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A patient presents with breast ca. Inspection shows peaud' orange appearance. What is the T stage of the tumor | According to TNM staging , primary tumour (T) Tx- cannot be assesed T0- Nevidence of primary tumour. T1-<20mm T2-20 to 50mm T3->50mm T4a- tumour of any size extending to chest wall T4b- ulceaion or ipsilateral satellite nodule / edema with peaud'orange appearence T4c- T4a and T4b T4d- inflammatory carcinoma. SRB's Manual of Surgery.Edition -5. Pg no:539. | 156,300 | medmcqa_train |
During cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adult, chest compressions are given at the rate of: September 2011 | Ans. C: 100 compressions/min Compression rate for infant, child and adult is 100 compressions/min | 156,301 | medmcqa_train |
True about parotid tumor:a) Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common varietyb) Malignant disease is most common varietyc) Facial nerve involvement indicates malignancyd) Superficial paroditectomy is the t/t of choice | In parotid tumors, rapid growth, pain, paraesthesia, enlarged cervical LN and restriction of jaw movements, facial weakness or skin invasion and fixation of mastoid tip is suggestive of malignant transformation. | 156,302 | medmcqa_train |
Zollinger Ellison syndrome true about A/E | Zollinger-Ellison syndrome This syndrome is mentioned here because the gastrin producing endocrine tumour is often found in the duodenal loop, although it also occurs in the pancreas, especially the head. It is a cause of persistent peptic ulceration. Before the development of potent gastric antisecretory agents, the condition was recognised by the sometimes fulminant peptic ulceration which did not respond to gastric surgery sho of total gastrectomy. It was also recognisable from gastric secretory studies in which the patient had a very high basal acid output but no marked response to pentagastrin, as the parietal cell mass was already nearly maximally stimulated by pathological levels of gastrin. The advent of proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole has rendered this extreme endocrine condition fully controllable, but also less easily recognised. Gastrinomas may be either sporadic or associated with the autosomal dominantly inherited multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) type I (in which a parathyroid adenoma is almost invariable). The tumours are most commonly found in the 'gastrinoma triangle' (Passaro) defined by the junction of the cystic duct and common bile duct superiorly, the junction of the second and third pas of the duodenum inferiorly, and the junction of the neck and body of the pancreas medially (essentially the superior mesenteric aery). Many are found in the duodenal loop, presumably arising in the G cells found in Brunner's glands. It is extremely impoant that the duodenal wall is very carefully inspected endoscopically and also at operation. Very often all that can be detected is a small nodule that projects into the medial wall of the duodenum. Even malignant sporadic gastrinomas may have a very indolent course. The palliative resection of liver metastases may be beneficial and liver transplantation is practised in some centres, as for other gut endocrine tumours, with reasonable long-term results. However, the minority of tumours found to the left of the superior mesenteric aery (outside the 'triangle') seem to have a worse prognosis, more having liver metastases at presentation. In MEN type I, the tumours may be multiple and the condition is incurable. Even in this situation,as with sporadic gastrinoma, surgical treatment should be employed to remove any obvious tumours and associated lymphatic metastases, as the palliation achieved may be good. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1141 | 156,303 | medmcqa_train |
According to the transplantation of Human organs act 1994, what is the punishment for a doctor found guilty - | Transplantation of Human Organs Act , 1994 deals with putting a stop to live unrelated transplants, it defines a donor and recipient are genetically related in a live organ transplantation and it accepts brain stem death criterion. A doctor who is found guilty he will be punished for 2 - 5 years. Dr. K. S. Narayan Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 325 | 156,304 | medmcqa_train |
A lady with 12 wks of pregnancy having fasting blood glucose 170mg, the antidiabetic drug of choice is - | Ans. is 'a' insulin insulin (Ref Dutta 6/e, p 288 (5/e, p. 304); Holland and Brews, 16/e, p. 107).Insulin is the only antidiabetic drug given in pregnancy to control increased blood sugar.Oral hypoglycemics are contraindicated in pregnancy because they cross placenta and have teratogenic effect on fetus.They cause fetal hypoglycemia and increase m fetal bilirubin.Moreover the increase demand in pregnancy cannot be met by oral hypoglycemics. | 156,305 | medmcqa_train |
Plantar reflex root value is | (B) Afferent S1, Efferent L5, S1 # PATHWAYS FOR PLANTAR REFLEX:> Afferent: Nociception detected in the S1 dermatome and travels up the tibial nerve to the sciatic nerve to roots of L5, S1 and synapse in the anterior horn to elicit the motor response.> Efferent: Motor response back through the L5, S1 roots to the sciatic nerve to its bifurcation. Toe flexors are innervated by tibial nerve. Toe extensors (extensor hallicus longus, extensor digitorum longus) are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve. Loss of normal adult descending pyramidal control of the reflex arc to suppress extensor withdrawl results in the up-going toes in the plantar reflex known as Babinski's sign. There is no such thing as a negative Babinski's sign.> Causes of an extensor plantar response: Pyramidal tract lesions; Normal children up to one year of age; Deep sleep; Coma; General Anaesthesia; Postictal stage of epilepsy; Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT); Hypoglycaemia; Alchol intoxication; Narcosis; Hypnosis; Following severe physical exhaustion; Head trauma with concussion.> Root values of Reflexes: Biceps reflex (C5, C6) Brachioradialis reflex (C5, C6, C7) Extensor digitorum reflex (C6, C7) Triceps reflex (C6, C7, C8) Patellar reflex or knee-jerk reflex L2, L3, L4) Ankle jerk reflex (Achilles reflex) (S1, S2) Plantar reflex or Babinski reflex (L5, S1, S2) | 156,306 | medmcqa_train |
Cell involved in immunity against parasitic infection: | Ans: b (Eosinophil )Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 205Eosinophils are involved ina) Type 1 HS reaction by IgEb) Parasitic infections> Major chemokines for eosinophilic recruitment - eotaxin, IL5> Major basic protein - A cationic protein in eosinophils that is toxic to parasites. | 156,307 | medmcqa_train |
MC joint involved in Gout - | Most common joint involved in gout is big toe, i.e. metatarsophalangeal joint of great toe. | 156,308 | medmcqa_train |
