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Most common tumor of urinary bladder is ? | Answer is 'c' i.e. Transitional cell carcinoma There are 3 common histological types of bladder cancer a) Transitional (urothelial) cell ca -- 90% b) Squamous cell ca -- 5-10% c) Adenocarcinoma -- 2% | 158,200 | medmcqa_train |
A village health guide is selected by | Health guides come from and are chosen by the community they work.They should be permanent residents of local community, have formal education up to 6th standard, acceptable to all sections, spend 2-3 hrs for community health work.Park 23e pg: 902 | 158,201 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are associated with coombs positive hemolytic anemia except - | Coombs is positive only in immune hemolytic anemias where there is hemolysis of RBCs by antibodies produced in the body which is the case in SLE ,PAN & Scleroderma. While in TTP hemolysis occurs due to trauma to RBCs due to Microangiopathic hemolysis, seen in TTP &HUS Ref Robbins 9/e pg 448-449 | 158,202 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is NOT a tocolytic agent? | The inhibition of uterine contractions, or tocolysis, has been the mainstay therapy for pre-term labour. Specific tocolytic agents are adrenergic receptor agonists Terbutaline, Ritodrine), MgSO4, Ca2+ channel blockers (Nifedipine), COX inhibitors, oxytocin-receptor antagonists, and nitric oxide donors. Two forms of prostaglandins are commonly used for cervical ripening prior to induction at term a) Misoprostol (PGE1) and Dinoprostone (PGE2) Ref: Schimmer B.P., Parker K.L. (2011). Chapter 66. Contraception and Pharmacotherapy of Obstetrical and Gynecological Disorders. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e Archie C.L. (2007). Chapter 10. The Course & Conduct of Normal Labor & Delivery. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment Obstetrics & Gynecology, 10e | 158,203 | medmcqa_train |
What is the most likely cause of this physical finding? | Answer B. Esophagogastric bypassEsophagogastric bypass is the correct answer. This patient had an subcutaneous esophagogastric bypass procedure over 50 years ago as a result of a complete esophageal stenosis due to a chemical burn. The examination finding is notable for the subcutaneous colonic segment on the chest wall as well as the proximal jejunum as a result of herniation through the epigastric opening of the abdominal fascia created for the esophagogastric bypass. This subcutaneous approach was chosen at the time to avoid additional complications of surgery and anesthesia related to thoracotomy or retrosternal tunneling. | 158,204 | medmcqa_train |
IOC for urethral trauma: | Ans. (a) Ascending urethrogramRef: Bailey and Love 27th Edition, Page 1479* Most common urethral injury sites caused by external trauma are bulbar and membranous urethra.* Most common cause of urethral trauma: Catheterization and cystoscope induced.* IOC for urethral injuries is by ascending urethrogram using water soluble contrast. | 158,205 | medmcqa_train |
Urate crystals are deposited in small joints of the hands & feets in: September 2003 | Ans. A i.e. Gout | 158,206 | medmcqa_train |
In the calculation of Years of Potential Life Lost (YPLL), the denominator is- | Years of potential life lost (YPLL)/Potential years of life lost (PYLL) An estimate of the average years a person would have lived if he or she had not died prematurely. It is a measure of premature moality/death. Deaths occurring in individuals age 75 or older are NOT included in the calculation. For YPLL calculation, Numerator is years of potential life lost. denominator is the population under 75 years of age. - It is based on the years of life lost through premature death. | 158,207 | medmcqa_train |
A 46-year-old woman presents with fever, hemoptysis, weight loss, and night sweats. She has never smoked. She recently returned returned from a month-long trip to Asia. A chest radiograph reveals apical lesions with cavitation in the left lung. A purified protein derivative (PPD) test is placed, and 48 hours later an 18-mm wheal develops. Sputum cultures reveal numerous acid-fast organisms. This patient is put on ontact precautions, and a regimen for tuberculosis is staed. Which of the following disorders does this patient most likely have? | Tuberculosis, at one time a frequent hazard in the United States, is now relatively uncommon except in immunocompromised individuals Primary tuberculosis is the initial infection by M. tuberculosis, and is restricted to the primary, or Ghon complex. Cavitation and selective localization to the pulmonary apices are characteristics of secondary tuberculosis. Secondary tuberculosis may spread through the lymphatics and blood to other organs, resulting in miliary tuberculosis | 158,208 | medmcqa_train |
Most sensitive test for antigen detection is - | RIA is a competitive binding assay in which fixed amounts of antibody and radiolabelled antigen react in the presence of unlabeled antigen. The labeled and unlabeled antigens compete for the limited binding sites on the antibody. This competition is determined by the level of the unlabelled antigen present in the patient's serum sample. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:113 <\p> | 158,209 | medmcqa_train |
True negative means- | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 136 specificity is defined as the ability of a test to identify those who do not have the disease. That is true negatives. | 158,210 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of gastric varices is: | Ans. (c) CirrhosisRef: Sabiston 19/e p 1222-1223* MC cause of Isolated Gastric varices- Splenic vein thrombosis* MC cause of gastric varices- Cirrhosis* Gastric Varices are in the SUBMUCOSA (Esophageal varices are seen in MUCOSA)* Endoscopic USG is the IOC to diagnose Gastric Varices because of the reason above.* Endoscopic therapy for Gastric varices- Endoscopic GLUE injection | 158,211 | medmcqa_train |
During the first 6 months of lactation, which amongst the following contraceptives is not advisable? | - Combined oral contraceptives are relatively contraindicated in the first six months of delivery, as they decrease breastmilk output. - Progestin-only methods can be used after 6 weeks of delivery safely as they have little to no effect on lactation post-six weeks. | 158,212 | medmcqa_train |
Expression of which of the following oncogene is associated with a high incidence of medullary carcinoma of thyroid: | Inherited Medullary Thyroid Cancer: In inherited medullary thyroid cancer prospective family screening is essential due to the 90 to 95% penetrance of the disease. Inherited MTC is usually present by the third decade of life. Inherited syndromes of medullary thyroid cancer are all transmitted in an autosomal dominant form. The mutation is detected in the tyrosine kinase proto-oncogene RET and can be identified in 98% of affected family members with appropriate screening. Also know: 6% of patients with sporadic medullary thyroid cancer carry a germline RET mutation. Genetic testing should, thus, be offered to all patients with newly diagnosed apparent sporadic disease. MEN 2B patients tend to exhibit more locally aggressive MTC , and screening with RET testing is recommended at age 6 months or prior; for familial MTC and MEN 2A screening is recommended by 5 years of age. Other oncogenes: FOS - Overexpression is seen in osteosarcomas BRAF - Point mutation seen in melanoma, lung, colorectal carcinoma WNT1 - Amplification is seen in retinoblastoma Ref: 1. Busaidy N.L., Habra M.A., Vassilopoulou-Sellin R. (2011). Chapter 38. Endocrine Malignancies. In H.M. Kantarjian, R.A. Wolff, C.A. Koller (Eds), The MD Anderson Manual of Medical Oncology, 2e. 2. Morin P.J., Trent J.M., Collins F.S., Vogelstein B. (2012). Chapter 83. Cancer Genetics. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e | 158,213 | medmcqa_train |
