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Pathology in Marfan syndrome ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fibrillin I o Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant disorder due to mutation in fibrillin-1 gene on chromosomal 15.Fibrillin-1 is a part of elastic fibres, thus defect in fibrillin-1 affects following systems:-1) Skeletal abnormalities: Tall with thin built; arachnodactyly (long and slender fingers and hand, spider like); decrease in upper segment: Lower segment body ratio (i.e. lower limbs are proportionately more lengthened); scoliosis and kyphosis; pectus excavatum and pectus craniatum; Hypermobility (laxity) of joint with hyperextensibly; high arched palate and dolicocephalic skull.2) CVS abnormalities : Mitral valve prolapse causing mitral regurgitation; aortic aneurysm begning at base of aorta and involving ascending aorta; cystic medial necrosis causing dissection of aorta (most common cause of death).3) Ocular abnormalities: Ectopia lends (with bilateral superolateral lens dislocation), elongated eyeball.4) Others: Spontaneous pneumothorax ; inguinal and incisional hernias. | 157,500 | medmcqa_train |
Atropine causes: | Ans: b (Tachycardia) Ref: KDT, 6th ed, p. 107The most prominent action of atropine on heart is tachycardia due to the blockade of M receptors on the S A node through which vagal tone decreases heart rate.Other effects of atropine are:CNS: Overall stimulant action,rise in body temperature due to action on hypothalamusCVS: Tachycardia, no marked effect on BPGIT: Decreases intestinal motility by GI smooth muscle relaxationRESP: Bronchodilatation and reduced airway resistanceURINARY: Relaxes bladder and causes urinary retentionEYE: Local anesthetic action on cornea. Mydriasis, Cycloplegia, Abolition of light refelexGLANDS: Decreases lacrimation, Sweating, Salivation by M blockade | 157,501 | medmcqa_train |
A biopsy of the antrum of the stomach of an adult who presents with epigastric pain reveals numerous lymphocytes and plasma cells within the lamina propria, which is of normal thickness. There are also scattered neutrophils within the glandular epithelial cells. A Steiner silver stain from this specimen is positive for a small, curved organism, which is consistent with | Chronic gastritis is histologically characterized by the presence of lymphocytes and plasma cells. It is impoant to realize that the presence of neutrophils within the glandular epithelium indicates active inflammation and may be the main type of inflammation present (acute gastritis), or may be combined with more numerous chronic inflammations (active chronic gastritis). Chronic gastritis is divided into subgroups based either on etiology (immunologic or infectious), location (antrum or body), histopathology, or clinical features. H. pylori gastritis is associated with infection by H. pylori, a small, curved, gram-negative rod that is found in approximately 20% of the general population. The organisms are found in the mucus overlying the surface/foveolar epithelium. These changes tend to affect primarily the antral or antral-body-fundic mucosa. This is the type of gastritis normally associated with active chronic gastritis. The therapy for Helicobacter is either triple therapy (metronidazole, bismuth salicylate, and either amoxicillin or tetracycline) or double therapy (omeprazole and clarithromycin). In contrast, autoimmune gastritis, also known as diffuse corporal atrophic gastritis or type A atrophic gastritis, is characterized by the presence of autoimmune antibodies including parietal cell antibodies and intrinsic factor antibodies. This type of gastritis is associated with pernicious anemia and achlorhydria. Pernicious anemia is the result of decreased intrinsic factor, which in turn produces a vitamin B12 deficiency. This vitamin deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia and subacute combined disease of the spinal cord. Histologically there is diffuse atrophy (reduced mucosal thickness), gland loss, widespread intestinal metaplasia, and variable chronic and acute inflammation. These changes are found predominately in the body-fundus mucosa (usually absent in the antrum). There is an increased risk for gastric cancer, but these patients do not develop peptic ulcers. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | 157,502 | medmcqa_train |
During moderately intense isotonic exercise all of the following increase except: | In mild-to-moderate exercise: There is increase in sympathetic drive. This results in an increase in stroke volume and hea rate, resulting in an increase in cardiac output; increased respiratory drive; dilation of vessels in the active muscles. This is due to a "muscle chemoreflex" because of metabolites from muscles e.g. K+, adenosine, NO. Diastolic BP (indicator of total peripheral resistance) either remains unchanged or decreases to some extent. The mean aerial pressure increases. Increase in ventilatory ratethat matches the increase in O2consumption and CO2production by the body. The stimulus for increased ventilation rate is due toactivation of joint proprioceptors at the beginning of the exercise. | 157,503 | medmcqa_train |
A 62-year-old woman eats a high carbohydrate meal. Her plasma glucose concentration rises, and this results in increased insulin secretion from the pancreatic islet cells. The insulin response is an example of | Negative feedback mechanisms ensure a proper level of hormone activity at the target tissue. After a stimulus (plasma glucose) causes a release of the hormone (insulin), conditions or products resulting from the action of the hormone (decrease sugar) tend to suppress its fuher release. In other words, the hormone (or one of its products) has a negative feedback effect to prevent oversecretion of the hormone or overactivity at thetarget tissueThe increase in plasma insulin lowers the plasma glucose concentration which in turn results in decreased insulin secretion | 157,504 | medmcqa_train |
Killing of a 6 months old child by parents is known as ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Infanticide Infanticide refers to killing a child after delivery, to till 1 year after bih. Infanticide in India is considered equivalent tomurder and is tried under section 302 IPC. Law considers every child as born dead and therefore in a case of infanticide,it has to be proved that the child was born alive and was then killed. Thus the first question in the investigation of a case of infanticide is, whether the child was still born or dead born or whether it was born live. | 157,505 | medmcqa_train |
Painful arc syndrome which movement is painful:- | * Painful arc syndrome is subacute tendinitis of the rotator cuff tendons due to vascular congestion.* Treatment is usually rest +physiotherapy + NSAIDS. If not treated, local steroids and surgery can be done.* Pain is aggravated as arm transverses an arc between 60 and 120 degrees. | 157,506 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of stridor in children is: | (Laryngomalacia) (272-D)Laryngomalacia - (congenital laryngeal stridor)* It is the most common condition causing an inspiratory stridor at or shortly after birth.* It may persist throughout infancy & disappears by 2 years of age* Stridor increased on crying but subsides on placing the child in prone position, cry is normal.* Foreign bodies in the larynx are uncommon because they are either coughed out or causes fatal obstruction within a few minutes. If helps is not to hand. | 157,507 | medmcqa_train |
