query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
Hypotension with muffled heart sounds and congested neck veins is seen in? | Ans. A. Cardiac TamponadeBeck's triad is a collection of three medical signs associated with acute cardiac tamponade, an emergency condition wherein fluid accumulates around the heart and impairs its ability to pump blood. The signs are:1. Low arterial blood pressure2. Distended neck veins3. Distant, muffled heart sounds.Constrictive pericarditis can present with hypotension and congested neck veins, but muffled heart sounds are not present. Auscultatory finding heard is pericardial shock. | 156,900 | medmcqa_train |
Sampson's Theory proposed to explain endometriosis is | Sampson's theory: Reflux of menstrual endometrium through fallopian tubes causes endometriosis. | 156,901 | medmcqa_train |
Russell's traction is used in: | Russell's traction Trochanteric fractures (described as skin traction) Best treatment for interochanteric fracture is Dynamic hip screw. The fracture is reduced under X-ray control and fixed with Dynamic hip screw / Gamma nail or proximal femoral nail. Dynamic Hip Screw: OTHER OPTIONS: Fracture shaft femur- gallows traction, Bryant traction Lower backache- lumbar corset Flexion deformity hip- agnes hunt traction | 156,902 | medmcqa_train |
Mucus plugs containing epithelial cell aggregations arranged as whorls of shed epithelium in the airway mucus plugs seen in bronchial asthma is known as: | (Refer: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8thedition, pg no: 691)
Histopathology of bronchial asthma
The mucus plugs contain whorls of shed epithelium, spiral shaped mucus plugs called Curshmannspirals
Numerous eosinophils.
Charcot-Leyden crystals - collections of crystalloid made upof an eosinophil lysophospholipase binding protein calledGalectin-10.
Overall thickening of airway wall.
Sub-basement membrane fibrosis (due to deposition oftype I and III collagen beneath the classic basementmembrane composed of type IV collagen and laminin).
Increased vascularity.
Increase in size of the submucosal glands; and
Mucous metaplasia of airway epithelial cells.
Hypertrophy and/or hyperplasia of the bronchial wall muscle. | 156,903 | medmcqa_train |
If both the parents are carriers of the beta-thalassemia gene, the chance of having a child with thalassemia major in each pregnancy is | Normally, the majority of adult hemoglobin (HbA) is composed of four protein chains, two a and two b globin chains arranged into a heterotetramer. In thalassemia, patients have defects in either the a or b globin chain, causing production of abnormal red blood cells (In sickle-cell disease, the mutation is specific to b globin). The thalassemias are classified according to which chain of the hemoglobin molecule is affected. In a-thalassemias, production of the a globin chain is affected, while in b-thalassemia, production of the b globin chain is affected. The b globin chains are encoded by a single gene on chromosome 11; a globin chains are encoded by two closely linked genes on chromosome 16 Thus, in a normal person with two copies of each chromosome, two loci encode the b chain, and four loci encode the a chain.Thalassemias are genetic disorders inherited from a person's parents. There are two main types, alpha thalassemia and beta thalassemia.] The severity of alpha and beta thalassemia depends on how many of the four genes for alpha globin or two genes for beta globin are missing. | 156,904 | medmcqa_train |
Patients with chronic pancreatitis gives chain of lakes appearance in ERCP examination. Management is | Surgical procedures in chronic pancreatitis Ideal procedure : DPPHR(Beger's procedure) In presence of poal vein thrombosis : Frey's Small duct disease : V- Shaped excision Disease recurrence in body and tail (after DPPHR, Whipple's or Longmire-Transverso procedure) : V-shaped drainage Disease limited to tail: Spleen - preserving distal pancreatectomy Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1535 | 156,905 | medmcqa_train |
Hand foot mouth syndrome is caused by - | HFMD id caused by coxsackie virus A16,A9,B1-3 REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.491 | 156,906 | medmcqa_train |
Polyhydramnios- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 2000cc | 156,907 | medmcqa_train |
Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the back. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by vascular choroid plexuses in the ventricles of the brain and accumulated in which space? | (d) The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is found in the lumbar cistern, which is a subarachnoid space in the lumbar area. CSF is produced by vascular choroid plexuses in the ventricles of the brain, circulated in the subarachnoid space, and filtered into the venous system through the arachnoid villi and arachnoid granulations. | 156,908 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for Mycoplasma pneumoniae is : | Answer is D (Erythromycin): | 156,909 | medmcqa_train |
In myocardial infarction the infarct accquires hyperemic rim with an yellow centre at ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 3-7 days | 156,910 | medmcqa_train |
HbA2 is increased In - | <p>In beta thalassemia , hemoglobin electrophoresis shows presence of increased amounts of HbF,HbA2 and complete absence or presence of variable amounts of HbA.The increased level of HbA2 has not been found in any other hemoglobin abnormality except beta thalassemia .</p><p>Harsh mohan textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no324.</p> | 156,911 | medmcqa_train |
Gretaest psychiatric burden in society is due to? | ANSWER: (A) Depression.REF: style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">Psychiatric disorders contribute 33% of years lived with daily depression contributes to maximum burden followed by problems due to alcohol | 156,912 | medmcqa_train |
A female infant is born approximately 10 weeks prematurely (at 30 weeks) and weighs 1710 gm. She has respiratory distress syndrome and is treated with endogenous surfactant. She is intubated endotracheally with mechanical ventilation immediately after bih. Over the first 4 days after bih the ventilator pressure and the fraction of inspired oxygen are reduced. Beginning on the fifth day after bih, she has brief desaturations that become more persistent. She needs increased ventilator and oxygen suppo on the seventh day after bih. She becomes cyanotic. Fuher examination, echocardiogram, and x-rays reveal left atrial enlargement, an enlarged pulmonary aery, increased pulmonary vasculature, and a continuous machine-like murmur. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | Patent ductus aeriosus. The presence of a murmur could be indicative of any of the conditions. The presence of a continuous machine-like murmur is indicative of a patent ductus aeriosus (PDA). Usually, as in this case, the premature baby with PDA does not acutely become cyanotic and ill, although brief desaturations can occur that become more persistent. An atrial septal defect (ASD), such as a persistent foramen ovale, could be eliminated from the diagnosis because the murmur would be heard as an abnormal splitting of the second sound during expiration (answer a). A patent foramen ovale is a common echo finding in premature babies and is usually not followed up unless it appears remarkable to the pediatric cardiologist or there is a persistent murmur. A patent foramen ovale might result in only minimal or intermittent cyanosis during crying or straining to pass stool. A murmur caused by a ventricular septal defect (VSD, answer c), occurs between the first and second hea sounds (S1and S2) and is described as holosystolic (pansystolic) because the amplitude is high throughout systole. Pulmonary stenosis would be heard as a harsh systolic ejection murmur (answer d). PDA refers to the maintenance of the ductus aeriosus, a normal fetal structure. In the fetus, the ductus aeriosus allows blood to bypass the pulmonary circulation, since the lungs are not involved in CO2/O2exchange until after bih. The placenta subserves the function of gas exchange during fetal development. The ductus aeriosus shunts flow from the left pulmonary aery to the aoa. High oxygen levels after bih and the absence of prostaglandins from the placenta cause the ductus aeriosus to close in most cases within 24 hours. A PDA most often corrects itself within several months of bih, but may require infusion of indomethacin (a prostaglandin inhibitor) as a treatment, inseion of surgical plugs during catheterization, or actual surgical ligation. | 156,913 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is the only intrinsic muscle of larynx that lies outside the laryngeal framework- | Cricothyroid is the only intrinsic muscle which lies outside the cartilagenous framework. | 156,914 | medmcqa_train |