commonest site of a rodent ulcer is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Face o Rodent ulcer is synonymous with basal cel! carcinoma.o 90% of basal cell carcinomas are seen in the face, above a line from the corner of mouth to the lobule of ear. The commonest site is around the inner can thus of the eye (also k/a Tear cancer).o This is a typical appearance of nodular variety of Basal cell Ca.o Basal cell Ca is a locally invasive carcinoma of the basal layer of epidermis.o Its of the following 4 types :Nodular variety (most common type) - is characterized by a small slow growing pearly nodule, often with small telengiectatic vessels on its surface. Central depression with umblication is classic sign.Pigmented BCC - This is pigmented variant of nodular variety and thus mimick malignant malanoma.Cystic BCCs - are more macular than other varieties andmay extend over the surface of the skin in a multicentric pattern. The centre can ulcerate. These lesions may appear similar to psoriasis, tenia or eczema.Other points about Basal cell carcinomaIt is the most common type of skin cancer. ( Ref: Schwartz 9th/e p. 406)Low grade malignancy.More common in fair and dry skinned people.Exposure to sunlight is an important etiological factor.Has been seen following prolonged administration of Arsenic.Spread:Basal cell ca usually spreads by local Invasion. In gradually destroys the tissues it comes in contact with, that's why it is called 'rodent ulcer',Lymphatic spread is not seen.Blood spread is also extremely rare. | 158,214 | medmcqa_train |
Early sign of glaucoma includes following except; | D i.e. Horizontal cup Veically oval cup is seen in early glaucoma where as marked (total) bean pot cupping is seen in advanced glaucoma Q | 158,215 | medmcqa_train |
Warthin Finkleday giant cells are seen in: | Ans: b (Measles)The cytopathic effects of measles include1) Multinucleate syncitium formation2) Acidophilic cytoplasmic & nuclear inclusion bodies3) Multinucleate giant cells (Warthin Finkleday cells)More about measles* Commonest childhood exanthema (Mobili virus)* Characteristic Koplik spots are seen opposite to upper molars* Most common complication of measles is otitis media* SSPE is a rare complication of measles; Drug used in treatment - isoprenosineAbout the properties of paramyxovirus study the given below points byheart* Fusion protein is present in all members* Haemolysis & haemagglutination positive in all except RSV* No neuraminidase in RSV & measles* In other words RSV has got only F protein (for syncitium formation) | 158,216 | medmcqa_train |
The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is : | B i.e. Vasodilatation due to local metabolites | 158,217 | medmcqa_train |
All are germ cell tumours of ovary EXCEPT : | Brenner's tumour | 158,218 | medmcqa_train |
Which phase of the cell cycle is resistant to most chemotherapeutic agents, i.e., those that are classified as phase-specific? | . | 158,219 | medmcqa_train |
Hypehermia is defined as- | Hypehermia is increase in the body temperature to abnormal level despite of normal hypothalamic functions The body temperature may be over 105 F, a level that damages the brain and other organs. Other symptoms include muscle cramps, fatigue, dizziness, headache, nausea, vomiting, and weakness. The hea rate may be elevated, and the skin is reddened Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1287 | 158,220 | medmcqa_train |
USG can detect gestation sac earliest at – | The gestational sac can be visualized as early as 41/2 weeks by transvaginal USG and 5 weeks by transabdominal USG. | 158,221 | medmcqa_train |
Physical Quality of life Index Components | Components of PQLI:Infant Moality Life expectancy at age oneLiteracyPQLI is scaled from 0 to 100. | 158,222 | medmcqa_train |
Positive health indicators of nutritional status include all of the following EXCEPT: | (Weight of antenatal mothers) Nutritional status indicators Nutritional status is a positive health indicator. Three nutritional status indicators are considered impoant indicators of health status: a. Anthropometric measurements of pre-school children b. Height of school children at school entry c. Prevalence of low bih weight (< 2.5kg) | 158,223 | medmcqa_train |
Ischial bursitis is also known as ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Weaver's bottom Prepatellar bursitis Hrdeg,1semaid's knee Infrapatellar bursitis Clergyman's knee Olecranon bursitis Student's elbow Ischia] bursitis Weaver's bottom On lateral malleolus Tailor's ankle On great toe Bunion | 158,224 | medmcqa_train |
Gene affected in breast cancer? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., p53 * Most common gene involved infamilial breast cancer - BRCA-1* Most common gene involved in sporadic breast cancer -p53* Most common gene involved overall (Hereditory plus sporadic) - p53* Maximum increase in susceptibility to breast cancer is seen with - p53 mutation (>90%) whether it is sporadic or Hereditary. | 158,225 | medmcqa_train |
A 50 year old woman, Hema has been diagnosed with locally advanced breast cancer and recommended for chemotherapy. She has five years history of myocardial infarction and congestive heart failure. Which antineoplastic drug should be best avoided | Anthracyclines like Doxorubicin, Daunorubicin, Idarubicin and Epirubicin are implicated in causing cardiotoxicity. This adverse effect is due to the generation of iron mediated free radicals. Dexrazoxane is a free radical scavenger that can be used to prevent cardiotoxicity due to anthracyclines. | 158,226 | medmcqa_train |
All are examples of malignant disorders causing myelofibrosis except ? | Disorders Causing Myelofibrosis Acute leukemia (lymphocytic, myelogenous, megakaryocytic) Chronic myelogenous leukemia Hairy cell leukemia Hodgkin's disease Idiopathic myelofibrosis Lymphoma Multiple myeloma Myelodysplasia Polycythemia vera Systemic mastocytosis Ref: Harrison, E-18,P-905. | 158,227 | medmcqa_train |
Use of lithium in pregnancy can result in which of the following abnormalities in the baby? | Lithium usage in pregnancy can lead to Ebstein's anomaly cardiovascular defects. | 158,228 | medmcqa_train |
Non-visualization of Gallbladder is a feature seen in case of Acute cholecystitis in which of the following investigations? | Acute cholecystitis on HIDA scan - failure to visualise gall bladder even after 60 min / delayed visualisation after 4 hrs | 158,229 | medmcqa_train |