Retinoblastoma can occur bilaterally in how many percentage of the cases? | 25-30% bilateral involvement . Seen in childrens between 1-2 yrs of age. Ref : ak khurana 6th edition | 157,508 | medmcqa_train |
Education criteria for mental retardation is ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mild | 157,509 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is naturally occurring tertiary amine and lipid-soluble reversible anticholinesterases: | All other reversible anticholinesterases are synthetic quaternary compounds and are lipid insoluble. | 157,510 | medmcqa_train |
Funicular hernia is type of: | Types of Indirect Inguinal Hernia - 1. Bubonocele - Hernia is limited to the inguinal canal 2. Funicular - Processus vaginalis is closed just above epididymis. Contents of the sac can be felt separately from testis, which lies below the hernia. 3. Complete or scrotal - Testis appears to lie within the lower pa of hernia. | 157,511 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about amoebic liver abscess | Larval forms of E.histolytica are not seen in the abscess | 157,512 | medmcqa_train |
Translocation seen in Follicular lymphoma | MalignancyTranslocationAcute myeloid leukemia (AML)(8;21)(q22;q22)(15;17)(q22;q21)Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)(9;22)(q34;q11)Burkitt lymphoma(8;14)(q24;q32)Mantle cell lymphoma(11;14)(q13;q32)Follicular lymphoma(14;18)(q32;q21)Ewing sarcoma(11;22)(q24;q12)Prostatic adenocarcinoma(7:21)(p22;q22)(17:21)(p21;q22)Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 7; Neoplasia; Page no:317; Table: 7-8 | 157,513 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of Bronchiolitis is ? | <a href=" syncytial virus (RSV)</a> is the most common cause of bronchiolitis. Sometimes, the common also can cause it. Bronchiolitis is one of the common serious acute lower respiratory tract infection in infants. Affected infants are between ages of 1 and 6 months but the disease can affect children upto 2 years old.Disease usually occur in winter and spring .Respiratory syncytial virus is implicated in most cases.other causative agents include parainfluenza virus,influenza virus,adeno virus,Mycoplasma. protection against RSV is mediated by antibodies of IgG3 subclass. Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI,PG NO:356,7th edition | 157,514 | medmcqa_train |
Cholinomimetics are useful in all of the following conditions EXCEPT | cholinomimetics use- 1.as miotic- in glaucoma/to reverse the effect of mydriatics after refraction testing/to prevent adhesions between lens and iris or cornea 2.in myasthenia gravis 3.in postoperative paralytic ileus 4.post operative decurarization 5.in cobra bite 6.in belladonna poisoning 8.in Alzheimer's disease REF: ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY: KD TRIPATHI:7TH EDITION; PAGE NO 109 | 157,515 | medmcqa_train |
Gene mutations in Cystic fibrosis occurs at - | In cystic fibrosis, CFTR gene mutation occurs on the long arm of chromosome 7 Reference: Ghai essential pediatrics, 9 th edition, page 392 | 157,516 | medmcqa_train |
Paget's disease of the breast, true is | Pagets disease of nipple is a superficial manifestation of intraductal carcinoma.It mimics eczema of nipple and areola. There is a hard lump just beneath the areola which later ulcerates and cause destruction of nipple.. Its unilateral condition ,seen in menopausal women not associated with itching. | 157,517 | medmcqa_train |
Ketamine is useful as an anesthetic agent in- | (Refer: Morgan and Mikhail’s Clinical Anaesthesiology, 5th edition, pg no. 182 – 184)
Ketamine is a potent bronchodilator and relieves bronchospasm →Intravenous anaesthetic agent of choice in asthmatic
Ketamine increases ICT, IOP and cardiac oxygen demand, therefore contraindicated in other three conditions
Note-Inhalation anaesthetic agent of choice in asthmatics is halothane. | 157,518 | medmcqa_train |
What is true about Meniere&;s disease | Electrocochleography shows changes diagnostic of Meniere's disease. Normally the ratio of summating potential to action potential is 30%. In Meniere's disease, this ratio is greater than 30%. Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE and THROAT by PL Dhingra; 7th Edition; page no.113 | 157,519 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is antitubercular drugs bus assoasiated with hypothyroidism | Refer KDT 7th/771 Ethionamide PAS They are two antitubercular drugs assoasiated with hypothyroidism and goitre | 157,520 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest presentation of primary biliary cirrhosis? | Ans is 'a' i.e., Pruritus Harrison writes "Most patients with Primary biliary cirrhosis are asymptomatic, and the disease is initially detected on the basis of elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels during routine screening. Often the earliest symptom is pruritus, which may be either generalized or limited initially to the palms and soles. In addition fatigue is commonly a prominent early symptom. After several months or years, jaundice and gradual darkening of the exposed areas of the skin (melanosis) may ensue." | 157,521 | medmcqa_train |
What is the recommended isolation period of Hepatitis A from the initial onset of symptoms? | Isolation period of Hepatitis A is first 14 days of illness and for at least 7 days after jaundice show up. Incubation period of Hepatitis A is 10-50 days, commonly about 30-35 days. | 157,522 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following contraceptives provides complete protection against sexually transmitted disease: March 2013 (b, g) | Ans. B i.e. Barrier method Barrier methods They block sperm from entering the uterus. The following are barrier methods of contraception: - Condom - Female condom - Cervical cap (including Lea's Shield) - Diaphragm The male (and female) condom provides excellent protection against sexually transmitted infections. | 157,523 | medmcqa_train |
True about conn&;s syndrome- | Ans is option 2 and 3 Decrease K+ and proximal myopathy In Conn&;s disease Proximal myopathy occurs due to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes alteration of electrical excitability of nerve and muscle fibre membranes, which prevents transmission of normal action potential, leading to severe muscle weakness. Ref Harrison 17/e p 2260,2261,2253 | 157,524 | medmcqa_train |
Culture mediam for corynebacterium diphtheria? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Loefflers serum slope | 157,525 | medmcqa_train |
Fetal growth restriction is defined as estimated fetal weight is below the ------ for their Gestational age | IUGR is replaced by fetal growth restriction, which was designed to identify fetuses with estimated weight below the 10th percentile for their gestational ages.Reference: Practical guide to High-risk pregnancy and delivery; Chapter 4; Fetal growth restriction | 157,526 | medmcqa_train |
Sporulation is seen in which phase of bacterial growth phase? | Ref: Ananthanarayan, 8thed. pg. 24Features of Stationary Phase1. Viable count of cells remain stationary as an equilibrium exists between dying cells and newly formed cells2. Cells are viable and show irregular staining due to intracellular storage granules3. Sporulation occurs at this stage4. Production of antibiotics and exotoxins is also seen at this stage. | 157,527 | medmcqa_train |
