but radiotherapy is not the treatment of choice as dysgerminoma occurs in pre - reproductive or reproductive age group and fertility is impaired with radiotherapy. | 3,393 | medmcqa_train |
Preserved in manchester operation: September 2009 | Ans. D: Menstruation Surgeon combines an anterior colporrhaphy with the amputation of the cervix, sutures the cut ends of the Mackenrodt's ligament in front of the cervix, covers the raw area on the amputated cervix with vaginal mucosa and follows it up with a colpoperineorrhaphy. It preserves menstrual and childbearing functions. However feility is reduced. Cervical amputation leads to incompetent cervical os and habitual aboions/ preterm deliveries. | 3,394 | medmcqa_train |
Red Color on color doppler suggests? | Color Doppler Imaging: Doppler imaging illustrates only the direction of flow, color coded mean velocities and the range of the mean velocities. Blood flowing towards the ultrasound transducer is conventionally depicted in a band of colors ranging from deep red (low velocity) to bright yellow (high velocity). Flow in direction away from the transducer is indicated by band of colors ranging progressively from deep blue (low velocity) to cyan (high velocity). | 3,395 | medmcqa_train |
Causes of death in drowning are all except : March 2009 | Ans. A: Vagal hyperactivity Causes of death in drowning: Asphyxia Ventricular fibrillation/ if an examination of the larynx reveals that a spasm occurred, the victim may have died from sudden exposure to the cold, which caused an immediate hea attack. Laryngeal spasm Vagal inhibition Exhaustion Injuries In some cases, hypothermia may have been the cause of death rather than drowning. Bodies discovered in the water are examined to see whether water is actually present in the airway and stomach of the victim and if the lungs have swollen up. If such signs are apparent, then the victim did actually die due to drowning. Fuher examination of the corpse will reveal if bleeding occurred in the lungs, suggesting that there was a struggle for breath during the drowning. | 3,396 | medmcqa_train |
Chloroquine is useful in | All of the above arr correct Refer KDT 6/e p 786 Discoid lupus erythematous Rheumatoid ahritis Infectious mononucleosis. Are Crct | 3,397 | medmcqa_train |
Length of lower esophageal sphincter - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3-4 cm "The cricopharyngeal sphincter is 2-3 cm, and the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) is 3-4 cm long". - Textbook of GI Surgeryo Approximately 2 cm of the esophagus lie below the diaphragm in the abdomen (abdominal part of esophagus)o Within this portion of esophagus the abdominal part of LES is locatedo Another 1-2 cm of LES lie above the diaphragm in mediastinum, i.e. thoracic part of LES.o Thus total length of LES is 3-4 cm. | 3,398 | medmcqa_train |
A 52-year-old man presents to the eye clinic with painless vision loss of his right eye. He describes the visual loss as a gradual progression from blurry to total blackout over the past two hours. He has no history of prior visual problems. Past medical history is significant for a myocardial infarction three years ago. The patient takes 70mg of aspirin daily. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination reveals 20/20 vision of the left eye but no vision in the right eye. Extraocular muscles are intact. The neurologic examination is normal. The cardiac examination reveals an S4 hea sound. At the molecular level, which of the following components is essential for the first step of the visual cascade? | The visual cascade: 11-cis-retinal + opsin -> rhodopsin + light -> meta-rhodopsin II. Meta-rhodopsin II dissociates after light exposure to form all-trans-retinal. 11-cis retinal and opsin are essential first steps in generating the photochemical visual cascade. All-cis-retinal is not a pa of the visual cascade. All-trans-retinal, meta-rhodopsin II, rhodopsin is a later pa of the visual cascade: 11-cis-retinal + opsin -> rhodopsin + light -> meta-rhodopsin II. Meta-rhodopsin II dissociates after light exposure to form all-trans-retinal. 11-cis retinal and opsin are essential first steps in generating the photochemical visual cascade. | 3,399 | medmcqa_train |
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