Post-term labor is seen in: | Ans. is c, i.e. AnencephalyRef. Dutta Obs. 9/e, p 299Causes of Post-term pregnancy:Wrong dates: Due to inaccurate LMP (most common).Biologic variability (Hereditary) may be seen in the family.Maternal factors: Primipara/elderly multipara/H/o previous prolonged pregnancy, sedentary habit.Fetal factors: Congenital anomalies: Anencephaly - (Abnormal fetal HPA axis), adrenal hypoplasia (Diminished fetal cortisol response).Placental factors: Sulphatase deficiency (Low estrogen). | 158,230 | medmcqa_train |
The most common presentation for IgA nephropathy is: | Answer is D (Repeated Gross Hematuria): The most common presentation of IgA Nephropathy is with recurrent episodes of Gross (Macroscopic) Hematuria during or immediately following an upper respiratory tract infection 'Recurrent attacks of Painless Gross Hematuria represent the classic clinical presentation of IgA Nephropathy' -- Rudolph's Paediatrics | 158,231 | medmcqa_train |
Aschoff bodies in the myocardium are the hallmark of carditis associated with | Acute rheumatic fever is characterized by discrete inflammatory foci within a variety of tissues. The myocardial inflammatory lesions--called Aschoff bodies--are pathognomonic for rheumatic fever these are collections of lymphocytes (primarily T cells), scattered plasma cells, and plump activated macrophages called Anitschkow cells occasionally punctuating zones of fibrinoid necrosis. The Anitschkow cells have abundant cytoplasm and central nuclei with chromatin condensed to form a slender, wavy ribbon (so-called caterpillar cells). During acute rheumatic fever, Aschoff bodies can be found in any of the three layers of the hea--pericardium, myocardium, or endocardium (including valves). Hence, rheumatic fever is said to cause pancarditis. (Robbins Basic pathology,9th edition.pg no.391) | 158,232 | medmcqa_train |
Essential Pentosuria is due to defect in? | Affected individuals excrete large amounts of L-xylulose in urine. Xylulose being a reducing sugar gives Benedict's test positive. Bial's test is positive as xylulose is a pentose Reference Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 30th Edition Pg 205 | 158,233 | medmcqa_train |
In a woman on subdermal progesterone implant, the menstrual abnormality seen is : | Ans. is b i.e. Metrorrhagia | 158,234 | medmcqa_train |
A neonate presenting with ascites is diagnosed having urinary ascites. What is the most common cause | Posterior urethral valves Posterior urethral valves occur in around 1 in 5000-8000 live male bihs. The valves are membranes that have a small posterior slit within them, which typically lie just distal to the verumontanum and cause obstruction to the urethra of boys. They function as flap valves and so although they are obstructive to antegrade urinary flow, a urethral catheter can be passed retrogradely without any difficulty. Clinical features Newborns may present with palpable abdominal masses (distended bladder, hydronephrotic kidney & Ascites) Infants with Urinary infection & sepsis. Sometimes, the valves are incomplete and the patient remains without symptoms untill adolescence or adulthood Approximately 30% of patients experience end stage renal disease Vesicoureteral reflux occurs in 50% of patients DIAGNOSIS Posterior urethral valves need to be detected and treated as early as possible to minimise the degree of renal failure. The presentation varies according to the severity of the obstruction. The more severe the obstruction, the earlier the presen tation. Diagnosis is most commonly made antenatally with ultrasound, which demonstrates bilateral hydronephrosis above a distended bladder. If the diagnosis is not made antenatally, then babies typically present with urinary infection in the neonatal period or with uraemia and renal failure. Rarely the valves are incomplete and the patient is symp tom free until adolescence or adulthood, when again urinary infection or renal impairment can supervene. Investigation will involve a voiding cystogram, with the dilatation of the urethra above the valves demonstrable on a voiding cystogram. The bladder is hypero phied and often shows diveicula. Typically, there is vesico- ureteric reflux into dilated upper tracts. The valves themselves can be difficult to see on urethroscopy because the flow ofirrigant sweeps them into the open position. Renal function is usually impaired, albeit to a varying degree, and the extent is fuher assessed by measurement of ultrasound scanning, which will assess the renal coical thickness, and renography to assess differential renal function. TREATMENT Initial treatment is by catheterisation to relieve the obstruction and to allow the effects of renal failure to improve. Definitive treatment is by endoscopic destruction of the valves with continuing lifelong suppoive treatment of the dilated urinary tract, the recurrent urinary infections and the uraemia. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1478 | 158,235 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following cranial nerve palsy leaves the eye "down and out"? | CN3 lesion causes dilated pupil, down-and-out eye, droopy eyelid. | 158,236 | medmcqa_train |
Na + uptake at basolateral surface of apical cells is by - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Active transporto The Na+ - 1C pump operates at basolateral membrane which maintains intracellular concentration of Na+ very low.o Na+ - K+ pump is a pump for active transport. | 158,237 | medmcqa_train |
Most common renal tumor in neonatal period: | "Although congenital mesoblastic nephroma (CMN) is a rare benign congenital renal tumor it is the most common solid renal tumor in the neonatal period." | 158,238 | medmcqa_train |
Antihistaminic not much preferable in motion sickness among the following is: | 1st generation drugs better treat motion sickness than 2nd gen drugs due to high sedating nature Fexofenadine is a 2nd gen. antihistaminic Promethazine, diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, and meclozine have prophylactic value in milder types of motion sickness; should be taken one hour before staing journey. Promethazine can also be used in morning sickness, drug-induced and postoperative vomiting, radiation sickness. | 158,239 | medmcqa_train |
"Lemon sign" & "Banana sign" are see in- | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Spina bifida * Lemon and banana signs are ultrasonographic findings in a patient of neural tube defects (esp spina bifida).* The banana sign seen on axial imaging through the posterior fossa of fetus. It describes the way the cerebellum is wrapped tightly around the brain stem as a result of spinal cord tethering and downward migration of posterior fossa content. The cisterna magna gets obliterated and the shape of the cerebellum has the appearance of a banana. The sign persists into the second and third trimesters. | 158,240 | medmcqa_train |
Which immunoglobulin is scarce in human serum | Antibody with least serum concentration IgE(0.0004) | 158,241 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statements regarding case control study are true, except | Using case control study only odds ratio can be calculated. Incidence rates, relative risk and attributable risk can be calculated using coho study. Case control study is inexpensive, easy to carry out, used to investigate rare diseases, used to identify risk factors, allows study of different etiological factors and is associated with minimal ethical problems. Reference: Parks Textbook of Preventive And Social Medicine 20th edition, page 70. | 158,242 | medmcqa_train |
