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The most effective intervention to reduce newborn and child deaths is? | The most effective intervention to reduce newborn and child deaths: Exclusive breastfeeding for 1st 6 months It has reduces moality by 13% | 157,000 | medmcqa_train |
In which of the following diseases decrease in levels of single neurotransmitter was first identified? | Neurons of the substantia nigra communicate with neurons of the basal ganglia by liberating the neurotransmitter dopamine (DA). In Parkinson's disease, neurons of the substantia nigra progressively degeneration; as a result, the amount of DA available for neurotransmission in the corpus striatum is lowered. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | 157,001 | medmcqa_train |
All statements about adult instussusception are true except | Most common in children Primary or secondary to intestinal pathology, e.g. polyp, Meckel's diveiculum Ileocolic is the commonest variety Can lead to an ischaemic segment Radiological reduction is indicated in most cases The remainder require surgery Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1191 | 157,002 | medmcqa_train |
A 35 year old man has eaten and completely metabolized approximately 80g of protein, 20g of fat, and 150g of carbohydrate. Approximately how much energy (in kilocalories) will be released as a result of the complete oxidation of these compounds?. | The energy released in the complete oxidation of 1 gram of carbohydrate, fat, and protein is respectively 4.1, 9.3, and 4.1 kcal. Quick calculation with approximate round values gives: 80*4+20*9+150*4=320+180+600=1100 Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 43. Nutrition, Digestion, & Absorption. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e | 157,003 | medmcqa_train |
The protozoan causing dysenteric symptoms: | Balantidium coli is a ciliate protozoan. It is the largest protozoan parasite & only ciliate infecting humans. It inhabits the large intestine of man and causes ciliate dysentery. Infective stage: binucleate cyst; spherical, ellipsoid, 50-75mm, double layered cyst wall. The invasive form is the trophozoite - 80-120mm; two nuclei (macronucleus, micronucleus), peristome, cytostome, cytopharynx, cytopyge Entamoeba coli is the comensal of human intestine usually not associated with disease. Giardia cause malabsorption and steattorhea not dysentry Trichomonas cause genital tract infection | 157,004 | medmcqa_train |
All are Neutralization tests except: | Sabin-feldman dye test for detecting Toxoplasma antibodies. Complements are used. | 157,005 | medmcqa_train |
The diffusion capacity of lung is decreased in all except | In alveolar hemorrhage like good Pasteur syndrome DLCO increases. | 157,006 | medmcqa_train |
In a case of acute attack of glaucoma Vogt\'s triad excludes – | "Glaucoma does not affect vitreous and does not cause floaters". — Clinical ophthalmology
Causes of floaters are :- Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD), retinal detachment, high myopia, bleeding or inflammation of eye.
Vogt's triad may be seen in patients with any type of post-congestive glaucoma and in treated acute congestive glaucoma. It is characterized by :- i) Glaucomflecken (anterior subcapsular cataract); ii) Patches of iris atrophy; iii) Slightly dilated non-reacting pupil (due to sphinctor atrophy).
Goniosynechia refers to adhesion of iris to the posterior surface of the cornea in the angle of anterior chamber which may occur in angle closure glaucoma (has been explained earlier).
Pigmented clump are seen in subacute stage of PACG (Parson's 21st /e 287) | 157,007 | medmcqa_train |
A 49-year-old man has had increasing knee and hip pain for the past 10 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. During the past year, he has become increasingly drowsy at work. His wife complains that he is a "world class" snorer. During the past month, he has experienced bouts of sharp, colicky, right upper abdominal pain. On physical examination, his temperature is 37degC, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 10/ min, and blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg. He is 175 cm (5 feet 8 inches) tall and weighs 156 kg (body mass index 51). Laboratory findings show glucose of 139 mg/dL, Hb A1c of 10, total cholesterol of 229 mg/dL, and HDL cholesterol of 33 mg/dL. An arterial blood gas measurement shows pH of 7.35; PCO2, 50 mm Hg; and PO2, 75 mm Hg. Which of the following additional conditions is most likely present in this man? | Morbid obesity can be associated with complications that include obesity hypoventilation syndrome, probable sleep apnea, glucose intolerance, cholelithiasis, and osteoarthritis. Macrovesicular steatosis with hepatomegaly is seen in obesity and may even progress to cirrhosis. Weight gain owing to hypothyroidism, which could occur in Hashimoto thyroiditis, is modest and does not lead to morbid obesity. An "obesity cardiomyopathy" resembles dilated cardiomyopathy, but not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which typically involves the interventricular septum with myofiber disarray. Laryngeal papillomatosis, which produces airway obstruction (without snoring), occurs more often in children and is not associated with obesity. The blood gas findings in this case could be seen in emphysema, which is not a complication of obesity; panlobular emphysema is much less common than the centrilobular emphysema associated with smoking. Rheumatoid arthritis tends to involve small joints first, and there is no relationship to obesity. | 157,008 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following promotes rouleaux formation? | When in circulation, the negative charge on the RBC membrane (or zeta potential) does not allow RBCs to clump. When blood is made to stand in a veical tube, the asymmetric macromolecules in the plasma overcome the zeta potential, so as to form the rouleaux and settling down of the RBC clumps. Fibrinogen and gamma-globulins are the examples of such asymmetric macromolecules. Plasma albumin retards the rouleaux formation. Hence, in nephrotic syndrome, in which the albumin levels fall, there is a rise in ESR. | 157,009 | medmcqa_train |
First dentin bonding agent was: | During the 1950s, it was reported that a resin containing glycerophosphoric acid dimethacrylate (GPDM) could bond to a hydrochloric acid–etched dentin surface. Another researcher had used the same monomer chemically activated with sulinic acid and that combination would later be known commercially as Sevitron Cavity Seal (Amalgamated Dental Company, London, England).