Sarcoidosis is associated with: | Ans. (a) Band kerotopathySarcoidosis is associated the band keratopathy from metabolic derangement resulting in hypercalcemia and from chronic uveitis. | 156,915 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a direct branch of Inferior mesenteric artery? | Ans. A Superior rectal arteryRef: Gray's, 41st ed. pg. 1088, 1138Branches of Inferior Mesenteric Artery* Left colic artery: supplies descending colon* Sigmoid artery: supplies sigmoid colon* Superior rectal artery: terminal branch of IMA* Marginal branchesNote* Middle rectal artery: branch of internal iliac artery (anterior branch)* Inferior rectal artery: branch of internal iliac artery* Inferior epigastric artery: branch of external iliac artery | 156,916 | medmcqa_train |
Maternal moality is reduced to - | In 2008,a global reduction in maternal death to 200 is estimated.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-515. | 156,917 | medmcqa_train |
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 31 * There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves (8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal). Spinal nerves are mixed nerves containing both sensory and motor fibres. | 156,918 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following group of drugs follows zero order kinetics with high dose | drugs which follow zero order kinetics- methanol, ethanol mixed order - 1st order at a low dose and zero order at high dose- aspirin, phenytoin, tolbutamide, digoxin, warfarin, theophylline most of the drugs usually follow 1st order kinetics and they are considered safe drugs Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | 156,919 | medmcqa_train |
Fifth disease is caused by | (A) Parvo virus 70 # ERYTHEMA INFECTIOSUM (FIFTH DISEASE): The disease is caused by Human Parvovirus.> Erythema infectiosum is the most common clinical manifestation of human parvovirus infection.NAMENUMBERVIRUS(Rubeola) measles"First disease"Measles virusRubella, ("German Measles") identified in 1881."Third disease"Rubella virusErythema infectiosum, identified as a distinct condition in 1896."Fifth disease"Parvovirus B19Roseola infantum"Sixth disease"HHV-6 and HHV-7 | 156,920 | medmcqa_train |
A patient of maniac depressive psychosis is on lithium, clozapine and fluphenazine. During the course of treatment, he developed seizures and tremors. He is drinking water heavily and had recurrent episodes of urination. Which drug is responsible for these complications: March 2012 | Ans: A i.e. Lithium Drugs for Schizophrenia and side-effects Dose related side effects of lithium includes polyuria/polydypsia, weight gain, tremor etc. Common side effects of clozapine are anticholinergic, antiadrenergic etc. Potentially life threatening side effects includes fatal agranulocytosis, fatal myocarditis, fatal pulmonary embolism etc. Side effect of antipsychotic, include sedation, weight gain, extra-pyramidal side effects, postural hypotension etc. | 156,921 | medmcqa_train |
Thyroxine is synthesized from which amino acid | The thyroid hormones, triiodothyronine (T3)and thyroxine (T4), are tyrosine-based hormones produced by the thyroid gland that are primarily responsible for regulation of metabolism. Iodine is necessary for the production of T3 and T4. A deficiency of iodine leads to decreased production of T3 and T4, enlarges the thyroid tissue and will cause the disease known as goitre.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no-341 | 156,922 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a differentiating feature of anopheles from aedes mosquito - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pupa has broad siphon Differentiation between anopheiini and culiciniTribe GenusAnopheiini AnophelesCulicini Culex, Aedes, ManosniaEggs1. Laid singly2. Eggs are boat-shaped and provided with lateral floats1. Laid in duster or rafts, each raft containing 100 - 250 eggs (except-Aedes)2. Eggs are oval-shaped, and not provided with lateral floatsLarvae1. Rest parallel to water surface2. No siphon tube3. Palmate hairs present on abdominal segments1. Suspended with head downwards at an angle to water surface2. Siphon tube present3. No palmate hairsPupaSiphon tube is broad and shortSiphon tube is long and narrowAdult1. When at rest, inclined at an angle to surface2. Wings spotted3. Palpi long in both sexes1. When at rest, the body exhibits a hunch back2. Wings unspotted3. Palpi short in femaleNote : Anopheles and Aedes lay eggs singly, culex and Mansonia lay eggs in clusters | 156,923 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following cause inhibition of CYP3A except. | Ans. (A) Saquinavir(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p58, 863)All the drugs given in the options are microsomal enzyme inhibitors. Among protease inhibitors, ritonavir is the strongest inhibitor of CYP3A4 enzymes whereas saquinavir is the weakest. | 156,924 | medmcqa_train |
Delinking Malaria activity from Family planning was under the recommendation of | Chadah committee recommended that the vigilance operations in respect of the national malaria eradication programme should be the responsibility of the general health services ie primary health centres. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 874 | 156,925 | medmcqa_train |
Hind milk is rich in? | Ans. b (Fat) (Ref. OP Ghai Essential Paediatrics 6th ed., 150)HIND MILK comes later towards the end of feed and richer in fat content and provides more energy, and satisfies the baby's hunger. Thus the composition of milk also varies during the phase of feeding. For optimum growth, the baby needs both fore and hind milk. The baby should therefore be allowed to empty one breast before being offered the other breast.COLOSTRUMIt is the milk secreted during the first ten days after delivery. It is yellow and thick.It contains more antibodies and cells and high amounts of vitamin A, D, E and K.TRANSITIONAL MILKIt is the milk secreted during the following two weeks.The immunoglobulin and protein content decreases while the fat and sugar content increases.MATURE MILKIt follows transitional milk.It is thinner and watery but contains all the nutrients essential for optimal growth of the baby.PRETERM MILKThe milk of a mother who delivers prematurely contains more proteins, sodium, iron, Ig and calories as they are needed for the preterm baby.FORE MILKIt is the milk secreted at the start of a feed.It is watery and is rich in proteins, sugar, vitamin, minerals, and water that satisfy the baby's thirst. | 156,926 | medmcqa_train |
Hunt Hess scale is used for | Ans. (a) SAH* Hunt and Hess Scale is used for Sub arachnoid hemorrhage* It helps to predict the outcome based on Clinical features. | 156,927 | medmcqa_train |
Which nerve repair has the worst prognosis? | Common peroneal nerve (Lateral popliteal nerve) has two main characteristics.