Most common post-operative complication of spinal anaesthesia - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Post-spinal headache Complications of spinal anaesthesiaIntraoperativePostoperativeo Hypotension (most common)o Bradycardiao Respiratory depressiono Cardiac arresto Hypothermia in elderlyo Haedache (post dural puncture headach) - most commono Cranial nerve palsies (any cranial nerve except the 1st, 9th & 10th most commonly 6th nerve is involved)o Cauda equina syndromeo Arachnoiditiso Meningitiso Urinary retentiono Neurological deficit, e.g. paraplegiao Muscle wasting | 156,309 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following statements about apoproteins are true, EXCEPT: | Apoprotein C-II acts as an activator of lipoprotein lipase. It is required as a co-factor for lipoprotein lipase activity. Ref: Harper's Textbook of Biochemistry, 27th Edition, Page 217-18 | 156,310 | medmcqa_train |
Ketamine causes: | Ans. (a) HallucinationRef. Katzung 9th edJ 1604; KDT 6th ed./376* Ketamine is the only intravenous anesthetic that possesses analgesic properties and produces cardiovascular stimulation.* It is pharmacologically related to the hallucinogen Phencyclidine; induces a so called "dissociative anesthesia characterized by profound analgesia, immobility, amnesia and feeling of dissociation from one's own body and the surrounding.* It causes:# Hallucination# Delusion and illusion.# Profound analgesia* Ketamine increases all pressures like:# BP (hypertension)# Intracranial tension (ICT)# Intraocular pressure (IOP)* It is contraindicated in intracerebral mass/hemorrhage.MUST KNOW ABOUT KETAMINE: (Remembered as)KKids: can be given to kidsEEmergence reaction: s/e occurring during recoveryTThalamo-cortical junction affected: Dissociative AnesthesiaAAnalgesia strongestMMeal: can be given with full stomachIIncrease: BP/IOP/ICTNNMDA receptor blockerEExcellent bronchodilator: inducing agent of choice in asthma patient.Also Know* PROPOFOL causes myocardial depression and fall in BP. | 156,311 | medmcqa_train |
which of the following Is used in the treatment of hyperprolactineinia? | Dopamine actions are always opposite to prolactin Bromocriptine is a dopamine receptor agonist (mainly D2 receptors). Dopamine is the main factors controlling prolactin secretion. Being a agonist it effectively reduces the secretion of prolactin. apa from bromocriptine, cabergoline, pergolide are also used in hyperprolactenemia (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 236) | 156,312 | medmcqa_train |
Horizontal line can be drawn by a child at the earliest by the age of: | Ans. b (2 years)Screening Scheme For Developmental Delay (Upper Range)Age (mths)Gross motorFine motorSocial skillsLanguage3Supports weight on forearmOpens hands spontaneouslySmiles appropriatelyCoos, laughs6Sits momentarilyTransferShows likes & dislikesBabbles9Pulls to standPincer graspPlays Pat-a-cake, Peek a-booImitates sound-12Walks with one hand heldReleases an object on commandComes when called1-2 meaningful words18Walks upstairs with assistanceFeeds from spoonMimics others actionAtleast 6 words24RunsBuilds a tower of 6 blocks.Draws a straight linePlays with others2-3 word sentences36Stands momentarily on footPlays with othersKnows full name.Understands speechOnly babbles48Hop, walk on straight lineCopy circleDiff. short from long lineProposition | 156,313 | medmcqa_train |
Down syndrome is due to non-disjunction of - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 21 Chromosome In 95% of cases of Down syndrome-trisomy of 21:-o Extra chromosome is of maternal in origin.o 1% have mosaic with some all have 46 chromosome,o 4% have robertsonian translocation,o t (13 : 21)o t (14 : 21)o t (15 : 21)o Very rarely long arm of chromosome 21 is triplicate (Partial trisomy). | 156,314 | medmcqa_train |
Filamentary keratitis may occur: | Ans. All of the above | 156,315 | medmcqa_train |
The sensitive stain used to stain copper in Wilson's disease is: | The copper is stained with rhodamine and rubeanic acid stains. More sensitive stain used is TIMMS SULFIDE. It is more effective in detecting cytoplasmic copper binding proteins. Trichrome stainning is used to show fibrous tissue. ALSO KNOW: The rhodanine stain is used to demonstrate excess copper in hepatocytes in Wilson's disease and also to demonstrate copper deposition in chronic biliary diseases. Ref: Schiffs disease of liver, Edition-11, Page-812 | 156,316 | medmcqa_train |
A boy presents with injury to medial epicondyle of the humerus. Which of the following would NOT be seen:- | Injury to medial epicondyle damages ulnar nerve - Paralysis of flexor carpi ulnaris (loss of ulnar detion) Medial half of flexor digitorum profundus (loss of DIP flexion) Hypothenar muscle paralysis (and atrophy) and Sensory loss on the hypothenar eminence. Flexor digitorum superficialis (supplied by median nerve for finger flexion) and extensor digitorum (supplied by radial nerve for finger extension) are still functional. | 156,317 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug is not used for the overactive bladder | Refer Goodman and Gilman 12e 231,232 Anticholinergic drugs are indicated for overactive bladder and darifenacin, solefenacin,oxybutynin,tolterodine and fesoteradine are commonly used for this condition . | 156,318 | medmcqa_train |
Calrexin and calreticulin are - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chaperons Calrexin and calreticulino Calreticulin & calrexin are major Ca2+ binding (storage) chaperones in the endoplasmic reticulumo These Ca2+ binding chaperones, which are involved in protein folding, posttranslational modification, Ca2+ storage and release, and lipid synthesis and metabolism.o They are the key component of the calreticulin/calnexin cycle which is responsible for the folding of newly synthesized proteins and glycoproteins and for quality control pathways in the endoplasmic reticulumo They bind to misfolded proteins and prevent them from being exported from the endoplasmic reticulum to the Golgi apparatus.o Calreticulin and calnexin are also integral proteins in the production of MHC class I Proteins | 156,319 | medmcqa_train |
Spot diagnosis for foot deformity? | Ans. (c) Rocker bottom footThe image shows convexity at the sole of the foot sole. In CTEV the bilateral feet and toes point inwards facing each other. | 156,320 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is true during the 12-hour period preceding ovulation? | Ovulation will not take place unless a surge of LH precedes it. Immediately prior to ovulation, the number of follicles is decreasing due to normal attrition of all but one follicle, and consequently estrogen synthesis by the ovary is decreasing. Progesterone synthesis is stimulated by the LH surge. | 156,321 | medmcqa_train |
A young nulliparous woman has 3rd degree uterovaginal prolapse without any cystocele or rectocele. There is no stress incontinence. Uterocervical length is 3 inches. All other symptoms are normal. The best treatment plan for her will be: | Prolapse in a young nulliparous female is seen in case of congenital prolapse.
Risk factors for congenital prolapse:
Spina bifida
Connective tissue disorders like Marfans syndrome, Ehler Danlos syndrome
Cystocele is not seen in congenital prolapse and in congenital prolapse there is infravaginal elongation of cervix (not supravaginal which is usually seen).
