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Testis descends the in inguinal canal during - month | Testies descent :
4th month - itiac fossa.
7th month - deep inginal ring.
7th and 8th month - Inguinal canal. | 157,600 | medmcqa_train |
An adult patient presents with normal or enlarged kidneys with massive proteinuria. Most likely cause is - | Answer- C. AmyloidosisAmyloidosis causes :-Enlarged kidneyMassive proteinuria (nephrotic range proteinuria) | 157,601 | medmcqa_train |
There is an outbreak of MRSA infection in a ward. What is the best way to control the infection? | Ans. is 'c' i.e.,Washing hand before & after attending patients " Given the prominence of cross infection, hand hygiene is the single most preventive measure in hospitals." | 157,602 | medmcqa_train |
Iron supplementation in a healthy term breast fed baby should be staed at the age of - | Ans. is NoneCorrect answer is 6 months. | 157,603 | medmcqa_train |
Which branch of poal vein is involved in chronic pancreatitis | , | 157,604 | medmcqa_train |
No chemoprophylaxis for | Cholera: Tetracycline or furazolidone for household contacts Bacterial conjunctivitis: Erythromycin ophthalmic ointment Diphtheria: Erythromycin Influenza: Oseltamivir Meningitis, meningococcal: Ciprofloxacin, and minocycline Plague: Tetracycline for contacts of pneumonic plague Ref: 25th edition, Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 137 | 157,605 | medmcqa_train |
Oblique view is required to diagnose fracture of | B i.e. Scaphoid | 157,606 | medmcqa_train |
CD marker of stem cell is: | Ans: A (CD 34) Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition. Explanation:(See following table)Some Immune Cell Antigens Detected by Monoclonal AntibodiesAntigenDesignationNormal Cellular DistributionPRIMARILY T-CELL ASSOCIATEDCD1Thymocytes and Langerhans cellsCD3Thymocytes, mature T cellsCD4Helper T ceils, subset of thymocytesCD5T cells and a small subset of B cellsCD8Cytotoxic T cells, subset of thymocytes, and some NK cellsPRIMARILY B-CELL ASSOCIATEDCD1 0Pre-B cells and germinal-center B cells; also called CALLACD19Pre-B cells and mature B cells but not plasma cellsCD20Pre-B cells after CD19 and mature B ceils but not plasma cellsCD21EBV receptor; mature B cells and follicular dendrstic cellsCD23Activated mature B cellsCD79aMarrow pre-B cells and mature B celtsPRIMARILY MONOCYTE-OR MACROPHAGE-ASSOCIATEDCD11cGranulocytes, monocytes, and macrophages; also expressed by na ry cell leukenmasCD13Immature and mature monocytes and granulocytesCD14MonocytesCD15Granulocytes; Reed-Stern berg cells and variantsCD 33Myeloid progenitors and monocytesCD64Mature myeloid celsPRIMARILY NK-C ELL ASSOCIATEDCD16NK cells and granulocytesCD56NK cells and a subset of T cellsPRIMARILY STEM CELL-AND PROGENITOR DELL-ASSOCIATEDCD34Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells and progenitor cells of many lineagesACTIVATION MARKERSCD30Activated B cells. T cells, and monocytes;Reed-Sternberg cells and variantsPRESENT ON ALL LEUKOCYTESCD45All leukocytes; also known as leukocyte common antigen (LCA) | 157,607 | medmcqa_train |
Most common sinus to be involved in acute sinusitis? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Maxillary Most common sinus affected by sinusitis overall Maxillary Most common sinus affected in adult Maxillary Most common sinus affected in children Ethmoid Least common sinus affected Sphenoid Sinuses involved in order of frequency Maxillary > Frontal > Ethmoid > Sphenoid | 157,608 | medmcqa_train |
The visualization of the angle of anterior chamber by: | (Gonioscopy) (546-Khurana 4rd)GONIOSCOPY - The angle between the posterior corneal surface and the anterior surface of the iris constitute the angle of the anterior chamber the configuration of which is relevant to the pathogenesis of glaucoma contact between peripheral iris and cornea signifies, a closed angle, which precludes aqueous access to the trabecular meshwork. While wide separation between the two signifies in or beyond the trabecular meshwork. Gonioscopy involves the examination and analysis of angle.1. Diagnostic - Gonioscopy facilitates the identification of abnormal angle structure and estimation of the width of the chamber angle particularly important in the management of eyes with narrow angles.2. Surgical - gonioscopy involves visualization of the angle during procedures such as laser trabeculoplasty and goniotomy.Perimetry - estimating extent of the visual fields.Direct ophthalmoscopyIndirect ophthalmoscopy* Most commonly practiced method for routine fundus examination* Image is erect, virtual and 15 times magnified in emmetropes* Popular method for examination of the posterior segment* Image is real, inverted, 4-5 times magnified. | 157,609 | medmcqa_train |
Most common indication of liver transplant in children is: | A. Biliary atresia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1975)Biliary atresia is the most common indication for liver transplantation in children, followed by metabolic and inborn disorders, autoimmune and familial cholestatic disorders, and acute hepatic necrosis. | 157,610 | medmcqa_train |
Nuk Sauger Nipple has been designed to prevent the problem of: | Children who have the habit of thumb sucking derive the pleasure from keeping their finger/thumb at various depths of mouth.
Initially, they start this at conscious level and soon it goes to the subconscious level.
If it is not intervened, it will alter the muscle balance and might cause malocclusion.