The most common nerve lesions of the lower limb.
Worst prognosis after nerve reconstructive surgery.
Recovery potential after nerve repair
Excellent: - Radial, Musculocutaneous, femoral, digital nerves
Moderate: - Median, Ulnar, Tibial
Poor : - Common peroneal (lateral popliteal)
Pure motor or pure sensory nerves, i.e., Unmixed nerves, like musculocutaneous nerve and digital nerves have the best prognosis.
Pure motor nerves to large muscle groups not requiring fine control have a better prognosis than motor nerves supplying the small muscles of hand & foot. | 156,928 | medmcqa_train |
Macrocytic anemia may be seen in all of these except- | Copper deficiency is manifested by hypochromic normocytic anemia, osteopenia, depigmentation, mental retardation and psychomotor abnormalities.
Thiamine, pyridoxine and Bl2 deficiency leads to megaloblastic anemia.
Classification of megaloblastic anemia | 156,929 | medmcqa_train |
The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is – | The presence of arterial collaterals indicates that renal artery stenosis is hemodynamically significant. The diameter of stenotic segment may also give an indication of hemodynamic significance, but is only reliable if the stenosis is either very severe or minimal . | 156,930 | medmcqa_train |
The epithelial lining of the urethra below the opening of the ejaculatory ducts is | The epithelium of the urethra stas off as transitional cells as it exits the bladder. Fuher along the urethra there are psuedostratified columnar and stified columnar epithelia, then stratified squamous cells near the external urethral orifice. There are small mucus-secreting urethral glands, that help protect the epithelium from the corrosive urine. Ref - wikipedia.org | 156,931 | medmcqa_train |
A 37 year old primi Rh negative patient is very concerned above her pregnancy at this age. Her pregnancy is 16 weeks and she is HIV negative, hepatitis B surface Ag neg, Rubella non immune and has no complain.Her triple test report is normal but still due to her age she insists on getting an amniocentesis done.Which of the following is the next best step in management: | Points worth noting are:
Primi patient with Rh negative blood group
She is 37 years old-elderly primi (>30 years) and has risk of Down syndrome (>35 years)
She is concerned about the risk of having a down syndrome baby at this age and so insists on having amniocentesis done.
Option a: Advise against amniocentesis as it will increase the risk of isoimmunisation –although the risk of isoimmunisation will definitely be increased but still I will not advise her against amniocentesis seeing her age and her concern.
Option b: Follow Rh titres carefully and give Anti D if evidence of isoimmunisation is present. Come on in the theory I have explained that Anti d should be given only if evidence of isoimmunisationt is absent. If isoimmunisation is present it means antibodies are already formed, hence no need for giving Anti D. Thus this statement is absolutely wrong.
Option c: Give Anti D at 28 weeks of pregnancy and after delivery if baby is Rh negative. If baby is Rh negative, no need to give Anti D.
Option d: Give Anti D prior to her amniocentesis: This is the most logical step which should be done in this case.
Option e: Give rubella vaccine as she is Rubella non immune: Now I don’t need to explain that Rubella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy. | 156,932 | medmcqa_train |
What is the pressure at which oxygen is stored? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 2200 psi GasType of cylinder and storage formColour codeCapacityPressurePin-IndexOxygenE. cylinderH. cylinder}GasBlack with white shoulderE-660 lit.H-6900 lit.2200 psi2.5Nitrous oxideEH}LiquidBlueE- 1590 lit.H-15800 lit.760 psi3.5AirE. gasGrey body with black & white shoulder625 lit.2000 psi1,5CarbondioxideE. liquidGrey-1590 lit750 psi2, 6 (< 7.5%)l, 6 (> 7.5%)CyclopropaneLiquidOrange-75 psi3.6HeliumGasBrown-1600 psi Entonox(50% O2 + 50% N.O2)LiquidBlud body with blue & white shoulder-2000 psiCentral (7)NitrogenGasGrey body with black shoulder--- | 156,933 | medmcqa_train |
A 10 year old female patient complains of tiredness and shortness of breath. Patient is a known case of beta-thalassemia. This disease is caused by faulty splicing of: | Faulty splicing can cause diseases: Splicing of hnRNA has to be performed with precision to produce functional mRNA. Faulty splicing may result in diseases. A good example is one type of beta-thalassemia in humans. This is due to a mutation that results in a nucleotide change at an exon-intron junction. The result is a diminished or lack of synthesis of p-chain of hemoglobin, and consequently the disease p-thalassemia.
Note:
scRNA - Small cytoplasmic RNA
snoRNA - Small nucleolar RNA
snRNA - Small nuclear RNA
hnRNA - Heterogenous nuclear RNA
Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-549 | 156,934 | medmcqa_train |
Heparin inhibits Xa by | Heparin contains pentasaccharide unit that activates Antithrombin III & inhibits factor Xa (Thus it is a indirect thrombin inhibitor).
Unfractionised heparin also contains a heteropolysaccharide unit that inhibits factor II a.
LMWH lacks this heteropolysacchoride unit and therefore inhibitors factor Xa only. | 156,935 | medmcqa_train |
TRUE about blood supply of scaphoid | Major blood supply to the scaphoid is the radial aery. 70-80 % of the intraosseous vascularity and the entire proximal pole is from branches of the radial aery entering through the dorsal ridge. | 156,936 | medmcqa_train |
A girl 15 yrs of age is diagnosed with MRKH (Mayer Rokitansky kuster Hauser Syndrome). Which of these is true for her management? | vaginoplasty should be done before onset of sexual activity sex of rearing should be female gonadectomy is to be done for Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome and not for MRKH as it has a normal functioning ovary child bearing is possible through assisted reproduction as the patient has normally functioning ovaries, through IVF with surrogacy | 156,937 | medmcqa_train |
Infective stage of hook worm is: | Ans. b. Filiform larva | 156,938 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are examples of traction epiphysis, except - | Condyles of tibia are pressure epiphysis.
