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A 30-year-old woman complains of recent easy fatigability, bruising, and recurrent throat infections. Physical examination reveals numerous petechiae over her body and mouth. Abnormal laboratory findings include hemoglobin of 6 g/dL, WBC of 1,500/mL, and platelets of 20,000/mL. The bone marrow is hypocellular and displays increased fat. What is the appropriate diagnosis? | - Given features suggests the diagnosis of Aplastic anemia - Aplastic anemia is a disorder of pluripotent stem cells causing bone marrow failure resulting in hypocellular bone marrow & pancytopenia - Most cases are idiopathic. - Iron-deficiency anemia (choice B) and megaloblastic anemia (choice C) are not characterized by a hypoplastic bone marrow. | 158,100 | medmcqa_train |
Two most impoant test to be done in a comatose patient with blood glucose of 750mg/d1 will be: | Answer is A (Serum creatinine) Presence of blood glucose of 750mg/d1 in a comatose patient suggests a possible diagnosis of non ketotic "hyperglycemic coma or diabetic ketoacidosis. Amongst the options provided estimation of blood pH will help establish a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis while estimation of serum creatinine will help in establishing a diagnosis of hyperosmolar non ketotic coma as prerenal azotema is a characteristic feature of the latter. | 158,101 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a dervative of cannabis? | Cannabis also is known as Dagga in South andCentral Africa and Hashish in Egypt as many preparations Marijuana (marihuana/mary jane/pot/weed/grass): The most commonly abused form of Cannabis is marijuana, which is dried plant material including cut leaves, flowering tops, stems, and seeds. Hashish (charas): It is dark black-brown resinous exudates from the leaves and stems of the plant. Ganja: It is the resinous extract of leaves and bracts of a female plant. Bhang (Siddhi/patti/sabji): It is also a form of Cannabis, which is ingested. It consists of dried leaves and fruiting shoots and is prepared by rubbing black pepper, sugar and dried leaves of Cannabis on a stone slab. Majun: It is a so of confection prepared from bhang after treating it with sugar, flour, milk, and butter. Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg : 513 | 158,102 | medmcqa_train |
Kussmaul's sign is positive in
a. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
b. Constrictive pericarditis
c. Cardiac tamponade
d. Dilated cardiomyopathy
e. Pneumothorax | Kussmaul's sign is rise in JVP with inspiration. It is seen in constrictive pericarditis and Restrictive cardiomyopathy. | 158,103 | medmcqa_train |
Beheaded Scottish terrier sign is – | Oblique view of spine displays the lamina and articular processes more clearly than the classical anteroposterior & lateral views. The shadow of the neural arch resembles that of Scottish terrier dog.
Spondylolysis → Scotty dog wearing a collar sign.
Spondylolisthesis → (i) Beheaded Scotty dog sign;
(ii) 'Inverted Napoleon's Hat' sign. | 158,104 | medmcqa_train |
Giant papillary conjunctivitis is most commonly seen in: | Giant Papillary conjunctivitis is a type of allergic inflammation affecting the superior tarsal conjunctiva Seen in soft contact lens user Etiology- d/t allergic reaction to antigens deposited on the surface of lens/prosthesis Soft hydropilic contact lens use Chronic hypoxia beneath the upper lid Mechanical irritation of the lid from lens movement Reaction to lens solution preservatives Immunological reaction to deposits on the surface of the lens Signs- Conjunctival congestion in upper palpebral region with polygonal papillae (0.3-1mm- Macropapillae, >1mm Giant papilae) Mx- discontinue contact lens use Antihistamines, aificial tears | 158,105 | medmcqa_train |
When pH of stomach lumen falls below 4, antrum of the stomach releases a peptide that acts locally to inhibit gastrim release. This peptide is | Somatostatin and Prostaglandins inhibits gastrin release. | 158,106 | medmcqa_train |
Anion-gap Metabolism with decreased vision occurs with the following poisoning | (D) Methanol# Acute intoxication with Methanol is common in chronic alcoholics.> Headache, vertigo, vomiting, abdominal pain, dyspnea, blurred vision, and hyperemia of the optic disc can occur.> Visual disturbances are caused by damage to retinal cells and the optic nerve by methanol metabolites.> Severe cases of intoxication can lead to blindness.> Other symptoms include bradycardia, prolonged coma, seizures, acidosis, and death by respiratory depression.> Because methanol is biotransformed by alcohol and aldehyde dehydrogenase to highly toxic products (formaldehyde & formic acid, respectively), Ethanol, which has a high affinity for the enzyme, is useful in therapy because it reduces the biotransformation of methanol.> Other treatments include hemodialysisto enhance removal of methanol & its products and alkalinization to reverse metabolic acidosis> 4-methylprazole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has also been proposed for treatment.> Treatment with ascorbic acid would aggravate the acidosis. | 158,107 | medmcqa_train |
After her first urinary tract infection (UTI), a 1-year-old girl has a voiding cystourethrogram with findings shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option? | The radiograph shows reflux into the ureters and into the kidney, with dilation of the renal pelvis, making the diagnosis of vesicoureteral reflux (VUR). The higher the reflux into the renal system, especially if the renal pelvis is dilated, the more likely it is for renal damage to occur; the grading system is based upon these radiographic observations. Grade I VUR is reflux of urine into an undilated ureter. Reflux into the ureter and collecting system without dilatation is called grade II. Grade III lesions have dilatation of the ureter and collecting system without blunting of the calyces. Grade IV lesions are characterized by blunting of the calyces, and grade V lesions demonstrate even more dilatation and tortuosity of the ureter. While somewhat controversial, low-grade lesions (grade I and grade II) usually are conservatively managed with close observation, daily low-dose antibiotics, and urinalyses and cultures every 3 to 4 months. Grade V lesions (and some grade IV lesions) require surgical reimplantation of a ureter if the findings persist. Lesions in between these two extremes are treatment dilemmas. Neither a diet low in protein nor early toilet training would likely affect the VUR. | 158,108 | medmcqa_train |
The most common congenital cardiac abnormality associated with the maternal rubella infection during pregnancy is | Congenital rubella syndrome characterized by PDA,PS,VSD. Ref : Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition ,p.no:401 | 158,109 | medmcqa_train |
The most common side effect of IUD inseion is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bleeding o Most common side effect --> Bleeding o Most common side effect requiring removal of the device --> Pain | 158,110 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following presents with a "string of pearl appearance"? | The lesions in Linear IgA disease with a bimodal age distribution ie 60 yrs comprise of uicated plaques and papules, and annular, polycyclic lesions often with blistering around the edge, the string of pearls sign/cluster of jewels sign. | 158,111 | medmcqa_train |