Changes occuring in vessels in Raynauds disease are all except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hyperperfusion Three stages are observed with exposure to cold or emotional disturbances. These are -Stages of local syncope - On cold exposure - digital arterioles go in spasm and blood flow decreases, pallor or blanching is observed (Stage of blanching).Stage of local asphyxia - With gradual warming there is slow relaxation of arterioleso Slowly flowing blood becomes easily deoxygenated - the part becomes dusky or cyanosed (Stages of dusky anoxia).C) Stage of recovery -o Attack passes off - arterioles are fully relaxed - oxygenated blood returns into dilated capillaries - fingers becomes red and swollen (Stage of red engorgement). | 158,243 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following cardiac structure is middle cardiac vein located? | Posterior interventricular vein or middle cardiac vein runs in the posterior interventricular sulcus and may drain into the right atrium or into the coronary sinus. | 158,244 | medmcqa_train |
A hypertensive patient was started on antihypertensive drug. He develops dry cough during the course of the treatment. Which of the following drug is responsible for the following? | Ans. B. ACE inhibitorsACE inhibitorsI- C- coughII- A-angioedemaIII- P-prodrugIV- T-taste disturbanceV- O- orthostatic hypotensionVI- P-pregnancyVII- R-renal artery stenosisVIII- I-increased potassiumIX- L-low risk of diabetic nephropathy. | 158,245 | medmcqa_train |
A one day census of inpatients in a mental hospital could - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Give good information about the patients in that hospital at a time o A one day census of inpatient in a mental hospital means the examination is carried out at one point of time --> feature of cross-sectional study. o So, it will provide information about the patients in that hospital at that time. About other options o For estimation of seasonal factors in admission, we will require the study which can be extended to all seasons --> longitudinal study. o This study (study in question) cannot enable us to draw conclusions about the mental hospital of India because it is being done only in one hospital for only one day. o Because the study was done for only inpatient (not for OPD patients) it cannot estimate the distribution of different diagnosis in mental illness in the local area. | 158,246 | medmcqa_train |
'Duret hemorrhages' are seen in: | Ans. (a) Brain* Due to increased ICP - there will be downward herniation of brain stem which causes stretching of the Basilar artery and results in Duret hemorrhage.* Duret hemorrhage is a small area of bleeding in Upper brain stem (Midbrain and Pons)* Fatal outcome. | 158,247 | medmcqa_train |
Preformed toxin produces diarrhea in which organism ? | Example of Preformed toxin i.e. toxin secreted in food: S.aureus enterotoxin, Bacillus cereus emetic type of enterotoxin and botulinum toxin. | 158,248 | medmcqa_train |
Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to all EXCEPT: | Myelin formation requires B12 If B12| - myelination | | So, 1) Peripheral neuropathy 2) Optic atrophy 3) Myelopathy But Not Myopathy 4) SACD spinal cord (Sub-acute combine degeneration of spinal cord) | 158,249 | medmcqa_train |
Diphtheria antibody titer considered optimally protective is | Diphtheria antibody titer considered as optimally protective is >0.1 IU/ml. Titers of IgG antibody against diphtheria toxoid vaccine reflect various levels of protection against the disease as follows: <0.01 IU/ml: No protection 0.01 IU/ml: Basic protection >0.1 IU/ml: Optimal protection. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Edition; Pg; 245 | 158,250 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding X-linked recessive disorders is | (A) Menkey's kinkey hair diseases-copper # MENKES KINKY HAIR SYNDROME is an X-linked metabolic disturbance of copper metabolism characterized by mental retardation, hypocupremia, and decreased circulating ceruloplasmin. It is caused by mutations in a copper-transporting ATP7A gene. Children with this disease often die within 5 years because of dissecting aneurysms or cardiac rupture.> MFS is characterized by a triad of features: (1) long, thin extremities frequently associated with other skeletalchanges, such as loose joints and arachnodactyly;(2) reduced vision as the result of dislocations of the lenses (ectopia lentis);and (3) aortic aneurysms that typically begin at the base of the aorta. The disorder is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait; at least one-fourth of patients do not have an affected parent, and therefore probably represent new mutations.> The changes in Ehler Danlos syndrome vary from thin and velvety skin to skin that is either dramatically hyperextensible ("rubber man" syndrome) or easily torn or scarred. Type I patients develop characteristic "cigarette-paper"scars. In type IV extensive scars and hyperpigmentation develop over bony prominences, and the skin may be so thin that subcutaneous blood vessels are visible. In type VIII the skin is more fragile than hyperextensible, and it heals with atrophic, pigmented scars. Easy bruisability occurs in several types of EDS.> The diagnosis of classic AS is based on X-linked inheritance of hematuria, sensorineural deafness, and lenticonus. Because of the X-linked transmission, women are generally underdiagnosed and are usually less severely affected than men. The hematuria progresses to nephritis and may cause renal failure in late adolescence in affected males and at older ages in some women. The sensorineural deafnes is primarily in the high-tone range. It can frequently be detected only by an audiogram and is usually not progressive. The lenticonus can occur without nephritis but is generally considered to be pathognomonic of classic ASR. Renal transplantation is usually successful. | 158,251 | medmcqa_train |
Ehrlichia chaffeensis is causative agent of | Ehrlichiae
These are gram negative, obligate intracellular bacteria which have affinity towards blood cells,
They grow within phagosomes of phagocytes as mulberry-like clusters called morula.
They are tick-borne.
Three human infections caused by this group of organisms have been identified :-
Human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME)
It is caused by E. chaffeensis, and transmitted by Amblyomma ticks.
Deer and rodents are believed to be reservoir hosts.
There is leukopenia, thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes.
2) Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis (HGE)
It is caused by E. equi (E. phagocytophila), and transmitted by ixodes ticks.
Deer, cattle and sheep are suspected reservoirs.
There is leucopenia and thrombocytopenia.
Glandular like fever
It is caused by Ehrlichia sennetsu
No arthopod vector has been identified and infection is caused by ingestion offish carrying infected flukes.
Theres is lymphoid hyperplasia with atypical lymphocytosis.