All other given options are traction epiphysis | 156,939 | medmcqa_train |
Stellate wound may be seen in which of the following bullet entry wounds - | The synopsis of forensic medicine & toxicology ; Dr k.s narayan reddy ;28th edition ;pg.no 130 In a contact shot the muzzle blast & the negative pressure in the barrel following discharge may suck blood ,hair fragments, tissue,cloth fibers several cm. Back inside the barrel called back spatter .back spatter is more common with shotgun.The discharge from muzzle i.e gases,flames,powder,smoke & mettalic paicles are blown into the track taken by bullet through the body . the wound is large ,triangular ,stellate ,cruciate ,elliptical showing cavitations. | 156,940 | medmcqa_train |
The level of blister formation in bullous pemphigoid is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sub epidermal Site of blistersIntraepidermalSubepidermal (Dermo-epidermal)1) Subcorneal (granular layer)1) Junctional (at Basal lamina)o Blister is in granular layer or just below stratum corneumi) Junctional epidermolysis bullosaii) Bullous pemphigoidiii) Toxic epidermal necrolysi si) Pemphigus foliaceous & erythmatosusii) Staphylococcal scalded skin syndromeiii) Miliaria crystalinaiv) Bullous impetigov) Friction blistervi) Subcorneal pustulai dermatosis2) Dermolytic (Below basal lamina)i) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisitaii) Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophicansiii) Dermatitis herpetiformisiv) Deep burnsv) Porphyria cutanea tarda2) Spinous layero Blisters are within spinous layeri) Eczematous (atopic) dermatitisii) HSV/VZV infectioniii) Molluscum contagiosumiv) Familial benign pemphigus (Hailey-Hailey disease)3) Suprabasalo Blisters are between stratum basale and other superficial layers of epidermisi) Pamphigus vulgarisii) Darrier's disease4) Basal layero Blisters are within basal layeri) Erythema multiformeii) Epidermolysis bullosa simplex | 156,941 | medmcqa_train |
Koenen tumor seen in ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tuberous sclerosis Periungual fibromas (Koenen's tumors) :? Present in 20% of patients of tuberous sclerosis. Develop in adult life. Small, pink, sausage-shaped growths arising from under the nail folds; may disto the nail plate. | 156,942 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are causes of Transdative pleural effusion Except | TABLE 316-1 Differential Diagnoses of PleuralEffusions Transudative Pleural Effusions 1. Congestive hea failure 2. Cirrhosis 3. Nephrotic syndrome 4. Peritoneal dialysis 5. Superior vena cava obstruction 6. Myxedema 7. Urinothorax Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1719 | 156,943 | medmcqa_train |
Most common complication of cadwell-luc operation is: | Most common complication of Caldwell-Luc operation is injury to infraorbital nerve which occurs is 21% cases. Ref.Scott Brown 7/e,Vol 2,p1494. | 156,944 | medmcqa_train |
Following is true about safety muscle of tongue | Ref BDC volume 3,6th edition pg 268Genioglossus is a life-saving muscle and its action is to protrude the tongueAll intrinsic and extrinsic muscles except palatoglossus are supplied by hypoglossal nerve | 156,945 | medmcqa_train |
Hard palate contains: | Ref. Gray’s anatomy. 41st edition. Page. 510
Hard Palate
The hard palate is located on the roof of the oral cavity, posterior and medial to the alveolar process of the maxilla.
The bony structure is formed by the palatine processes of the maxilla and the horizontal plates of the palatine bones.
The periosteum is covered by a firmly attached mucosa centrally, although a submucosa is apparent laterally containing vessels. The hard palate is continuous with the soft palate posteriorly.
Macroscopic Features
The hard palate is typically a pale pink colour and may have an orange peel appearance from the palatine salivary glands (more common posteriorly).
Microscopy
The hard palate is lined with a keratinising stratified squamous epithelium, tightly bound to the underlying periosteum of the palatine bone/maxilla. There is minimal submucosa, which becomes more prominent posteriorl | 156,946 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following components is a potent neutrophil chemotactic agent? | C5a promotes chemotaxis. The complement components C l, C2, and the C789 complex do not promote chemotaxis. | 156,947 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following can prevent coagulation of blood: | Ans b: (Ref: Guyton 11th edition p466-467)Methods to present blood coagulation in vitro1 Siliconized containers - Present contact activation of platelets & Factor 82 Heparin - Especially is heart lung machine /artificial kidney3 Oxalate compunds - By precipitation of calcium oxalate compounds4 Citrate compounds(Sodium citrate, ammonium citrate, potassium citrate)- By deionization of blood calcium by forming an unionized calcium compound.But remember citrate anticoagulants are superior to oxalate anticoagulants because oxalate is toxic to body; but moderate quantities of citrate can be injected intravenously | 156,948 | medmcqa_train |
What is Neurapraxia: September 2010 | Ans. D: Reversible physiological nerve conduction block Neurapraxia is pa of Seddon's classification scheme used to classify nerve damage. It is a transient episode of motor paralysis with little or no sensory or autonomic dysfunction. Neurapraxia describes nerve damage in which there is no disruption of the nerve or its sheath. In this case there is an interruption in conduction of the impulse down the nerve fiber, and recovery takes place without true regeneration, as Wallerian degeneration does not occur. This is the mildest form of nerve injury. This is probably a biochemical lesion caused by concussion or shock-like injuries to the fiber. | 156,949 | medmcqa_train |
The pathogenicity of E. histolytica is indicated by: | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Zymodeme patternZymodeme (isoenzyme) analysis: E. histolytica possesses several isoenzymes like malic enzyme, hexokinase, isomerase and phosphoglucomutase and these isoenzymes contribute in pathogenesis. When these isoenzymes are subjected to electrophoresis based on electrophoretic pattern (Zymodeme pattern) and mobility of these isoenzymes, Entamoeba can be diagnosed and speciated. | 156,950 | medmcqa_train |
Increased incidence of breast carcinoma is seen with- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Atypical hyperplasia o Patients with a history-' of breast biopsy for benign breast disease have an increased risk of breast cancer. The degree of increase in risk depends on the specific epithelial abnormality. The table below shows the relative associated risks for patients with benign histologic findings.American Board of Pathology Histologic Classification of Benign DiseaseHistopatiioiogyApproximate Relative RiskNonproliferativeNo added riskCysts Duct ectasia Calcification Fibroadenoma Milk ductal epithelial hyperplasia Sclerosing adenosisNo added riskPapillomatosisSlight added riskRadial scars Complex sclerosing lesions?Moderate or florid hyperplasia1.5: 1 to 2:1Atypical hyperplasia (ductal and lobular)4:1Extensive ductal involvement of atypical hyperplasia 7:1 Lobular carcinoma in situ10:1Ductal carcinoma in situ10:1 | 156,951 | medmcqa_train |
Which type of pelvis is favorable for Face to pubis delivery? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Anthropoid Important educational points* Normal female pelvis - Gynaecoid pelvis* Male type pelvis - Android pelvis.* Most common type of pelvis - Gynaecoid pelvis.* Least common type pelvis - Platypelloid pelvis.* The only pelvis with AP diameter more than transverse diameter - Anthropoid pelvis.* Face to pubes delivery is most common in Anthropoid pelvis.* Direct occipito posterior position is most common Anthropoid pelvis.* Persistantoccipito posterior position is most common in Android pelvis.* Deep transverse arrest/ Non Rotation / Dystocia is most common in Android pelvis.* Broad flat pelvis - Platypelloid pelvis. | 156,952 | medmcqa_train |