Management of congenital prolapse is:
Abdominal sling surgeries/ cervicopexy Like
Purandare sling/ cervicopexy
Shirodkar sling Surgeries
Virkud Sling
Performed through abdominal route
The sling is generally made of mersilene tape | 156,322 | medmcqa_train |
Mastoid is which type of epiphysis- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Traction epiphysis Types of epiphysisExamplesPressureHead of femur, head of humerus, condyles of tibia, lower end of radiusTractionGreater and lesser trochanters of femur, tubercles of humerus, mastoid processAtavisticCoracoid process of scapula, posterior tubercle of talus (as trigonum)AberrantHead of 1st metacarpal and base of other metacarpals. | 156,323 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about hyperopic obstructive cardiomyopathy except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dilatation of ventricles | 156,324 | medmcqa_train |
About 12 days after a mild upper respiratory infection, a 12-year-old boy complains of weakness in his lower extremities. Over several days, the weakness progresses to include his trunk. On physical examination, he has the weakness described and no lower extremity deep tendon reflexes, muscle atrophy, or pain. Spinal fluid studies are notable for elevated protein only. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? | The paralysis of Guillain-Barre often occurs about 10 days after a nonspecific viral illness. Weakness is gradual over days or weeks, beginning in the lower extremities and progressing toward the trunk. Later, the upper limbs and the bulbar muscles can become involved. Involvement of the respiratory muscles is life-threatening. The syndrome seems to be caused by a demyelination in the motor nerves and, occasionally, the sensory nerves. Measurement of spinal fluid protein is helpful in the diagnosis; protein levels are increased to more than twice normal, while glucose and cell counts are normal. Hospitalization for observation is indicated. Treatment can consist of observation alone, intravenous immunoglobulin, steroids, or plasma-pheresis. Recovery is not always complete. Bell palsy usually follows a mild upper respiratory infection, resulting in the rapid development of weakness of the entire side of the face. Muscular dystrophy encompasses a number of entities that include weakness over months. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease has a clinical onset including peroneal and intrinsic foot muscle atrophy, later extending to the intrinsic hand muscles and proximal legs. Werdnig-Hoffmann disease is an anterior horn disorder that presents either in utero (in about one-third of cases) or by the first 6 months of life with hypotonia, weakness, and delayed developmental motor milestones. | 156,325 | medmcqa_train |
Fluconazole is more effective than itraconazole in the following systemic fungal disease: | (Ref: KDT 6/e p763, 764) Fluconazole has maximum CNS penetration whereas itraconazole has limited entry in the brain. Therefore fluconazole is preferred over itraconazole for the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis. For all other conditions listed in the question, itraconazole is first choice drug. | 156,326 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following anesthetic agent lacks analgesic effect: March 2013 | Ans. B i.e. Thiopentone Thiopentone Ultra sho acting barbiturate (because of rapid redistribution), Lacks analgesic effect, First sign on intra-aerial injection: - White hands I/V injection presents as: - Pain, - Hypotension etc. C/I in: Porphyria (may precipitate porphyria) | 156,327 | medmcqa_train |
A 25-year-old female presents with episodes of bizarre behavior, memory lapse, and unconsciousness. She also demonstrated previously episodes of extreme hunger, sweating, and tachycardia. During one of these episodes, her blood sugar was tested and was found to be 40 mg/dL. Which of the following would most appropriately indicate a diagnosis of insulinoma? | The characteristic features of insulinomas include: (a) hypoglycemic symptoms; (b) blood glucose <50 mg/dL during the symptomatic episodes; and (c) relief of symptoms by intravenous injection of glucose (Whipple's triad). Diagnosis is confirmed by demonstration of fasting hypoglycemia in the presence of inappropriately elevated levels of insulin in the blood. A ratio of plasma insulin/glucose >0.3 is diagnostic. Circulating levels of C-peptide are usually elevated in patients with insulinoma but not in patients with such other causes of hypoglycemia as tumors of mesenchymal origin and liver tumors. Patients who surreptitiously administer insulin develop insulin antibodies. | 156,328 | medmcqa_train |
The specific topical remedy suggested for angular cojunctivitis is | C i.e. Zinc sulphate | 156,329 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a sign of active rickets ? | Saddle nose is not seen in rickets. | 156,330 | medmcqa_train |
True about oral anticoagulant warfarin are all EXCEPT: | * Oral anticoagulant is warfarin. It is used only in vivo (body), not in vitro (lab).* Warfarin is not used to store blood.* It acts by inhibiting Vitamin K. Due to overdose, hematuria is the first manifestation noted.* Dose monitoring is done by INR.* Antidote of warfarin overdose: Vitamin KPT (Prothrombin Time)aPTT (activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway Used when on warfarin treatmentWePT: Warfarin for extrinsic; PT value assessed.Assess activity of Extrinsic coagulation pathway.Used while on heparin treatment.HINT: Heparin for Intrinsic; aPTT value assessed. | 156,331 | medmcqa_train |
Which stone is common in chronic laxative use: | Ans. c. Ammonia urateRef: Campbells Urology/P. 210Chronic laxative use leads to decreased sodium in the urine, as most sodium is excreted by GIT.Hence urate binds more with ammonia and this leads to ammonia urate stones. | 156,332 | medmcqa_train |
Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma of nose is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sarcomao Soft tissue sarcoma arise from mesenchyme, like muscles (myoma), endotha/ialcells (endothelioma) and cartilage (chondroma)o Epithelioid hemangioendothelioma (EHE) is a soft tissue sarcoma.o It arises from distinct type of endothelial cells which exhibit epitheloid morphology. | 156,333 | medmcqa_train |
Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa? | Bicipital aponeurosis passes superficial to the brachial aery and median nerve. It lies deep to superficial veins. During venipuncture, the bicipital aponeurosis provides limited protection for brachial aery and median nerve. | 156,334 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about focal nodular hyperplasia except: | Answer- B. More common in maleFNH is typically benign"FNH is most frequently found in young to middle-aged adults, with a strong female predilection.the lesion is multinodularBile ductules are usually found at the interface between hepatocytes and fibrous regions.Kupffer cells are present | 156,335 | medmcqa_train |
Acute graft versus host disease reaction occurs in all EXCEPT | (Adrenal) (125 - R) (134- Basic pathology 8th)* Two major problems complicate this form of transplantation bone marrow transplant rejection and graft versus host disease (GVHD)* Acute graft versus host disease (occurring due to weeks after transplant) causes epithelial necrosis in three principal target organs - liver, gut and skin | 156,336 | medmcqa_train |
Can be associated with anovulation, obesity, and amenorrheaFor the above explanations for hirsutism, select the most likely cause. | The most severe form of PCOD, Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is associated with chronic anovulation, hirsutism, enlarged cystic ovaries, obesity, and amenorrhea. The spectrum of disease, however, is quite wide, and some patients have only mild hirsutism. | 156,337 | medmcqa_train |
Diveiculum most common site is- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid colono The sigmoid colon is the segment of large bowel with the highest incidence of diveicula, and is by far the most frequent site for involvement with diveiculitis. | 156,338 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following methods is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water? | Chlorine demand of water : Is the amount of chlorine that is needed to destroy bacteria, and to oxidize all the organic matter amd ammoniacal substances present in water.