Sturdevant Operative Dentistry 7th edition page 142-143 | 157,010 | medmcqa_train |
FEV1/FVC is reduced in case of: | Ans. is 'c' Asthma. FEV/FVC is reduced in cases of obstructive lung diseases and remain normal or increase in case of restrictive lung disease.Asthma is an obstructive lung disease so FEV/FVC is reduced in it. | 157,011 | medmcqa_train |
Which intubation is preferred in case of bilateral mandibular fractures ? | Answer- B. Naso tracheal intubationTime of surgery should be carefully planned allowing reduction of tissue edema and avoiding development of malunion. Nasal intubation is the choice of intubation by surgeon, providing them with free access to operating field. Blind awake nasal intubation is safe and simple with some experience in difficult airway. | 157,012 | medmcqa_train |
A patient developed hemorrhagic blisters at the bite site following dog bite. Which is the most likely causative organism? | Ans. B. Staphylococcus aureusExplanationAmong animal bites, dog bites are most common, followed by cat bites.Approximately 15 to 20% of dog bite wounds and more than 50% of cat bite wounds become infected.For dog bite infections, Staphylococcus aureus and streptococcal species are the most commonly isolated pathogens, with Pasteurella and other organisms next in frequency.For cat bite infections, Pasteurella spp. are the most common pathogens.The zoonotic species Capnocytophaga canimorsus and C. cynodegmi are normal inhabitants of the oral cavity of dogs and cats. Zoonotic-associated infections arise via exogenous introduction of bacteria into wounds from penetrating traumas (dog bite) or by inapparent inoculation of bacilli into abraded surfaces or tissues via intimate contact with pets. | 157,013 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the parameter is decreased in Retinitis pigmentosa | * Retinitis Pigmentosa is a familial disease characterized by degeneration of photoreceptor with progressive night blindness and constriction of peripheral vision (may lead to functional blindness) * Docosahexanoic acid (DHA) comprises a small percentage (1-4%) of the total fatty acids of the membranes of most human tissues; however, it accounts for 30-40% of fatty acids in rod photoreceptor outer segments of the human retina. * Many patients with RP have lower plasma and red blood cell (RBC) lipid levels of the polyunsaturated fatty acid docosahexaenoic acid than non-affected individuals. The majority of patients with XLRP had 30-40% lower DHA levels in RBC lipids than normally sighted controls RP TRIAD:- * Includes fundus findings: Waxy pallor of the disc, aeriolar attenuation and bony corpuscular pigment clumps at the mid - peripheral retina. | 157,014 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is/are TRUE about hypospadias? 1. Defect is seen in the ventral pa 2. Always associated with chordee 3. Associated with hooded prepuce 4. Circumcision should be avoided | About option 1 Hypospadias results from failure of fusion of the urethral folds on the undersurface of the genital tubercle so defect is seen on the ventral pa. About option 2 "In the penile variety (not other type- so not always present) the urethra and corpus spongiosum distal to the ectopic opening are absent. These structures are represented by a fibrous cord. Due to contracture of this fibrous cord, the penis is curved ventrally, which is known as chordee". About option 3 "In all cases the inferior aspect of the prepuce is poorly developed. As the superior aspect of the prepuce is almost normally developed whereas the inferior aspect is poorly developed, the prepuce takes the form of a hood and is called "hooded prepuce". About option 4 "Circumcision should not be done in these patients, as prepuce can be used later in surgical repair (85% of patients)" Ref: L & B 25/e, Page 1362-63 ; CSDT 11/e, Page 1028 ; Textbook Of Surgery By S. Das 5/e, Page 1322-23 | 157,015 | medmcqa_train |
Granular deposits of IgA is seen in: | Bullous pemphigoid : Linear deposition of IgA and IgG at DEJ
Linear IgA bullous disorder : Linear deposition of IgA at DEJ
Dermatitis herpetiformis : Focal granular IgA deposits at papilary tips.
Hailey-Hailey disease : DIF : negative | 157,016 | medmcqa_train |
Most common type of human papilloma virus causing Ca cervix are: | It is now established that HPV plays a major role in cervical carcinogenesis.
Among the various genotypes (more than 100) the Genotype of HPV which is:
Most commonly associated with squamous cell carcinoma cervix - HPV 16
Most common genotype associated with adenocarcinoma of cervix - HPV 18
Overall MC genotype associated with invasive carcinoma, CIN II and CIN III - HPV 16
But HPV 16 is not very specific as it is seen in 16% of women with low grade lesion and 14% women with normal cytology so: - HPV 18
Most specific genotype of HPV for invasive tumor
The cytological changes caused by HPV are collectively called as Koilocytosis.
In most of the females HPV infection clears in 9-15 months , only in small minority it persists.
Malignant transformation requires expression of E6 and E7 HPV oncoproteins. | 157,017 | medmcqa_train |
Munro microabscess is seen in | Munro's microabscess is seen in psoriasis it is the accumulation of neutrophils in stratum corneum The changes were seen in a fully developed plaque in psoriasis: Parakeratosis with focal ohokeratosis and Munro's microabscess, near absence of granular layer and spongiform pustules in the Malpighian layer and hyperplasia and elongation of rete ridges and supra-papillary thinning. Munro microabscesses are not seen in seborrheic dermatitis. It is named for William John Munro. spngiform pustule of kogoj is seen in stratum spinosum, in pustular psoriasis. pautrier's microabscess (collection of lymphocytes) is seen in Mycosis fungoides also known as cutaneous T Cell lymphoma. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1207 | 157,018 | medmcqa_train |
D.I.C. is seen in : | Acute promyelocytic leukemia Disseminated intravascular coagulation is associated with promyelocytic leukemia Acute promyelocytic leukemia (AML-M3) constitutes 5-10% of all cases of AML The leukemic cells of these type of anemia are hypergranular. Granules of these leukemic cells (promyelocytes) contain thromboplastin like material resulting in widespread disseminated intravascular coagulation. Also know Majority of M3 cases demonstrate a reciprocal translocation involving chromosome 15 and 17, t (15 ; 17) | 157,019 | medmcqa_train |
A Patient at 22 weeks gestation is diagnosed as having lUD which occurred at 17 weeks but did not have a miscarriage. This patient Is at increased risk for: | When dead fetus is retained in the uterus for more than 4 weeks (10-20%),there is a possibility of defibrination from silent disseminated intravascular coagulation.i.e,there is chance for consumption coagulopathy with hypofibrinemia,similar to that seen in intrauterine death of fetus. It is due to release of thromboplastin from dead fetus and placenta into maternal circulation. (D C Dutta TB of obstetrics 8th edtn pg 378) | 157,020 | medmcqa_train |