Along with this, it also alters the way the child sucks the nipple. | 157,611 | medmcqa_train |
The phenomenon where subsequent generations are at risk of earlier and more severe disease is known as | Ref Robbins 9/e p169 Anticipating refers to observation that clinical features of a genetic disease worsen with each successive generations.it is observed in fragile X syndrome and Huntington disease commonly | 157,612 | medmcqa_train |
People are arranged alphabetically by their names and then every 3rd person is chosen for study. The type of sampling is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Systematic random Simple random samplingo Simple random sampling, also, known as 4unrestricted random samplingis applicable for small, homogenous, readily available population and is used in clinical trials,o In simple random sampling each individual is chosen randomly and entirely by chance,o So, each individual has the same probability of being chosen at any stage during the sampling process.For example : -o Let us assume you had a school with 1000 students, divided equally into boys and girls, and you wanted to select 100 of them for further study.o You might put all their names in a bucket and then pull 100 names out.o Not only does each person have an equal chance of being selected, we can also easily calculate the probaility of a given person being chosen, since we know the sample size (n) and population (N) and it becomes a simple matterof division - n/N or 100/1000 = 0.10 (10%).o This means that even' student in the school has a 10% or 1 in 10 chance of being selected using this method.Methods of simple random sampling.Lottery methodRandom number tableComputer sofware - Computer technique.Systematic random samplingo In order to do systematic random sampling, the individuals in a population are arranged in a certain way (for example, alphabetically).o A random starting point is selected and then every n,h (for example 10th or 15th) individual is selected for the sample.o That is, after arranging the individuals in certain pattern (e.g., alpabetically) a starting point is chosen at random, and choices thereafter at regular interv als,o For example, suppose you want to sample 8 houses from a street of 120 houses.o 120/8 = 15, So every' 15th house is chosen after a random starting point between 1 and 15.o If the random starting point is 11, then the houses selected are - 11, 26, 41, 56, 71, 86, 101, and 116.o In contrast to simple random sampling, some houses have a larger selection probabily e.g., in this question 11, 26,41,56, 71, 86, 100 and 116.o While the remaining number can not be selected.Stratified random samplingo When sub-populations vary considerably, it is advantageous to sample each subpopulation (stratum) independently,o Stratification is the process of grouping members of the population into relative hemogenous subgroups before sampling.o The strata should be mutually exclusive, every element in the population must be assigned to only one stratum,o Then systematic random sampling method is applied within each stratum.Population - Stratification - Systematic random sampling - Sample.o This often improves the representativeness of the sample by reducing sampling error.o For example, suppose in a population of 1000, sample of 100 is to be drawn for Hb estimation, first convert the population into homogenous striata (e.g., 700 males and 300 females), then draw 70 males and 30 females by doing systematic random sampling. | 157,613 | medmcqa_train |
Negri bodies are found in- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rabies * The characteristic histopathological picture in rabies is the intra-cytoplasmic inclusion body (Negri body) in the neurons, most abundant in the cerebellum and Hippocampus.* Negri bodies are pathognomic of rabies. | 157,614 | medmcqa_train |
A 35-year-old patient has a small but painful tumor under the nail of the little finger. Which of the following nerves would have to be anesthetized for a painless removal of the tumor? | The common palmar digital branch comes off the superficial branch of the ulnar nerve and supplies the skin of the little finger and the medial side of the ring finger. The superficial branch of the radial nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the radial (lateral) dorsum of the hand and the radial two and a half digits over the proximal phalanx. The common palmar digital branch of the median nerve innervates most of the lateral aspect of the palmar hand and the dorsal aspect of the second and third finger as well as the lateral part of the fourth digit. The deep radial nerve supplies the extensor carpi radialis brevis and supinator muscles and continues as the posterior interosseous nerve. The recurrent branch of the median nerve supplies the abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis muscles. | 157,615 | medmcqa_train |
The most common cause of vocal cord palsy is: | Thyroidectomy was the single most common surgical cause for unilateral vocal cord palsy, followed by other nonthyroid neck surgeries (20%) and anterior cervical decompression (18.3%). Conclusion: The most common cause for unilatera lvocal cord palsy is idiopathic. | 157,616 | medmcqa_train |
Tinnels sign indicates: | Ans: d (Regeneration of nerves)Ref: Schwartz surgery, 7th ed, p. 1885 | 157,617 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a pathogenic mycobacteria - | According to RUNYON classification atypical mycobacterium is classified under RAPID GROWERS which include M.chelonie, M.fouitum, M.smegmatis, M.abscess, M.phlei. Non pathogenic- M. smegmatis M. kansasii- Pulmonary disease resembling tuberculosis M. scrofulaceum- Cervical lymphadenitis M. chelonae- chronic abscess | 157,618 | medmcqa_train |
Organophosphate insecticides are all except | Ans. is `a' i.e., Dieldrin | 157,619 | medmcqa_train |
Interpret the developmental anomaly shown in the following radiograph: | Dens invaginatus
This anomaly is the result of an infolding of the enamel organ prior to calcification and represents, in its coronal form, an accentuation of the cingulum pit. The anomaly is believed to be genetically determined and has a prevalence of 5%. The maxillary lateral incisors are commonly affected. The condition rarely occurs in the deciduous dentition.
Radiological signs
The invagination appears as a linear radiopacity at the level of the cingulum. It varies in the degree that it involves the coronal tooth tissue. The tooth may display an open apex and periapical radiolucency as a sequel to loss of pulp vitality.
Ref: Interpreting Dental Radiographs by Keith Horner, Jon Rout and Vivian E Rushton | 157,620 | medmcqa_train |
A 40-year-old male patient presented with slowly progressive dysphagia both to solids and liquids, regurgitation, chest pain and weight loss for 2 months. Barium swallow and esophageal manometry was advised by the doctor. Upper GI endoscopy was also performed. Which of the following organism has been most commonly implicated in causing the above disease: - | This is a case of achlasia cardia. Barium swallow x-ray appearance shows a dilated esophagus with poor emptying, an air-fluid level, and tapering at the les giving it a beak-like appearance. Esophageal manometry shows impaired lower esophageal sphincter (LES) relaxation and absent peristalsis and minimal pressurization of the esophageal body. UPPER GI ENDOSCOPY SHOWS a: Functional stenosis of the esophagogastric junction. b: Wrapping around the esophagogastric junction. c: Abnormal contraction of the esophageal body. d: Mucosal thickening and whitish change. e: Dilation of the esophageal lumen. f, g: Liquid and/or food remnant. Achalasia cardia It is an autoimmune process Due to loss of ganglion cells Presents with dysphagia, regurgitation and chest pain. It is attributed to latent infection with HSV-1. | 157,621 | medmcqa_train |
Hyperophic pyloric stenosis presents after how many months of bih : | Pyloric stenosis is the most common surgical disorder producing emesis in infancy. It results from hyperophy of the circular and longitudinal muscularis of the pylorus and the distal antrum of the stomach with progressive narrowing of the pyloric canal. The cause is not known. The male-to-female incidence is 4:1.It presents 2-4 weeks after bih. Typically, the affected infant is full term when born and feeds and grows well until 2-4 weeks after bih, at which time occasional regurgitation of some of the feedings occurs. Ref :Albanese C.T., Sylvester K.G. (2010). Chapter 43. Pediatric Surgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | 157,622 | medmcqa_train |
Gold is used for management of? | Ans. (b) Rheumatoid ArthritisRef: Harrison 19th ed. / 2144-45* Minocycline, gold salts, enicillamine, azathioprine, and cyclosporine have all been used for the treatment of RA with varying degrees of success; however, they are used sparingly now due to their inconsistent clinical efficacy or unfavorable toxicity profile.* Drugs used in Rheumatoid arthritis* Hydroxychloroquine* Lefluonomide* Methotrexate* Abatacept* Anakinra* Rituximab | 157,623 | medmcqa_train |
The Y shaped central developmental groove is most likely found on which of the following premolars? | Y shaped central developmental groove is found on the mandibular second premolar. | 157,624 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a feature of tropical pulmonary eosinophilia(TPE)? | In tropical pulmonary eosinophilia, microfilariae and parasite antigens are rapidly cleared from the blood stream by the lungs and is therefore not found in the circulation. TPE develops in individuals infected with lymphatic dwelling filarial species. Characterisitc features includes paroxysmal cough and wheezing, fever, weight loss, lymphadenoapthy and pronounced blood eosinophilia (more than 3000eosinophils/microL). Chest Xray shows increased bronchovascular markings. Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 18e chapter 218. | 157,625 | medmcqa_train |
The distinct golden colour in transgenic Golden rice is due to presence of | Golden rice:
Variety of rice produced through genetic engineering to boisynthesize beta carotene, a precursor of vitamin A.