Is the amount of chlorine added to water minus amount of residual chlorine remaining at the end of a specific period of contact (1 hr).
Estimation of chlorine demand of water (or dose of bleaching powder required for disinfection of water) is done by ‘Horrock’s apparatus. | 156,339 | medmcqa_train |
True about cardiac O2 demand is | Oxygen demand depends on the work being done. The work done is to pump the blood which is in the ventricles (preload) against the resistance in the aorta (afterload).
So, myocardial oxygen demand depends on
- Rate- Directly proportional
- Contractility- Directly proportional
- Intramyocardial tension- Directly proportional
o After load- Directly proportional
o Preload- Directly proportional
o Wall thickness- Inversely proportional
- The oxygen demand of myocardium is not having the same change with varying external works. | 156,340 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following condition is associated with increase in 5'-Nucleotidase activity? | 5' nucleotidase level is elevated in obstructive or cholestatic liver disease, liver metastasis and biliary cirrhosis. 5' nucleotidase is found in or near the bile canalicular membrane of hepatocytes. Alkaline phosphatase, 5'-nucleotidase, and gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT) are the liver enzymes which are usually elevated in cholestasis. Alkaline phosphatase and 5'-nucleotidase are found in or near the bile canalicular membrane of hepatocytes, while GGT is located in the endoplasmic reticulum and in bile duct epithelial cells. Note: ALP will be elevated in bone diseases, pregnancy and cholestatic liver diseases. To confim the elevation is due to liver disease, do GGT and if both are elevated it is clear that elevation is due to cholestasis. Ref: Clinician's Pocket Reference By Leonard G. Gomella, Steven A. Haist, 11th Edition, Chapter 4; Textbook of Biochemistry for Dental Students By Vasudevan, 2nd Edition, Page 29; Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 302 | 156,341 | medmcqa_train |
Sigmoid volvulus rotation occurs | Rotation nearly always occurs in the anticlockwise direction. predisposing medical causes are: Overloaded pelvic colon Long pelvic mesocolon Band of adhesions (peridiveiculitis ) Narrow attachment of pelvic mesocolon high residue diet constipation Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1192 | 156,342 | medmcqa_train |
WER stands for | An impoant activity of WHO is epidemiological surveillance of communicable disease. WHO collects and disseminates epidemiological information on diseases subject to International health regulations and occasionally other communicable diseases of international impoance through an Automatic Telex Reply service (ATRS) and the Weekly epidemiological record (WER)Park 23e pg: 920 | 156,343 | medmcqa_train |
Pain and temperature sensation passes through which of the following tract? | (B) Lateral spino thalamic tract # Dorsal column: Touch, pressure, vibration joint position# Lateral spinothalamic tract: Pain & Temperature# Ventral spinothalamic tract: Crude touch | 156,344 | medmcqa_train |
A group of expes discuss a health topic in front of an audience, with no specific order of speeches. This method of communication is: | Panel discussion: 1. '4-8 persons' who are qualified to talk about the topic sit and discuss a given problem / topic in front of a target group of audience. 2. Panel comprises of a chairman or moderator, and 4 - 8 speakers. 3. There is 'no specific agenda, no order of speaking and no set speeches'. 4. After the speakers explore the topic, audience is invited to take pa. - News channel discussions is a type of panel discussion. Group discussion : A group is an aggregation of people interacting in a face to - face situation. | 156,345 | medmcqa_train |
During a manic episode, a patient typically exhibits: FMGE 10 | Ans. Grandiosity | 156,346 | medmcqa_train |
The following statements regarding finasteride are true except | .Finasteride, is used for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia male pattern baldness. It is a 5a-reductase inhibitor; 5a-reductase, an enzyme, conves testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) (option 3 its give otherway round) Adverse affects include increased risk for impotence, erectile dysfunction, decreased libido, and ejaculation disorder for the first year of treatment. | 156,347 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following procedures is routine technique for karyotyping using light microscopy: | G-banding which includes staining with Giemsa is the most common technique used for karyotyping Q-banding- fluorescent pattern obtained using quinacrine for staining C-banding- selective chromosome stain in which Giemsa stain is used to stain heterochromatic regions close to the centromeres V-staining- method for detecting apoptotic cells. | 156,348 | medmcqa_train |
Mineral toxicity of Manganese produces | (D) Neurologic symptoms resembling those of parkinsonism TRACE MINERALSNutrientFunctionsEffects of DeficiencyToxicity* ChromiumPromotion of glucose tolerancePossibly impaired glucose tolerance * CopperEnzyme component, hematopoiesis, bone formationAnemia in undernourished children, Menkes (kinky-hair) syndromeWilson disease, copper poisoning* FluorineBone and tooth formationPredisposition to dental caries, possibly osteoporosisFluorosis, mottling and pitting of permanent teeth, exostoses of spine* IodineThyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) synthesis, development of fetusSimple (colloid, endemic) goiter, cretinism, deaf-mutism, impaired fetal growth and brain developmentHyperthyroidism or hypothyroicism* IronHemoglobin & myoglobin formation, cytochrome enzymes, iron-sulfur proteinsAnemia, pica, glossitis, angular cheilosisHemochromatosis, cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, skin pigmentation* ManganeseHealthy bone structureComponent of manganese-specific enzymes: glycosyltransferases, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase, manganese-superoxide dismutaseQuestionableNeurologic symptoms resembling those of parkinsonism or Wilson disease* MolybdenumComponent of coenzyme for sulfite oxidase, xanthine dehydrogenase, and one aldehyde oxidaseTachycardia, headache, nausea, obtundation (sulfite toxicity) * SeleniumComponent of glutathione peroxidase and thyroid hormone iodinaseKeshan disease (viral cardiomyopathy), muscle weaknessHair loss, abnormal nails, nausea, dermatitis, peripheral neuropathy* ZincEnzyme component, skin integrity, wound healing, growthImpaired growth and delayed sexual maturation, hypogonadism, hypogeusiaRBC microcytosis, neutropenia, impaired immunity | 156,349 | medmcqa_train |
A 27 year old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is - | Fixed drug eruption manifests as skin lesions at fixed sites following drug intake. Page no.294. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology | 156,350 | medmcqa_train |
Shield ulcer is seen in - | Impoant signs of spring catarrh Conjunctival Corneal Palpebral Bulbar $? Papillary hyperophy into polygonal $? Gelatinous thickening around $? Punctate epithelial keratitis papilla limbus $? Ulcerative vernal kratitis : shallow $? Giant papilla (Cauliflower $? Ducky red triangular congestion $? Pseudogerontoson : Characterized by a classical "cupid's bow" outline. excrescence) Ref: Parson's 22nd/e p.180-181 & 21st/e p.178; Khurana 7th/e p.81 & 4th/e p.74,75 | 156,351 | medmcqa_train |