One of the following is the most specific cardiac anomaly of a newborn to a diabetic mother: | Congenital malformation in fetus of a diabetic mother : * M/C system involved in congenital malformation CVS > CNS * Most specific structural anomaly seen - caudal regression syndrome ( sacral agenesis ) * Most specific cardiac anomaly seen in babes of diabetic mother - TGV | 157,528 | medmcqa_train |
Neuronal degeneration is seen in all of the following except | Neurapraxia is a disorder of the peripheral nervous system in which there is a temporary loss of motor and sensory function due to blockage of nerve conduction, usually lasting an average of six to eight weeks before full recovery. This condition is typically caused by a blunt neural injury due to external blows or shock-like injuries to muscle fibers and skeletal nerve fibers, which leads to repeated or prolonged pressure buildup on the nerve. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:74,75 | 157,529 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is the best diagnostic method for finding out ovulation? | The finding of secretory endometrium confirms ovulation. The use of an endometrial biopsy (EMB) near the end of the luteal phase can provide reassurance of an adequate maturational effect on the endometrial lining. Within 48 hours of ovulation, the cervical mucus changes under the influence of progesterone to become thick, tacky, and cellular, with loss of the crystalline fernlike pattern on drying. Ref: Ghadir S., Ambasumyan G., DeCherney A.H. (2013). Chapter 53. Infeility. In A.H. DeCherney, L. Nathan, N. Laufer, A.S. Roman (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Obstetrics & Gynecology, 11e. | 157,530 | medmcqa_train |
1st urge at micturition comes at - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 150 ml "First urge to void is felt at a bladder volume of about 150 ml, and a marked seme offullness at about 400 ml".- Ganong | 157,531 | medmcqa_train |
During physical examination of a patient with history of TIA, it is found that the ankle jerk reflex is absent. Which of the following nerves is responsible for the reflex arc?, | The ankle jerk reflex, elicited by tapping the tendo Achilles with the reflex hammer, is mediated by Tibial nerve. The superficial fibular (peroneal) nerve supplies the foot eveor muscles of the lateral compament of the leg and provides sensory supply for the dorsum of the foot. The deep fibular (peroneal) nerve innervates the foot extensor and inveor muscles in the anterior compament of the leg and supplies skin between the first and second toes. The common fibular (peroneal) nerve combines the functions of the superficial and deep branches. | 157,532 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the predominant immunoglobulin isotype secreted in the human MALT? | Ans. (d)The vast majority of the antibody generated in the human MALT (Mucosal Associated Lymphoid Tissues) is of the IgA isotype. IgE, IgG and IgM are present, but at far lower levels, and IgD is essentially absent. | 157,533 | medmcqa_train |
Abdominal Aorta Bifurcates at the level of | Abdominal Aorta Bifurcates at the Lower border of L4 | 157,534 | medmcqa_train |
For post-exposure prophylaxis, dose of human rabies immunoglobulin is: | Human rabies immune globulin (HRIG): 20 IU/kg, maximum injected locally, rest IM in gluteal region. It is indicated in only in category III bites. Equine rabies immunoglobulin (ERIG)- It is given at dose of 40 IU/kg . Being heterologous in origin (horse), it is associated with serum sickness; hence not in use. | 157,535 | medmcqa_train |
Prader willi syndrome and Angel man syndrome are examples of | Genomic imprinting is a proces of epigenetic modification of nucleotides in which only one allele of specific gene is functioning, while the other allele is silenced based on the parent of origin. | 157,536 | medmcqa_train |
Which pa of the ear has origin from all the three layers of germ layer: | The eardrum forms from the joining of the expanding first pharyngeal pouch and groove.Around day 30 of gestation, the endoderm-lined first expands to form the tympanic cavity, which subsequently envelops the inner ear ossicles.Simultaneously, the first pharyngeal groove, which is lined with ectoderm, expands to form the developing external auditory meatus.Separated by a thin layer of splanchnic mesoderm, the tympanic cavity and external auditory meatus join to form the tympanic membrane.As a result, the tympanic membrane is derived from all three germ layers. | 157,537 | medmcqa_train |
Consider the following 1* Malnutrition deficiency 2. Lithostatin (pancreatic stone protein 3. Cassava tuber Oxidant stress (heightened cytochrome P-450 activity) Which of the above produce tropical calcific pancreatitis (fibrocalculous pancreatic diabetes) ? | Calcification, which is another sign of chronic inflammation, can develop throughout the pancreas. These calcifications are like stones that are within the tissue itself, or within the pancreatic duct Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 765 | 157,538 | medmcqa_train |
A diagnosed case of psoriasis, taking MTX since last 15 yrs presents with jaundice and abnormal LFT. So, what will be the course of management: | Methotrexate is hepatotoxic drug- Therefore, abnormal liver function test & jaundice (in history)- Next step- stop Mtx- Therefore, B is ruled out 3 systemic drugs used in psoriasis1. Mtx (Teratogenic, hepatotoxic)2. Cyclosporine (nephrotoxic)-3H( HTN, Hyperiglyceridemia , Hyperichosis)3. Acitretin- teratogenic, dyslipidemia. In psoriasis systemic steroids are C/I Dapsone have no role. | 157,539 | medmcqa_train |
A 35 year old is given excessive intravenous Benzodiazepine.She suddenly becomes agitated, combative, and exhibits involuntary movements. The anesthesiologist determines that she is having a reaction to the drug which has been given in excess. Next step would be adminstration of: | Flumazenil | 157,540 | medmcqa_train |
Malignant pustule is seen in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cutaneous anthrax [Ref: Anantnarayan 8/ep 245\Anthrax is primarily a disease of the domestic animals.Humans are usually accidental hosts when brought into contact with infected animalsThe most common form of anthrax is cutaneous anthrax which is usually occurred via injured skin or musous membraneCutaneous anthraxCutaneous anthrax usually begins 2-5 days after inoculation of spores into an exposed part of the body typically the forearm or the hand.The initial lesion is an erythematous papule which may be mistaken for insect bite. This papule usually progresses through vesicular and ulcerative stages in 7-10 days to form a black eschar surrounded by edema The lesion is known as "malignant pustule" although it is neither malignant nor pustule. Associated symptoms are usually mild and the lesion typically heals very slowly after the eschar separates.Cutaneous anthrax generally resolves spontaneously but 10-20% of untreated patients may develop septicemia.Cutaneous anthrax generally resolves spontaneously but 10-20% of untreated patients may develop fatal septicemia or meningitis. | 157,541 | medmcqa_train |