The distinct golden colour is due to the beta carotene content.
It is indented to produce a fortified food to be grown and consumed in areas with a shortage of dietary vitamin A.
Golden rice differs from its parenteral strain by the addition of three beta carotene biosynthesis gene. | 157,626 | medmcqa_train |
Tumour cells avoid immugenic response by all except: | Ans: B (Decreased...) IMMUNE SURVEILLANCE IN CANCER Robbins 8th/331-32Most cancers occur in persons who do not suffer from any overt immunodeficiency. It is evident then that tumor ceils must develop mechanisms to escape or evade the immune system in immunocompetent hosts.Several such mechanisms may be operative: They are-# Selective outgrowth of antigen-negative variants: During tumor progression, strongly immunogenic subclones may be eliminated.# Loss or reduced expression of MHC molecules: Tumor cells may fail to express normal levels of HLA class I molecules, thereby escaping attack by cytotoxic T cells. Such cells, however, may trigger NK cells# Lack of costimulatiom tumor cells may express peptide antigens with class I molecules, they often do not express costlmitlatory molecules. This not only prevents sensitization, but also may renderT cells anergic or, worse, cause them to undergo apoptosis. Because dendritic cells express high levels of co stimulatory molecules, it Is expected that such dendritic cell immunization will stimulate antitumor T cells.# Immunosuppression: Many oncogenic agents (e.g., chemicals and ionizing radiation) suppress host immune responses. Tumors or tumor products (like TGF-b) may also be immunosuppressive.# Antigen masking: The cell-surface antigens of tumors may be hidden, or masked, from the immune system by glycocalyx molecules, such as sialic acid-containing mucopolysaccharides. This may be a consequence of the fact that tumor cells often express more of these glycocalyx molecules than normal cells do.# Apoptosis of cytotoxic T cells: Some melanomas and hepatocellular carcinomas express Fas ligand. It has been postulated that these tumors kill Fas-expressing T lymphocytes that come in contact with them, thus eliminating tumor-specific T cellsImmunosuppressive cytokines (e.g., TGF-b)Fig: Mechanisms by which tumors evade the immune system | 157,627 | medmcqa_train |
Lyedig ceils secrete - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Testosterone o The hormone-secreting cells in the testes are the leydig cells and sertoli cells. Leydig cells have receptors for LH and secrete all the androgens, i.e., testosterone (major androgen), dihydrotestosterone (DHT), androstendione and dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA). All of theme have 19 carbon atoms.o Sertoli cells are under the control of FSH, i.e., have receptors for FSH. When stimulated by FSH, these cells secrete androgen binding protein (ABP), inhibin and MIS (mullerian inhibiting substance). Sertoli cells also contair aromatase; the enzyme that converts androgens to estrogens. Beside these hormonal function, junction betweer adjacent sertoli cells forms blood-testis barrier which does not allow harmful substances to enter the area when spermatogenesis is going on. Sertoli cells also have receptors for androgens (testosterone) which stimulate: spermatogenesis. | 157,628 | medmcqa_train |
Test not used for diagnosis of syphilis | D i.e. Frie - test - Most specific test is TPI > FTA -ABSQ Non treponemal test becomes non reactive after t/t; the Treponemal test often remain reactive & therefore not helpful in determining the infection status of person with past syphilis Q. Response to treatment in early syphilis is seen by sequential VDRL or RPR titerQ as they become negative after treatment. CSFVDRL is highly specific but insensitive test; may be nonreactive in symptomatic progressive neuro syphilis. It's sensitivity is highest in meningovascular syphilis & paresis. | 157,629 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following muscle relaxant is contraindicated in muscle dystrophy? | Succinyl choline can cause hyperkalemia in especially in nerve & muscle disorders. Hence it is avoided in patients with paraplegia, Guillain barre syndrome, Myasthenia gravis & muscle dystrophy. | 157,630 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is most preferred graft in CABG? | Vascular graft Bioprosthetic Synthetic Autograft Homograft (allograft) Heterograft (xenograft) Tissue engineered Textile Dacron Non textile ePTFE Polyurethane Best natural vascular graft: Reversed saphenous vein Best synthetic vascular graft: Dacron Best vascular graft for supra inguinal bypass: Dacron Best vascular graft for infra inguinal bypass: Saphenous vein Best vascular graft for aoa: Dacron Most preferred graft for CABG: LIMA (left internal mammary aery) > Saphenous vein MC used graft for CABG: Saphenous vein | 157,631 | medmcqa_train |
Which waves is predominantly seen in EEG with eyes closed in normal alert adult? | Ans. A. Alpha wavesBandFrequency (Hz)Location NormallyDelta<4frontally in adults, posteriorly in children; high-amplitude waves* adult slow-wave sleep* in babiesTheta4-7Found in locations not related to task at hand* higher in young children* drowsiness in adults and teensAlpha8-15posterior regions of head, both sides, higher in amplitude on dominant side.* relaxed/reflecting* closing the eyesBeta16-31both sides, symmetrical distribution, most evident frontally; low-amplitude waves* range span: active calm - intense - stressed - mild obsessive* active thinking, focus, high alert, anxiousGamma>32Somatosensory cortex* Displays during cross-modal sensory processing (perception that combines two different senses, such as sound and sight)* Also is shown during short-term memory matching of recognized objects, sounds, or tactile sensations | 157,632 | medmcqa_train |
SERM drug used in treatment of osteoporosis aEUR' | Raloxifene Traditionally hormone replacement therapy with estrogen was being used to prevent/treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal worsen. H has been shown to reduce the risk of osteoporosis in women. But long term use of estrogen leads to range of adverse effect including cardiovascular disease, stroke, pulmonary emboli and invasive breast cancer. These serious adverse effect made to look for other options. Selective estrogen receptor modulators These are class of compounds that act on estrogen receptors. Their characteristic feature is that they do not have pure agonist or antagonistic action on estrogen receptors. - Their selective action distinguishes these substances .from pure receptor agonist or antagonist. - SERMS are "selective" that means SERMS block estrogen in some tissues and activate estrogen action in others. - All the SERMS bind to the estrogen receptor but each agent produces a unique receptor drug conformation. - As a result specific coactivator or co-oppressor proteins are bound to the receptor resulting in differential effects. Two SERMS are currently being used Raloxifens For the t/t and prevention of osteoporosis Tamoxifen --> For the t/t and prevention of Breast Ca The .first SERM to reach the market was Tamoxifen which blocks the stimulative effect of estrogen on breast tissue and is used in breast cancer. Raloxifene is the second SERM to be approved by the FDA. Raloxifens has been approved for the tit and prevention of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. Raloxifens acts like estrogen on bone and helps to build and maintain bone