The most impoant point of reference in the use of forceps is : | Station of biparietal diameter | 156,352 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for treatment of infection caused by methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus is: | GLYCOPEPTIDE ANTIBIOTICS Vancomycin It is a glycopeptide antibiotic discovered in 1956 as a penicillin substitute which has assumed special significance due to efficacy against MRSA Strep. viridans, Enterococcus and Cl. difficile. It is bactericidal to gram-positive cocci, Neisseria, Clostridia and diphtheroids. However, in hospitals where it has been extensively used for surgical prophylaxis, etc., vancomycin-resistant Staph. aureus (VRSA) and vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus (VRE) have emerged. These nosocomial bacteria are resistant to methicillin and most other antibiotics as well. Teicoplanin It is a newer glycopeptide antibiotic which in fact is a mixture of 6 similar compounds. It is active against gram-positive bacteria only; mechanism of action and spectrum of activity is similar to vancomycin. Notable features are: * It is more active than vancomycin against enterococci, and equally active against MRSA. * Some VRE but not VRSA are susceptible to teicoplanin. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:732,733 | 156,353 | medmcqa_train |
A young, tall, thin, male with arachnodactyly have ectopia lentis in both eyes. The most likely diagnosis is | Arachnodactyly and ectopia lentis (dislocation of the lens) in tall thin male suggests Marfan&;s Syndrome.It is a genetic disorder of the connective tissue of the bodyMutation in the fibrillary gene(15 q 21.1)Loss of fibrillary fiber base for deposition of elastinAlteration in connective tissue in various pas of the bodySkeletal changes:Patients are usually tall and have long limbsThe ratio of upper segment to lower segment is usually 2 SDs below the mean for age, race, and sexArachnodactyly(fingers are long and slender, spider-like)Pectus excavatum, pectus carinatumScoliosis, kyphosisCardiovascular changes:Mitral valve prolapse, mitral regurgitationAoic aneurysm, aoic regurgitationOcular changes:Ectopia lentisMyopia (due to elongation of the globe)Retinal detachmentOthers:Spontaneous pneumothoraxInguinal and incisional herniasStriae over the shoulders and buttocksRef:Harrison's 18/e p3212, 17/e p2468-2469 | 156,354 | medmcqa_train |
In a newborn, Harlequins skin change is due to | HARLEQUIN COLOR CHANGEA rare but dramatic vascular event, harlequin color change occurs in the immediate newborn period and is most common in low bihweight infants. It probably reflects an imbalance in the autonomic vascular regulatory mechanism. When the infant is placed on 1 side, the body is bisected longitudinally into a pale upper half and a deep red dependent half. The color change lasts only for a few minutes and occasionally affects only a poion of the trunk or face. Changing the infant's position may reverse the pattern. Muscular activity causes generalized flushing and obliterates the color differential. Repeated episodes may occur but do not indicate a permanent autonomic imbalance.Ref: Nelson textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 647; Diseases of the Neonate | 156,355 | medmcqa_train |
OPSI is related to | Overwhelming post splenectomized infection (OPSI) is seen in patient&;s who have undergone splenectomy. post splenectomized patients are more prone to infections with pneumococcal septicaemia, Neisseria meningitides, H influenza, Babesia microfti And can occur any time after splenectomy SRB 5 the edition page no.677 | 156,356 | medmcqa_train |
Vasanti, a 25-year-old-girl, presents with complaints of fever and weakness. On examination there is splenomegaly of 3 cm below the costal margin. Hb is 8 gm/dL, TLC is 3,000/mm3, platelet count is 80,000/mm3. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis | Answer is C (Aplastic anemia) Patient in question has anemia with pancytopenia and an enlarged spleen. Presence of an enlarged spleen makes aplastic anemia the least likely diagnosis. All other conditions mentioned as options may present with both pancytopenia and splenomegaly. Parameters Normal Patient in question Inference Hb 12-18 g/dl 8 gm/dl Anemia TLC 4000-11000 / mm3 3000/ mm3 Granulocytopenia Platelet Count 130,000-400000/mm3 80,000/mm3 Thrombocytopenia Spleen size Not enlarged Enlarged Splenomegaly Aplastic anemia may present with anemia and pancytopenia but not with an associated enlarged spleen. If splenomegaly is present the diagnosis of aplastic anemia is seriously questioned.' - Robbins Megaloblastic anemia: Besides ineffective synthesis and increased hemolytic destruction of red blood cells, there also occurs premature destruction of granulocytes and platelet resulting in Leucopenia and thrombocytopenia -Pancytopenia (Robbins) An enlarged spleen may be associated. Leukemia :Aleukemic form of Acute Lymphocytic leukemia also explains both - pancytopenia and hepatosplenomegaly A chronic disease associated with splenomegaly also explains pancytopenia as a sequels to increased destruction as a manifestation of 1-1YPERSPLENISM' (increased sequestration and destruction of cells in sinusoids of an enlarged spleen). | 156,357 | medmcqa_train |
GNAQ mutations are seen in | Mutations in GNAQ, the gene encoding an alpha subunit of heterotrimeric G proteins, are found in 40% of uveal melanomas. | 156,358 | medmcqa_train |
The mantle dentin found alon DEJ is | The mantle dentin found along the DEJ is about 20μm thick and it contains larger-diameter argyrophilic (silver stained) collagen fibers arranged perpendicularly to the DEJ. The circumpulpal dentin contains smaller-diameter closely packed collagen fibers. The dentin which forms after root completion is called secondary dentin. | 156,359 | medmcqa_train |
Contraceptive pill with least failure rate : | Combined pill | 156,360 | medmcqa_train |
The total osmolarity of new oral rehydration solution formulation is - | <p>ORS Aim of oral rehydration therapy is to prevent dehydration and reduce moality. Oral fluid therapy is based on the observation that glucose given orally enhances the intestinal absorption of salt and water and is capable of correcting electrolyte and water deficit. At first the composition of oral rehydration salt recommended by WHO was sodium bicarbonate based. Inclusion of trisodium citrate in place of sodium bicarbonate made the product more stable and it resulted in less stool output especially in high output diarrhoea, probably because of direct effect of trisodium citrate in increasing intestinal absorption of sodium and water. More recently an improved ORS formulation has been developed which is safe and effective as the original in preventing and treating diarrhoeal dehydration. It is focussed on reducing the osmolarity of ORS solution to avoid adverse effects of hypeonicity on net fluid absorption by reducing the concentration of glucose and sodium chloride in the solution. A freshly prepared ORS should be used before 24hrs. Decreasing the sodium concentration of ORS solution to 75 mOsm/l improved the efficacy of ORS regimen for children with acute non cholera diarrhoea. Reduced osmolarity ORS:-(g/L) Sodium chloride- 2.6 Glucose,anhydrous- 13.5 Potassium chloride- 1.5 Trisodium citrate,dihydrate-2.9 Total =20.5 g/L Reduced osmolarity ORS:-(mmol/L) Sodium-75 Chloride-65 Glucose,anhydrous-75 Potassium-20 Citrate-10 Total = 245 mmol/L Guidelines for oral rehydration therapy in first four hours(as per weight) 1. Under 5 kg:200-400 ml 2. 5-7.9 kg: 400-600 ml 3. 8-10.9 kg : 600-800 ml 4. 11-15.9 kg: 800-1200 ml 5. 16-29.9 kg: 1200-2200 ml 6. 30/ above: 2200-4000 ml {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.224}</p> | 156,361 | medmcqa_train |