The components of initial steps of ventilation include: | Ans. D. All of the aboveThe components of initial steps include: Drying, positioning, clearing airway and provision of tactile stimulus. The baby should be placed under the radiant warmer, dried if already not done. The baby must be positioned with neck slightly extended by placing the shoulder roll. The airway would need to be cleared with mucus extractor and if the infant is still not breathing, then tactile stimulus by flicking soles or rubbing the back may be carried out to initiate breathing. | 157,021 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding arbovirus is all except - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dengue virus has one Serotype o KFD is mainly transmitted by Hard tick, but soft tick can also transmit the disease.o Dengue virus has four serotypes.o Yellow fever is not endemic in India, it is distributed in Africa and South America.o Dengue fever is transmitted by Aedes mosquito. | 157,022 | medmcqa_train |
Following ventilation mode is not used for weaning? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Controlled Mechanical Ventilation (CMV) | 157,023 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following site is least commonly involved in ahrogryposis? | Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita (AMC) is a disorder of defective development of the muscles. The muscles are fibrotic and result in foot deformities and deformities at other joints. The areas that are most likely to have lack of movement are the shoulders, elbows, wrists, hands, hips, knees, and feet.Ref: Maheswari 5th edition Pg: 212 | 157,024 | medmcqa_train |
Most common infection in a child Nephrotic Syndrome | Most common infection in children nephrotic syndrome is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis . Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | 157,025 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is Type III RPGN | Type III RPGN is the most common type of RPGN. It is "pauci immune type". It doesn't have either anti-GBM antibodies or immune complexes. It is ANCA associated hence the examples are Granulomatosis with polyangitis, microscopic polyangitis. | 157,026 | medmcqa_train |
Tracheal bifurcation is at which level of vertebra | Trachea divides at the level of lower border of 4th thoracic vertebrae into 2 primary principal bronchus. | 157,027 | medmcqa_train |
Most common true benign tumor of the bone is - | Commonest benign tumor of bone -----osteochondroma Commonest true benign tumor of bone -----osteoid osteoma Refer Maheshwari 6th/e p 247 | 157,028 | medmcqa_train |
In post-hepatic jaundice, the concentration of conjugated bilirubin in the blood is higher than that of unconjugated bilirubin
because | Jaundice can be divided into 3 types on the basis of etiology-
• Prehepatic jaundice The cause of jaundice is increased production of bilirubin for example-
all causes which lead to increased hemolysis of RBCs ieHereditary spherocytosis Sickle cell anemia Thalassemia Malaria Drugs such as Methyl dopa*, quinine* etc.
this would lead to an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia Hepatic Jaundice Here the cause lies within the hepatocytes either a defect in the conjugated
process or in the excretion of conjugated bilirubin into the bile for exampleall causes of hepatitis whether infection, alcohol, drugs,
toxins or autoimmune congenital hyperbilirubinemia Post Hepatic jaundice Here the cause is the obstruction of the excretion of bile into the intestines.
for example stone in CBD carcinoma in bile duct Pancreatic cancer etc. Thus as seen in post-Hepato hepatic jaundice the hepatocytes are unaffected.
They continue their conjugation process without any interference leading to rise of conjugated bilirubin in blood | 157,029 | medmcqa_train |
Verrucosa Vulgaris is caused by : | A i.e. HPV | 157,030 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following factors are involved in altered patterns of hormone release except | A patient in the intensive care unit, where the lights are on throughout the 24 hours of the day, will have a disrupted cycle of hormone release. Light plays an impoant role in generating the circadian rhythm of hormone secretion. This endogenous rhythm is generated through the interaction between the retina, the hypothalamic suprachiasmatic nucleus, and the pineal gland through the release of melatonin. Melatonin is a hormone synthesized and secreted by the pineal gland at night. Its rhythm of secretion is entrained to the light/dark cycle. Melatonin conveys information concerning the daily cycle of light and darkness to the body and paicipates in the organization of circadian rhythms. Other situations that disrupt the normal cycles of hormone release are travel across time zones, night-shift employment, and aging. | 157,031 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are immune complex diseases except- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Graft rejectionGraft rejection is Type IV hypersensitivity | 157,032 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is bacteriostatic? | Ans. C. EthambutolEthambutol is only first line antitubercular agent which is bacteriostatic. Rest all are bacteriocidal. Pyrazinamide is only drug which act on only intracellular bacteria. Rifampicin have the sterilizing effect. Isoniazid is given for prophylaxis of TB. | 157,033 | medmcqa_train |
Anatomical snuffbox is formed by all except - | Ans-D | 157,034 | medmcqa_train |
Tuft of hair over the lumbosacral region in a new born is suggestive of ? | Ans. d. Any of the aboveTufts of hair over the lumbosacral spine suggest an underlying abnormality, such as occult spina bifida, a sinus tract, or a tumor. | 157,035 | medmcqa_train |
A 40-year-old man is brought to you by his friends. Apparently, he has ingested some unknown medication in a suicide attempt. The patient is disoriented to time. His temperature is 103 F, BP is 120/85 pulse 100/min and irregular, and respirations are 22/min. The skin is flushed and dry. Dilated pupils and muscle twitching are also noted on examination. ECG reveals prolonged QRS complexes. Hepatic transaminases are normal, and ABG shows a normal pH. These findings are most likely due to intoxication by which substance? | This patient's clinical picture is consistent with intoxication with tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline and imipramine. Toxic effects are mediated by peripheral anticholinergic activity and "quinidine-like" action. The anticholinergic effects include mydriasis, tachycardia, impaired sweating with flushed skin, dry mouth, constipation, and muscle twitching. Quinidine-like effects (due to block of sodium channels in the hea) result in cardiac arrhythmias, especially ventricular tachyarrhythmias. In this setting, prolongation of the QRS complex is paicularly impoant in the diagnosis. QRS width is, in fact, an even more faithful parameter of drug toxicity than serum drug levels. In severe intoxication, patients will develop seizures, severe hypotension, and coma. Acetaminophen results in liver toxicity. Liver enzymes would be elevated. Alcohol intoxication manifests with respiratory depression, hypothermia, and coma. The manifestations of benzodiazepine intoxication are similar to alcohol inasmuch as central nervous system depression is common to both drugs. Thus, acute benzodiazepine intoxication produces stupor, coma, and respiratory depression. The sympatholytic propeies of clonidine explain the clinical symptoms of intoxication. Clonidine overdose causes bradycardia, hypotension, miosis, and respiratory depression. Monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors represent a second-line treatment for major depression. Overdose induces ataxia, excitement, hypeension, and tachycardia. Such reactions can be precipitated by concomitant ingestion of tyramine-containing foods. Reference: Kaplon and sadock, 11 th edition, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1144 | 157,036 | medmcqa_train |