Concealment of birth comes under which IPC? | Ans. (b) 318Ref. Parikh 6, p 5.87 | 158,112 | medmcqa_train |
Lisch nodule and somatostatinoma in pancreas is seen in? | Ans. (a) Neurofibromatosis* Neurofibromatosis type 1/von Recklinghausen disease caused by inherited gene, the NF1 gene codes for the protein neurofibromin.* Patients with neurofibromatosis develop cafe-au-lait spots, and benign and malignant tumors of the nervous system.* Benign nervous system involvement include neurofibromas, and the malignant include peripheral nerve sheath tumor.* They can also develop distinctive eye lesions called Lisch nodules, and a small percentage develop somatostatinomas of the pancreas/duodenum* The most common cause of death is CNS tumors.Also Know* Turcot syndrome is characterized by intestinal polyposis and CNS tumors: most commonly glioblastoma or medulloblastoma* MEN2A sipple consists of parathyroid adenoma, medullary carcinoma thyroid, phaeochromocytoma. | 158,113 | medmcqa_train |
The "knot" in judicial hanging is placed at | Ans. is 'b' i.e. The side of the neck Though submental knot (below the chin) is thought to be more effective and ensures a quicker death; subaural knot (side of the neck under the angle of the jaw/mandible) on the left side is the preferred position in India as well as England. Judicial hanging causes fracture-dislocation usually at the level of 2nd and 3rd or 3rd and 4th cervical vertebrae. B/l fractures of either the pedicles or laminae of the arch of the 2nd, 3rd or 4th cervical vertebrae occur.In proper judicial hanging, there is rupture of the brain stem between the pons and the medulla.This results in instantaneous and irreversible loss of consciousness (d/t destruction of reticular formation) and in irreversible apnoea (d/t destruction of the respiratory centre).Death is instantaneous due to damage to spinal cord or brain stem though the heart may continue to beat for 15 to 20 minutes and muscle jerking may occur for quite some time. | 158,114 | medmcqa_train |
Non-noxious stimuli perceived as pain is termed as: | Answer is A (Allodynia) : Perception of a non painful stimulus (non-noxious stimulus) as 'pain' is termed as `allodynia'. Terminology Sensory Disturbance Allodynia Situation in which a non painful (non-noxious) stimulus once perceived is experienced as painful.( example is elicitation of a painful sensation by application of a vibrating tuning fork) Hyperalgesia Situation in which a mildly painful (mildly noxious) stimulus once perceived is experienced as severely painful, often excruciating Hyperesthesia Increased sensitivity or pain in response to touch Hyperpathia Broad term that encompasses all above phenomenon, namely, Allodynia, Hyperalgesia and Hyperesthesia | 158,115 | medmcqa_train |
Not true regarding NK cells - | NK cell's cytotoxicity is not antibody dependent or MHC restricted :NK cellsNatural killer cells Reff: Anantharayan & Panikers textbook f microbiology 9th edition pg:137 | 158,116 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum oxygen concentration can be delivered by? | Choice D: Reservoir face mask is a high flow, variable performance device. At flow rate of 12-15L/min the delivered Fi02 is in the range of 75-90%. Choice C is simple face mask while choice B is Nasal cannula and both can deliver limited oxygen up to 40% due to diffusion and mixing with air. Choice A: Venturi mask is a high flow, fixed performance device. It can deliver up to 60% oxygen. | 158,117 | medmcqa_train |
Hatter shake is seen in which poisoning? | Ans. (b) MercuryRef. Harrison 18/e, chapter 371 | 158,118 | medmcqa_train |
Graze is a type of ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Abrasion Abrasion It is a destruction of the skin, which involves the superficial layers of the epidermis only. They are of 4 types: Scratches- its a abrasion with length but no significant width or a a very superficial incision. Grazes-most common. They occur when there is movement between the skin and some rough surface in contact with it. Pressure or friction abrasion- they are caused by crushing of the superficial layers of the epidermis and are associated with a bruise of the surrounding area. Impact or contact abrasion- they are caused by impact with a rough object, when the force is applied at or near a right angle to the skin surface. Patterned abrasion- impact abrasion and pressure abrasion reproduce the pattern of the object causing it and are called Patterned abrasion. | 158,119 | medmcqa_train |
True about reliability of a test | RELIABILITY OF A TEST
• Gives same results on repeated tests: Reliability
• Investigator’s knowledge is important
• Consistency and reproducibility of the test are not a problem
• Extent of variation of measurement of contained behaviour | 158,120 | medmcqa_train |
All are anti-oxidants except | Antioxidant vitamins are vitamin C, carotenes and vitamin A, and vitamin E. | 158,121 | medmcqa_train |
Streptococcus causing rheumatic hea disease is | Streptococcus pyogenes infection leads to two impoant non-suppurative post-streptococcal sequelae - acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis. This complication ensues 1-3 weeks after the acute infection so that the organism may not be detectable when sequelae set in. In rheumatic fever, carditis, including connective tissue degeneration of the hea valves and inflammatory myocardial lesions characterized by Aschoff nodules is seen. Occurs due to an antigenic cross-reaction between group A carbohydrate of Streptococcus pyogenes and cardiac valves Streptococcal antigens cross-reactive with human tissues Streptococcal antigen Human antigen Disease Hyaluronic acid Synol fluid Reactive ahritis Cell Wall M protein Myocardium ARF(Acute rheumatic fever) Cell Wall C carbohydrate Cardiac Valves ARF(Acute rheumatic fever) Peptidoglycan Skin antigens Guttate psoriasis Cytoplasmic membrane Glomerular vascular intima Acute glomerulonephritis (AGN) Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 215 | 158,122 | medmcqa_train |
In the incidence of primary angle closure glaucoma, male to female ratio is: | Ans. 1:4 | 158,123 | medmcqa_train |
At 29 weeks gestational age, it becomes apparent that the fetus has developed hydrops. All of the following are characteristics of fetal hydrops Except | Fetal hydrops occurs as a result of excessive and prolonged hemolysis due to isoimmunization.Characteristics of fetal hydrops include abnormal fluid in two or more sites such as the thorax, abdomen, and skin. The placenta is also markedly erythematous, enlarged, and boggy. In addition, massive hepatomegaly and splenomegaly may be present | 158,124 | medmcqa_train |