A 35 year old captain in the army has been plagued by a painful, erosive lesion near his ear lobe since his return from operation dese storm several years ago. Punch biopsy of the leading edge of the erosion reveals macrophages distended with oval amastigotes. How was this infection acquired? | This is the history of cutaneous leishmaniasis caused by the L. tropica or L. major. The vector is sandfly (Phlebotomus sergenti or P.papatasii). This disease is also called as Delhi boil, Baghdad boil and oriental sore. Most cases of cutaneous leishmaniasis are seen in Afghanistan, Brazil, Iran, Iraq, Peru, and Saudi Arabia. | 157,542 | medmcqa_train |
Polysaccharide capsular resistance to phagocytosis is seen in | The virulence of Streptococcus pneumoniae depends on the capsular polysaccharide. The capsular polysaccharide because of its acidic and hydrophilic propeies, protects the cocci from phagocytosis. Capsulated streptococcus pneumoniae are not phagocytosed efficiently in fluid media or exudates, however, they are susceptible to surface phagocytosis, being engulfed against a firm surface, such as a fibrin clot or epithelium. The enhanced virulence of type 3 Streptococcus pneumoniae is due to an abundance of its capsular material. Non-capsulated strains are avirulent. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 226 | 157,543 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following causes death in coarctation of Aorta except – | The causes of mortality in co-arctation of aorta are :
Hypertension o Aortic dissection o Premature atherosclerosis
Rupture of aorta o Left ventricular failure o Infective endocarditis
Cerebral haemorrhage (due to aneurysm rupture) | 157,544 | medmcqa_train |
Tensors of vocal cord are | Intrinsic muscles acting on vocal cords: Abductors: Posterior cricoarytenoid Adductors: Lateral cricoarytenoid, lnterarytenoid (transverse arytenoid) Thyroarytenoid (external pa) Tensors: Cricothyroid, Vocalis (internal pa of thyroarytenoid) Intrinsic muscles acting on laryngeal inlet: Openers of laryngeal inlet: Thyroepiglottic (pa of thyroarytenoid) Closers of laryingeal inlet: Interarytenoid (oblique pa), Aryepiglottic (posterior oblique pa of interarytenoids) | 157,545 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are useful in the intravenous therapy for hypertensive emergencies except | Ans. (D) Nifedipine(Ref: Katzung 10/e p145, 179: KDT 8th/e p618, 619)Nifedipine can be used rarely for the rapid control of blood pressure but the route of administration is sublingual. Fenoldopam is a D1 agonist used i.v. for hypertensive emergencies whereas urapidil is an a blocker. Enalaprilat (not enalparil) can also be used for the same indication. | 157,546 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly multiparous woman with intrauterine foetal death was admitted with strong labour pains. The patient suddenly goes in shock with cyanosis respiratory disturbances and pulmonary oedema. The most likely clinical diagnosis is : | Amniotic fluid embolism | 157,547 | medmcqa_train |
Technique used for Aspiration of sperm directly from Testes for In-vitro feilization is: | Testicular sperm aspiration (TESA) is a procedure sample of sperm cells are removed from the testicle through a small needle attached to a syringe. Other methods used are PESA: Percutaneous Epididymal Sperm Aspiration both TESA and PESA can be done under LA. MESA: Microsurgical Epididymal Sperm Aspiration TESE: Testicular Sperm Extraction MESA is the best technique for getting useable sperms since the epididymal sperms are the 'Ready'sperms which are ejaculated with the sexual act MESA allows for diagnosis and possible reconstruction of ductal pathology and because it usually yields very large numbers of sperm, sperm cryopreservation and avoidance of repeat surgery may be possible ICSI: Intracytoplasmic sperm injection GIFT: Gamete intra fallopian tube transfer IVF: In vitro feilisation | 157,548 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 year old female patient history of 6 months, altered sensorium, involuntary rnovements,memory deficit, headache convulsions, abnormal movements, forgetfulness, 4 attack during day, 2 attack at night. CT normal : | Epilepsy It is a case of epilepsyTwo features our the diagnosis of epilepsy:-Presence of altered sensoriumOccurrence of epilep.sy during sleepDissociation disorders may resemble epilepsy, especially complex paial seizure.Dissociative disorders are a group of psychiatric syndromes characterized by disruptions of aspect of consciousness, identity, memory, motor behaviour or environmental awareness.They may resemble epilepsy in presentation but an impoant feature of these disorders is that the patient is always ale and oriented.Two impoant ways to rule out organic epilepsy from psychogenic epilepsy are:-i) Abnormality in E.E.G.- Generalized tonic clonic seizures always produce marked E.E.G. abnormalities during and after the seizure.ii) Increase in prolactin secretion- Measurement of serum prolactin levels may also help to distinguish between organic and psychogenic seizures, since most generalized seizures and many complex seizures are accompanied by rise in serum prolactin.Amnesia can occur in ceain epilepsies (complex paial seizures)Complex paial seizures are characterized by foal seizure activity accompanied by a transient impairment of the patient's ability to maintain normal contact with the environment (altered sensorium)The patient is unable to respond appropriately to visual or verbal commands during the seizure and has impaired recollection or awareness of the ictal phase.Examination immediately following the seizure may show an anterograde amnesia (memory deficits) or in cases involving the dominant hemisphere, a postictal aphasia.Other two options can be easily rule outSomatization disorderIn these cases patient will compain of number of symptoms involving multiple organ .system of the body.Hypochondriasis In lzypochondriasis patient complains that he has some serious ailment and he consults many dotors. | 157,549 | medmcqa_train |
Common posterior cranial fossa tumours include all of following except - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oligodendroglioma o Oligodendrogliomas are uncommon tumours of childhood, occur predominently in the cerebral coex and originate in white matter (Supratentorial). Common childhood infratentorial post fossa tumors 1) Cerebellar astrocytoma (cystic astrocytoma) 3) Brainstem glioma 2) Medulloblastoma (Primitive neuroectodermal tumor) 4) Ependymoma | 157,550 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a complication of Total Parenteral Nutrition | .catheter related complication infections hydrothorax,pneumothorax,hemothorax cardiac tamponade injuriesto aeries and veins thrombotic complication air embolism metabolic complication azotemia essential fatty acid def fluid overload metabolic bone disease liver dysfunction glucose imbalance electrolyte imbalance trace elements and vitamin def | 157,551 | medmcqa_train |
H1 antihistaminics afford benefit in a number of conditions. All of the following conditions are benefited by antagonism of histamine : | In common cold , excessive secretions (like rhinorrhoea) are due to cholinergic overactivity. First generation antihistaminics possess anticholinergic propey and therefore are effective for common cold. On the other hand, all other conditions are allergic and reare benefited by antagonism of H1 receptors. | 157,552 | medmcqa_train |
Cardiac output during pregnancy is maximal at : | 32nd week | 157,553 | medmcqa_train |