Rapid test used by WHO for tuberculosis ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Sputum AFB Sputum smear microscopy is the quickest and easiest procedure. But it lacks both sensitivity and specificity. Smears are stained by ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain. Sputum smear examination (by AFB stain) is the method of choice for case finding. Note : Genexpe MTB/RIF is also a fast test (results within 90 minutes), but it is not routinely recommended by WHO. | 156,953 | medmcqa_train |
Ocular manifestations of dengue are all except | Ans. (a) CataractRef: American Academy of Ophthalmology, BSCS, Section 9/p. 219* Dengue fever - caused by Flaviviridiae and transmitted by Aedes aegyptiOcular manifestations* Petechial subconjunctival hemorrhage - most common manifestation* Maculopathy (bilateral and asymmetric) - in 10% patients after one month of onset of systemic disease, causing sudden loss of vision and central scotoma* Optic disc hyperemia* Intraretinal hemorrhages with periphlebitis* Yellow subretinal dots* RPE mottling* Fovealitis | 156,954 | medmcqa_train |
Clomiphene citrate challenge test (CCCT) is used for | Clomiphene citrate challenge test : Used to asses the ovarian reserve of a woman On D3- Check serum FSH ON D5- D9 - Give 100mcg Clomiphene citrate (CC) On D10- Check serum FSH High FSH value on D3 which increases fuher on D10 : indicates poor reserve | 156,955 | medmcqa_train |
Dryness of mouth with facial N.injury-site of lesion is at - | Chorda Tympani Nerve Carries | 156,956 | medmcqa_train |
Breast carcinoma is associated with all except: | ATR is associated with ataxia telengectasia. | 156,957 | medmcqa_train |
Results of a test were given as very satisfied, satisfied, dissatisfied, it representes | Scales can be: Qualitative: Categorical scales: Nominal : eg: names of countries . Dichotomous : eg: yes/no, presence/absence. Ordinal : severity of disease: mild/moderate/severe.eg: staging of cancer, kuppusamy socioeconomic class. Quantitative: Metric scales: Interval Ratio | 156,958 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for hepatitis B: | Tenofovir is a first-line agent in the treatment of hepatitis B. It prevents the formation of 5' to 3' phosphodiester linkage essential for DNA chain elongation. Hence it causes premature termination of DNA transcription. | 156,959 | medmcqa_train |
Gold standard for detection of gall stones is? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., USG * Investigation of choice for cholelithiasis (gallstone in gallbladder) and choledocholithiasis (gallstone in common bile duct) is USG.Investigations of gall bladder diseases1) Ultrasonography: - This is the investigation of choice for the detection of gallstones, and obstructive jaundice. USG shows echogenic focus with posterior acoustic shadowing. The most specific sign of a contracted, stone filled gallbladder is a hypoechoic wall superficial to a curvilinear echo from the stones and an acoustic shadow:- WES triad (Wall, Echo, Shadow) or the "Double arc shadow sign".2) Plane x-ray: - Only 10% of gall stones are radio-opaque. Therefore, plane x-ray is of limited value.3) Oral cholecystogram (OCG): - Dye used for OCG is ipanoic acid. Filling defect, due to stones, will be seen within the gall bladder.4) Cholangiogram (outline of common bile duct) Intravenous injection of biligrafin is given and frequent radiograph are taken as the liver excretes the biligrafin. Impacted stone in CBD classically shows cresentic shadow or meniscus sign on cholangiogram.5) Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC): - This is a useful procedure in obstructive lesions. It is usually done as an immediate preoperative investigation. PTC can be used for drainage, cholangioplasty and stent placement.* Computed tomography (CT) scan has limited value in the diagnosis of gall stones since gall stones may exhibit the same radiographic density as bile and hence may not be seen on CT | 156,960 | medmcqa_train |
All are components of gun-powder EXCEPT: | Gun Powder is of two types: a) Black gun powder: Contains Potassium nitrate 75% + Charcoal 15% + sulphur 10% b) Smokeless Powder is of following types: -Single Base: Contains nitrocellulose -Double Base: contains nitrocellulose + nitroglycerine -Triple Base: Contains Nitrocellulose + Nitroglycerine + nitroguanidine | 156,961 | medmcqa_train |
A 45 day-old infant developed icterus and two days later symptoms and signs of acute liver failure appeared. Child was found to be positive for HbsAg. The mother was also HBs Ag carrier. The mother's hepatitis B serological profile is likely to be: | HBeAg-positive women in third trimester frequently transmit infection to the fetus (80-90%) in the absence of immunoprophylaxis, whereas those who are negative rarely infect the fetus. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 355, "Viral Hepatitis", In the book, "NELSON TEXTBOOK OF PEDIATRICS", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Page 1683. | 156,962 | medmcqa_train |
Objects are seen reduced in size in | Lilliputian hallucinations (micropsia) objects are seen reduced in size. It is more properly regarded as an illusion Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 360 | 156,963 | medmcqa_train |
Double bubble sign in an X-ray abdomen is indicative of: | Ans. Annular pancreas | 156,964 | medmcqa_train |
Sample collection for renal tuberculosis is | BACTERIOLOGICAL:- The diagnosis of genitourinary TB is confirmed on a tuberculin test or atleast three consecutive early morning samples of urine are collected and sent for microscopy (Ziehl-Neelsen staining), culture on Lowenstein-Jensen medium. RADIOGRAPHY:- A plain abdominal radiograph may show calcified lesions of CEMENT KIDNEY. INTRAVENOUS UROGRAPHY:-EARLY:-Normally clear cut outline of renal papillae may be rendered indistinct by presence of ulceration. TUBERCULOUS ABSCESS:-Appears as SOL , which causes adjacent calyces to splay out. LATE:- Dilatation of contralateral ureter from obstruction where the ureters passes through thickened and oedmatous bladder wall. CYSTOSCOPY:- GOLF-HOLE ureteric orifice. CXR:-Active Lung lesion. Reference : Bailey27th edition . chapter 76 , pg no: 1405 | 156,965 | medmcqa_train |
Fat-soluble vitamins, compared with their water soluble counterpas. generally have a greater potential toxicity for because they are | Fat soluble vitamins, especially A and D, can be stored in massive amounts and hence, have a potential for serious toxicities. Water soluble vitamins are easily excreted by the kidney and accumulation to toxic levels is much less common. Conversely, inadequate dietary intake will lead to manifestations of deficiency relatively faster. | 156,966 | medmcqa_train |
All the primary ossification centers are appeared at fetal age of: WB 11 | Ans. 4 months | 156,967 | medmcqa_train |
All are branch of mandibular nerve except:- | Mandibular nerve (V3 division). The Mandibular Nerve leaves the inferior margin of trigeminal ganglion and leaves the skull through the foramen ovale The Motor Root of the V3 also passes through the foramen ovale & unites with the sensory component of the mandibular nerve outside the skull, Thus, the mandibular nerve is the only branch of trigeminal nerve that contains a motor component. Branches: Nerve to medial pterygoid from main trunk Anterior division: Supplies muscles of mastication. Posterior division: 3 Branches - Auriculotemporal nerve Inferior alveolar nerve Lingual nerve Zygomatic nerve - branch of Maxillary division of Vth nerve | 156,968 | medmcqa_train |
A male 25 years old presents to the dental clinic due to food lodgement in lower back region tooth. He also gives the history of previous dental treatments of other teeth as well. On examination it is revealed that interproximal caries is present between right mandibular molars. The clinician restores the tooth with amalgam.