SA-14-14-2- | SA 14-14-2 strain is live attenuated vaccine whuch offers life ling immunity.Ref.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21st edition page no 261 | 157,037 | medmcqa_train |
In infancy, atopic dermatitis spares | Atopic dermatitis (AD), or eczema, is the most common chronic relapsing skin disease seen in infancy and childhood. Infants with the AD are predisposed to the development of allergic rhinitis and/or asthma later in childhood, a process called "the atopic march.Major features:Pruritus Facial and extensor eczema in infants and childrenFlexural eczema in adolescentsChronic or relapsing dermatitisPersonal or family history of atopic diseaseMost patients with AD have dry, lackluster skin irrespective of their stage of illness. The AD is generally acuter in infancy and involves the face, scalp, and extensor surfaces of the extremities. The diaper area is usually spared. Older children and children with chronic AD have lichenification and localization of the rash to the flexural folds of the extremities.Reference: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 145; Atopic Dermatitis (Atopic Eczema) | 157,038 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a complication of fibroid in pregnancy? | Complications of fibroid in pregnancy includes miscarriage,preterm labour,abruption,malpresentation,unengaged head at term,uterine ineia,obstructed labour,PPH,difficulties in CS,puerperal infection. Refer page no 221,222 of Text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan,2 nd edition. | 157,039 | medmcqa_train |
A 64-year-old man is having difficulty getting out of a chair. He has lost 15 lb and feels tired all the time. On examination, there is a blue purple rash on his eyelids and knuckles, and muscle strength in his proximal muscles is rated 4 out of 5. His creatinine kinase (CK) level is elevated and he is started on prednisone. Which of the following is the most important in monitoring response to therapy? | The course of muscle necrosis in dermatomyositis can be best followed by repeated CK determinations. Repeated muscle biopsies are rarely required. However, the goal of therapy is to increase muscle strength and function, so following muscle strength is the key clinical assessment of response to therapy. | 157,040 | medmcqa_train |
With the use of DMPA contraceptive, the side effects are all of the following except | The advantage of DMPA is that it does not affect lactation Side effects include weight gain, irregular menstrual bleeding and prolonged infeility after its use Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 503 | 157,041 | medmcqa_train |
Dose of Reteplase for management of Acute MI is? | Answer- B. 10 IUThe recommended dose for Reteplase in Acute Myocardial infarction is l0 Unit bolus given over 2 minutes.It is recommended to repeat the second I0 unit dose after 30 minutes. | 157,042 | medmcqa_train |
What are nitrergic neurous ? | Answer-B. 1st order neurons releasing nitric oxideNitrergic neurons are nerye cells which have neurotransmitter NO. | 157,043 | medmcqa_train |
Culture media for Legionella | * Legionella isolation is done from respiratory secretions - culture media is BCYE agar * Buffered Charcoal Yeast Extract Agar (BCYE) * Baird Parker agar - Staphylococci * MacConkey agar - Urine sample - to differentiate LF and NLF * PLET medium - Bacillus cereus Ref:- Harrisons T.B of medicine 19th ed; pg num:- 1018 | 157,044 | medmcqa_train |
Postitional veigo is | The disease is caused by the disorder of posterior semicircular canal. Otoconial debris when settles in the cupula of the posterior semicircular canal in a critical head position causes displacement of cupula and veigo. (Ref: Diseases of EAR, NOSE AND THROAT by PL DHINGRA - 6th Edition) | 157,045 | medmcqa_train |
Most lipogenic: | Unlike glucose, ingested fructose is preferentially metabolized by the liver. This and several other features of fructose metabolism make it an exceptionally lipogenic sugar.
Lipogenesis is increased when sucrose is fed instead of glucose because fructose bypasses the phosphofructokinase control point in glycolysis and floods the lipogenic pathway.
Increased dietary intake of fructose significantly elevates the production of acetyl CoA and lipogenes.
Harper Pg 236, Satyanarayana Pg 279 | 157,046 | medmcqa_train |
Para meningeal Rhabdomyosarcoma is best diagnosed by : | Ans. is 'b' i.e. MRI I could not find any direct reference to this answer in all the books within my reach My answer is based on the basics of CT & MRICT is the best inv. for bone imaging. It has limitations for soft tissues, especially when the soft tissue lies with a skeletal framework.But MRI is excellent for soft tissue imaging and is more sensitive in detecting early brain damage.So for a parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma the best investigation would be MRI as it would demonstrate very clearly its extension within the meninges.Harrison 15/e, on page 2337 states that the : Best investigation for a primary or metastatic brain tumor is - MRI Best investigation for meningeal disease - MRIThis information further supports my answer. | 157,047 | medmcqa_train |
Rate limiting step in porphyrin synthesis is | The synthesis stas with the condensation of succinyl CoA and glycine in the presence of pyridoxal phosphate to form delta amino levulinic acid (ALA).The enzyme ALA synthase is located in the mitochondria and is the rate limiting ezyme of pathway. Next few steps occurs in cytoplasm.2 molecules of ALA are condensed to form porphobilinogen (PBG) Condensation of 4 molecules of PBG results in the formation of the first porphyrin of the pathway,namely urobilinogen. REFERENCE:DM VASUDEVAN Textbook SEVENTH EDITION, Page no:272 and 273 | 157,048 | medmcqa_train |
Haptane is : | Answer is C (Requires carrier for specific antibody production): Hepatitis become immunogenic only when attached to a large molecule or 'carrier' - | 157,049 | medmcqa_train |
Three mix MP triple antibiotic paste consists of | Triple antibiotic paste
Consists of metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, and minocycline in a macrogol/propylene glycol ointment.
It is inserted into canal with a sterile Lentulo spiral and left in the canal for 2-4 weeks.
Advantages: -
Very effective in elimination of intracanal microbes
Broad spectrum action
Easy to prepare as ingredients are easily prepared
Disadvantages of triple AB paste:
Difficult to test the antimicrobial effectiveness in endodontic models due to absence of an inactivator to prevent the carryover effect.