Perjury i- | Perjury means giving willful false evidence under oath. Whoever makes any statement in court which is false and which he either knows or believes to be false or does not believe to be true, he may be charged with the crime of Perjury Under Section 193 IPC. | 156,362 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest complication of diabetes, complicating pregnancy is : | VSD | 156,363 | medmcqa_train |
Appetite phase of gastric secretion is | The cephalic phase of gastric secretion occurs even before food enters the stomach, especially while it is being eaten. It results from the sight, smell, thought, or taste of food, and the greater the appetite, the more intense is the stimulation. Neurogenic signals that cause the cephalic phase of gastric secretion originate from the cerebral coex and in the appetite centers of the amygdala and hypothalamus. They are transmitted through the dorsal motor nuclei of the vagi and then through the vagus nerve to the stomach. This phase of secretion normally accounts for about 20 percent of the gastric secretion associated with eating a meal.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 432 | 156,364 | medmcqa_train |
Anesthetic agent contraindicated in acute hepatitis is? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Halothane * Among given options halothane is the best answer as other agents are relatively safe in hepatic dysfunction. But it should be kept in mind that pre-existing liver disease and jaundice is not a contraindication to halothane. Unexplained liver dysfunction and jaundice to previous exposure of Halothane is a contraindication. Though not a contraindication, Halothane should be avoided in liver disease, if possible.Important facts hapatotoxicty of anesthetics* All inhalational agent cause mild hapatotoxicty by decreasing hepatic blood flow. Direct hapatotoxicty (Hepatitis, Hepatic necrosis) is caused by Halothane, Trichloroethylene, Chloroform, Carbon tetrachloride and methoxyflurane.* Isoflurane is the agent of choice in liver disease as it has least effect on Hepatic blood flow.* If the patient of halothane hepatitis has to undergo surgery, then the inhalational agent of choice is sevoflurane. | 156,365 | medmcqa_train |
Factors which decrease insensible water losses are all, except - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prematurity o Prematurity increases insensible water loss. | 156,366 | medmcqa_train |
Best tocolytic in a cardiac patient is | Atosiban is oxytocin antagonist and best tocolytic in cardiac patients. B agonists and Calcium channel blockers are contraindicated in hea disease complicated pregnancies. | 156,367 | medmcqa_train |
A male 45 years old complains of weakness. He is a chronic alcoholic. General examination reveals elevated transaminases in blood and hepatomegaly. Icterus is visible on sclera and pale coloration of skin is present. On USG examination, fatty liver is revealed. Which of the following substances may be responsible for the condition of liver? | The antibiotic puromycin, ethionine (α-amino-γ-mercaptobutyric acid), carbon tetrachloride, chloroform, phosphorus, lead, and arsenic all cause fatty liver and a marked reduction in concentration of VLDL in rat blood.
Orotic acid also causes fatty liver; it is believed to interfere with glycosylation of the lipoprotein, thus inhibiting release, and may also impair the recruitment of triacylglycerol to the particles. A deficiency of vitamin E enhances the hepatic necrosis of the choline deficiency type of fatty liver.
Added vitamin E or a source of selenium has a protective effect by combating lipid peroxidation. In addition to protein deficiency, essential fatty acid and vitamin deficiencies (eg, linoleic acid, pyridoxine, and pantothenic acid) can cause fatty infiltration of the liver.
Reference: HARPERS ILLUSTRATED BIOCHEMISTRY 30th ed Page no 261 | 156,368 | medmcqa_train |
Network analysis is - | A network analysis is a graphical plan of all events and activities to be completed inorder to reach an end objective.It brings greater discipline in planning.Two common types of network techniques are PE CPM(refer pgno:872 park 23 rd edition) | 156,369 | medmcqa_train |
2x102 Streptococcus viridans are inoculated into a flask containing one liter of enriched broth. If the lag time is 30 minutes and the generation time is 20 minutes. How many bacteria will there be in the culture after two and a half hours? | During the lag time, by definition, bacteria newly introduced into a culture will undergo metabolic changes necessary for use of the medium, but will NOT increase in number. Therefore, at the end of the first 30 minutes elapsed time, the number of bacteria in the culture will be 2 x 10^2. Thereafter, the number of bacteria will double every 20 minutes (the definition of generation time). This means that after 2 1/2 hours of total elapsed time, 6 generations will have occurred, so the original inoculum number is multiplied by 2, 6 times. 6 x 10^2 (1st Choice) is not the correct answer. If this was your answer, you forgot that lag periods occur only once per culture, and also incorrectly multiplied the staing inoculum number by an incorrect number of generations (three). 1.2 x 10^3 (2nd Choice) is not the correct answer, and reflects the common student error of counting the number of possible generations and multiplying by that number. Remember that every generation time means that every bacterium in that culture has divided into two, so you must multiply by two, 6 times or 26. 1.6 x 10^3 (3rd Choice) is not the correct answer, and reflects the common error of forgetting that the lag time occurs only one time per culture. If you picked this answer, you divided the 2.5 hours of culture time between three lag periods and three correctly calculated generations (23). | 156,370 | medmcqa_train |
True about the following tongue lesion : | Oral hairy leukoplakia presents as white plaques on the lateral tongue and is associated with Epstein-Barr virus infection. Geographic tongue : Multiple red patches with irregular yellow-white border, dorsal lateral tongue, lesions migrate, usually asymptomatic Candidiasis :Surface debris with pain/ burning which rubs off associated submucosal erythema A/W H/O Antibiotic use/ Immunosuppresive Rx/ Nail/ vaginal/ oesophageal lesions Psoriasis involves multiple sites and lesions will be associated with scales | 156,371 | medmcqa_train |
A newborn has a fever of 103degF. Blood culture grows gram-positive cocci in chains. This is most likely to be which of the following? | Most human infections caused by Streptococci involve the group A organisms (Streptococcus pyogenes). The group B Streptococci are members of the female genital tract and are impoant causes of neonatal sepsis and meningitis. Here we have newborn in the question given, so the most likely organism would be Gr B strep. | 156,372 | medmcqa_train |
Vasoconstriction in burn wound is seen in | Zone of stasis lies outer to zone of coagulation. It has vasoconstriction and resultant ischaemia. | 156,373 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are true concerning Rieger's syndrome except: | Ans. Autosomal recessive inheritance | 156,374 | medmcqa_train |
A 2 year old boy suffering from leukemia, following are the x–ray findings –a) Osteolytic lesion in flat bonesb) Metaphyseal osteoporosisc) Periosteal new bone formationd) Osteosclerosis of long bonese) Transverse line of dark band below the growth plate | Characteristically, there are zones of rarefaction with delicate subperiosteal new bone formation in the metaphysial regions of femur, humerus or spine and pelvis.