The carving of the restoration can be done by which of the following ? | A discoid–cleoid instrument may be used to carve the occlusal surface of an amalgam restoration. The rounded end (discoid) is positioned on the unprepared enamel adjacent to the amalgam margin and pulled parallel to the margin. This removes any excess at the margin while not allowing the marginal amalgam to be carved below the preparation margins (i.e., “submarginated”).
The pointed end (cleoid) of the instrument may be used to define the primary grooves, fossae, and cuspal inclines. The Hollenback carver is also useful for carving these areas.The reproduction of grooves and fossae is necessary to provide appropriate mastication and sluiceways for the escape of food from the occlusal table. The mesial and distal fossae are carved to be inferior to the marginal ridge height, helping limit the potential for food to be wedged into the occlusal embrasure. Having rounded and relatively shallow occlusal anatomy also helps achieve a 90-degree amalgam margin on the occlusal surface and to ensure adequate occlusogingival dimension of the final amalgam restoration for strength.
Occlusal embrasure areas are developed with a thin explorer tip or carving instrument by mirroring the contours of the adjacent tooth. The explorer tip is pulled along the inside of the matrix band, creating the occlusal embrasure form. | 156,969 | medmcqa_train |
Structure of proteins can be detected by all the methods, EXCEPT: | High-performance/pressure liquid chromatography (HPLC) is a technique used for enhanced and precise separation of even small amounts of biological and nonbiological molecules. HPLC columns utilize variations of the separation principle behind column chromatography, depending on variable attractive and repulsive forces on the gel material and their interaction with the biological molecules. The analysis of peptides and structure of proteins are done by mass spectrometry. NMR spectroscopy analyzes proteins in aqueous solution. Proteins and protein complexes of >100 kDa can be analyzed by NMR. Ref: Janson L.W., Tischler M.E. (2012). Appendix II. Biochemical Methods. In L.W. Janson, M.E. Tischler (Eds), The Big Picture: Medical Biochemistry. | 156,970 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 yrs old male chronic smoker comes with acute epigastric discomfo for past one hour .ECG showing ST segment elevation in inferior leads . What is the immediate intervention | Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 1596 Initial treatment should begin with the platelet cyclooxygenase inhibitor aspirin. The typical initial dose is 325 mg/d, with lower doses (75-100 mg/d) recommended thereafter. Contraindications are active bleeding or aspirin intoler- ance. "Aspirin resistance" has been noted in 2-8% of patients but frequently has been related to noncompliance. | 156,971 | medmcqa_train |
Hydrocele & edema in foot occur in: | Ans : A (W.Bancrofti) Hydrocele (genital involvement) is only feature of Bancroftian filariasis (W.Bancrofti) not of (rarely) Brugian fila riasis( B. malayi& B.Timori)"In chronic Bancroftian filariasis. the main clinical features are hydrocele; elephantiasis & chyluria. The Brugian filariasis isgenerally similar to Bancroftian filariasis, but the genitalia are rarely involved, except in areas where Brugian filariasis occurs together with Bancroftian filariasis"-Park 21st/246"Wuchereria bancroftl can affect the legs, arms, vulva, breasts, and scrotum (causing hydrocele formation), while Brugia timori rarely affects the genitals"-en.wikipedia.org.filariaisis"Genital lesions or chyluria (milky colour urine) do not occur in brugian filariasis. Hydrocele is the most common sign of chronic bancroftian filariasis, followed by lymphoedema, elephantiasis and chyluria-nvbdcp.gov.in"The most common presentations of the lymphatic filariases are asymptomatic (or subclinical) microfilaremia, acute adenolymphangitis (ADL), and chronic lymphatic diseases hydrocele. If lymphatic damage progresses, transient lymphedema can develop into lymphatic obstruction and the permanent changes associated with elephantiasis. Brawny edema follows early pitting edema, and thickening of the subcutaneous tissues and hyperkeratosis occuf- Harrison 18th/1746Table (Jawetz): MicrofilariaeFilariidDiseaseVectorsWuchereria bancrofti Brugia malayiBancroftian and Malayan filariasis: lymphangitis, hydrocele, elephantiasisCuliddae (mosquitoes) Culiddae (mosquitoes)Loa loaLoiasis; Calabar swellings; conjunctival wormsChrysops, deer fly, mango flyOnchocerca volvulusOnchocerciasis: skin nodules, blindness, dermatitis, hanging groinSimulium, buffalo gnat, black flyMansonella (Dipetalonema) PersiansMansonelliasis or dipetalonem iasis (minor disturbances)Culicoides, biting midgeMansonella streptocercaUsually nonpathogenicCulicoides, biting midgeMansonella ozzardiOzzard's mansonelliasis (benign), occasionally hydroceleCulicoides, biting midgeDracunculiasis (Guinea Worm Infection) Harrison 18th/1751Few or no clinical manifestations of dracunculiasis are evident until fust before the blister forms, when there is an onset of fever and generalized allergic symptoms, including periorbital edema, wheezing, and urticaria. The emergence of the worm is associated with local pain and swelling | 156,972 | medmcqa_train |
Lead pipe appearance is seen in | B i.e. Ulcerative colitis | 156,973 | medmcqa_train |
Gene for Wilson's disease is located on chromonsome | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *Wilson's disease:the underlying defect in chromosome 13 is a mutation in ATP7B gene ,the normal hepatic copper exceeding gene. </p > | 156,974 | medmcqa_train |
Investigation of choice to detect Hydatiform mole is : | USG | 156,975 | medmcqa_train |
False about telmerase is: | Telomerase prevents premature ageing. | 156,976 | medmcqa_train |
Normal saline is used as diluent in which vaccine- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., BCG BCG vaccineo BCG vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine produced by 'Bacille Calmette Guerin' an avirulent strain produced by 230 subcultures over a period of 13 years,o Types of vaccine - It is a live attenuated vaccine. There are two types of vaccineLiquid (fresh) vaccineFreeze dried (lyophilized) - more stable, currently in use.o Diluent - Normal saline is recommended as a diluent for reconstituting vaccine, as distilled water may cause irritation. The reconstituted vaccine should be used within 3 hours.o Route - Intradermalo Site - Just above the insertion of deltoid (usually left)o Dosage - # Usual strength is 0.1 mg in 0.1 ml# For newborn < 4 weeks, 0.05 ml.o Age of administraton - Either at birth or at 6 weeks of age simultaneous with DPT and polio,o Storage - BCG vaccines are stable for several weeks at ambient temprature in tropical climate, and for upto 1 year. If kept away from direct light and stored in a cool environment. The vaccine must be protected from exposure to light during storage (wrapped up in double layer of red or black cloth),o Duration of protection - 15 to 20 years,o Booster - Not advised under EPL | 156,977 | medmcqa_train |
In JVP 'c' wave indicates which of the following cardiac events? | The 'c' wave is the transmitted manifestation of the rise in atrial pressure produced by bulging of the tricuspid valve into the atria during isovolumetric contraction. 'a' wave is atrial systole, 'v' wave rise in atrial pressure before tricuspid valve opens during systole. | 156,978 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following amino acids in a protein commonly acts as a potential O-Glycosylation site for attachment of an oligosaccharide unit - | O-glycosylation:- Addition of oligosaccharide to hydroxyl chain of serine or threonine.