Combination of bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotic is not rational scientifically
Tetracycline analogs like minocycline can cause discoloration of tooth due to diffusion into dentinal tubules. Hence the mix should never be left in the coronal pulp chamber | 157,050 | medmcqa_train |
In patient of hypeension, metoprolol and verapamil are given together. This combination can result in | Beta blocker (metoprolol) and non-DHP CCBs (verapamil) block SA node and AV node. Both combined can cause severe bradycardia and AV block. Drugs causing Torsades' de pointes include: Quinidine, Procainamide, Cisapride, Astemizole, Terfenadine etc. | 157,051 | medmcqa_train |
The characteristic feature of apoptosis on light microscopy is: | Ans. (b) Nuclear compaction(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 53)Here student gets confused in 2 options b and c..On light microscopy, most characteristic feature is condensation of nuclear chromatin and not intactness of cell membraneIntact cell membrane and lack of inflammation differentiates apoptosis from necrosis. | 157,052 | medmcqa_train |
Parapharyngeal abscess-all true except - | Parapharyngeal abscess is a lateral swelling (not midline). | 157,053 | medmcqa_train |
Macrosomia is defined as weight of fetus: | Ans is d, i.e. 4.5 kg(Wiliams Obs 25/e pg 857)Macrosomia is weight of baby >=4.5kg"The ACOG (2016a) Concludes that the term macrosomia was an appropriate appellation for newborns who weigh 4500 gm or a more at birth" | 157,054 | medmcqa_train |
Because of positive biopsy findings and negative workup, he undergoes a radical prostatectomy. The pathology report reveals Gleason score 9/10 and involvement of several pelvic lymph nodes. Which is the most likely site for prostatic cancer metastasis? | Bone metastasis is a characteristic feature of prostatic cancer. The lesions are typically osteoblastic on x-ray, and the serum acid phosphatase level becomes elevated. | 157,055 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of neonatal diarrhea worldwide is: | a. Rotavirus(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1616)In early childhood, the single most important cause of severe dehydrating diarrhea is rotavirus infection. | 157,056 | medmcqa_train |
Dried blood drop of an infant can be used to know: | ANS. BDried blood drop test:Advantage: Minimal volume, minimal training, ease of transport.Usedfor:* Phenylketonuria (PKU)* Galactosemia* Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)* Sickle cell disease.Inborn errors of amino acid metabolism associated with peculiar odorInborn error in metabolismUrine odorGlutaric acidemia (Type II)Sweaty feet, acridIsovaleric acidemiaSweaty feet, acridMaple syrup urine diseaseMaple syrupHypermethioninemiaBoiled cabbageMultiple carboxylase deficiencyTomcat urinePhenylketonuriaMousy or mustyTrimethylaminuriaRotting fishTyrosinemiaBoiled cabbage, rancid butter# Rate limiting enzymes in metabolic pathways* Glycolysis--Phosphofructokinase 1* Citric acid/TCA cycle--Isocitrate dehydrogenase* Bile acid synthesis--7 alpha dehydroxylase* Cholesterol synthesis--HMG CoA reductase* Ketone body synthesis--HMG CoA synthase* Fatty acid synthesis--Acetyl CoA carboxylase* Fatty acid oxidation--Carnitine palmitoyltransferase 1* Urea cycle--Carbamoyl phosphate synthase 1* Pyrimidine synthesis--Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 2* Purine synthesis--PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase* Heme synthesis--ALA synthase* Testosterone synthesis--Cholesterol desmolase* Catecholamine synthesis--Tyrosine hydroxylase | 157,057 | medmcqa_train |
Name of the parotid duct: March 2007 | Stensons duct | 157,058 | medmcqa_train |
Not a cause of acute pancreatitis | Ans. (d) HypocalcemiaRef: Bailey and Love 26th/e p. 1127* Hypercalcemia and Hypertriglyceridemia causes acute pancreatitis * Recall the mnemonic I mentioned in theory "GET SMASHED" for acute pancreatitis causes. | 157,059 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following structures does the fetal allantoic duct become in the adult? | Urachus The urachus is a fibrous remnant of the allantois, a canal that drains the urinary bladder of the fetus that joins and runs within the umbilical cord. The fibrous remnant lies in the space of Retzius, between the transversalis fascia anteriorly and the peritoneum posteriorly. | 157,060 | medmcqa_train |
Epithelium is absent in lens on ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Posterior surface Anatomy of crystalline lens There are three structural elements that make up lens - 1. Lens capsule A transparent membrane surrounding the lens like a pocket. It is thicker over the anterior surface than the posterior surface. It is thickest at pre- equator region and thinnest at the posterior pole. When an aificial lens replaces the natural lens in cataract surgery (IOL implantation), it is placed in this same capsule. 2. Lens epithelium It is a single layer on the anterior (front) surface of the lens. There is no epithelium on posterior surface. The epithelial cells distribute fluid, ion and glucose through the entire lens. They also create new fibers throughout a person's life. 3. Lens fibres These are long protein fibers that arc closely packed and parallel. They make up most of the lens volume and are laid horizontally, front to back, and concentrically like layers of an onion.As the lens fibres are formed throughout the life, these are arranged compactly as nucleus and coex of the lens. a) Nucleus : - It is the central pa containing the oldest fibres. it consists of different zones :- Embryonic nucleus :- Formed at 1-3 months of gestation, therefore consists the oldest primary fibres. Fetal nucleus : - Lies around the embryonic nucleus and is formed from 3 months of gestation till bih. Infantile nucleus :- Corresponding the lens from bih to pubey and surrounds the fetal nucleus. Adults :- Corresponds to the lens fibres formed after pubey to rest of the life. Coex :- It is the peripheral pa containg the youngest fibres. The ciliary zonules (Zonules of zinn or suspensory ligaments of lens) hold the lens in position and enable the ciliary muscle to act on it. These consist essentially of a series of fibres which run from the ciliary body and fuse into the outer layer of the lens capsule around the equatorial zone. | 157,061 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following depicts the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding? | Primary canines are extracted to encourage alignment of the crowded incisors. However, the incisors align and upright, borrowing space otherwise needed for eruption of the permanent canine. Primary first molars are then extracted to encourage eruption of the first premolar so it may be extracted to make room for the permanent canine to erupt. These are followed by the permanent first premolar.
Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar Premkumar | 157,062 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following enzyme is NAD+ dependent? | Dehydrogenases:
These enzymes cannot utilize oxygen as hydrogen acceptor.
They catalyse the reversible transfer of hydrogen from one substrate to another and, thus, bring about oxidation reduction reactions.
There are a large number of enzymes belonging to this group
NAD+ dependent dehydrogenases, e.g. alcohol dehydrogenase, glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase.
NADP+ dependent dehydrogenasese,.e.g. HMC CoA reductase ,enoyl reductase.
FMN dependent dehydrogenasese,. e.g. NADH dehydrogenase.