A 58-year-old woman had a mitral valve replacement, and was placed on anticoagulants and prophylactic antibiotics following her surgery. Five days after her surgery, she developed a sharply demarcated, erythematous rash on her left thigh. Two days after the rash appeared, large hemorrhagic bullae began to form in the area of the rash. Which of the following medications most likely caused the patient's rash? | Warfarin is a coumarin anticoagulant used for the prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic complications associated with cardiac valve replacement and atrial fibrillation, as well as the prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Warfarin may cause necrosis of the skin (typically on the breasts, thighs, and buttocks) generally between the third and tenth days of therapy. The lesions are initially sharply demarcated, erythematous, and purpuric. They may resolve or progress to large, irregular, hemorrhagic bullae that can eventually lead to necrosis. The mechanism for this reaction is related to warfarin's ability to deplete protein C, which can lead to a state of hypercoagulability and thrombosis in the cutaneous microvasculature. Aspirin is commonly used for its antiplatelet effect; however, it would not be indicated for anticoagulation of a patient with a recent cardiac valve replacement. Fuhermore, aspirin is not associated with the development of this type of skin necrosis. Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin antibiotic commonly used as a perioperative prophylactic agent. If the patient was allergic to this antibiotic, an erythematous rash might have appeared. However, the rash would not lead to the appearance of large, hemorrhagic bullae. Heparin is an intravenous anticoagulant indicated for the prophylaxis and treatment of thromboembolic complications associated with cardiac valve replacement and atrial fibrillation. It is also indicated for the prophylaxis and treatment of venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and for treatment of some coagulopathies. Although heparin is associated with the development of thrombocytopenia, it is not associated with skin necrosis. | 157,554 | medmcqa_train |
Bias can be eliminated by all except: | Ans. d. Multivariate analysis (Ref: Park 23/e p73, 83, 21/e p68-70, 78-79, 84; en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bias_(statistics); style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0">Multivariate analysis refers to the analysis of two or more dependent variables at a time. It is done after the study has been conducted, to analyze the study. While matching, binding and randomization all are done when the study is being conducted. (AIIMS November 2010 Repeat)."Confounding factors are an important source of bias. This can be removed by matching in case-control studies.""The selection bias can be eliminated by randomization.""Interviewer's bias can be eliminated by double-blinding."Groups to be compared are differentially susceptible to the outcome of interest, even before the experimental maneuver is performed is known as selection bias. In the given question, researcher is concerned that the smokers might differ from non-smokers in their diet, exercise, etc. This concern is known as selection bias.Some important Types of Biases in Epidemiological StudiesInterviewer bias* Interviewer devotes more time of interview with cases as compared to controlsQMemory/ Recall bias* Cases are more likely to remember exposure more correctly than controlsQSelection bias (Susceptibility bias)* Groups to be compared are differentially susceptible to the outcome of interest, even before the experimental manoeuvre is performedQInformation bias (Observer or misclassification bias)* Connective type of bias in which proportion of subjects are misclassified on exposure or diseases* Occurs due to people's curiosity and confusion of goals when trying to choose a course of action* It includes reporting, recall, interviewer & attention biasQBiasBias is any 'systematic error' in an epidemiological study, occurring during data collection, compilation, analysis and interpretation0Predominantly Biases are of 3 TypesSubject biasInvestigator biasAnalyzer bias* Error introduced by study subjects.* Examples:- Hawthorne effect- Recall biasQ* Error introduced by investigator* Selection biasQ* Error introduced by analyzer Some Important Types of Biases in Epidemiological StudiesApprehension bias* Certain levels (pulse, blood pressure) may alter systematically from their usual levels when the subject is apprehensiveAttention bias (Hawthorne effect)* Study subjects may systematically alter their behaviour when they know they are being observedQBerkesonian bias (Admission rate bias)* Bias due to hospital cases and controls being systematically different from each otherQInterviewer bias* Interviewer devotes more time of interview with cases as compared to controlsQLead time bias (Zero time shift bias)* Bias of over-estimation of survival time, due to backward shift in starting point, as by screening proceduresQMemory/ Recall bias* Cases are more likely to remember exposure more correctly than controlsQNeymann Bias (Prevalence-incidence bias)* Bias due to missing of fatal cases, mild/ silent cases and cases of short duration of episodes from the studyQSelection bias (Susceptibility bias)* Groups to be compared are differentially susceptible to the outcome of interest, even before the experimental manoeuvre is performedQ Minimization of Biases in Epidemiological Studies by BlindingTypeMethodMinimizesSingle blindingStudy subjects are not aware of the treatment they are receivingSubject biasDouble blindingStudy subjects as well as investigator are not aware of thetreatment study subjects are receivingSubject bias + Investigator biasTriple blindingStudy subjects, investigator as well as analyzer are not awareof the treatment study subjects are receivingSubject bias + Investigator bias + Analyser bias | 157,555 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a cause of oropharyngeal carcinoma? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Occupational exposure to hydrochloric acid Etiology of oropharyngeal carcinoma Tobacco in any form - cigarette smoking or chewing Heavy alcohol abuse Beetle nut chewing Plummer vinson syndrome, cirrhosis Syphilis Trauma Dental irritation Poor oral hygiene Occupational exposure to isopropyl alcohol, sulphuric acid and nickel HPV infection | 157,556 | medmcqa_train |
Larva of which of the following is seen in feces | Filariform larva is the infective form of strongyloides stercoralis The rhabditiform larva migrates into the lumen of the intestine and passes down the gut to be released in faeces Ref : panikers textbook of Medical parasitology 8th edition page 182 | 157,557 | medmcqa_train |
Antibiotic potentiating the effect of NM blocker? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Aminoglycoside Impoant interactions of skeletal muscle relaxants General anaesthetics potentiate competitive blockers in the following order : Isoflurane (most), sevoflurane, desflurane, enflurane, Holothane and nitrous oxide (least). . Anticholinesterase (neostigmine, pyridostigmine & edrophonium) reverse the action of competitive blockers, they can enhance depolarizing neuromuscular blockers. Calcium channel blockers (verapamil) potentiate both competitive and depolarizing neuromuscular blockers. Diuretics produce hypokalemia which enhances competitive block. Diazepam, propranolol and quinidine intensify competitive block. Aminoglycosides, tetracycline, polypeptide antibiotics, clindamycin and lincomycin can potentiate competitive block. High doses of glucocoicoids reduce the effect of competitive blockers | 157,558 | medmcqa_train |