N-glycosylation:- Addition of oligosaccharide to the amide nitrogen of asparagine. | 156,979 | medmcqa_train |
Uses of woods light includes following EXCEPT | Sclerema is characterized by diffuse hardening of the subcutaneous tissue with minimal inflammation. It usually affects premature, ill newborns. Diagnosis of Sclerema does not require use of wood light. | 156,980 | medmcqa_train |
Anterior surface of stomach is in contact with the following ribs: | The lateral pa of the anterior surface is posterior to the left costal margin and in contact with the diaphragm, which separates it from the left pleura, the base of the left lung, the pericardium and the left sixth to ninth ribs. Ref: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 71. | 156,981 | medmcqa_train |
What complication should one expect when PCNL is done through 11th intercostals space? | Percutaneous nephrolitotomy (PCNL) is the procedure done for renal calculi. When the procedure is done through the 11th intercostal space there is a chance of developing pneumothorax or hydrothorax in patients. Ref: Smith's Textbook of Endourology By Glenn Preminger, Gopal Badlani, Louis Kavouss, 3rd Edition, Page 132 | 156,982 | medmcqa_train |
Coarctation of aorta is most commonly seen w ith- | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Bicuspid aortic Valveo Coarctation of the Aorta -Constrictions of the aorta of varying degrees may occur at any point from the transverse arch to the iliac bifurcation, but 98% occur just below^ the origin of the left subclavian artery at the origin of the ductus arteriosus (juxtaductal coarctation).The anomaly occurs twice as often in males as in females.Coarctation of the aorta may be a feature of Turner syndrome and is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve in more than 70% of patients.Mitral valve abnormalities (a supravalvular mitral ring or parachute mitral valve) and subaortic stenosis are potential associated lesions.When this group of left-sided obstructive lesions occurs together, they are referred to as the Shone complex. | 156,983 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following doesn't cause an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase? | Serum ALP is normal in multiple myeloma. It's an impoant point. The most common cause of hypercalcemia in patients with hypercalcemia, decreased GFR, and anemia is multiple myeloma. Alkaline phosphatase is generally normal because there is only a limited osteoblastic response to myelomatous infiltrate in the marrow Calcium is elevated. Phosphate is elevated Alkaline phosphatase is normal PTH is suppressed PTHrP is normal or low Serum protein immunoelectrophoresis is abnormal | 156,984 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following inhibits peripheral conversion of Thyroxin to Triiodothyronine? | Ans. d (Propylthiouracil) (Ref. KDT, Pharmacology, 6th ed.,250)Propylthiouracil also inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 by D1 type of 5'D1, but not by D2 type. This may partly contribute to its effects. Methimazole and carbimazole do not have this action and may even antagonize that of propylthiouracil.Differences between propylthiouracil and carbimazole PropylthiouracilCarbimazole1.Dose to dose less potentAbout 5 x more potent2.Highly plasma protein boundLess bound3.Less transferred across placenta and in milkLarger amounts cross to foetus and in milk4.Plasma tl/2=l-2 hours6--10 hours5.Single dose acts for 4-8 hours12-24 hours6.No active metaboliteProduces active metabolite-methimazole7.Multiple (2-3) daily doses neededMostly single daily dose8.Inhibits peripheral conversion of T, to T3Does not inhibit T, to T3 conversion Antithyroid DrugsFeatures1. Carbimazole, methimazole, prophlthiouracilThyroid peroxidase inhibitors2. ProphythiouracilDrug of choice in pregnancy3. Thyroid constipating AgentLugol's Iodine, Potassium iodide4. Faster acting antithyroid drugLugol's Iodine, Potassium iodide5. Drug causing destruction of thyroid gland131I6. Drug inhibiting peripheral conversion of T4 and T3Propranolol, Prophylthiouracil, Lithium, Amiodoraone | 156,985 | medmcqa_train |
Nissl substance is found in: March 2013 | Ans. A i.e. Neuron Nissl body/Nissl or tigroid substance It is a large granular body found in neurons. These granules are rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) with rosettes of free ribosomes, and are the site of protein synthesis. It was named after Franz Nissl, a German neurologist who invented the Nissl staining method | 156,986 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following drugs are commonly used in regimens against H. pylori except: | Answer is A (Oxytetracycline): Oxytetrocycline has not been mentioned as a recommended agent for eradication of H Pylori and hence is the single best answer of choice. Tetracycline and not Oxytetracycline forms pa of the regimen. Amoxycillin, Bismuth subsalicylate and Omeprozole have all been recommended for H. Pylori eradication Recommended Regimens for Eradication of H. Pylori (Harrison) TRIPLE THERAPY' Bismuth subsalicylate plus Metronidazole plus Tetracycline Ranitidine bismuth citrate plus Tetracycline plus Clarithromycin or Metronidazole - PPI plus Clarithromycin plus Metronidazole or Amoxicillin QUADRUPLE THERAPY PPI plus Bismuth subsalicylate plus Metronidazole plus Tetracycline All PP1 are given twice daily except esomeprazolc (once daily) Proton Pump inhibitiors (PPI) include: Omeprazole (20mg), Lansaprazole (30mg) Rabeprazole (20 mg), Pantaprazole (40 mg), Esmaprozole (40 mg) | 156,987 | medmcqa_train |
ANOVA is- | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 852 It is a Quantitative test/Metric test. Tests of significance: Qualitative: Chi- square : 2 or more than 2 groups Mc Nemar test : 1 group. ( before and after intervention) Quantitative: Paired T test: 1 group Student T test/ unpaired T test: 2 groups Anova: more than 2 groups. | 156,988 | medmcqa_train |