FAD dependent dehydrogenasese, e.g. succinate dehydrogenase, acyl CoA dehydrogenase.
The cytochromes: All the cytochromes of electron transport chain (b, c, and c) except the terminal cytochrome oxidase (a+a3) belong to this group.
Key Concept:
Dehydrogenases catalyse the reversible transfer of hydrogen from one substrate to another and, thus, bring about oxidation reduction reactions.
NAD+ dependent dehydrogenases, e.g. alcohol dehydrogenase, glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase
Ref : Textbook of Biochemistry, Satyanarayana | 157,063 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following acts as the major neurotransmitter in substantia nigra | (C) Dopamine > The long dopamine systems are the nigrostriatal system, which projects from the substantia nigra to the striatum and is involved in Motor control. | 157,064 | medmcqa_train |
Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and sho fouh metacarpal are characteristics of- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Turner's syndrome | 157,065 | medmcqa_train |
Gettler test detects: NEET 14 | Ans. Chloride content of blood in drowning | 157,066 | medmcqa_train |
A 45 year old woman attends gynecology department with prolonged vaginal bleeding. On examination, cervical lesion is found that bleeds on touch. Her past history is insignificant. She had undergone pap smear around 10 years ago, which was normal. What is the next best investigation | Histological diagnosis has to be made prior to imaging or treatment. | 157,067 | medmcqa_train |
In Target 10 of Goal 7 of Millennium Development Goal, "access" to an improved water source mean? | Propoion (%) of population with sustainable access to an improved water source, rural (G7.710.130) : "improved" water sources means household connection, public standpipe, borehole, protected dug well, protected spring, rainwater collection. "Access" means the availability of at least 20 litres water per person per day from a source within one kilometre of the user's dwelling. Ref: Park's textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 21st edition, page-831 | 157,068 | medmcqa_train |
Schick test in diphtheria is done to know: | Subseceptibles | 157,069 | medmcqa_train |
Lung volume reduction surgery is used in the management of | Lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS) reduce volume of lung in emphysema. Patients with upper lobe-predominant emphysema and a low post-rehabilitation exercise capacity are most likely to benefit from LVRS. Patients are excluded if they have significant pleural disease, a pulmonary aery systolic pressure >45 mmHg, extreme deconditioning, congestive hea failure, or other severe comorbid conditions. Patients with an FEV1 <20% of predicted and either diffusely distributed emphysema on CT scan or diffusing capacity of lung for carbon monoxide (DlCO) <20% of predicted have an increased moality rate after the procedure and thus are not candidates for LVRS.Ref: Harrison 19e pg: 1706 | 157,070 | medmcqa_train |
For Foreign bodies are retained in the larynx causing choking, first line of management is | Hemilich manouvere | 157,071 | medmcqa_train |
Ramesh Singh, a 40 yrs old man, was admitted with fracture shaft femur following a road traffic accident. On 2nd he became disoriented. He was found to be tachypnoeic, and had conjunctival petechiae. Most likely diagnosis is: | C i.e. Fat embolism | 157,072 | medmcqa_train |
A young patient with dysphagia more for liquids than solids. He regurgitates food often at night. Radiography shows a rat tailed appearance. Likely diagnosis is : | Answer is A (Achlasia cardia) Presence of dysphagia which is more for liquids than for solids along with a characteristic rat tail appearance on radiography in a young patient suggests the diagnosis of aehalasia. Malignancy (CA esophagus) usually presents with dysphagia which is more for solids than for liquids and is seen in the elderly. Zenker's diveiculum and esophageal spasm do not show a rat tail appearance on radiography. | 157,073 | medmcqa_train |
Distressing Complication after modified radical mastectomy? | Complications of Mastectomy
• Seroma
−− MC complication, beneath skin flaps and axilla, occurs in 30% cases
−− Catheter is retained until drainage is <30 ml/day
• Wound infection
−− Majority are due to skin flap necrosis
• Lymphedema
−− Occurs less frequently with the standard axillary dissections.
−− Extensive LN dissection, radiation therapy, presence of positive LNs, obesity are predisposing factors.
• Injury to Long Thoracic (Motor) Nerve
−− Seen in 10% of all cases.
−− Result in a palsy of the Serratus anterior muscle (classical winged scapula)
• Injury to Thoracodorsal Nerve:
−− Leads to palsy of the latissimus dorsi muscle.
• Redundant Axillary Fat Pad | 157,074 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about meta-analysis except:- | Metanalysis:- Analysis of Analyses. Analysis of multiple studies together. Difficult to Conduct, but it does give you the best estimate for a given study design-Strength of Association. Funnel plot, forest plot are used. Disadvantages:- Publication bias. "Apple Orange Effect" seen in it. | 157,075 | medmcqa_train |
Broad complex tachycardia due to ventricular a tachycardia is suggested by | Answer is A, B, C (Fusion beats; Capture beats and AV dissociation) Presence of Fusion beats, capture beats and AV dissociation is charachteristic of ventricular tachycardia. ECG feature that suppo a diagnosis of ventricular tachycardia (Vt) in patients with Wide Complex Tachycardia (Incomplete List) Presence of Fusion beats Presence of capture beats Presence of AV dissociation The presence of fusion beats and capture beats provides maximum suppo for the diagnosis of VT. AV dissociation also provides a strong suppo in our of VT, but is less specific than fusion beats and capture. AV dissociation may uncommonly occur during supraventricular tachycardias and all cases of VT may not exhibit AV dissociation. Never the less presence of AV dissociation in cases of wide complex tachycardia is a strong presumptive evidence that tachycardia is of ventricular origin (V7). Differentiating features VT (Broad complex) SVT with Aberrancy (Broad Complex) Fusion beats Characteristic Absent Capture beats Characteristic Unusual AV dissociation Characteristic Absent Effect of vagal manuvres No effect Slowing or termination of tachycardia QRS morphology in V 1 Monophasic or Biphasic Triphasic | 157,076 | medmcqa_train |
Not a feature of delirium tremens is: | D i.e. Occulomotor nerve palsy opthalmoplegia | 157,077 | medmcqa_train |