Doxycvcline is recommended for treatment of ehrlichiosis. | 158,252 | medmcqa_train |
An 8-year-old mentally retarded child presents with left side flank pain. On ultrasound hvperechoic lesion is seen in right kidney and multiple lesions in the liver. CT scan of abdomen shows -50 to -60 HU density of the lesions in kidney and liver. The most probable diagnosis is: (E. REPEAT 2007) | Ref: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th edit ion. Pages 2049 and 2052Explanation:HOUNSFIELD SCALEIt is a quantitative scale for describing radiodensity.The Hounsfield scale applies to medical grade CT scans.A change of one Hounsfield Unit (HU) represents a change of 0.1% of the attenuation coefficient of water since the attenuation coefficient of air is nearly zero.It is the definition for CT scanners that are calibrated with reference to water.The HU of various substances and organsSubstance/OrganHounsfield Unit (HU)Air-1000lung-500Fat-100 to -50Water0CSF15Kidney30Blood+30 to +45Muscle+ 10 to +40Grey matter+37 to +45White matter+20 to +30Liver+40 to +60Soft Tissue. Contrast+100 to +300Bone+700 (cancellous bone) to +3000 (dense hone)* So. -50 to -60 HU is suggestive of Tat' in the renal lesions.Characteristics of caseCharacteristics of the CaseFamilialAngiolipomatosisADPKDVHLTuberousSclerosisAge of 8 yearsNo (Presents in 3rd lo 5th decade)No (Presents in 4th to 6th decade)YesYesMental ReiaftlulionNoNoNoYesRenal Lesions (containing fat)Yes (But extremely rare)No (Renal cysts)NoYes(Angiomyolipoma of kidney)Liver Lesions (coniainirte fat)Yes (But extremely rare)No (Liver cysts)No(Liver cysts)Yes(Angiomyolipoma of liver)TUBEROUS SCLEROSIS (BOURNEVILLE'S DISEASE, EPILOA)Autosomal dominant inheritance.Mutations in TSC-1 gene at 9q - encodes Tuherin.Mutation \nTSC-2 gene at 16 p - encodes Hamartin.Cutaneous LesionsAdenoma sebaceum (Facial angiofibromas).Ash leaf-shaped hypopigmented macules. Shagreen patches. Depigmented nevi.Neurological LesionsSeizures.Mental retardation.Autism.Calcified subependymal nodules.Ependymomas and childhood astrocytomaso >90% are subependymal giant cell astrocytomas.o These are benign neoplasms that may develop in the retina or along the border of the lateral ventricles.o They may obstruct the foramen of Monro and produce hydrocephalus.Candle dripping appearance in MRI.Renal ManifestaionsRenal cysts.Renal cell carcinoma.Angiomyomas of the kidney.Other ManifestationsAngiomyomas in:o Liver.o Adrenalso Pancreas.Rhabdomyomas of the myocardium.Pulmonary lymphangioliomyomatosis.m-TOR inhibitor Rapamycin, Minocycline are tried.VON HIPREL-LINDAU DISEASEAutosomal dominant inheritance.Mutation in tumor suppressor gene. VHL.VHL gene is located on chromosome 3p25-p26 and encodes a protein (pVHL).Clinical Features:Hemangioblastomaso Cerebellar (Most common site)o Retinalo Spinal cord.Cystic lesions of the kidneys, pancreas, liver and epididymis.Pheochromocytoma.Renal carcinoma (Most common cause of death in VHL).Polycythemia.FAMILIAL MULTIPLE LIPOMATOSIS (FML)Autosomal dominant inheritance.Very rare entity that is characterized by:o Numerous, encapsulated lipomas on the trunk and extremities.It generally affects consecutive generations within families.Multiple, well-encapsulated, oval-to-round, subcutaneous, rubbery lipomas.Size ranged from a few millimeters to 25 centimeters.Lipomas first appear in the 3 - 5th decades of life.Most commonly on the trunk and extremities.The forearms are a site of frequent occurrence.Visceral lesions are extremely rare. | 158,253 | medmcqa_train |
In humans, rate limiting step of de novo pyrimidine synthesis is: | De-novo pyramidine synthesis Rate limiting step in mammals CPS II in bacteria Aspaate transcarbamoylase CPS I CPS II Rate-limiting enzyme of urea cycle Rate limiting step of pyrimidine synthesis Found in mitochondria Found in cytosol Uses ammonia as nitrogen source Uses glutamine as nitrogen source Requires N-acetylglutamate as positive allosteric activator Doesnt require N-acetylglutamate Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase(HP) catalyzes salvage of the purine bases guanine and hypoxanthine into GMP and IMP. | 158,254 | medmcqa_train |
A 60 year old man has both HTN and DM for 10 years. There is reduced vision in one eye. On fundus examination there is a central bleed and the fellow eye is normal. The diagnosis is – | Central bleed implies bleed in the macula and this is resulting in reduced vision in the involved eye.
Among the given options, macular bleed can be seen in diabetic retinopathy only. In diabetic retinopathy, neovascularization of macula may occur where there is growth of abnormal blood vessels under the retina which can cause leakage, bleeding and scarring resulting in reduced / loss of vision. | 158,255 | medmcqa_train |
OCP's intake cause psychiatric symptoms, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is: | Ans. is a, i.e. Acute intermittent porphyriaRef: Harrison 17th/ed, p2439Patient taking OCP's and presenting with abdominal pain and psychiatric problem, diagnosis is undoubtedly acute intermittent porphyria as OCP's can precipitate porphyria.Some drugs which precipitate porphyria are:* BarbituratesSulfonamide antibiotics * Meprobamate Gluthemide* Phenytoin Carbamazepine* Valproic acid Pyrazolones* Griseofulvin Ergots* Synthetic estrogen/progestogen (OCP)Danazol* Alcohol Succinimide | 158,256 | medmcqa_train |
All are the potential carcinogens for hepatic angiosarcoma except : | Hepatic angiosarcoma carcinogen:- T :- Thorotrast A :- Arsenic P :- Poly vinyl chloride Other carcinogen :- Aflatoxin :- HCC Asbestos :- Lung cancer/ Mesothelioma Nitrosamine :- Stomach cancer. Naphthylamine:- urothelial carcinoma of bladder | 158,257 | medmcqa_train |
M.C.site of Atopic dermatitis – | Sites of itching patch in atopic dermatitis
Infant Face (especially cheeks), extensors of forearm & legs.