All the following findings would be expected in a person with coarctation of the aoa ciccpt : | Answer is C (Inability to augment cardiac output with exercise) In coarctation of aoa unless the hypeension is very severe or left ventricular failure has ensued, cardiac output responds normally to exercise. Usually a systolic ejection murmur is heard anteriorly and over the back. If the obstruction is very severe a continuous murmur would be heard. Coarctation of aoa is commonly accompanied by a bicuspid aoic valve, which can produce the diastolic murmur of aoic regurgitation. Coarctation of the Aoa usually occurs just distal to the origin of the left subclan aery. If it arises above the left subclan, Aerial blood pressure elevation may be evident only in the right arm. In coarctation of aoa unless the hypeension is very severe or left ventricular failure has ensued, cardiac output responds normally to exercise. Hypeension is the major clinical problem and may persist even after complete surgical correction. | 156,989 | medmcqa_train |
During accommodation, there occurs decrease in the radius of curvature of the: | Ans. Both surfaces of the lens | 156,990 | medmcqa_train |
Lesser cornu of hyoid bone is derived from which arch: | Ans. (b) 2nd branchial archRef. Inderbir Singh's Embroyology 9th ed. /116-117, 7th ed. /119-120* At first there are 6 arches. The 5th arch disappears.* Lesser cornu of hyoid bone is derived from 2nd arch.* Greater cornu of hyoid bone is derived from 3rdarch.Derivatives of Branchial arches and their respective nerve supply1st Branchial arch2nd Branchial arch3rd Branchial arch4th Branchial arch6th Branchial arch# Malleus and Incus# Maxilla# Mandible# Muscle of mastication# Stapes# Upper half of body of hyoid# Lesser cornu of hyoid# Muscle of facial expression# Lower part of body of hyoid# Greater cornu of hyoid# Thymus# Upper thyroid cartilage# Cricothyroid muscle# Lower half of thyroid cartilage# Arytenoid, Cuneiform, Corniculate cartilage# All intrinsic laryngeal muscle except cricothyroidNerve: Mandibular branch of CN 5thFacial NerveGlossopharyngeal nerveVagus + Superior Laryngeal nerveVagus + Recurrent laryngeal nerve | 156,991 | medmcqa_train |
A 20 yr old male presents with anterior shoulder dislocation. The injury is usually caused as a combination of which of the following ? | Anterior shoulder dislocation Indirect force -abduction, external rotation, extebtion Direct force -blow from posterior aspect of shoulder Most common mechanism for injury of anterior dislocation of shoulder is fall on outstretched hand Refer Maheshwari 6th/e p 89 | 156,992 | medmcqa_train |
Tumor marker for Breast cancer? | Tumor MarkersTumor TypesCA-125 Ovarian cancerCA 19-9 Colon and Pancreatic cancerCA 15-3 Breast cancerCEACarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and heaRef: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 7; Neoplasia; Page no:337; Table: 7-12 | 156,993 | medmcqa_train |
Ground glass hepatocyte is seen in which hepatitis? | Ans. (b) Hepatitis B(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 837; 8th/pg 852)Diagnostic hallmark of Chronic Hepatitis B is "ground- glass" hepatocytes (cells with endoplasmic reticulum swollen by HBsAg) | 156,994 | medmcqa_train |
Weakest poion of Dermo- epidermal junction is | LAMINA LUCIDA * Electron-lucent zone under hemidesmosome on EM; weakest link of BMZ (Basement membrane zone). * Comprised of anchoring filaments (laminin-332), laminin-1, fibronectin, nidogen (entactin), uncein and poion of BPAG2. Anchoring Filaments :- * Delicate filaments emanating perpendicularly from HD(hemi-desmosomes) which stretch from plasma membrane to lamina densa; product of basal keratinocytes; smaller than anchoring fibrils * Laminin-332: also known epiligrin (truncated laminin), laminin-5, kalinin, and nicein; glycoprotein serving as major component of anchoring filaments; major attachment factor for keratinocytes and binds a6b4 integrin at hemidesmosome . Ref:- Sima Jain; pg num:- 7 | 156,995 | medmcqa_train |
"Maidon Teeth" is due to: | Fluoride | 156,996 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 year old woman was on chemotherapy for 6 months for Ovarian carcinoma. Now she presented with a progressive bilateral Sensorineural hearing loss. The Drug responsible for this includes | (A) Cisplatin# Platinum-containing chemotherapeutic agents, including cisplatin and carboplatin, are associated with cochleotoxicity characterized by high-frequency hearing loss and tinnitus.> Ototoxicity is less frequently seen with the related compound oxaliplatin. | 156,997 | medmcqa_train |
Climbing fibres send excitatory input to: | Functional unit of cerebellum = purkinje cell & corresponding deep nuclear cell. Afferents to cerebellum: - 1. Climbing fibers 2. Mossy fibers Climbing fibers all originate from the inferior olives of the medulla; forming the olivocerebellar tract. They are excitatory to the deep nuclear cell (excitatory) purkinje cell (inhibitory) | Precise output for motor movements Mossy fibers - afferents from various other sources send excitatory collateral to deep nuclear cell and proceed to excite granule cells. Granule cells send out extremely sho axons up to the molecular layer cerebellar coex where they divide into 2 branches running parallel to the folia, k/a parallel nerve fibers. Golgi cells, stellate cells & basket cells are inhibitory cells with sho axons, located in the molecular layer of cerebellar coex they send axons to adjacent purkinje cells & cause lateral inhibition, thus sharpening the output signal. | 156,998 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following provides the most accurate measure of GFR? | Ans. C. Inulin clearancea. Inulin clearance is the standard for measuring GFR.b. Because Inulin is neither secreted nor reabsorbed, only filtered, so rate of clearance is equal to GFR.c. (Creatinine is slightly secreted from the peritubular capillaries into the tubules)d. PAH clearance is used to measure renal plasma flow, not GFR. | 156,999 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.