Which of following acts as a vector of West Nile fever? | (A) Culex mosquito# West Nile virus (or WNV) is a virus of the family Flaviviridae. Part of the Japanese encephalitis (JE) antigenic complex of viruses, it is found in both tropical and temperate regions. It mainly infects birds, but is known to infect humans, horses, dogs, cats, bats, chipmunks, skunks, squirrels, and domestic rabbits. The main route of human infection is through the bite of an infected mosquito.> Transmission The proboscis of an Aedes albopictus mosquito feeding on human blood. Under experimental conditions, the Aedes albopictus mosquito (also known as the Asian Tiger Mosquito) has been found to be a vector of West Nile Virus. The virus is transmitted through mosquito vectors, which bite and infect birds. The birds are amplifying hosts, developing sufficient viral levels to transmit the infection to other biting mosquitoes which go on to infect other birds (in the Western hemisphere the American robin and the American crow are the most common carriers) and also humans. The infected mosquito species vary according to geographical area; in the US Culex pipiens (Eastern US), Culex tarsalis (Midwest and West), and Culex quinque- fasciatus (Southeast) are the main sources | 157,078 | medmcqa_train |
Flag hair sign is seen in | Ans. (a) KwashiorkorRef: Nelson's Pedia, 19th ed. Ch 670# kwashiorkorDisease due to decreased protein and caloric intake.Clinical Features are:# Hypoalbuminemia which leads to pedal edema# Hepatomegaly- Hallmark feature of kwashiorkor# Skin: Sun-exposed skin is relatively spared, as are the feet and dorsal aspects of the hands; Hypo pigmentation# Hair and Nail: Nails are thin and soft, and hair is sparse, thin, and depigmented, sometimes displaying a flag sign of alternating light and dark bands that reflect alternating periods of adequate and inadequate nutrition.# Apathy# Lack of appetite* PELLAGRA:This presents with edema, erythema, and burning of sun-exposed skin on the face, neck, and dorsal aspects of the hands, forearms, and feet* SCURVY (VITAMIN C OR ASCORBIC ACID DEFICIENCY): This presents initially with follicular hyperkeratosis and coiling of hair on the upper arms, back, buttocks, and lower extremities. Perifollicular erythema and hemorrhage, swollen, erythematous gums; stomatitis; and subperiosteal hematomas are also seen. | 157,079 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the treatment of choice for Atrial Fibrillation in patients with WPW Syndrome who are hemodynamically unstable: | Answer is C (DC Cardioversion) DC Cardioversion is the treatment of choice to terminate Atrial Fibrillation in patients with WPW Syndrome who are hemodynamically unstable (Life threatening Situations). | 157,080 | medmcqa_train |
Diabetic patients are advised to avoid foods with high glycemic index. Which of the following has highest glycemic index? | The glycemic index of a starchy food is a measure of its digestibility, based on the extent to which it raises the blood concentration of glucose compared with an equivalent amount of glucose or a reference food such as white bread or boiled rice. Eating foods with low glycemic index will result in lower glucose levels after meals. Low glycemic index foods have values of 55 or less and include many fruits (apples, oranges) and vegetables, grainy breads, pasta, legumes, milk, and yoghu. High glycemic index foods have values of 70 and over and include baked potato, white bread, and most white rice. Glycemic index is lowered by the presence of fats and protein when the food is consumed in a mixed meal. Cooking methods can also affect the glycemic index--thus mashed potatoes have a higher glycemic index than baked potato. Ref: German M.S. (2011). Chapter 17. Pancreatic Hormones and Diabetes Mellitus. In D.G. Gardner, D. Shoback (Eds), Greenspan's Basic & Clinical Endocrinology, 9e. | 157,081 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about staing of Beta blocker therapy in a patient with congestive hea failure except | Ref-Goodman and Gillman 11/e p1336 Clinical use of Beta adrenergic receptor antagonist in hea failure These are now recommended for routine use in class Il or Ill symptoms in conjunction with ACE inhibitoror angiotensin-receptor antagonist, and diuretics These should be initiated at very low doses, generally less than one tenth of the final target dose NYHA Class IIIB and IV patients should be approached with a high level of caution; and in recently decompensated hea failure, beta-blockers should not be used until the patients are stabilizedfor several days to weeks. | 157,082 | medmcqa_train |
Aminoglycosides are given in a single dose rather than thrice daily because of following reason? | Aminoglycosides exe Concentration Dependent Bactericidal action and Long Post-Antibiotic effect ,such that the antibacterial activity persists beyond the time during which measurable drug is present.Therefore higher plasma concentrations attained after the single daily dose will be equally or more effective than the divided doses and also convenient and cheaper. This is also to make sure that the plasma concentration remains low so as to not cause Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity. This allows washout of the drug from the Endolymph and the Renal coex. | 157,083 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statments is not true of McBurney's incsion - | Incision is extended upwards and laterally not downwards. | 157,084 | medmcqa_train |
Fick's law, flux of Geomembrane increased in: | A i.e. Concentration acrossAccording to Fick's law of diffusion, the net rate of diffusion is directly propoional to available surface area across which diffusion is taking place and the concentration or chemical gradient but inversely propoional to thickness of membraneQ.Fick's Law of DiffusionThe magnitude of diffusing tendency is directly propoionate to the cross sectional area across which diffusion is taking place and the concentration gradient or chemical gradient , which is the difference in concentration of the diffusing substance divided by the thickness of boundary. | 157,085 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doxacurium o Amongst the given options doxacurium is longest acting (Duration of action 90-120 minutes). Rocuronium (duration of action 30-60 minutes), Atracurium (duration of action 30-60 minutes) and vecuronium (duration of action 60-90 minutes) have shoer duration of action than doxacurium. | 157,086 | medmcqa_train |
Tumour marker of endodermal sinus tumour of ovary : | a feto proteins | 157,087 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following has a normal level of alpha fetoprotein value in serum? | Alp is used as serum tumour marker in some conditions . Ref - harrison's internal medicine 20e p441 , Davidson's medicine 23e p1324 | 157,088 | medmcqa_train |