Dent disease is due to defect of? | Dent's disease (or Dent disease) is a rare X-linked recessive inherited condition that affects the proximal renal tubules of the kidney. It is one cause of Fanconi syndrome and is characterized by tubular proteinuria, excess calcium in the urine, the formation of calcium kidney stones, nephrocalcinosis, and chronic kidney failure. About 60% of patients have mutations in the CLCN5 gene (Dent 1), which encodes a kidney-specific chloride/proton antipoer, and 15% of patients have mutations in the OCRL1 gene (Dent 2). Dent's disease often produces the following signs and symptoms: Rickets Extreme thirst combined with dehydration Nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) Hypercalciuria (high urine calcium - >300 mg/d or >4 mg/kg per d) with normal levels blood/serum calcium) Aminoaciduria (amino acids in urine) Phosphaturia (phosphate in urine) Diagnosis is based on a genetic study of CNCL5 gene Ref: wikipedia | 157,559 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presents with low serum calcium, high phosphorus and etevated PTH. Which of the following investigations is least contributory to establish a diagnosis - | Ans is option 1.. Vit D levels Vit d deficiency is associated with hypophosphatemia and not hyperphosphatemia Renal failure, pseudohypoparathyroidism and increased urinary myoglobin may all be associated with combination of hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia and elevated PTH levels Ref Harrison 19/e p2482 | 157,560 | medmcqa_train |
Earliest phenotypic manifestation of Idiopathic hereditary hemochromatosis is- | Answer is D (Increased Transferrin Saturation) The Most Common Manifestation of Hemochromatosis is Hepatomegaly. Liver Enzymes may be normal or elevated depending on the extent of hepatocyte damage. A transferrin saturation of more than 45% is the earliest phenotypic abnormality in hereditary hematochromatosis' Transferrin saturation and measurement of unbound iron bindeng capacity are recommended fir initial scrceening of individuals Tests Recommended for screening for Hereditary Hematochromatosis Transferrin Saturation The transfrrin saturation f wore than 45% is the earliest phenotypic abnormality in hereditary hematochromatosis Transferrin saturation is considered the best initial screening test for hereditary hematochromotosis Transferrin saturation has a high sensitivity of >90% in diagnosing hereditary hematochromatosis Transferrin saturation is the ratio of serum iron to total iron binding capacity (SUTIBC) Iron binding capacity (Unbound /Unsaturated) Unbound Iron binding capacity is an alternative screening test. Unbound Iron binding capacity UIBC=TIBC-Serum Iron Unbound iron binding capacity is decreased in hematochromatosis | 157,561 | medmcqa_train |
Live vaccine is - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sabin polioLive attenuatedInactivated or killedImmunoglobulins Bacterial BOG Typhoid oral VTral Oral Polio (Sabin) Yellow fever Measles Rubella Mumps Chicken pox Influenza Rickettsial Epidemic TyphusBacterial Typhoid Cholera Pertussis Meningitis Plague Viral Rabies Injectable polio (Salk) Influenza Hepatitis AJE KFDHuman normal Hepatitis A,B Measles Rabies Tetanus Mumps Human Specific Varicella Diptheria Non-Human (antisera) Diphtheria Tetanus Gas Gangrene Botulism RabiesSubunit Vaccines Hepatitis B Typhoid Vi antigenToxoids Diphtheria TetanusBoth active & passive immunization can be given together Diphtheria Hepatitis B Tetanus Rabies | 157,562 | medmcqa_train |
Prolonged use of one of the following anticonvulsant can produce weight loss - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Topiramate o Use of topiramate is limited by its unwanted side effects paicularly weight loss, sedation and naming difficulties. Note - Other drug causing weight loss is Felbamate. | 157,563 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anti TB drugs acts on extracellular organisms and is bactericidal drug? | Streptomycin is the only anti-TB drug which acts on extracellular organisms and is bactericidal. All first line antitubercular drugs are bactericidal except ethambutol which is bacteriostatic. Impoant points about first line ATT: Drug Action Hepatotoxic Bacteria Inhibited Isoniazid CIDAL Yes Both Rifampicin CIDAL Yes Both Pyrazinamide CIDAL Yes Intracellular Ethambutol STATIC No Both Streptomycin CIDAL No Extracellular | 157,564 | medmcqa_train |
The exact pa of the antigen that reacts with the immune system is called as ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Epitope Epitope . Also known as "antigenic determinant". . It is antibody binding site of antigen. . It is the smallest unit of antigenicity. . Antigenic determinants is composed of structures on the surface of molecules and can be constructed in two ways: 1. Within a single segment of primary sequence 4. Sequential epitopes 2. Assembled from residues far apa in the primary 3. Conformational epitopes sequence but brought together on the surface by the folding of the molecule into its native conformation . The majority of antigenic structures recognized by antibodies depend on the teiary configuration of the antigen (conformational), while T cell epitopes are defined by the primary structure (sequential). Paratope . The pa of the antibody or T cell receptor that interact with the epitope. "The idiotype is defined as the specific region of the fab poion of the 1g molecules to which antigen binds". | 157,565 | medmcqa_train |
Best treatment for remission of acute ulcerative colitis is ? | GLUCOCOICOIDS Effective for inducing remission in both UC & CD. No role in maintenance in either UC or CD. Once clinical remission is achieved , they should be tapered. | 157,566 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a feature of MEN type | Ans: d (Adrenocortical adenoma)Ref: Harrison, 17 ed pg. 2359MEN I (Wermer's syndrome) is characterized by pituitary, parathyroid & pancreatic affection. Pheochromocytoma is seen in all three even though less common in MEN I MEN' I (wermer's)MEN IIA (sipple)MEN II BPi tut aryAdenomaHyperplasia ParathyroidHyperplasiaAdenomaCarcinomaHyperplasia PancreasIslet cell hyperplasia,AdenomaCarcinoma Adrenal Pheochromocy- tomaPheochrom- ocytomaThyroid Ccell hyperplasiaC-cell hyperplasia MedullarycarcinomaMedullary carcinomaMucocutan- eous ganglioneu- romaMarta noidHabitus Less commonPheochromo- cytomaForgut carcinoidSubcutaneous/ visceral lipomaDermal angiofibroma Mutant gene RETRET MEN Hirschsprung - loss of function in RET protooncogene MEN 2A - gain of function in RET protooncogene.Please don't confuse Wermer's syndrome (MEN 1) with Werner's syndrome which is adult progeria. It is a rare condition and predisposes to papillary cancer thyroid. | 157,567 | medmcqa_train |
Samters triad is seen in patients with - | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Asthma [Ref: Dhingra 5th/ep. /55jSamter's triado Samter's triad is a medical condition consisting of asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal/ethmoidal polyposis. It occurs in middle age (twenties and thirties are the most common onset times) and may not include any allergies.o Most commonly, the first symptom is rhinitis.o The disorder typically progeses to asthma, then polyposis, writh aspirin sensitivity coming last,o The aspirin reaction can be severe, including an asthma attack, anaphylaxis, and urticaria in some cases. Patients typically react to other NSA1DS such as ibuprofen, although paracetamol is generally considered safe,o Anosmia (lack of smell) is also typical, as the inflammation reaches the olfactory receptors in the nose. | 157,568 | medmcqa_train |