density. - Raloxifen has been shown in clinical trials to increase bone density in the spine and hip and to reduce the risk of spinal fractures in women with osteoporosis. While it acts like estrogen on bone, it blocks the action of estrogen on breast and uterus. - This profile makes it very useful for the t/t of osteoporosis because Raloxifene provides the bone benefits of estrogen without increasing the risk for estrogen related breast and uterine cancers. Raloxifene in Breast cancer Due to its antiestrogenic effect on breast, Raloxifene has been shown to reduce the risk of invasive breast cancer in women who are taking it for osteoporosis. Raloxifene reduces the risk of breast cancer by 50-70% in both low risk and high risk postmenopausal women. The national cancer institute U.S.A. funded the STUDY OF TAMOXIFEN AND RALOXIFEN (STAR) a clinical trial comparing raloxtfens with tamoxifen in preventing breast cancer, in postmenopausal women who are at increased risk of developing the disease. The study found that tamoxifen and Raloxifen are equally effective in reducing invasive breast cancer risk in postmenopausal women who are at increased risk of the disease. The study also .found out that women who took raloxifen had fewer uterine cancer and.fewer blood clots than women who took tamoxifen. However, Raloxifen did not decrease the risk of noninvasive breast Ca. On September 14 2007, the US. food and drug administration announced approval of raloxifens for reducing the risk of invasive breast cancer in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis and in postmenopausal women at high risk for invasive cancer. | 157,633 | medmcqa_train |
Phlycten is due to - | Phlyctenular conjunctivitis - Endogenous allergy It is believed to be a delayed hypersensitivity (Type IV cell mediated) response to endogenous microbial proteins. Causative allergens are :- (i) Staphylococcus proteins (most common); (ii) Tuberculous proteins and (iii) Proteins of Moraxells axenfeld bacillus and ceain parasistes. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis - Exogneous allergy Reference : AK khurana 7th edition | 157,634 | medmcqa_train |
Delayed tuberculin test response is due to- | Tuberculin test is type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Delayed or cell mediated hypersensitivity is a cell mediated response. The antigen activates specifically sensitised CD4 & CD8 T lymphocytes leading to the secretion of lymphokines and phagocyte accumulation. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 162 <\p> | 157,635 | medmcqa_train |
Which muscle arises from 4th pharyngeal arch? | (a) Cricothyroid(Ref. Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 3; 884)We can remember it as the only muscle supplied by external laryngeal nerve (the 4th pharyngeal arch nerve) is cricothyroid hence derived by 4th arch.Rest all the muscles are derived by 6th arch nerve as they are supplied by 6th arch nerve, the recurrent laryngeal nerve. | 157,636 | medmcqa_train |
Gene not associated with Diabetes malitus? | PDGF-R gene is associated with glioma.
Most important Genes associated with the Development of Diabetes Type 1 Diabetes | 157,637 | medmcqa_train |
Simultaneous perception in binocuiar vision is - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Grade I Grades of binocular single visiono There are three grades of binocular single vision, which are best tested with the help of a synoptophore.1. Grade-1-Simultaneous perceptiony It is the power to see two dissimilar objects stimultaneously.It is tested by projecting two dissimilar objects (which can be joined or superimposed to form a complete picture) in front of the two eyes.For example, when a picture of a bird is projected onto the right eye and that of a cage onto the left eye, an individual with presence of simultaneous perception will see the bird in the cage.2 Grade-11 - FusionIt consists of the power to superimpose two incomplete but similar images to from one complete image.The ability of the subject to continue to see one complete picture when his eyes are made to converge or diverge a few degrees, gives the positive and negative fusion range, respectively.3. Grade-Ill - StereopsisIt consists of the ability to perceive the third dimension (depth perception).It can be tested with stereopsis slides in synoptophore. | 157,638 | medmcqa_train |
All are cholinergic drugs except | Memantine acts on NMDA receptors .remaining all the drugs are indirectly acting cholinergicn drugs used in the treatment of alzhimers disease. Ref: KDT 6th ed pg 472,473 | 157,639 | medmcqa_train |
In leprosy, the best bactericidal agent is : | Best and the fastest acting drug for leprosy is rifampicin.
Clofazamine and dapsone are bacteriostatic agents. | 157,640 | medmcqa_train |
A 39 week primigravida with breech presentation is in labour. MOST common breech presentation is: | The sacrum is the denominator of breech and there are four positions. In anterior positions, the sacrum is directed towards the iliopubic eminences and in posterior positions, the sacrum is directed to the sacro-iliac joints. The positions are, First position - left sacro-anterior- being the commonest 2nd position - right sacro-anterior 3rd position - right sacro-posterior 4th position - left sacro-posterior Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by D C Dutta, 6th edition, Page 376. | 157,641 | medmcqa_train |
Cognisable offence comes under which section of Cr. P.C. - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2C o Cognisable offence: Section 2C Cr. PC.-it is an offence in which a police officer can arrest a person without warrant from the magistrate. Eg murder, ragging.o In such offences, the person is sent by police to the doctor for medical examination. | 157,642 | medmcqa_train |
True about H. pylori includes all except: | Ans. is. 'a' i. e., Gram positive bacillus | 157,643 | medmcqa_train |
A 30 year old female epileptic on phenytoin, developed weakness and fatigue. Blood examination revealed Hb = 4.6 gm. MCV = 102 fl and MCH = 40 pg/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Megaloblastic anaemiaNormal valuesMCU- 86 - 98 fLMCH- 28 - 33 pg/cellHb (female) - 12-16 gm/dLLab finding in this pt. go in favour of megaloblastic anemia. H/O phenytoin intake is also suggestive of same. | 157,644 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are used for giving skeletal traction, except - | Traction
Traction is defined as a pulling force to treat muscle or skeletal disorders (fractures, dislocation). There are two major types of tractions: skin & skeletal traction.
A) Skin traction
Here the traction is applied to the skin (using adhesive or nonadhesive tape or straps) which is indirectly transmitted to the bone.
Skin traction can sustain a pull of no more than 4 to 5 kgs.
Skin traction is given by adhesive tape & bandage, Buck's apparatus.
Gallow's/Bryant's/Russel traction are examples of skin traction.
B) Skeletal traction
Skeletal traction is an invasive procedure in which pins, screws, wires or tongs (e.g., Steinmann pin, Denham's pin, Kirschner's wire, ice tong, Crutchfield's tong, Bohler stirrup, Ilizarov's wire) are placed into the bones so that the weight is directly applied to the bone.
Skeletal traction is used.
In cases when the pulling force needed is more than the skin traction can bear.
When longer durations of traction is required.
When the part of the body needing traction is positioned so that the skin traction is impossible.