Childhood & adult → Flexures (antecubital fossa, Popliteal fossa). | 158,258 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment options for acne vulgaris is/are - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above Drugs used for the treatment of AcneTopicalComedolytics: Act by removing the follicular plug, thereby reopen pilosebaceous ostia. Comedolytics are; Retinoic acid, Adapalene, Azelaic acid, Tazarotene.Antibiotics: Decrease bacterial population and have an anti-inflammatory effect. Topical antibiotics for acne are; Erythromycin, clindamycin, Benzoyl peroxide:SystemicAntibiotics: Decrease bacterial population and have an anti-inflammatory effect. Systemic antibiotics for Acne vulgaris are; Tetracycline, minocycline, doxvcycline, Erythromycin, Roxithromycin, Cotrimoxazole, Dapsone.Retinoids :- Removes follicular obstruction, and also suppresses sebum secretion (Sebostatic).Antiandrogens: Decrease sebum secretion by decreasing androgens. Examples; Cyproterone, Ethinylestradiol, Spironolactone. Cyproterone acetate (along with efh inylestranol) is particularly useful in teenage girls with mensural irregularities. | 158,259 | medmcqa_train |
A 47-year-old woman presents with increasing headaches and visual changes. On examination, her pupils are normal and reactive to light, the extraocular movements are normal, and there are visual field defects of the outer half in both eyes (bitemporal hemianopsia). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Adenomas of the pituitary gland constitute approximately 7% of intracranial tumors, with the chromophobic type being the most common. With macroadenomas, some degree of pituitary insufficiency is common, and half the patients have headaches. With microadenomas, the other pituitary functions may be completely normal. | 158,260 | medmcqa_train |
Protein A of staph aureus is pa of bacterial ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cell wall Protein A is a cell wall component of many S aureus strains that binds to the Fc poion of IgG molecules except IgG3.The Fab poion of IgG bound to protein A is free to combine with a specific anigen. Protein a has become an impoant reagent in immunology and diagnostic laboratory technology; for example, protein A with attached lgG moleculaes directed against a specific bacterial antigen will agglutinate bacteria that have that antigen ("coagglutination"). | 158,261 | medmcqa_train |
A patient with spine, chest and abdominal injury in road traffic accident developed hypotension and bradycardia. Most likely reason is | Answer is neurogenic shock. It is usually due to spinal cord injury, which causes dilatation of splanchnic vessels. There will be bradycardia, hypotension, arrhythmias, and decreased cardiac output. Reference : SRB's Manual of Surgery, 6th Edition, page no = 106. | 158,262 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice for detection & characterization of interstitial lung disease is – | HRCT is the investigation of choice for interstitial lung disease. | 158,263 | medmcqa_train |
The Tumor causing Polycythemia due to erythropoietin production is: | Cerebellar hemangioma | 158,264 | medmcqa_train |
The initial pharmacologic therapy of choice in this stable patient (refer to Q 87) is | Vagotonic maneuvers such as carotid massage or the Valsalva maneuver could ceainly be tried first. If these are unsuccessful, adenosine, with its excellent safety profile and extremely sho half-life, is the drug of choice for supraventricular tachycardia at an initial dose of 6 mg. Dosage can be repeated if necessary a few minutes later at 12 mg. Verapamil is the next alternative; if the initial dose of 2.5 to 5 mg does not yield conversion, one or two additional boluses 10 min apa can be used. Diltiazem and digoxin may be useful in rate control and conversion, but have a much slower onset of action. | 158,265 | medmcqa_train |
Eye ball movements are controlled by all of the following cranial nerves except: | Cranial Nerve I: OlfactoryArises from the olfactory epithelium.Functions solely by carrying afferent impulses for the sense of smell.Cranial Nerve II: OpticArises from the retina of the eye.Optic nerves pass through the optic canals and converge at the optic chiasm.Functions solely by carrying afferent impulses for vision.Cranial Nerve III: OculomotorFibers extend from the ventral midbrain, pass through the superior orbital fissure, and go to the extrinsiceye muscles.Functions in raising the eyelid, directing the eyeball, constricting the iris, and controlling lens shape.Parasympathetic cell bodies are in the ciliary ganglia.Cranial Nerve IV: TrochlearFibers emerge from the dorsal midbrain and enter the orbits the superior orbital fissures; innervate the superior oblique muscle.Primarily a motor nerve that directs the eyeball.Cranial Nerve V: TrigeminalThree divisions: ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3).Fibers run from the face to the pons the superior orbital fissure (V1), the foramen rotundum (V2), and the foramen ovale (V3).Conveys sensory impulses from various areas of the face (V1) and (V2), and supplies motor fibers (V3) for mastication.Cranial Nerve VI: AbdcuensFibers leave the inferior pons and enter the orbit the superior orbital fissure.Primarily a motor nerve innervating the lateral rectus muscle.Cranial Nerve VII: FacialFibers leave the pons, travel through the internal acoustic meatus, and emerge through the stylomastoid foramen to the lateral aspect of the face.Mixed nerve with five major branches.Motor functions include facial expression, and the transmittal of autonomic impulses to lacrimal and salivary glands.Sensory function is taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.Cranial Nerve VIII: VestibulocochlearTwo divisions - cochlear (hearing) and vestibular (balance).Functions are solely sensory - equilibrium and hearing.Cranial Nerve IX: GlossopharyngealFibers emerge from the medulla, leave the skull the jugular foramen, and run to the throat.Nerve IX is a mixed nerve with motor and sensory functions.Motor - innervates pa of the tongue and pharynx and provides motor fibers to the parotid salivary gland.Sensory - fibers conduct taste and general sensory impulses from the tongue and pharynx.Cranial Nerve X: VagusFibers emerge from the medulla the jugular foramen.The vagus is a mixed nerve.Its sensory function is in taste.Cranial Nerve XI: AccessoryThe spinal root passes upward into the cranium the foramen magnum.The accessory nerve leaves the cranium the jugular foramen.Primarily a motor nerve.Supplies fibers to the larynx, pharynx, and soft palate.Cranial Nerve XII: HypoglossalFibers arise from the medulla and exit the skull the hypoglossal canal.Innervates both extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue, which contribute to swallowing and speech. | 158,266 | medmcqa_train |
Avascular necrosis is the most common in one of the following fracture | The Garden classification of subcapital femoral neck fractures is the most widely used. It is simple and.