Global rupture due to blunt trauma is indicated by | C i.e. Contusion + Haemorrhage + Low intraocular pressure Complications of Blunt Trauma Voissius ring (on anterior surface of lens) Q Rossette shaped cataract Q Angle recession with secondary glaucoma Q Global rupture indicated by contusion, haemorrhage & low intraocular pressure Q Hyphaema with elevated lop | 158,125 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presents to a clinic with complaints of headache, fatigue. Lab data show serum sodium, 122 mEq/L; serum osmolality, 240 mOsm/L; urine osmolality, 455 mOsm/L. which condition best correlates with these data? | Hyponatremia, hypo-osmolality, and inappropriately concentrated urine are characteristic of SIADH. The syndrome results from excessive secretion of vasopressin. This could be due to ectopic tumor secretion of vasopressin, various central nervous system complications, or it could be drug induced. The increased vasopressin causes excessive water retention, resulting in dilutional hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality. Volume expansion inhibits the renin-angiotensin system. Plasma aldosterone therefore tends to be low, which partly explains the inappropriately concentrated urine. | 158,126 | medmcqa_train |
Very severe pneumonia in a child include all except | Ref. The Short Textbook of Pediatrics. Pg 435 | 158,127 | medmcqa_train |
Calibre is defined as - | The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ; 28th edition ; Pg.no. 122 It is also called gauge . Also refer fig 8-16 (cross section of a rifled barrel) | 158,128 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following test is used to detect signs of organic brain damage? | Bender Gestalt test is a brief, nonverbal, perceptual motor assessment instrument. It was originally developed by Lauretta Bender as a measure of visual motor maturation in children. In this test patients are asked to copy designs from the card (containing design) in front of them. Now it is most widely used as a screening measure for brain dysfunction in both adults and children. Ref: Concise Encyclopedia of Special Education: A Reference for The Education of Special Education, 2nd Edition By Cecil R. Reynolds, Page 125 ; Essentials of Abnormal Psychology By V. Mark Durand, 5th Edition, Page 82 ; BRS Behavioral Science By Barbara Fadem, 5th Edition, Page 71 | 158,129 | medmcqa_train |
Not a feature of chronic liver disease | Koilonychia is not a feature of chronic liver disease. | 158,130 | medmcqa_train |
Earliest presentation of hypopituitarism in adults is? | In children the earliest presentation of hypopituitarism is growth retardation and hypogonadism is the earliest manifestation in adults. Trophic hormone failure with pituitary compression or destruction usually occurs sequentially. Sequence of fall of hormonal levels is GH>FSH>LH>TSH>ACTH. 1st hormone to fall in Sheehan Syndrome is Growth Hormone. | 158,131 | medmcqa_train |
A patient who was on aspirin for long period was selected for an elective surgery. What should be done | A i.e. Stop Aspirin for 7 days | 158,132 | medmcqa_train |
Fetal pas are palpable at the earliest by: Maharashtra 08 | Ans. 20 weeks | 158,133 | medmcqa_train |
Incudo malleal joint belongs to which of the following group of joints? | Incudomalleal joint formed by the aiculation of head of malleus and head of incus is a saddle joint. Examples of Saddle joints: ? 1st carpometacarpal joints? Sternoclavicular joint? Calcaneocuboid joint? Incudo malleolar joint | 158,134 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of Choice for Annular Pancreas | Ans. (a) Duodeno duodenostomyRef: Bailey And Love 27th edition Page 1219* Annular Pancreas is the result of failure of complete rotation of ventral pancreatic bud during development, so that the ring of pancreatic tissue is surrounding the 2nd or 3rd part of pancreas.* Most common in down syndrome cases.* Presents with Vomiting in neonatal age.* Treatment is Duodeno Duodenostomy* In late cases presenting with pancreatitis - resection of head of pancreas is preferable to a lesser procedure than resection. | 158,135 | medmcqa_train |
All are true statement about spinal cord except | Final terminal is the pia connecting conus medullaris to coccyx. Below the end of Dural sac at S2, dura encloses this filum and attaches to coccyx as coccygeal ligament.(Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 53) | 158,136 | medmcqa_train |
All are involved in energy metabolism except ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Vitamin B12 The active forms of five of the B Vitamins paicipate in the release of energy from carbohydrate, fat and proteins. These five vitamins of Vitamin B group which are involved in energy metabolism are :-Thiamin (Vitamin BI)Riboflavin (Vitamin B2)Niacin (Vitamin B3)Pantothenic acid (Vitamin B5 )Biotin (Vitamin B7 or Vitamin H) | 158,137 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presented with history of recurrent attacks of optic neuritis, an episode of transverse myelitis with no white mater lesions on mri brain. Aquaporin 4 antibody testing was positive. What is the most likely diagnosis? | In patients with NMO, attacks of ON can be bilateral and produce severe visual loss (uncommon in MS); myelitis can be severe and transverse (rare in MS) and is typically longitudinally extensive involving three or more contiguous veebral segments. Also in contrast to MS, progressive symptoms typically do not occur in NMO. The brain MRI was earlier thought to be normal in NMO, but it is now recognized that in many cases brain lesions are present, including areas of nonspecific signal change as well as lesions associated with specific syndromes such as the hypothalamus causing an endocrinopathy; the area postrema in the lower medulla presenting as intractable hiccoughs or vomiting; or the cerebral hemispheres producing focal symptoms, encephalopathy, or seizures. Large MRI lesions in the cerebral hemispheres can be asymptomatic, sometimes have a "cloud-like" appearance and, unlike MS lesions, are often not destructive, and can resolve completely. NMO is an autoimmune disease associated with a highly specific autoantibody directed against aquaporin-4 (AQP4) that is present in the sera of ~70% of patients with a clinical diagnosis of NMO. AQP4 is localized to the foot Ref Harrison 20th edition page 3202 | 158,138 | medmcqa_train |
Alpha feto protein is increased in | Alpha fetoprotein AFP is a normal component of plasma protein of the fetus secreted by yolk sac and embryonal hepatocytes(fetal liver) which usually reduces after bih and persists as a low value level. Normal value is upto 10 ng/ml. It is an impoant tumour marker for hepatocellular carcinoma (100-1000 ng/ml). It also increases in non seminomatous testicular tumours, hepatoblastoma and some ovarian tumours(yolk sac tumours). It also increases in benign conditions (<100 ng/ml). It is useful in diagnosing omphalocele, ataxia telengiectasia, neural tube defects. Reference : page 594 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | 158,139 | medmcqa_train |
↑ energy linear acceleration used in- | X-ray tubes produce X-ray by accelerating electrons to high energies. | 158,140 | medmcqa_train |
Metastasis not'ound in - | Extremities distal to elbow and knee are least commonly involved in metastasis.