Upto 20 kg weight is permitted. | 157,645 | medmcqa_train |
Intracranial pressure may be increased by all of the following drugs except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Aminoglycosides | 157,646 | medmcqa_train |
A 10-year old child presented with severe sore throat and a grey pseudomembrane over pharynx and tonsils. The organism causing this infection is most likely: | Ans. a. A gram positive bacillus (Ref: Harrison 19/e p978, 18/e p1189-1190: Ananthanarayan 9/e p239)A 10-year old child presented with severe sore throat and a grey pseudomembrane over pharynx and tonsils. The clinical features are strongly suggestive of a diagnosis of diphtheria, caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria, a gram-positive bacillus.Respiratory Diphtheria (Caused by Corynebacterium diphtheria):Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissues.The diphtheritic pseudomembrane is gray or whitish and sharply demarcatedQ.Diagnosis requires the isolation of C. diphtheria or the histopathologic isolation of compatible gram-positive organismsQ.The pseudomembranous lesion is most often located in the tonsillopharyngeal regionQRespiratory DiphtheriaClinical Features:The clinical diagnosis of diphtheria is based on:Constellation of sore throatQAdherent tonsillar, pharyngeal, or nasal pseudomembranous lesionsQLow-grade feverQOccasionally, weakness, dysphagia, headache, and voice change are the initial manifestationsQ.Neck edema and difficulty breathing are seen in more advanced cases and carry a poor prognosisQ.The systemic manifestations of diphtheria stem from the effects of diphtheria toxin and include weakness as a result of neurotoxicity and cardiac arrhythmias or congestive heart failure due to myocarditisQ.The pseudomembranous lesion is most often located in the tonsillopharyngeal regionQ.The diphtheritic pseudomembrane is gray or whitish and sharply demarcatedQ.Pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissuesQ.Less commonly, the lesions are detected in the larynx, nares, and trachea or bronchial passages.Large pseudomembranes are associated with severe disease and a poor prognosisQ.A few patients develop swelling of the tonsils and present with "bull-neck" diphtheria, which results from massive edema of the submandibular and paratracheal region and is further characterized by foul breath, thick speech, and stridorous breathingQ.Unlike the exudative lesion associated with streptococcal pharyngitis, the pseudomembrane in diphtheria is tightly adherent to the underlying tissuesQ.Diagnosis:Attempts to dislodge the membrane may cause bleeding.Hoarseness suggests laryngeal diphtheria, in which laryngoscopy may be diagnostically helpful.In addition, diagnosis requires the isolation of C. diphtheria or the histopathologic isolation of compatible grampositive organismsQ. | 157,647 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following are true for Bronchiolitis in children? | Ans. D. All of the aboveBronchiolitis primarily affects young infants (1- 6 months some may be affected upto 2 years of age), clinical manifestations are initially subtle. Infants may become increasingly fussy and have difficulty feeding during the 2 to 5-day incubation period. A low-grade fever, usually less than 101.5degF, and increasing coryza and congestion usually follow the incubation period. In older children and adults, as well as in up to 60% of infants, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection is generally confined to the upper airway and does not progress further. Over a period of 2-5 days, RSV infection progresses from the upper to the lower respiratory tract, and this progression leads to the development of cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and feeding difficulties. | 157,648 | medmcqa_train |
A membrane phospholipid that does not contain glycerol is: | Sphingomyelin has got sphingosine alcohol, not the glycerol. Lecithin & cardiolipin has got glycerol in it and they are membrane phospholipid. | 157,649 | medmcqa_train |
The commonest space-occupying lesion in the cerebellopontine angle is | Common tumors of CP (cerebellopontine) angle are 1. Acoustic neuroma (commonest: 80- 90%) 2. Meningioma (2nd commonest: 5- 10%) Ref: Harrison; 20th edition , pubmed.com | 157,650 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a treatment modality for stress incontinence? | Fothergill's repair is used to treat uterine prolapse. Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 12th Edition, Pages 138-39. | 157,651 | medmcqa_train |
Drug showing additional nitric oxide activity: | Ans. D. NebivololAll the drug mentioned are selective beta 1 blockers. Out of all nebivolol has additional nitric oxide activity which increase the level of cGMP and thus causing vasodilation. | 157,652 | medmcqa_train |
Synytial osteoclastic giant Cells are seen in all except | Refer Robbins page no 8th edition | 157,653 | medmcqa_train |
A chronic alcoholic presented with repeated episodes of non-bilious vomiting after meals. On the basis of CECT findings, what is the diagnosis? | Symptoms are s/o pancreatitis In the given CT scan, pancreatic psudocyst is seen Pancreatic Pseudocyst - MC cystic lesion of pancreas (75%)- Not lined by Epithelium, but with granulation tissue - M/C cause of pseudocyst - Alcohol- More common in chronic pancreatitis > Acute pancreatitis- MC complication- Infection (14%) > Hemorrhage (10%)- IOC - CECT- Treatment- Cysto jejunostomy/ Roux-en-Y- Cysto jejunostomy- Indications of surgery - Duration > 6 weeks- Size > 6 cm | 157,654 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for impetigo herpetiformis is - | Only indication for use of systemic steroids is generalized pustule psoriasis in pregnancy( impetigo herpetiformis). From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 56 | 157,655 | medmcqa_train |
A man with chills, fever, and headache is thought to have "atypical" pneumonia. History reveals that he raises chickens and that approximately 3 weeks ago he lost many them to an undiagnosed disease. The most likely diagnosis of this man's condition is | Ornithosis (psittacosis) is caused by Chlamydia psittaci. Humans usually contract the disease from infected birds kept as pets or from infected poultry, including poultry in dressing plants. Although ornithosis may be asymptomatic in humans, severe pneumonia can develop. The disease is cured easily with tetracycline | 157,656 | medmcqa_train |
Openings of the tube of bronchoscope are known as- | Bronchoscope is similar to esophagoscope, but has openings at the distal part of the tube, called Vents which help in aeration of the side bronchi. | 157,657 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of choice for the other eye in open angle glaucoma is | Ans. (b) Laser trabeculoplasty* Please refer to above explanation* Treatment of choice for primary angle closure glaucoma (fellow eye, latent stage, subacute or intermittent stage , chronic stage) is laser iridotomy* Peripheral surgical iridectomy can also be used.* In acute congestive stage of PACG drug of choice is Pilocarpine, till the time laser iridotomy can be performed. Treatment of choice for fellow eye | | |Primary open angle glaucoma Primary angle closure glaucoma | | Laser trabeculoplasty Nd YAG Laser Iridotomy | 157,658 | medmcqa_train |
Massive Splenomegaly is least likely to be associated with which of the following Myeloproliferative disorders: | Answer is C (Essential Thrombocytosis (ET)) Essential Thrombocytosis is not associated with massive splenomegaly. 'Physical Examination in Essential Thrombocytosis is generally unremarkable except occassionally for mild splenomegaly. Massive splenomegaly is indicative of another Myeloproliferative disorder in paicular PV, PMF or CML --Harrison 1867/903 `Splenomegaly in Essential Thrombocytosis is seen in less than 30% of patients, and when palpable the spleen is usually not enlarged more than 4 cm below the left costal margin'. | 157,659 | medmcqa_train |
Axillary nerve supplies | Posterior division of axillary nerve supplies the posterior pa of deltoid muscle and teres minor. Teres minor is one of the muscle in rotator cuff muscles. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no : 180 | 157,660 | medmcqa_train |
A 32 yrs lady having 10 yrs old child of down syndrome is presenting at 9th week of pregnancy. what will be advice by doctor? | The population risk for Down syndrome is approximately 1 in 800 live bihs and the recurrence risk after the bih of an affected child is approximately 1-2 %. As the lady is already having a child with Down's , the doctor will advice her Chorionic Villous sampling (CVS) to assess fetal karyotype to check for Trisomy 21 can be done in the coming weeks to be sure of the diagnosis. Chorionic Villous sampling - Biopsy of chorionic villi is generally performed between 10 -13 weeks gestation. Most procedures are performed to assess fetal karyotype Numerous specialized genetic tests can also be performed by chorionic villus sampling The primary advantage of villus biopsy is that results are available earlier in pregnancy, allowing safer pregnancy termination. However, the aboion rates are 1-2% which is more than that of amniocentesis. | 157,661 | medmcqa_train |
Dietary cholesterol is transported to extrahepatic tissue by | LDL
It is worth noting that dietary cholesterol is not directly transported to extrahepatic tissues.