Besides zidovudine and lamivudine, which following drug is a reverse transcriptase inh v used in the treatment of HIV infection? | Anti-Retroviral drugs (a) Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (Nis) : Zidovudine (AZT), Didanosine, Zalcitabine*, Stavudine, Lamivudine, Abacavir (b) Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNis) : Nevirapine, Eirenz, Delavirdine* (c) Protease inhibitors : Ritonavir, Indinavir, Nelfinavir, Saquinavir, Amprenavir*, Lopinavir Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 789 | 157,569 | medmcqa_train |
Chloride responsive alkalosis, causes are- | Repeat | 157,570 | medmcqa_train |
The bone matrix has the following crystals ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Calcium hydroxyapatite Structure of bone Bone is a specialized connective tissue. o Bone components are :? Inorganic elements (65%) Organic matrix (35%) 1. Inorganic elements It is the mineral phase, principally composed of calcium and phosphate, mostly in the form of hydroxyapatite. | 157,571 | medmcqa_train |
Cabot&;s ring is seen in- | In the peripheral blood smear of megaloblastic anaemia . Cabot rings are thin, threadlike, red to violet rings or "figure 8" shaped inclusions in red blood cells. Cabot rings are remnants of the mitotic spindle, and can be seen in megaloblastic anemia, medication effect, myelodysplasia and other forms of dyserythropoiesis. reference :textbook of Pathology, 7th edition ,Author Harsha Mohan ,page number 283, figure 10.20 | 157,572 | medmcqa_train |
Not a surgical landmark for parotid surgery | surgical landmark of parotid surgery are : Tragal pointer Digastric posterior belly Styloid process tympansmastoid suture ref : hazarika 4th ed | 157,573 | medmcqa_train |
Comparison of efficacy of a new drug B with an existing drug A is done in which phase of clinical trials? | "The purpose of phase III trials is to obtain adequate data about the efficacy and safety of drugs in a larger number of patients of either sex in multiple centres usually in comparison with the standard drug." Phase I: Human Pharmacology (Non-therapeutic trials): Done in healthy persons Phase II: Therapeutic exploratory trials: conducted in patients to determine therapeutic effects, effective dose range and fuher evaluation of safety and pharmacokinetics in patients Phase III: Therapeutic confirmatory trials: Conducted to obtain adequate data about the efficacy and safety of drugs in a larger number of patients of either sex in multiple centres usually in comparison with the standard drug. Phase IV: Post marketing studies | 157,574 | medmcqa_train |
Vogt Koyanagi–Harada (VKH) syndrome is – | VKH syndrome is a multisystem disorder characterized by chronic granulomatous uveitis with exudative retinal detachment that is often associated with neurological and cutaneous manifestations. | 157,575 | medmcqa_train |
Features of hereditary spherocytosis include all of the following except : | Answer is C (MCV Ted) Mean corpuscular volume of RBC is decreased in patients with hereditary spherocytosis. Hereditary spherocytosis is characterised by defect in one of the proteins in the cytoskeleton of Red cell membrane, leading to loss of membrane, and hence decreased ratio of surface area to volume and consequently spherocytosis. Characteristic Laboratory abnormalities The mean corpuscular volume (MCV) : is decreasedQ The mean corpuscular Hb. concentration (MCHC) : is increasedQ Osmotic fragility is : increasedQ Remember the following also : * Most common membrane defect is that of Ankyrin Q * One characteristic clinical presentation is Striking splenomegaly Q * Treatment of choice is (anemia, splenomegaly, jaundice) Splenectomy Q | 157,576 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is NOT a component of the filtration slit diaphragm at the glomerulus? | The filtration barrier in the glomerulus is composed of the endothelial cells of glomerular capillaries, basement membrane that covers the endothelial cells, and foot processes of the epithelial cells surrounding the basement membrane Podocytes are separated by apparent gaps called filtration slits. Each filtration slit is bridged by a thin diaphragm. The filtration slit diaphragm is composed of several proteins, such as nephrin, podocin, a-actinin. Batin gene (also known as BSND) codes for the protein batin; this protein recruits the Cl- channel CLCNKB to the basolateral membrane in the TAL of loop of Henle. | 157,577 | medmcqa_train |
By what age does a child achieve the following developmental milestone? | Age
Milestones
4 months
6 months
9 months
10-12 months
12 months
Bidextrous grasp
Unidextrous / palmar grasp(Ulnar grasp)
Immature Pincer grasp
Palmar grasp (Radial grasp)
Mature Pincer grasp | 157,578 | medmcqa_train |
Uses of PUVA – a) Pigmented purpuric lesionb) Herpes zosterc) Mycosis fungoidesd) Lupus panniculitise) Lichenoid dermatitis of Gougerot & Blum | Indications for PUVA and UVB
Established major indications :- Psoriasis, atopic dermatitis, vitiligo, mycosis fungoides, Polymorphic light eruption, pompholyx.
Less frequently treated (less evidence of effectiveness) :- Pityriasis rosea, morphea, chronic urticaria, Pityriasis lichenoid chronica, Alopecia totalis & Universalis, Lichen plaints, Pityriasis rubra pilaris, Granuloma annulare, Generalized pruritis, Nacrobiosis lipoidics.
"Pignzented pruritic lichenoid dermatosis of Gougerot & Blum can be treated by PUVA". | 157,579 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for Bupivacaine induced cardiac arrythmia | Bretylium is a class III Antiarrythmic used to treat Bupivacaine induced ventricular tachycardia. | 157,580 | medmcqa_train |
Quod Hanc is- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Psychologic impotence | 157,581 | medmcqa_train |
Area of skin supplied by single nerve supply | A dermatome is an area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. There are eight cervical nerves (C1 being an exception with no dermatome), twelve thoracic nerves, five lumbar nerves and five sacral nerves. Each of these nerves relays sensation (including pain) from a particular region of skin to the brain. Spinal nerves not only play an important role in differentiation and motor innervation of the limb musculature, but also provide sensory innervations for the dermatomes. | 157,582 | medmcqa_train |
False statement about MODY is - | Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance, early onset of hyperglycemia (usually <25 years; sometimes in neonatal period), and impaired insulin secretion. It is non insulin requiring diabetes and can be managed by diet and sulfonylurea (paicularly HNF-1a and HNF-4a forms). Reference : page 806-7 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition | 157,583 | medmcqa_train |
Metachromatic granules are found in: | Metachromatic granules
It is a type of intracytoplasmic inclusion characteristically seen in diphtheria bacilli.
Also known as volutin or metachromatic or Babes Ernst granules.
Strongly basophilic bodies consist of polymetaphosphate.
They are reservoir of energy and phosphate.
They are most frequent in cells growing under nutritionally deficient condition.