Fibula is distal to knee. | 158,141 | medmcqa_train |
MHC is impoant in pathogenesis of: March 2005 | Ans. C: Auto-immune diseasesThe major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a large genomic region or gene family.It is the most gene-dense region of the mammalian genome and plays an impoant role in the immune system and autoimmunity.The proteins encoded by the MHC are expressed on the surface of cells and display both self antigens (peptide fragments from the cell itself) and nonself antigens (e.g., fragments of invading microorganisms) to a type of lymphocytes called a T cell that has the capacity to kill or coordinate the killing of pathogens in infected or malfunctioning cells The classical MHC molecules (also referred to as HLA molecules in humans) have a vital role in the complex immunological dialogue that must occur between T cells and other cells of the body. The polypeptides may be "self," that is, originating from a protein created by the organism itself, or they may be foreign ("nonself"), originating from bacteria, viruses, pollen, and so onThree main sets of genes are suspected in many autoimmune diseases. These genes are related to:Immunoglobul insT-cell receptorsThe major histocompatibility complexes (MHC).Ceain MHC class 11 allotypes are strongly correlated withHLA DR2 is strongly positively correlated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, narcolepsy and multiple sclerosis, and negatively correlated with DM Type 1.HLA DR3 is correlated strongly with SjOgren's syndrome, myasthenia gravis, SLE, and DM Type 1.HLA DR4 is correlated with the genesis of rheumatoid ahritis, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, and pemphigus vulgaris.Fewer correlations exist with MHC class I molecules. The most notable and consistent is the association between HLA B27 and ankylosing spondylitis. | 158,142 | medmcqa_train |
If a drug is excreted in urine at the rate of 10 mg/hr at a steady-state plasma concentration of 5 mg/L, then its renal clearance is: | Ans. B. 2.0L/hra. Rate of elimination (RoE)- Amount of drug/timeb. Clearance (Cl):- rate of elimination/concentrationc. In the given MCQ, RoE=10mg/hr;Con=5mg/L,d. Therefore, Cl=10/5=2L/hr | 158,143 | medmcqa_train |
NOT true regarding Azygos and Hemiazygos Veins are | Left 2nd, 3rd, 4th posterior Intercostal veins form Left Superior intercostal vein that drains into left Brachioaphalic vein. | 158,144 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements are True or False about Cretinism? 1. Goitre present at bih 2. Can be diagnosed by serum T4 levels 3. Most commonly seen in Iodine deficiency endemic areas 4. Skeletal development is delayed 5. Physiological jaundice is prolonged | Physiological jaundice is prolonged and skeletal development is delayed in cretinism. It is commonly seen in Iodine deficiency endemic areas. Ref: Ghai, 6th Edition, Page 122 | 158,145 | medmcqa_train |
Ocular bobbing? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pons Square-wave erks Not localizing Macro square-wave erks Cerebellum Macrosaccadic oscillation Cerebellum Voluntary nystagmus Volitional Saccadic pulses Cerebellum, lower brainstem Ocular flutter Cerebellum, lower brainstem Opsoclonus Cerebellum, lower brainstem Ocular bobbing Pons | 158,146 | medmcqa_train |
Proximal & distal renal tubular acidosis is differentiated by all, except: | Answer is B (Hypokalemia): | 158,147 | medmcqa_train |
For myringoplasty, Graft material of choice is | Low metabolic rate, no need for a separate incision, same thickness as that of tympanic membrane ours the use of temporalis fascia. Other graft materials also include perichondrium, dura and cadaveric tympanic membrane. Re: Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Dhingra, 6th Edition | 158,148 | medmcqa_train |
A Pt. has ecchymoses and petechiae all over the body with no hepatospleenongaly. All are true except ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bleeding into the joints o Petechiae and ecchymoses all over the body with no hepatosplenomegaly suggest Idiopathic thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) Hematemesis, melena and bleeding in the joints are unusual (They are seen when there is loss of coagulation factors) More than 80% of cases resolve spontaneously within 1-2 months. | 158,149 | medmcqa_train |
Most common fracture in the children is | (Supra condylar humerus) (596-Apley's 8th)Supracondylar fracture of humerus - usually seen in children suggest an extenson injury, usually due to a fall on the outstretched hand. The distal fragments is pushed backwards and (because the forearm is usually in pronation) twisted inwards, sometimes injuring the brachial artery or Median nerve"These are among the commonest fractures in children" | 158,150 | medmcqa_train |
Meckel's diveiculum is a derivative of - | Answer is 'b' ie vitellointestinal duct The Vitellointestinal duct or the omphalomesentric duct is the connection between the yolk sac and the developing gut. Normally, it gets obliterated and disappears. But sometimes it may persist in various forms giving rise to congenital anomalies:? a. Umbilical fecal fistula - due to persistence of entire vitellointestinal duct. b. Umbilical sinus - when the duct is obliterated at the intestinal end but communicates with the umbilicus at the distal end. c. Meckel's diveicultun - when the duct is obliterated at the umbilicus but persists at it intestinal end. d. Umbilical cyst or vitelline cyst -- when both ends are occluded but the tract in between persists. e. Fibrous band -- the entire tract may be obliterated, but a fibrous band may persist between the ileum and the umbilicus. The fibrous band may lead to intestinal obstruction. | 158,151 | medmcqa_train |
Positional veigo is most commonly seen due to pathology in | Positional veigo is commonly due to pathology in the Posterior Semicircular Canal.BPPV is the commonest cause of peripheral veigoRef: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 105 | 158,152 | medmcqa_train |