Though the major function of chylomicrons is to transport exogenous triglyceride to various tissues, it also transports the other dietary lipids (including cholesterol) to the liver after conversion into chylomicron remnants.
In the liver, this dietary cholesterol and the endogenous cholesterol which is synthesized in the liver itself are incorporated into VLDL which is secreted into the circulation. In circulation, VLDL is converted to IDL and then to LDL. This LDL serves to deliver the cholesterol to various extrahepatic tissues. Thus, LDL transport dietary as well as endogenous cholesterol to extrahepatic tissues. | 157,662 | medmcqa_train |
The cells of the enamel organ which differentiate into future ameloblasts are | Fate of various cells in enamel organ:
Inner enamel epithelium — differentiate into ameloblasts
Stellate reticulum — collapses and does not exist
Outer enamel epithelium — cells flattens and thrown into folds. | 157,663 | medmcqa_train |
Mauriacs syndrome is characterised by all except | It is a rare complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus in children assoasiated with Growth impairment Hepatomegaly Cushingoid features | 157,664 | medmcqa_train |
Berlin's edema is due to | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 431)Berlin's edema (commotio retinae) is a common condition caused by blunt injury to the eye. It is characterized by a decreased vision in the injured eye a few hours after the injury. Under examination, the retina appears opaque and white in color in the periphery but the blood vessels are normally seen. Cherry-red' spot in the foveal region may be seen | 157,665 | medmcqa_train |
The following are Not predisposing factors for genuine stress incontinence, except: | Detrusor Instability, Genuine stress incontinence is defined as urinary leakage occurring during
increasedbladder pressure. It is caused by sphincter weakness. Detrusor instability, urethral diverticulum,
neurological cases are responsible. | 157,666 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest nerve involved in leprosy is: | A i.e. Ulnar nerve | 157,667 | medmcqa_train |
Testes completely descend in the scrotum by the age of? | End of 9th month of intrauterine life PhaseIntrauterine agePosition of testisTransabdominal phaseUp to the sta of 3rd monthEntrance of future inguinal canal (internalinguinal ring)Transinguinal phaseBetween 4 to 5 monthsNo descent7th to 9th monthPasses through inguinal canalBefore bihInto the scrotum | 157,668 | medmcqa_train |
Lymphocytic infiltration is diagnostic in : | Dysgerminoma | 157,669 | medmcqa_train |
Amino acid required for conversion of norepinephrine to epinephrine:- | Norepinephrine to Epinephrine conversion requires SAM (S-Adenosyl Methionine). Enzyme involved is Phenylethanolamine N-methyl transferase. Coisol is the activator. Synthesis of Catecholamines (Dopamine, NE and E) from Tyrosine. SAM (S - adenosyl methionine) is synthesized from dietary methionine with the help of enzyme METHIONINE ADENOSYL TRANSFERASE (MAT). | 157,670 | medmcqa_train |
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ANTIHYPEENSIVES DRUG IS AVOIDED IN PATIENTS WITH HIGH SERUM URIC ACID LVELS? | REF : KD TRIPATHI 8TH ED | 157,671 | medmcqa_train |
Tetanus is caused by | Tetanus is caused by Clostridium tetani. It produces two toxins: tetanolysin and tetanospasmin. Tetanospasmin is responsible for tetanus. Tetanus is characterized by tonic muscular spasms usually commencing at the site of infection later become generalized, involving the whole of the somatic muscular system. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 265 | 157,672 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is false regarding first degree burns | First degree burns: Involves only epidermis, painful but donot blister, protective functions are intact as nd heals without scar Second degree burns: Dermal involvement and are extremely painful with weeping and blisters Third degree burns: Leathery, painless and non blanching | 157,673 | medmcqa_train |
A child requires how much energy per day (Kcal/ day)? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1000-1500 | 157,674 | medmcqa_train |
Lack of beta-oxidation of fatty acid leads to? | Lack of beta-oxidation of fatty acids leads to the accumulation of dicarboxylic acids. Dicarboxylic aciduria is caused by a lack of mitochondrial medium-chain acylCoA dehydrogenase. It is characterized by 1. Excretion of C -C o-dicarboxylic acids in the urine. 2.Nonketotic hypoglycemia Reference: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry 31st edition Pg 215 | 157,675 | medmcqa_train |
Posterior styphayloma is a feature of- | Posterior staphyloma. It refers to bulge of weak sclera lined by the choroid behind the equator. Here again the common causes are pathological myopia, posterior scleritis and perforating injuries. It is diagnosed on ophthalmoscopy. The area is excavated with retinal vessels dipping in it (just like marked cupping of optic disc in glaucoma) . Its floor is focussed with minus number lenses in ophthalmo-scope as compared to its margin. | 157,676 | medmcqa_train |
Which intravenous anaesthetic agent has analgesic effect also | Ketamine does not elicit pain on injection, instead produces profound analgesia. Thiopentone at a concentration greater than 2.5% can produce pain on injection and venous thrombosis. Propofol is formulated as a lipid emulsion which causes pain on injection. A new aqueous prodrug, Fospropofol is associated with less pain on injection. Etomidate, although causes pain on injection, the lipid formulation of etomidate is associated with a much less frequent incidence of pain. | 157,677 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements concerning sensorineural hearing loss in children with bacterial meningitis are TRUE? | Sensorineural hearing loss is detected by evoked-response audiometry in between 5 and 10% of children with bacterial meningitis. Up to 30% of children with meningitis caused by S. pneumoniae will have hearing deficits. Hearing loss generally is noted early in the course of bacterial meningitis and occurs despite prompt initiation of appropriate antimicrobial therapy. All children with bacterial meningitis should have hearing assessment by evoked-response audiometry before or soon after hospital discharge. Ref: Roos K.L., Brosch J.R. (2012). Chapter 199. Meningitis and Encephalitis. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine. | 157,678 | medmcqa_train |
Burden of disease is detected by | Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALY) is a measure of overall disease burden expressed as a number of years lost due to ill health, disability or early death. Ref: 25th edition Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, Page no. 26 | 157,679 | medmcqa_train |