X-ray reveals subepriosteal and subepiphyseal resorption of bones.
Dark bands above the metaphysis called Growth Arrest Lines.
Metaphyseal lucencies affects maximum growth.
Osteolytic lesions seen in half of the cases and is commonest in shaft of long bones.
Osteoblastic lesions are rare, occur in metaphysis.
ALL may show following features on X-ray.
Periosteal Reaction
Metaphyseal cortical erosions
Altered medullary trabeculations, subepiphyseal bone resorption. | 156,375 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is NOT a branch of Facial Aery? | Sublingual Aery is a branch of lingual aery which is a branch of external carotid aery. The branches of the facial aery are: Cervical Ascending palatine aery Tonsillar branch Submental aery Glandular branches Facial Inferior labial aery Superior labial aery Lateral nasal branch to nasalis muscle Angular aery- the terminal branch | 156,376 | medmcqa_train |
With reference to the Total Sanitation Campaign, consider the following statements - | Rural sanitation was addressed by the Government of India (GoI) in the 1980s through the Central Rural Sanitation Programme (CRSP). The CRSP "was staed in 1986 to provide sanitation facilities in rural areas. It was a supply driven, highly subsidy and infrastructure oriented programme". The conditions also varied substantially across the country. An all-India survey on conditions of drinking water, sanitation and hygiene during the period January to June, 1998 was carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation, and results showed significant disparities across rural and urban populations: The propoion of households repoing that they had no bathroom was much higher in rural areas (81 percent) than in urban areas (35 percent). As many as 83 percent of households in rural areas repoed using no latrines as against only 26 percent in urban areas. Only about 8 percent and 1 percent of rural households repoed using a septic tank and sewerage system, compared to 35 percent and 22 percent of urban households. Similarly, the Central Bureau of Health Intelligence in the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare repoed in 1998-99 that: On an average, 30 million persons in rural areas suffer from sanitation-related disease Five of the ten most dangerous fatal diseases of children aged from one to four in rural areas are related to water and sanitation Ref: Centre for public impact, GOI | 156,377 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about composite skin graft EXCEPT | (High risk failure): (7094- CSDT 13th edition; 404-Baily & Love 26th)COMPOSITIVE GRAFTS (usually skin and fat or skin and cartilage)* Free graft that must reestablish its blood supply in the recipient area* Often taken from the ear margin and useful for rebuilding missing elements of nose, eyelids andfingertips* Composite graft must be small or at least relatively thin and will require recipient sites with excellent vasularity* These grafts are generally used in the facesAdvantages and Disdvantages of Various Types of Skin Grafts.Type of GraftAdvantagesDisadvantagesThin split thicknessSurvive transplantation most easily. Donor sites heal most rapidlyFewest qualities of normal skin.Maximum contraction. Least resistance to trauma. Sensation poor. Aesthetically poor.Thick split thicknessMore qualities of normal skin.Less contraction. More resistant to trauma. Sensation fair.Aesthetically more acceptableSurvive transplantation less well.Donor site heals slowlyFull-thicknessNearly all qualities of normal skin.Minimal contraction. Very resistant to trauma. Sensation good. Aesthetically good.Survive transplantation least well.Donor site must be closed surgically. Donor sites are limited. | 156,378 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following features is not seen in Anorexia Nervosa? | Impoant medical complications related to Anorexia Nervosa Peripheral oedema Lanugo hair development Skin changes (dryness, scaling, yellow tinge caused by carotinemia) Lowered metabolic rate (bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia) Normal thyroid-stimulating hormone levels; low triiodothyronine (T3) syndrome Normal or overstimulated adrenal axis; possible loss of diurnal variation in coisol Normal serum protein and albumin concentrations Impaired regulation in growth hormone levels; increased basal levels Decreased total brain volume/increased ventricular size on imaging | 156,379 | medmcqa_train |
Rhinosporidium seeberi belongs to: | Ans. (a) Fungus Ref Ananthanaravan' 7/e; p 603 Rhinosporiduim seeberi Lower aquatic fungi forming spores Natural habitat is reservoir water and perhaps soil contaminated with that water. Once infected organism produce a polypoidal mass lesion in the affected area, commonest site being nose, nasopharynx, tonsil, eye. Diagnosis: Can not be cultivated in aificial media. Histologically the lesion is composed of large number of fungal spores embeded in stroma of connective tissue and capillaries. Treatment: Excison of the polyp is the treatment of choice. | 156,380 | medmcqa_train |
Infective form of Hookworms ? | Filariform larva Eggs are passed in the stool, and under orable conditions (moisture, warmth, shade), larvae hatch in 1 to 2 days. The released rhabditiform larvae grow in the feces and/or the soil, and after 5 to 10 days (and two molts) they become filariform (third-stage) larvae that are infective . | 156,381 | medmcqa_train |
30 yr female with depressed mood, decreased appetite & no interest since one year. Diagnosis is- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Depression o Depressed mood, decreased appetite and no interest since one year suggest the diagnosis of depression,o For diagnosis of dysthymia, depressive symptoms should be present for at least 2 years.Mood disorderso According to ICD-10, mood (affective) disorders are grouped into six main categories.1) Manic episode: - Single episode of mania (not recurrent).2) Depressive episode : - Single episode of depression.3) Bipolar mood (affective) disorders : - Recurrent episodes of mania alone or recurrent episodes of mania & depression in the same patient at different times.4) Recurrent depressive disorder : - Recurrent (two or more) depressive episodes.5) Persistent mood disorder : - Persistent mood symptoms which last for more than 2 years (1 year in children & adolescents). Example are dysthemia & cyclothymia.6) Other mood disorders : - Mixed episodes, i.e., picture of depression and mania is present at the same time intermixed (in contrast to bipolar disorders where depression and mania occur at different time). It also includes rapid cycling - picture of mania and depression alternates rapidly with each other without a normal intervening period (in contrast to bipolar disorder where normal intervening is present between two episodes). | 156,382 | medmcqa_train |
A Hanging Curtain Sign is seen in: | Ans. d. Pityriasis RoseaHanging certain sign, collarette of scales, cigarette paper scales all are seen pityriasis rosea | 156,383 | medmcqa_train |