The Halophilic Vibrio that is implicated in gastroenteritis is which of the following? | It is the causative agent of food poisoning due to sea fish. Usual signs are abdominal pain, diarrhea, vomiting and fever. Feces contain cellular exudate and blood. Dehydration is moderate. Recovery occurs in 1-3 days. Common in summer and in adults. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panicker's, 8th Edition, Page 312 | 158,153 | medmcqa_train |
What does Serum ferritin level | The serum ferritin level is the laboratory test to estimate iron stores. As iron stores are depleted, the serum ferritin falls to Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 847 | 158,154 | medmcqa_train |
'Which of the following is NOT used in treatment of hairy cell leukemia: | Answer is A (Steroid) Steroid has no role in treatment of hairy cell leukemia. Cladribine is the drug of choice. Clinical complete remissions with cladribine occur in majority of patients and longterm disease free survival is frequent. Treatment of hairy cell leukemia is chemotherapy with Cladribine : Drug of choice. Alpha-interferon Q PentostatinQ | 158,155 | medmcqa_train |
GnRH agonist therapy for leiomyoma is given for | GnRH agonist treatment is continued for 3 → 6 months. | 158,156 | medmcqa_train |
Galton's system is used for - | Dactylography (Galton's system) → Study of finger prints.
Poroscopy (Locard's system) → Study of number, sizes and distribution of pores of sweat glands on ridges (used when only a part of the finger print is available).
Program → Study of the footprint.
Cheiloscopy (queiloscopy) → Study of lip prints.
Rugoscopy (Palatoprints) → Study of the anterior part of the palate. | 158,157 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following conditions shows susceptibility to squamous cell carcinoma in skin? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All the above Squamous Cell Carcinoma:* Squamous cell carcinoma is the second most common tumor arising on sunexposed sites in older people, exceeded only by basal cell carcinoma.* Except for lesions on the lower legs, these tumors have a higher incidence in men than in women.* Invasive squamous cell carcinomas are usually discovered while they are small and resectable.* Less than 5% of these tumors metastasize to regional nodes; these lesions are generally deeply invasive and involve the subcutis.* The most important cause of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma is DNA damage induced by exposure to UV light.* Tumor incidence is proportional to the degree of lifetime sun exposure.* A second common association is with immunosuppression, most notably chronic immunosuppression as a result of chemotherapy or organ transplantation.* Immunosuppression may contribute to carcinogenesis by reducing host surveillance and increasing the susceptibility of keratinocytes to infection and transformation by oncogenic viruses, particularly human papilloma virus (HPV) subtypes 5 and 8. These same HP Vs have been implicated in tumors arising in patients with a rare autosomal recessive condition, epidermodysplasia verruciformis, which is marked by a high susceptibility to cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas.* In addition to its damaging effect on DNA, sunlight, through uncertain mechanisms, seems to cause a transient defect in cutaneous innate immunity that may diminish immunemediated elimination of sun-damaged cells.* Other risk factors for squamous cell carcinoma include industrial carcinogens (tars and oils), chronic ulcers and draining osteomyelitis, old burn scars, ingestion of arsenicals, ionizing radiation, and (in the oral cavity) tobacco and betel nut chewing.* Most studies on the genetics of squamous cell carcinoma have focused on acquired defects in sporadic tumors and their precursors (actinic keratoses), and the relationships between these defects and sun-exposure.* The patients patients with xeroderma pigmentosum show remarkable susceptibility to squamous cell carcinoma.* As with all other forms of cancer, cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma stems from multiple driver mutations.* In addition to defects in p53, mutations that increase RAS signaling and decrease Notch signaling are common and are also likely to contribute to the transformation process. | 158,158 | medmcqa_train |
Atavism is resemblence of features to | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Grandfather "In Atavism the child does not resemble its parents but its grandparents" - Parikh, 6/e. | 158,159 | medmcqa_train |
Total number of genes in a human being is? | D i.e. 30,000 | 158,160 | medmcqa_train |
A 25-year-old male presents with swelling over right knee since 1 month. The radiograph is shown here. Which of the following statement is true regarding this condition? | Osteosarcoma This primary malignant bone-forming neoplasm is rare, but is still the commonest primary malignant lesion of bone after myeloma. | 158,161 | medmcqa_train |
A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic for evaluation of weakness in his arms and legs. The symptoms started gradually, and are now more noticeable and interfering with his ability to work as an electrician. On physical examination, the cranial nerves are normal, but there is weakness of his left handgrip and right leg quadriceps with loss of muscle bulk. There are obvious fasciculations over the left forearm and right thigh. Tone is increased in the arms and legs and the reflexes are brisk. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | The most common initial symptom of ALS is weakness and wasting of the extremities. The fasciculations can be a very prominent part of the disease. This is rare in other neurologic disorders. | 158,162 | medmcqa_train |
Palmaris Brevis is supplied by: | Ans. B. Ulnar Nervea. In the proximal forearm, ulnar nerve gives muscular branches to: (a) flexor carpi ulnaris, and (b) medial half of flexor digitorum profundus.b. In the mid-forearm, it gives off palmar cutaneous branch, which provide sensory innervation to the skin over the hypothenar eminence.c. About 5 cm proximal to the wrist, it gives off dorsal cutaneous branch which provides sensory innervation to the skin over the medial third of the dorsum of the hand and medial 11/2 finger.d. The superficial terminal branch supplies palmaris brevis provides sensory innervation to the skin on the palmar surface of medial 11/2 fingers.e. The deep branch of ulnar nerve is purely motor and supplies all the intrinsic muscles of the hand including adductor pollicis except other muscles of thenar eminence and first two lumbricals. | 158,163 | medmcqa_train |