In treatment of shock Dobutamine is preferred over Dopamine because? | ANSWER: (D) All of the aboveREF: KDT 5th edp.470DopamineActs on D1 , D2 , alpha and betal receptorsLow doses: renal vasodilation (D1 action)Moderate doses: Positive ionotropism (betal action) High doses: Vasoconstriction ( alphal action)DobutamineRelatively betalspecific agonistIonotropic i.e increases force of cardiac contraction without causing vasoconstriction . increasing afterload, heart rate or BP.Therefore since dobutamine is betal specific, doesn't cause vasoconstriction, it is less arrythmogenic, and doesn't affect renal vasculature it is preferred in cardiogenic shock, however it is less suitable for shocks in which vasoconstriction is required. | 157,680 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following should be avoided in the long-term follow-up of a renal transplant recipient on ciclosporin? | The potential for hazardous drug interactions in patients undergoing long term immunosuppression means that paicular care is needed with prescribing. The following should be avoided in renal transplant receipients Administer live vaccines Prescribe drugs that induce or inhibit cytochrome P450 activity if patient is taking sirolimus, tacrolimus, or ciclosporin Prescribe nephrotoxic agents (such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs) Note: After a year of stable graft function, pregnancy is likely to be safe. Ref: CLINICAL REVIEW, Renal transplantation, BMJ 2011;343:d7300 ; The Renal Association. Assessment of the potential kidney transplant recipient. 2011. | 157,681 | medmcqa_train |
VWF factor deficiency causes: | Deficiency of Von willebrand factor (VWF -promote platelet adherence and activation) causes | Platelet adhesion ( |BT ) | Intrinsic pathway activity ( | aPTT) | Factor VIII in plasma C/F Mucosal bleeding - Petechiae /purpura /epistaxis / melena Tissue bleeding Rx - Desmopressin for mild form - Cryoprecipitate for severe form | 157,682 | medmcqa_train |
A case of hepatocellular carcinoma involving segment IV and VI without any metastasis in a 62 year old alcoholic may be treated by all of the following except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cryotherapy o There are large number of treatment options for patients with hepatocellular carcinoma:# The only t/t modality with curative potential is- "Complete excision of hepatocellular carcinoma either by partial hepatectomy or by total hepatectomy and transplant"# Radiofrequency ablation and surgical resection have been equally effective for potentially resectable hepatocellular carcinoma in some studies so some consider radiofrequency ablation as potentially curative.T/t options for hepatocellular carcinoma :a) Surgicalc) Transarterial# Resection# Orthotopic liver transplant# Embolization# Chemoembolization# Radiotherapyb) Ablative# Percutaneous ethanol injection# Percutaneous acetic acid injection# Thermal ablation (cryotherapy, radiofrequency ablation, microwave)d) Combination transarterial/ablativee) External beam radiationf) Systemic# Chemotherapy# Hormonal therapy# Immunotherapy | 157,683 | medmcqa_train |
Paial mole is | Paial mole : Karyotype is triploid either 69XXY or 69XYY One maternal and usually two paternal haploid chromosomes Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 186. | 157,684 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are causes microcytic hypochromic anemia except: March 2011, March 2013 | Ans. D: Fanconi's anemiaThe red cells in aplastic anemia are usually slightly macrocytic and normochromicFanconi anemia (rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by defects in a multiprotein complex that is required for DNA repair) underlie some forms of aplastic anemia.Conditions causing microcytic, hypochromic anemia in childhood includesIron deficiency,Beta-Thalassemia trait,Lead poisoning,Chronic illness or inflammation, andSideroblastic anemiaSideroblastic anemiaIt is characterized by:-- Ineffective erythropoiesis anemia with ringed sideroblasts,- Saturation of serum iron binding capacity (usually approaching 80%),- >LDH, and- Bizarre peripheral smear with hypochromia, distoed red cells, and basophilic stippling.Causes:- Hereditary or congenital: X-linked or autosomal recessive- Acquired sideroblastic anemiaIdiopathic refractory sideroblastic anemiaSecondary to: neoplasm (Di Guglielmo's disease erythroleukemia), inflammatory, hematologic, metabolic diseases.Associated with drugs or toxins: (1) Alcohol. (2) Lead. (3) Chloramphenicol. (4) Anti TB meds: INH. (5) Anti neoplastic alkylating agents as cytophosphamide.ThalassemiaInherited anemias characterized by defects in the synthesis of one or more globin chain subunits of the adult hemoglobin tetramer (Hb A).This leads to deficient hemoglobin accumulation, resulting in hypochromic and microcytic red cells and ineffective erythropoiesis and hemolytic anemia.Signs and symptoms: Thalassemia trait has no signs or symptoms.-- Pallor, Poor growth, Inadequate food intake, Fatigue, Shoness of breath, Splenomegaly, Jaundice, Maxillary hyperplasia, Dental malocclusion, Cholelithiasis, Pathologic fracturesLaboratory: In the presence of normal iron status, Increased levels of Hb A2 (to 4 to 6%) and/or increased Hb F (to 5 to 20%) by quantitative hemoglobin analysis suppos the diagnosis.Unfounately, differentiation between iron deficiency anemia and beta- or alpha-thalassemia trait can be difficult in practice if no reciprocal increases in Hb A2 levels and/or Hb F are present.- The distinction between alpha- and beta-thalassemia depends on the measurement of the minor hemoglobins Hgb A2 and Hgb F.- If these are normal, the diagnosis of alpha-thalassemia is most likely.Hemoglobin electrophoresis:- Elevated Hb A2 levels in beta-thalassemia trait- Elevated Hb A2, elevated Hb F, reduced or absent Hb Al in beta-thalassemia major or intermedia Peripheral blood:- Pronounced microcytosis,- Anisocytosis,- Poikilocytosis,- Hypochromia,- Punctate basophilic stippling,- High percentage of target cells, nucleated RBC,- Reticulocyte count elevatedHematocrit:- 28-40% in alpha-thalassemia trait and beta-thalassemia trait- May fall to less than 10% in beta-thalassemia majorFanconi anemia (FA)It is a genetic disease with an incidence of 1 per 350,000 bihsFA is the result of a genetic defect in a cluster of proteins responsible for DNA repair.As a result, the majority of FA patients develop cancer, most often acute myelogenous leukemia, and 90% develop bone marrow failure by age 40.Clinically, hematological abnormalities are the most serious symptoms in FA.While at bih, blood count is usually normal, macrocytosis/megaloblastic anemia is the first detected abnormality, often within the first decade of life (median age of onset is 7 years).Within the next 10 years, over 50% of patients presenting haematological abnormalities will have developed pancytopenia.Most commonly, a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) precedes a low neutrophil count (neutropenia) | 157,685 | medmcqa_train |
Gonococcus resistant structure is | B i.e. Testis | 157,686 | medmcqa_train |