Remember :
Metachromatic granules are also seen in B.pertussis (whooping cough). | 157,584 | medmcqa_train |
Elevation of which of the following metabolite in MR Spectroscopy suggests a possibility of carcinoma prostate? | Ans CMR Spectroscopy of Prostate - Principal among the identifiable metabolite is citrate, found in relatively high concentration in the glandular tissue of a healthy prostate. The normal MRI spectrum of the prostate reveals a prominent citrate peak, which often appears as a doublet if the shim is good enough. Other are those of creatinine and choline. Choline is a composite peak made up of phospholipid membrane components. It is elevated in many malignant tumors, including prostate cancer | 157,585 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are angiogenic factors EXCEPT - | Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 67,heading=Growth factors involved in Angiogenesis. Correct option is 3,IFN Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) stimukates both migration and proliferation of endothelial cells,thus initiating the process of capillary sprouting in angiogenesis. Placental growth factor(PIGF) involved in vessel devolopment in embryo. Transforming factor3(TGF3) is also an angiogenic factor. | 157,586 | medmcqa_train |
Not a feature of REM sleep: | Bruxism REF: GUYTON & HALL, Ganong, various internet resources. See APPENDIX-11 for "SLEEP PHYSIOLOGY" | 157,587 | medmcqa_train |
Function of larynx ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All There are three impoant functions of larynx, which are of real concerns to the clinician :? Provision of airway Larynx serves as a conduit for air and waste gases to and from lungs. Protection of airway Larynx prevents the passage of secretions of food and of other forein material into the upper respiratory tract. Phonation Larynx serves as organ of voice. | 157,588 | medmcqa_train |
Most common nerve injured in ligation of inferior thyroid aery | Recurrent laryngeal nerve may pass anterior, posterior or through the branches of the aery and care is taken to preserve it. RLN is injured near the ligament of Berry when cautery or aery forceps is used indiscriminately while cutting the ligament of Berry to free the thyroid lobe. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 382. | 157,589 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of death in Electrocution is- | Ventricular fibrillation is the usual cause of death in electrocution. | 157,590 | medmcqa_train |
With slowly advancing enamel caries and rapid involvement of dentin, the type of dentin formed is: | Sclerotic dentin
Dentin that forms in response to stimuli such as aging or mild irritation (slow advancing caries). When responding to initial caries demineralization events, crystalline material precipitates in intratubular and intertubular dentin. Sclerotic dentin walls off a lesion by blocking (sealing) the dentinal tubules. This zone can be seen even before the demineralization reaches the dentin and it may not be present in rapidly advancing lesions. Clinically, sclerotic dentin is dark and harder than normal dentin.
Sturdevant's operative dentistry 7th edition page 43 | 157,591 | medmcqa_train |
Inveor of foot is | Eversion: movement in which the lateral border of the foot is elevated so that the sole faces laterally. Inversion: movement in which the medial border of the foot is elevated so that the sole faces medially. In eversion and inversion, the entire pa of the foot below the talus moves together. Inversion is accompanied by plantar flexion of the foot and adduction of the forefoot.Eversion is accompanied by the dorsiflexion of the foot and adduction of the forefoot. JOINTS TAKING PA:-Subtalar Talocalcaneonavicular Transverse talar AXIS:- These movements takes place around an oblique axis which runs forwards, upwards and medially, passing from the back of the calcaneum, through sinus tarsi, to emerge at the superomedial aspect of the neck of the talus. The obliquity of the axis pay accounts for the adduction, abduction, plantar flexion and dorsiflexion which are associated with these movements. RANGE:-Inversion is more free than eversion The range of movements is increased in plantar flexion. MUSCLES PRODUCING MOVEMENTS:- Muscles- Main Accessory Inversion Tibialis anterior Tibialis posterior FHL FDL Eversion Peroneus longus Peroneus brevis {Reference:BDC 6E} | 157,592 | medmcqa_train |
All are TRUE about hyperparathyroidism, except- | solitary adenoma is the most common cause ( Harrison 17 pg 2380) | 157,593 | medmcqa_train |
Population attributable risk is defined as the difference between- | .population attributable risk is the incidence of the disease or death in the total population minus the incidence of disease or death among those who were not exposed to the suspected casual factor..this concept is useful in that it provides an estimate of the amount by which the disease could be reduced in that population if the suspected factor was eliminated or modified. ref:park&;s textbook,22 nd ed,pg 75 | 157,594 | medmcqa_train |
A child of 5 years can use sentences of around how many words? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 10 words * Although a child has a vocabulary of 250 words at 3 years, the child can use sentence of 10 words at 5 years.* At 18 months, the child can use 10 words with meaning.Other milestones asked in the question are achieved in children older than 18 months* Making a tower of 9 cubes - 30 months* Turn pages of book one at a time - 2 years* Ride tricycle - 3 yearsMilestones achieved at 18 months of age* Starts running (runs stiffy)* Can feed himself from a cup.* Can use 10 words with meaning.* Name pictures* Builds tower of 4 cubes.* Ready for starting toilet training.* Copies parents in task. | 157,595 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following inhibits both gastric acid secretion and motility? | G.I.P Secretion + glucose /fat in duodenum, in large doses it inhibits gastric secretion and motility V.I.P -They are inhibitory to the smooth muscles of the intestines. -It causes smooth muscle relaxation in the GIT --> decreases the motility Somatostatin: -Central mechanism of inhibition of gastric acid secretion. -No role in inhibition of gastric motility or gastric emptying Ghrelin: -Increases GH release from the pituitary. -Increases appetite by stimulating neuropeptide Y (NPY) in the feeding centers of the lateral hypothalamus. -Decreases the breakdown of fat and increases gastric motility and acid secretion. -Thus, ghrelin has effect on both gastric motility and secretion; it increases both. | 157,596 | medmcqa_train |
A 23 year old presented with fever with chills and back pain. He also complained about increased frequency of voiding. USG examination reveals that bladder stones. All of the following are true about bladder stones, EXCEPT: | Primary vesical calculi are rare in the United States but are common in Southeast Asia and the Middle East. Most bladder calculi are seen in men. In developing countries, they are frequently found in prepubescent boys. Stone analysis frequently reveals ammonium urate, uric acid, or calcium oxalate stones. A solitary bladder stone is the rule, but there are numerous stones in 25% of patients. Patients present with irritative voiding symptoms, intermittent urinary stream, urinary tract infections, hematuria, or pelvic pain. Small stones can be removed or crushed transurethrally (cystolithalopaxy). Ref: Cooper C.S., Joudi F.N., Williams R.D. (2010). Chapter 38. Urology. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | 157,597 | medmcqa_train |
Nerve most commonly injured in Mcburney's incision: | Ans. (b) Iliohypogastric NRef: Bailey and Love 26th edition, Page 1214* Most common nerve injured in McArthur grid iron incision is Iliohypogastric nerve | 157,598 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the clinical indication for using Cidofovir? | Cidofovir is a cytidine nucleotide analogue. This is a broad spectrum agent with in vitro activity against human herpesviruses, adenovirus, HPV, polyomaviruses and human poxviruses. Cidofovir is under clinical investigation for a variety of potential applications. Examples include intravenous administration of cidofovir for treatment of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy and Kaposi's sarcoma, intraocular injection for treatment of CMV retinitis, intralesional injection for treatment of respiratory papillomatosis, topical application for treatment of molluscum contagiosum, anogenital condyloma acuminata, and recurrent genital herpes, and ophthalmic instillation for treatment of viral keratoconjunctivitis. | 157,599 | medmcqa_train |
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