Browne's tube is used for - | Brown's tube is the most commonly used chemical indicator of moist heat sterilization in the autoclave. It contains red solution that turns green when exposed to temperature of 121degC for 15 minutes in an autoclave. | 158,164 | medmcqa_train |
Philadelphia chromosome is an example of- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Balanced translocation | 158,165 | medmcqa_train |
Most common twins after assisted reproduction: | Most common twins after assisted reproduction are dizygotic twins. For increasing the success of IVF and the expenses involved, it's a norm to transfer 2-3 embryos of day 3 or 1-2 embryos of Day 5. For women lesser than 35 years, the implantation rate is better and hence these are the ones who have more multiple pregnancies. | 158,166 | medmcqa_train |
Spasmolytic analgesic iS- | Ans. is `a' i.e., Dicyclomine o Antispasmodic (spasmolytic) drugs are used in various colic (pain) e.g. abdominal colic or renal colic. o Among the given options, dicyclomine is spasmolytic. | 158,167 | medmcqa_train |
Omalizumab is ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Anti IgE antibody | 158,168 | medmcqa_train |
Common site of bleeding: | Sites of Epistaxis 1) Little's area - 90% 2) Above the level of middle turbinate- From anterior and posterior ethmoidal vessels 3) Below the level of middle turbinate-From sphenopalatine aery 4) Posterior pa of nasal cavity 5) Nasopharynx 6) Diffuse -Both from septum and lateral nasal wall; Seen in general systemic disorders and blood dyscrasias Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 198. | 158,169 | medmcqa_train |
In normal NST, the time period for two or three accelerations that peak at 15 bpm or more above baseline is: | Definition of nonstress test (NST) currently recommended by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists and the American Academy of Pediatrics: Two or more accelerations that peak at 15 bpm or more above baseline, each lasting 15 seconds or more, and all occurring within 20 minutes of beginning the test. Accelerations with or without fetal movements be accepted, and that a 40-minute or longer tracing--to account for fetal sleep cycles--should be performed before concluding that there was insufficient fetal reactivity. Although a normal number and amplitude of accelerations seems to reflect fetal well-being, "insufficient acceleration" does not invariably predict fetal compromise. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 15. Antepaum Assessment. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | 158,170 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following movements of thumb are not affected in radial nerve injury: | A i.e. Opposition; C i.e. Adduction; B i.e. Flexion Posterior interosseous branch of radial nerve supplies extensor pollicis longus & brevis (EPL & EPB) and abductor pollicis longus (AbPL)Q (3) thumb muscles. So radial nerve injury weakens (affects) abduction & extension movements of thumb and spares flexion, adduction & oppositionQ Movements of Thumb Movements Extension Flexion Abduction Adduction Opposition Muscle - Extensor pollicis longus - Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) - Abductor pollicis - Aductor pollicis - Opponens & (EPL) /PIN /M longus (AbPL)/ (AdP)/U pollicis (OP) /M Nerve - Extensor pollicis brevis - Flexor pollicis brevis PIN - ls, dorsal - Flexor pollicis (EPB)/ PIN - Abductor pollicis longus (FPB)/M & U - Opponens pollicis (OP) /M - Abductor pollicis brevis (AbPB)/M interosseous /U brevis /M & U (AbPL) / PIN * PIN = posterior interosseous nerve (br of radial nerve); M= Median & U = Ulnar nerve * Flexor pollicis brevis has dual nerve supply i.e. superficial head from median and deep hed from ulnar nerve. | 158,171 | medmcqa_train |
Schwartze sign seen in: | (b) Otosclerosis(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 2213)10% cases of otosclerosis are active. In these the active division is taking place on the medial wall of middle ear leading to increased vascularity. This appears pinkish through the intact tympanic membrane leading to flamingo pink appearance of TM also known as Schwartze sign.In Glomus jugulare the vascular tumour coming from the floor of the middle ear gives a rising sun appearance on the TM. This is also known as red reflex.In Meniere's and Acoustic neuroma the TM appears no3rmal, i.e. pearly white. | 158,172 | medmcqa_train |
Statin having longest half life: | Rosuvastatin It is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme HMG-CoA reductase, having a mechanism of action similar to that of other statins. Its approximate elimination half life is 19 h and its time to peak plasma concentration is reached in 3-5 h following oral administration. REF : katzung pharmacology : 14th ed | 158,173 | medmcqa_train |
Telmisaan lowers blood pressure by - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Blocking ATI receptors ACE inhibitors : Captopril, enalapril, lisinopril, ramipril, perindopril, imidapril, trandopril, benazepril, fosinopril. Ren in inhibitors : Aliskiren, remikiren, enakiren. ATI blockers : Losaan, candesaan, irbesaan, valsaan, telmisaan. | 158,174 | medmcqa_train |