Which is most comonly implicated in genital (vul- val) was ? | Ans. is d i.e. HPV 6 "Low Risk HPV types 6 and 11 cause nearly all genital was." Details of Genital Was : Genital was are leisons created from productive infection with HPV (most common type 6 and 11). They display various morphologies and appearances ranging from flat papules to the classic verrucous, polyphytic lesions, termed condyloma acuminata". Sites : External genital was may develop at sites in the lower reproductive tract, urethra, anus, or mouth. Diagnosis : They are typically diagnosed by clinical infection, and biopsy is nor required unless co-existing neoplasia is suspected. HPV serotyping is not required for routine diagnosis. Treatment : - Condyloma acuminata may remain unchanged or resolve spontaneously Effect of treatment on future viral transmission is unclear. However, many women prefer removal, and lesions can be destroyed with sharp or electrosurgical excision, cryotherapy, or laser ablation. In addition, very large. bulky lesions may be managed with cavitational ultrasonic surgical aspiration. Alternatively, 5-percent imiquimod cream is a immunomodulatory topical treatment for genital was. Other topical agents which may be applied for treatment of was are : Podophyllin which is a antimitoric agent available in a 10 to 25% tinctute of benzoin solution and disrupts viral activity by inducing local tissue necrosis. Alternatively, trichloroacetic acid and bichloroacetic acid are proteoplytic agents and are applied serially to was by clinicians. Intralesion injection of interferon is also an effective treatment for was. However as this method has high cost, is painful and is inconvenient to administer, So this therapy is not recommended as a primary modality and is best reserved for recalcirrant cases. Of therapy choice no data suggest the superiority of one treatment. Thus in general treatment should be selected based on clinical circumstances and patient and provider preferences. | 157,089 | medmcqa_train |
NOT included in immunization schedule: | Ans. (a) KalaazarRef. K. Park 21sted. /113* Indian Academy of Pediatrics (LAP) approved following vaccines (Kala Azar is NOT included in schedule)* Following vaccines are approved by LAP: Polio, hepatitis, BCG, DPT, Hib, MMR, TT, typhoid. | 157,090 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following liver disorders is a complication associated with oral contraceptives? | Oral contraceptives produce an intrahepatic cholestasis that is unpredictable (not related to the dose). The incidence of liver cell adenomas is also increased as a result of oral contraceptive use. These vascular tumors have a tendency to rupture during pregnancy, paicularly those in a subcapsular location. A purpoed increase in the incidence of focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH) is associated with oral contraceptive use. Grossly, FNH is characterized by a poorly encapsulated nodule that has a lighter color than the surrounding hepatic parenchyma. On cut section, a centrally located stellate scar radiates out to the periphery of the lesion. Microscopically, the hepatocytes between the scar tissue are normal. A slightly increased risk for hepatocellular carcinoma is another effect of bih control pills on the liver. Oral contraceptives are not associated with drug-induced hepatitis with fatty change, cholangiocarcinoma, cavernous hemangiomas, or fulminant hepatic failure. | 157,091 | medmcqa_train |
Predominant osteoblastic secondaries are seen in: | Ref: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th edition. Bone misc tumors chapter Pg: 1205Explanation:The radiographic manifestations of metastases may he purely lytic, purely blastic. or mixed lytic and blastic.In lytic lesions, the metastatic cells secrete substances such as prostaglandins, cytokines, and PTH-related protein that stimulate osteoclast hone resorption; the tumor cells themselves do not directly resorb bone.Lysis of hone tissue rich in growth factors such as TGF-b, IGF-l, FGF, PDGF, and bone morphogenetic proteins, in rum helps create an environment conducive to tumor cell growth.Prostate adenocarcinoma secretes WNT proteins that stimulate osteoblastic hone formation.Most metastases induce a mixed lytic and blastic reactionPrimaries which produce predominantly Lytic bone lesionsCarcinoma of the kidneyCarcinoma of the JuneCarcinoma of ihe gastrointestinal tractMalignant melanomaPrimaries which produce predominantly Sclerotic/Osteoblastic lesionsProstate adenocarcinomaCa ColonCa Breast | 157,092 | medmcqa_train |
Alpo&;s syndrome is due to defective- | Out of various hereditary nephritis, Alpo's syndrome is relatively more common and has been extensively studied. This is an X-linked dominant disorder having a mutation in a-5 chain of type IV collagen located on X-chromosome. Ref: Harsh Mohans textbook of pathology 6th edition page 678 | 157,093 | medmcqa_train |
a - adrenoreceptor stimulation effects are : | A i.e. Vasoconstriction | 157,094 | medmcqa_train |
Percentage of para-para isomer in DDT is: | 40-50% | 157,095 | medmcqa_train |
The nerve of latarjet of the vagus is seen in - | Main gastric nerve of Latarjet is a branch of vagus and supplies the stomach. | 157,096 | medmcqa_train |
Most common type of emphysema is:March 2013 | Ans. A i.e. CentriacinarEmphysemaIt is COPD.It is defined pathologically as an abnormal permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles, accompanied by the destruction of alveolar walls and without obvious fibrosis.It frequently occurs in association with chronic bronchitis.Patients have been classified as having COPD with either emphysema or chronic bronchitis predominance.The 3 described morphological types of emphysema are centriacinar, panacinar, and paraseptal.Centriacinar emphysema begins in the respiratory bronchioles and spreads peripherally.Also termed centrilobular emphysema, this form is associated with long-standing cigarette smoking and predominantly involves the upper half of the lungs.- Panacinar emphysema destroys the entire alveolus uniformly and is predominant in the lower half of the lungs.Panacinar emphysema generally is observed in patients with homozygous alfal antitrypsin deficiency.In people who smoke, focal panacinar emphysema at the lung bases may accompany centriacinar emphysema.- Paraseptal emphysema, also known as distal acinar emphysema, preferentially involves the distal airway structures, alveolar ducts, and alveolar sacs.The process is localized around the septae of the lungs or pleura.Although airflow frequently is preserved, the apical bullae may lead to spontaneous pneumothorax.Giant bullae occasionally cause severe compression of adjacent lung tissue. | 157,097 | medmcqa_train |
Best test for lung fibrosis | Ans. is 'c' i.e., HRCT Lung fibrosis is a diffuse parenchymal lung disease. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is the most common form of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia. We have already discussed that best investigation for interstitial lung disease is HRCT Estimated relative frequency of the interstitial lung disease Diagnosis Relative frequency, % Idiopathic interstitial pneumonias 40 Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis 55 Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia 25 Respiratory bronchiolitis-ILD and 15 Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia 3 Acute interstitial pneumonia <1 Occupational and environmental 26 Sarcoidosis 10 Connective tissue diseases 9 Drug and radiation 1 Pulmonary hemorrhage syndromes <1 Other 13 | 157,098 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the inheritance pattern of Familial Hypercholesterolemia? | Familial hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an autosomal dominant disorder that causes severe elevations in total cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDLc). The LDL receptor gene is located on the sho arm of chromosome 19. It is the primary determinant of hepatic LDL uptake, which normally processes approximately 70% of circulating LDL. | 157,099 | medmcqa_train |
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