In a patient who underwent post molar evacuation by dilatation and curettage. Which of the following test used to define successful removal of H. Mole : | Ans-A Beta HCGMONITORING* After suction Evacuation: We send weekly serum b-HCG. Till they Become Normal.Avg. time for HCG to Came Back to Normal* After a complete Mole - 9 weeks* After a partial Mole - 7 weeks* After a Molar - 9 weeks* Once HCG is Normal* We send HCG values Monthly x6 months | 157,687 | medmcqa_train |
Injury from application of fluid above 60 or from steam is called | Scalds A scald is an injury from the application of fluid above 60 or from steam. Because of the cooling of the liquid due to evaporation, the lesion due to scald is not very deep. However the latent heat of the viscid fluid is high and hence, the penetration capacity of heat of such liquids is more. Thus an injury caused by hot tar, syrup, oil, etc is comparatively deeper than that caused by hot water. Ref: TEXTBOOK OF FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY KRISHNAN VIJ FIFTH EDITION PAGE 169 | 157,688 | medmcqa_train |
Prerequisite for applying forceps are all except:September 2007 | Ans. C: Saggital suture should be in line with transverse diameter of pelvisConditions to be fulfilled prior to forceps operation:The fetal head must be engagedCervix must be fully dilatedMembranes must be rupturedThe position and station of the fetal head must be knownNo major CPDAdequate analgesiaBladder must be emptied. | 157,689 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is not used as a tumor marker in testicular tumours ? | Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) describes a set of highly related glycoproteins involved in cell adhesion. CEA is normally produced in gastrointestinal tissue during fetal development, but the production stops before bih. Therefore, CEA is usually present only at very low levels in the blood of healthy adults. However, the serum levels are raised in some types of cancer, which means that it can be used as a tumor marker in clinical tests. Serum levels can also be elevated in heavy smokers. CEA are glycosyl phosphatidyl inositol (GPI) cell-surface-anchored glycoproteins whose specialized sialofucosylated glycoforms serve as functional colon carcinoma L-selectin and E-selectin ligands, which may be critical to the metastatic dissemination of colon carcinoma cells. Immunologically they are characterized as members of the CD66 cluster of differentiation. The proteins include CD66a, CD66b, CD66c, CD66d, CD66e | 157,690 | medmcqa_train |
MRP2 transpoer defect leads to development of? | MRP2 defect: Multidrug resistance-associated protein 2 (MRP2), an ATP-dependent canalicular membrane transpoer. It is defective in Dubin Johnson syndrome. This protein is encoded by gene known as ABCC2 Gene which is mutated. Dubin Johnson syndrome- It is an autosomal recessive disorder occurs due to defect in MRP-2 protein. kernicterus is absent , with liver biopsy showing black pigmentation. Mild jaundice is seen with normal bile acids level. | 157,691 | medmcqa_train |
Dematome of middle finger: | For thumb C6 For index and middle finger C7 For ring and little finger C8 | 157,692 | medmcqa_train |
Insulin resistance state causing hyperglycemia is present in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acromegaly o Endocrinopathies associated with hvperglvcia and insulin resistance state are:# Acromegaly# Cushing syndrome# Hyperthyroidism# Pheochromocytoma# Glucagonoma | 157,693 | medmcqa_train |
After 3rd stage of labour and expulsion of placenta, patient is bleeding heavily. Ideal management would include all except: March 2005 | Ans. C: APGAR Scoring APGAR scoring is done for the assessment of newborn and has nothing to be done with control of uterine bleed. The underlying principle in active management of the third stage is to excite powerful contractions following bih of the anterior shoulder by parenteral oxytocirV ergometrine/ uterine massage which facilitates not only early separation of the placenta but produces effective uterine contractions following its separation. | 157,694 | medmcqa_train |
A 77-year-old woman presents with headaches and difficulty walking. She has an unbalanced gait and falls easily, especially when trying to walk upstairs. The tone is normal and there are no cerebellar findings. A CT scan reveals enlarged ventricles.For the above patient with neurologic symptoms, select the most likely structural pathology. | Adults may develop hydrocephalus as a result of occlusion of CSF pathways by tumors in the third ventricle, brain stem, or posterior fossa. In adults, the symptoms of obstructive hydrocephalus include headache, lethargy, malaise, incoordination, and weakness. Seizures do not usually occur. Dementia, altered consciousness, ocular nerve palsies, papilledema, ataxia, or corticospinal tract signs maybe present. | 157,695 | medmcqa_train |
What is the most common problem following surgical treament of pterygium? | Recurrence of the pterygium after surgical excision is the most comon problem after pterigium excision and is seen in 30-50 % of the cases. Reference : AK Khurana 7th edition page.89 | 157,696 | medmcqa_train |
Ghon's focus reflects: September 2005 | Ans. B: Primary complex Only a very small percent of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB) infections result in disease, and even a smaller percentage of MTB infections progress to an advanced stage. The bacilli is engulfed by alveolar macrophages multiply and give rise to a subpleural focus of tuberculous pneumonia, commonly located in the lower lobe or the lower pa of the upper lobe.This is known as Ghon focus. The Ghon focus together with the enlarged hilar lymph node constitutes the primary complex. Small metastatic foci containing low numbers of MTB may also calcify. However, in many cases these foci will contain ble organisms. These foci are referred to Simon foci. The Simon foci are also visible upon chest X-ray and are often the site of disease reactivation. | 157,697 | medmcqa_train |
A child suffering from asthma is to be treated with a drug that blocks the synthesis of leukotrienes. What drug would be an appropriate choice | zileuton mech of action:- It is a 5-LOX(lipoxygenase) inhibitor, blocks LTC4/D4 as well as LTB4 synthesis. It therefore has the potential to prevent all LT induced responses including those exeed by activation of cysLT1 receptor. Duration of action of zileuton is sho. side effects:- Hepatotoxicity | 157,698 | medmcqa_train |
Lactose fermentation is seen in - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., MacConkey agar o Culture on differential media that contain special dyes and carbohydrates distinguishes lactose-fermenting (colored) from non-lactose-fermenting (non-pigmented) colonies and may allow rapid presumptive identification of enteric bacteria.o Such media, used to see lactose fermentation, are :-Eosine-methylene blue (EMB)MacConkey's agarDeoxycholate agar | 157,699 | medmcqa_train |
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