Insulin non dependent DM correlate with which fat reserve - | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Intraabdominal fat {Ref: Harrison 18th/e p. 2968-2975; IT^/e p. 2279]Risk factors for type 2 Diabetes mellitusObesityo The risk of impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) or type 2 diabetes rises with increasing body weight.o The NHS demonstrated an approximately 100-fold increased risk of incident diabetes over 14 years in nurses whose baseline BMI was >35 kg/m2 compared with those with BMI < 22.o Obesity acts at least in part by inducing resistance to imidin-mediated peripheral glucose uptake, which is an important component of type 2 diabetes.o Reversal of obesity decreases the risk of developing type 2 diabetes and, in patients with established disease, improves glycemic control.Fat distributiono The distribution of excess adipose tissue is another important determinant ofthe risk of insulin resistance and type 2 diabetes.o The degree of insulin resistance and the incidence of type 2 diabetes are highest in those subjects with centra/ or abdominal obesity, as measured bv waist circumference or waist-to-hio circumference ratio.o Intra-abdominal {visceral) fat rather than subcutaneous or retroperitoneal fat appears to be of primary- importance in this regard.o This 'male'type obesity is different from the typical female' type, which primarily affects the gluteal and femoral regions and is not as likely to be associated with glucose intolerance or cardiovascular disease,o Why the pattern of fat distribution is important and the relative roles of genetic and environmental factors in its development are not known.Other important risk factorsBirth weiehtThere is an apparent U-shaped relationship between birth weight and risk of type 2 diabetes.Lifestyle factors# Although insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion in type 2 diabetes have a substantial genetic component, they> can also be influencedr both positively and negatively, by behavioral factors, such as physical activity, diet, smoking, alcohol consumption, body weight, and sleep duration. Improving these lifestyle factors can reduce the risk of diabetes mellitus.ExerciseA sedentary' lifestyle lowers energy- expenditure and promotes weight gain and increases the risk of ty!pe 2 diabetes.Among sedentary' behaviors, prolonged television watching is consistently associated with the development of obesity and diabetes.Physical activity ofmoderate intensity reduces the incidence of new cases of type 2 diabetes, regardless of thepresence or absence of IGT.SmokingSeveral large prospective studies have raised the possibility' that cigarette smoking increases the risk of type 2 diabetes.While a definitive causal association has not been established, a relationship between cigarette smoking and diabetes mellitus is biologically possible based upon a number of observations:Smoking increases the blood glucose concentration after an oral glucose challenge.Smoking may impair insulin sensitivity.Cigarette smoking has been linked to increased abdominal fat distribution and greater waist-to-hip ratiothat, as mentioned above, may have an impact upon glucose tolerance.Sleep durationo Quantity and quality-# of sleep may predict the risk of development of type 2 diabetes mellitus.o Difficulty initiating and maintaining sleep were also associated with an increased incidence.Dietary Patternso Dietary patterns affect the risk of type 2 diabetes mellitus.o Consumption of red meat, processed meat and sugar sweetened beverages is associated with an increased risk of diabetes, whereas consumption of a diet high in fruits, vegetables, nuts, whole grains, and olive oil is associated with a reduced risk.Increased risko Western versus prudent diet,A western diet (characterized by high consumption of red meat, processed meat, high fat dairy! products, sweets, and desserts) was associated with an increased risk of diabetes independent of BMI, physical activity, age, or family history.o Sugar-sweetened beveragesSugar-sweetened beverages, in particular soft drinks, have been associated with obesity in children. Most, but not all, studies report an increased risk of diabetes with consumption of sugar-sweetened beverages.o Vitamin D deficiencySeveral prospective observational studies have shown an inverse relationship between circulating 25-hydroxyvitamin D levels and risk of type 2 diabetes.o SeleniumAlthough animal models suggest that low doses of the antioxidant selenium may improve glucose metabolism, these findings have not been demonstrated in humans.o Iron intake An association between serum ferritin lex-els, high iron intake,, and type 2 diabetes has been reported, but the association is not well understood. Low iron diets are not recommended.o Chromium deficiency Chromium deficiency is generally limited to hospitalized patients with increased catabolism and metabolic demands in the setting of malnutrition.Other patients at risk for chromium deficiency include patients with short bowel syndrome, burns, traumatic injuries, or those on parenteral nutrition without appropriate trace mineral supplementation.Reduced risk for diabetes mellituso Mediterranean dieto Dairy productso Nutso Whole grains and cereal fibero Fruito Coffee and caffeinated beverages | 158,175 | medmcqa_train |
Paramesonephric duct forms: | Ans. is c, i.e UterusPara mesonephric duct is the other name for Mullerian duct so now we don't need any explanation for this one. | 158,176 | medmcqa_train |
Thyroid cancer associated with radiation exposure? | Ans. (b) PapillaryRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 763-64* Ionizing radiation can cause genetic mutations leading to malignant transformation.* This association is much stronger for thyroid cancer than for other malignancies, and radiation is the only well-established environmental risk factor for thyroid malignancy.* The risk of developing thyroid cancer after exposure to radiation is greater in those exposed during childhood and increases with higher doses of radiation delivered to the thyroid. This is true for exposure to ionizing radiation given for medical purposes and for environmental exposures.* The association with radiation is much stronger for papillary than for follicular cancer. | 158,177 | medmcqa_train |
Pro-inflammatory Cytokines include all of the following except - | Cytokines are involved in the immunological reaction, but some cytokines may also take part in inflammation.
o They may be: -
1. Proinflammatory cytokines
Involved in the amplification of inflammation and tissue destruction.
IL-1 & TNF-a are the two most important proinflammatory cytokines. IL-6 may also act as a proinflammatory cytokine.
Other proinflammatory cytokines are IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-8, IL-I1, IL-12, IL-15, IL-21, IL-23, IFN-gamma and granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF). ( Source Fundamental immunology by William E. Paul).