Garden stage III: complete fracture, incompletely displaced. femoral
Garden stage IV: complete fracture, completely displaced. femoral | 158,267 | medmcqa_train |
Chloride receptor defect is responsible for: | Ans: A (Cystic fibrosis) Ref: Harrison's 18th edn, pg 2149Explanation:Cystic FibrosisAutosomal recessiveMutation in CFTR (cysic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) geneClinical FeaturesBronchiectasisExocrine pancreatic insufficiencyIntestinal dysfunctionAbnormal sweat gland functionUrogenital dysfunctionCF airway epithelia exhibit abnormal Cl- secretion and Na+ absorptionPredisposes to infections. Staph, aureus. Pseud.aeruginosa. Others are H.influenza. Alcaligenes. Burkholderia, Proteus. E.coli, Klebsiella, AspergillusLack of CFTR Cl- channel in the apical membrane of pancreas, failure to secrete NaHCO3 and water, destruction of the pancreasIn the sweat glands, inability to absorb Cl- from the sweat leads to high Cl- concentrations in sweat measured after iontophoresis of cholinergic agentsSpirometry: | RV/TLC, | FVC and | FEV1CXR- hyperinflation, brochiectasis, right upper lobe (Earliest involved)Clubbing, pneumothorax, hemoptysis, corpulmo- naleGIT: Meconium ileus, DIOS, protein and fat malabsorption, diabetes laterGUT: Late onset puberty, azoospermia, female infertility- TreatmentGene therapy of CFTR geneClearance of secretions with hypertonic saline, antibioticsRecombinant human DNAse to degrade DNA in sputumPancreatic enzyme replacement, Vit E and K. InsulinMegalodiatrizoate enema for acute intestinal obstructionUrodeoxv cholic acid for cholestatic liver diseasePredisposed to renal stones and osteoporosis | 158,268 | medmcqa_train |
A young boy has a single scaly, hypo anaesthetic patch over Hand plus thickened ulnar nerve, diagnosis is: | Tuberculoid leprosy | 158,269 | medmcqa_train |
Tetracycline inhibits protein synthesis by- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibits binding of ami noacyl tRNA Tetracyclineso Tetracyclines are classified into three groups -# Group 1 - Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, chlortetracycline.# Group II - Lymecycline, Demeclocycline.# Group III - Minocycline, Doxycycline.o Tetracyclines are bacteriostatic and broad spectrum antibiotics.o Tetracycline interact with small ribosomal subunits, blacking access of aminoacyl- tRNA to the nuRNA-ribos- ome complex.o Oral absorption of tetracyclines is impaired by food except doxycycline and minocycline which are absorbed completely irrespective of food.o Most tetracyclines are primarily excreted in urine by glomerular filtration; dose has to be reduced in renal failure; doxycycline is an exception - doxycycline can be used in renal failure.o Tetracyclines can cross placenta and secreted in milk - contraindicated during pregnancy and lactation. | 158,270 | medmcqa_train |
A group of 8 expes discussing and interacting about a topic in front of large audience is? | - panel discussion is a group approach in health communication. - in a panel discussion, 4-8 people who are qualified to talk about a topic sit and discuss a given problem or topic in front of a large group or audience. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:865 <\p> | 158,271 | medmcqa_train |
A 28-year-old male with AIDS presents with moderate proteinuria and hypeension. Histologic sections of the kidney reveal the combination of normal-appearing glomeruli and occasional glomeruli that have deposits of hyaline material. No increased cellularity or necrosis is noted in the abnormal glomeruli. Additionally, there is cystic dilation of the renal tubules, some of which are filled with proteinaceous material. Electron microscopy reveals focal fusion of podocytes, and immunofluorescence examination finds granular IgM/C3 deposits. What is the best diagnosis for this renal abnormality? | Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS) is a glomerular disorder that accounts for about 10% of the cases of nephrotic syndrome. FSGS, which affects children and adults, begins as a focal process, affecting only some glomeruli. In the earliest stage, only some of the juxtamedullary glomeruli show changes. Eventually, some glomeruli in other pas of the coex are affected. In the late stages of the disease, the process may become diffuse, affecting most or all glomeruli. Initially, the process is also segmental, involving some but not all of the lobules within an individual glomerular tuft. The involved area shows sclerosis and may show hyalinosis lesions. Eventually some glomeruli show sclerosis of the entire tuft (global sclerosis). Electron microscopy shows increased mesangial matrix and dense granular mesangial deposits. Immunofluorescence typically shows granular mesangial fluorescence for IgM and C3. Because of the focal nature of FSGS, early cases can be difficult to distinguish from minimal change disease (MCD). Clinically, the nephrotic syndrome of FSGS is more severe than that of minimal change disease and is nonselective. The process is much less responsive to steroids and is much more prone to progress to chronic renal failure. It tends to recur in transplanted kidneys. FSGS can be seen in the setting of AIDS nephropathy and heroin nephropathy. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | 158,272 | medmcqa_train |
What is the ponderal index of a child with weight 2000 g and height 50 cm – | Ponderal index (PI) in neonate
Ponderal index has been used as an indicator of fetal growth status, especially to assess assymetrical IUGR.
Ponderal index can be used to indentify infants whose soft tissue mass is below normal for the stage of skeletal development.
The Ponderal index is calculated by multiplying the weight in grams by 100 and then dividing it by cube of length in cm.
Ponderal index = Weight (gm) x 100 / Length (cm)3
A ponderal index below the 10th percentile may be used to identify IUGR infants correctly.
A low neonatal ponderal index is defined as less than 1 SD below a mean 2.0.
PI is usually less than 2 in assymmetric growth retarded baby and 2 or more in a baby who has either normal growth or has symmetrical growth retardation.
The PI of the baby in question is PI = 200 x 100 / (50)3 = 1.6
That means the baby is having assymetic IUGR (PI < 2).
Fetal ponderal index can also be calculated by USG examination and compared with neonatal PI. Fetal PI had been found to be predictor of IUGR with the sensitivity and specificity of 76.9 and 82%, respectively. If the fetal PI is less than 1SD, the fetal and neonatal well being is compromised. | 158,273 | medmcqa_train |
In Sickle cell trait patients, there is reduced risk of which of the following disease? | Malaria is not seen in people sickle cell anaemia,thalassemia,G6PD deficiency disorders.Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st edition page no 236 | 158,274 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following hormones stimulates increased testosterone production by ovaries in PCOD | Lutenizing hormone and insulin stimulate increased testosterone production by ovaries in PCOD. | 158,275 | medmcqa_train |
Movements of supination & pronation take place at all of the following, EXCEPT? | Radio-carpal joint: Aiculation between the radius and the radioulnar disc (triangular fibrocailage complex) with the proximal row of carpal bones (scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum). Motions present at radio carpal joint include flexion, extension, abduction and adduction. Movement of supination and pronation does not take place in this joint. | 158,276 | medmcqa_train |
In obstruction of second pa of axillay aery, the anostomosis between the following aery will maintain the blood supply of upper limb? | Formed by branches of- Subclan aery - first pa - Suprascapular aery - Deep branch of transverse cervical aery Axillary aery - third pa - Subscapular aery & its circumflex scapular branch There are other smaller anastomoses over the acromion process, which also helps to maintain .flow to arm. (BDC Vol I, 4/e, p 82) Anastomoses over the acromion process Formed by - a)Acromial br. of thoraco-acromial aery b)Acromial br. of suprascapular aery c)Acromial br. of posterior circumflex humeral aery The subscapular aery also forms anastomoses with intercostal aeries | 158,277 | medmcqa_train |
Botulism causes: | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Descending flaccid paralysis (Ref: Harrison, 18th/e, 1201)* Botulism causes acute descending paralysis of flaccid type (Areflexia). | 158,278 | medmcqa_train |