2 Anti inflammatory cytokines
Reduce inflammation and produce healing,
Example are IL-4, IL-13, IL-1, IL-10 | 158,178 | medmcqa_train |
Multifocal tumor of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS? | kaposi sarcoma commonly seen in patient with AIDS REF:ANANTHANARAYANAN TEXT BOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9EDITION PGNO.576 | 158,179 | medmcqa_train |
Ebstein anomaly is associated with all of the following Except | EBSTEIN'S ANOMALY:Ebstein's anomaly is due to the abnormal downward displacement of tricuspid valve into the right ventricle.Tricuspid valve has 3 leaflets- anterior, posterior and septalAnterior leaflet of valve retains attached to valve ring and the other two leaflets displaced downwards.HEMODYNAMICS:The displaced tricuspid valve divides the right ventricle into two poions namely- thin atrialized ventricle and the small normal right ventricle.The effective output from the right side of the hea is decreased because of the combination of poorly functioning small right ventricle, tricuspid valve regurgitation and obstruction to right ventricular outflow due to the large sail-like anterior cuspBlood flows from right atrium to left atrium through patent foramen ovale or ASD results in RIGHT TO LEFT SHUNT-CYANOSISEbstein's anomaly is a ductal dependant(PDA) pulmonary flow cardiac disease.CLINICAL FEATURES:CyanosisParoxysmal attack of tachycardiaDyspnea on exeionSIGNS:Holosystolic murmur due to tricuspid regurgitationMassive cardiomegaly-BOX SHAPED CARDIOMEGALYECG- tall, broad P waves. | 158,180 | medmcqa_train |
Botulin toxin acts by: | Decreases Secretion of Ach | 158,181 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not related to epidemiology ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., To teach a medical student how to conduct safe delivery According to the International Epidemiological Association (IEA), epidemiology has three main aims : a) To describe the distribution and magnitude of health and disease problems in human populations. b) To identify aetiological factors (risk factors) in the pathogenesis of disease; and c) To provide the data essential to the planning, implementation and evaluation of services for the prevention, control and treatment of disease and to the setting up of priorities among those services. In order to fulfil these aims, three rather different classes of epidemiological studies may be mentioned : descriptive studies, analytical studies, and experimental or intervention studies. The ultimate aim of epidemiology is to lead to effective action : a) To eliminate or reduce the health problem or its consequences; and b) To promote the health and well-being of society as a whole. | 158,182 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not an intermediate filament? | Intermediate filaments - resist external pressure cell type specific: used as cellular markers Types Nuclear(Lamin-A,B,C) Vimentin like (Vimentin, desmin, GFAP, peripherin) Epithelial(Types 1,2 keratin) Axonal( Neurofilament proteins- NF-L,M,H) | 158,183 | medmcqa_train |
Cellular bearings of herediatary disease seen in: | A i.e. DNAHereditary information is preserved in DNA. Thus all genetic diseases are due to change in DNAQ. | 158,184 | medmcqa_train |
The following test is not used for dignosis of leprosy- | Lepromatous test it is not a diagnostic test but a prognostic test. it helps in the classification of leprosy. antigens used for skin testing: mitsuda lepromin, Dharmendra leprominmanifests as biphasic reaction: early Fernandez (48-72hrs)and late mitsuda reaction (3-4weeks)Represents Cmi towards antigen. Erythema and induration more than 5mm indicates positive and good delayed hypersensitivity. lepromin test positive: tuberculoid, borderline tuberculoid leprosy lepromin test negative in lepromatous leprosy, borderline lepromatous leprosyand mid borderline leprosy iadvl textbook of dermatologypage 2060 | 158,185 | medmcqa_train |
Kuffer cells are found in: | Liver | 158,186 | medmcqa_train |
Not a Epiphyseal tumors | Simple bone cyst (Unicameral bone cyst) is a Metaphyseal tumor. | 158,187 | medmcqa_train |
Rupture of supraspinatus manifests as - | Supraspinatus is responsible for shoulder abduction for the first 15 degrees. If it is torn completely, the initiation of abduction is impossible. Passive abduction upto 15 degrees allows other muscles to take over for further abduction. | 158,188 | medmcqa_train |
A night shift worker complains of profuse Rhinorrhea and Sneezing for the past few days . Which among the following drug can be given to him ? | 1st generation anti histamines 2nd generation anti histamines 1. Chlorphenaramine 2. Promethazine 3. Diphenhydramine 4. Cyclizine 5. Meclizine 6. phenaramine 1. Terfenadine 2. Fexofenadine 3. levocetrizine 4. Loratidine Note : All the 1st generation drugs can cross BBB and produce CNS actions so all 1st generation antihistamines can cause sedation. so 2nd generation antihistamines are given in this patients. | 158,189 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest cause of A-V fistulae is:- | Aeriovenous Fistula (AVF) MC type of AVF: Congenital MC cause of acquired AVF: Penetrating trauma | 158,190 | medmcqa_train |
Preferred incision for abdominal exploration in Blunt injury abdomen is | Adults Upper midline incision extending down across the left of the umbilicus is the preferred incision. But can be extended into the thorax or do horizontal T or extended as needed depending on internal organ injury Paediatric abdomen:- The abdomen is wider with the bladder intra abdominal. Transverse supraumbilical incisions are preferred to veical midline Scars may migrate during growth. Ref.Bailey $ Love;24th edition | 158,191 | medmcqa_train |
According to the WHO criteria, anaemia in infants of 6 months age is defined as Hb less than: | Please note that 110g/litre= 11g/dl A WHO expe group proposed that anaemia or deficiency should be considered to exist when haemoglobin is below the following levels: Cut-off points for the diagnosis of anaemia: AGE GROUP VENOUS BLOOD (g/dl) MCHC (%) Adult males 13 34 Adult females, non-pregnant 12 34 Adult females, pregnant 11 34 Children, 6 months to 6 years 11 34 Children 6 to 14 years 12 34 Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 18th edition; Page-450 | 158,192 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drugs has spasmolytic activity and could also be used in the management of seizure caused by overdose of a local anesthetic? | IV diazepam controls convulsions. In fact these can be prevented by preanesthetic administration of diazepam (1-2 mg/kg),especially if large doses are to be used. From padmaja 4th edition Page no 201 | 158,193 | medmcqa_train |
Vaccine is what level of prevention | All vaccines/immunization are primary level of prevention. | 158,194 | medmcqa_train |
Antrochoanal polyp arise from? | ANSWER: (B) Maxillary sinusREF: Dhingras ENT 5th ed p-188, 4th edition page 164See table of "DIFFERENCES BETWEEN ANTROCHOANAL AND ETHMOIDAL POLYP" in ENT December 2009 | 158,195 | medmcqa_train |
Police inquest is A/E | D i.e. 10 may not summon | 158,196 | medmcqa_train |
ACTH secretion is highest during – | Cortisol levels in blood are normally elevated at 8.00 AM and decrease to less than 50% by midnight. | 158,197 | medmcqa_train |
If there are 4 nucleotides instead of 3 in codon, how many amino acids may be formed? | C i.e. 256 | 158,198 | medmcqa_train |
Biopsy findings of celiac disease all of the following, except | Answer is C (Mucosal atrophy) Mucosa! atrophy and presence of Giardia lambia are not seen in biopsy front celiac disease. Small Intestinal Biopsy (duodenal /jejunal) in Celiac disease (Characteristic but not diagnostic()) Absence or reduced height of villi (Flat appearance)() Crypt hyperplasia, villous atrophy (but not mucosal atrophy)() Cuboidal appearance of epithelial cells and increased intraepithelial lymphocytes Increased lymphocytes and plasma cells in lamina propriaQ | 158,199 | medmcqa_train |
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