In hemochromatosis iron not deposited in ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Testis In hemochromatosis, hypogonadism is caused by impairment of hypothalamic pituitary function and not due to deposition of Iron in the Testis. Hemochromatosis Hemochromatosis is characterized by the excessive accumulation of body iron, most of which is deposited in parenchymal organs such as liver and pancreas. The total body content of the iron is tightly regulated, as the daily losses are matched by gastrointestinal absorption. In hereditary hemochromatosis, regulation of intestinal absorption of dietary iron is lost, leading to net iron accumulation of 0.5 to 1.0 gm/year. It may be recalled that the total body iron pool ranges from 2-6 gm in normal adults; about 0.5 gm is stored in the liver 98% of which is hepatocytes. In hemochromatosis the iron accumulation may exceed 50 gm, over one third of which accumulates in the liver. The iron accumulation is life long, the rate of net iron accumulation is 0.5 to 1.0 gm/year. The disease manifests itself typically after 20 gm of storage iron have accumulated. The disease first mainfests itself in the fifth to sixth decades of life. Excessive iron is directly toxic to host tissues The clinical features of hemochromatosis are characterized principally by deposition of excess iron in the following organs in decreasing order of severity. | 158,279 | medmcqa_train |
Recently aseptic meningitis was discovered as an adverse effect of which of the following drug? | Ibuprofen is a common nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that is the most frequent cause of aseptic meningitis induced by drugs. The incidence of this type of aseptic meningitis is increasing, mainly among patients with underlying autoimmune connective tissue disorder Ref: G n G 13th ed. | 158,280 | medmcqa_train |
True statement about transgenic mice is | In 1974 Rudolf Jaenisch created the first genetically modified animal by inseing a DNA virus into an early-stage mouse embryo and showing that the inseed genes were present in every cell. | 158,281 | medmcqa_train |
Borax is: NEET 13 | Ans. Emmenagogues | 158,282 | medmcqa_train |
Amount of gastric juice per day is | A typical adult human stomach will secrete about 1.5 liters of gastric acid daily Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:406,407,408 | 158,283 | medmcqa_train |
Fat embolism commonly occurs in: UP 04 | Ans. Fracture of long bones | 158,284 | medmcqa_train |
The following anaesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous adminstration: | B i.e. Propofol - Incidence of pain on injection after intravenous administration of drug in small vein (eg. dorsum of wrist or hand) is 80% for etomidate, 40% for propofol, 20% for methohexital 1% and 10% for thiopental 2.5% anesthetic agents - This incidence is greatly reduced if a large vein is used, if a small dose of lidocaine (10mg) is injected sholy before. Thiopental 2.5% also causes pain on IV administration but the incidence is much higher for propofol. | 158,285 | medmcqa_train |
Pyruvate kinase is inhibited by - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., ATPPyruvate Kinaseo This enzyme catalyzes conversion of PEP to pyruvate.o Pyruvate kinase is an inducible enzyme that increases in concentration with high insulin level and decreases with glucagon.o It is activated by fructose-1,6 bisphosphate and inactivated by ATP and alanine. | 158,286 | medmcqa_train |
Copper containing enzyme is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cytochrome oxidase Copper containing enzymes are cytochrome oxidase, tyrosinase, lysyl oxidase, ferroxidase (ceruloplasmin), Ascorbic acid oxidase, and superoxide dismutase. | 158,287 | medmcqa_train |
Infections transmitted to the baby at delivery: | The risk of transmission increases with the period of gestation,but the risk of teratogenecity decreases. Refer page no 294,295 of Text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2nd edition. | 158,288 | medmcqa_train |
Edema is visible when the amount of fluid accumulated is: March 2013 (d, f) | Ans. D i.e. 5-6 litres | 158,289 | medmcqa_train |
Which pa of the spine is most commonly affected in Rheumatoid ahritis: | Answer is A (Cervical): Rheumatoid ahritis commonly involves the joints of hands, wrist, elbow, knees, ankle, and feet in a symmetrical manner. Axial skeleton involvement is usually limited to Upper Cervical Spine. | 158,290 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a significance of centric relation? | Face bow is to orient the maxillary cast with opening axis of articulator and mandible. | 158,291 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant? | Secondary air pollutants are formed within the atmosphere itself, they arise from chemical reactions of primary pollutants, most familiar example is ozone. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 793 | 158,292 | medmcqa_train |
Features of cystinuria are - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Cystineuriao Metabolic disorder of autosomal recessive inheritance.o Defect in transport of cystine and some other aminoacid across renal tubular ceil & interstitial cell,o Selective increase renal clearance of cystine and other basic aminoacid in urine.o High urinary cystine leads to radio - opaque hexagonal crystal,o Crystal is soluble in alkali.o Treatment - formation of stone can be reduced by alkalization of urine. | 158,293 | medmcqa_train |
Which substance is/are not deposited in hepatocyte? | Bile pigment deposition at sweat pores of patients with liver disease REFERANCE. jaad .org | 158,294 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following can occur in a normal neonate for heat regulation except _______ | Neonates donot generate heat by shivering. Heat production in neonates happens by increasing the metabolic rate and oxygen consumption by releasing norepinephrine, which results in non-shivering thermogenesis through beta-oxidation of brown fat. Preterm and small-for-gestational-age (SGA) infants have scanty brown fat stores. Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition pgno: 872 | 158,295 | medmcqa_train |
Multi drug resistant tuberculosis is defined as resistance to? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., INH and Rifampicin o Multi-Drug Resistant Tuberculosis is defined by resistance to INH and Rifampicin.o 'Multi-Drug Resistant Tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is defined as disease caused by strain of M Tuberculosis that is resistant to both Isoniazid (ONH) and Rifampicin-the most efficacious of the first line Anti-TB drugs ' - Harrison | 158,296 | medmcqa_train |
All are inhabitants of Liver except - | The common name for Fasciolopsis buski is the large or giant intestinal fluke.It is the largest trematode infecting humans.Pig serves as reservoir of infection for man. ( refer pgno: 127 baveja 3 rd edition) | 158,297 | medmcqa_train |
What is the type of Goldman tonometry? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Applanation Tonometry Measurement of intraocular pressure (IOP)* Measurement of IOP is done byA) Manometry It is the only direct measure of IOP.B) TonometryIt is an indirect method of measurement of IOP. Following types of tonometers are therei) Indentation (impression) tonometerThese are the most commonly used tonometers. Example is Schiotz tonometer.ii) Applanation tonometerGoldmann applanation tonometer is the most accurate tonometer. Other types of applanation tonometers are perkins tonometer, pneumatic tonometer; air-puff tonometer, Pulse air tonometer, Tono pen. | 158,298 | medmcqa_train |
A lady with placenta pre delivered a baby. She had excessive bleeding and shock. After resuscitation most likely complication would be: | Sheehan syndrome refers to panhypopituitarism. It classically follows massive postpaum hemorrhage and associated hypotension. Abrupt, severe hypotension leads to pituitary ischemia and necrosis. In its most severe form, these patients develop shock due to pituitary apoplexy. In less severe forms, loss of gonadotrope activity in the pituitary leads to anovulation and subsequent amenorrhea. Damage to the other pituitary cell types may present as failure to lactate, loss of sexual and axillary hair, and manifestation of hypothyroidism and adrenal insufficiency symptoms. Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D., Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 16. Amenorrhea. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | 158,299 | medmcqa_train |
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