Arsenic is useful in the treatment of: | Arsenic has been a traditional poison for ages. Recently,therapeutic value of small doses of arsenic trioxide in APL has been recognised.It probably acts by enhancing reactive oxygen free radical generation in APL.It is primarily used in resistant/relapsed cases of APL after tretinoin treatment.Later ,Arsenic trioxide is also being included in first line therapy of APL along with tretinoin and an anthracycline,paicularly in high risk cases and in those who have initial WBC count > 10,000 per microlitre.With such triple therapy around 90% APL patients have remained in long term remissions. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SEVENTH EDITION PAGE NO:869 | 156,384 | medmcqa_train |
Not a part of kangaroo mother care- | Ans- C Free nutritional supplements | 156,385 | medmcqa_train |
Injury to the nerve which passes superior to piriformis and winds around greater sciatic notch, most likely affected which muscle | Structures passing above the pyriformis:-Superior gluteal nerve and vessels.It winds around greater sciatic notch.SUPERIOR GLUTEAL NERVE Root value: L4,L5,S1Course: enters the gluteal region through greater sciatic notch above pyriformis muscle. Runs between gluteus medius and gluteus minimus to end in tensor fascia lata.Branches :-it supplies 1. Gluteus medius 2. Gluteus minimus3. Tensor fascia lata {Reference: BDC 6E pg no. 173} | 156,386 | medmcqa_train |
Gene for Wilson's disease is located on chromonsome? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 13 The ATP 7 B gene is located on chromosome 13, which is responsible for Wilson's disease. | 156,387 | medmcqa_train |
Not true about macular function test is: | Ans.Retinogram | 156,388 | medmcqa_train |
Vital capacity is sum of | Ans. a (Inspiratory reserve volume, Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume) (Ref Ganong 23rd/593)Ganong 23rd/Fig. 35-7:# VC = 4700 ml = ERV + TV + IRVRespiratory volumes and capacities for an average young male.MeasurementTypicalDefinitionRespiratory volumes1Tidal volume (TV)500 mlAmount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during relaxed quiet breathing2Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)3000 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal inspiration that can be inhaled with maximum effort3Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)1200 mlAmount of air in excess of tidal expiration that can be exhaled with maximum effort4Residual volume (RV)1200 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration; keeps alveoli inflated between breaths and mixes with fresh air on next inspirationRespiratory Capacities5Vital capacity (VC)4700 mlAmount of air that can be exhaled with maximum effort after maximum inspiration (ERV + TV + IRV); used to assess strength of thracic muscles as well as pulmonary function6Inspiratory capacity (1C)3500 mlMaximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration (TV + IRV)7Functional residual capacity (FRC) 2400 mlAmount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal tidal expiration (RV + ERV)8Total lung capacity (TLC)5900 mlMaximum amount of air the lungs can contain (RV + VC)Additional Educational points# In a healthy normal adult male, FVC is approximately 5.0 L, FEV, is approximately 4.0 L, and thus, the calculated FEV1/ FVC is 80%.# Obstructive disorders result in a marked decrease in both FVC and FEV1/FVC, whereas restrictive disorders result in a loss of FVC without loss in FEV1/FVC.# FEV1/FVC for obstructive (42%) versus restrictive (90%) patients defines the hallmark measurements in evaluating these two diseases. | 156,389 | medmcqa_train |
A 3-year-old child presents at the physician's office with symptoms of coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik's spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses? | Koplik's spots are pathognomonic for measles. The measles virus is a paramyxovirus. In industrialized countries, vaccination has reduced the impoance of this childhood infection (although U.S. incidence increased in 1989 and 1990). In developing countries, however, measles is a major killer of young children. In America, most states now require proof of immunity before school enrollment, and this has reduced the incidence of disease Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | 156,390 | medmcqa_train |
The submerged pa of cerebral coex is | Answer- A. InsulaFunctions of insulaInsula provides an emotional context that is suitable for a given sensory experience.It has also been shown to be associated with pain processes as well as with several basic emotions such as anger, fear, disgust, joy. | 156,391 | medmcqa_train |
vWF protects: | d. Factor VIII(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2390, Ghai 8/e p 349)2 major functions of vWF are: Platelet adhesion via Gp Ib/IX and stabilization of factor VIII in circulation. | 156,392 | medmcqa_train |
Hydrops fetalis is defined sonographically by | The term hydrops refers to excessive accumulation of serous fluid in the body, and strictly defined, hydrops fetalis is edema of the fetus. Traditionally, the diagnosis was made after delivery of a massively edematous neonate, often stillborn. With sonography, hydrops has become a prenatal diagnosis. It is defined as two or more fetal effusions or one effusion plus anasarca.(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | 156,393 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum blood flow per 100 gram of organ is seen in | Organ
Blood flow / 100gm of organ
Kidney
Liver
Brain
Skeletal muscle
400ml / 100gm / min
100ml / 100gm / min
50ml / 100gm / min
2-4ml / 100gm / min | 156,394 | medmcqa_train |
Alprostadil is indicated in - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Erectile dysfunction o Alprostadil(PGE1) is commonly used for -i) To maintain the patency of ductus arteriosus.ii) Erectile dysfunction. | 156,395 | medmcqa_train |
Major basic proteins are produced by? | Eosinophils have a granule that contains major basic protein (MBP)
Proteoglycan 2, (natural killer cell activator, eosinophil granule major basic protein), also known as PRG2, is a protein which in humans is encoded by the PRG2 gene.
It is a potent enzyme against helminths. The eosinophil major basic protein also causes the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils and activates neutrophils and alveolar macrophages. | 156,396 | medmcqa_train |
The neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from parafollicular 'C' cells of thyroid is: | MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THE THYROID (MCT)
These tumours arise from parafollicular ‘C’ cells which are derived from ultimobranchial bodies and not from thyroid foillicle.
These tumours present in two different ways.
Sporadic is common, seen in about 80-90% of cases.
Familial variety present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN).
MEN Type I
Pituitary adenoma
Parathyroid adenoma
Pancreatic adenoma
MEN Type IIa
Parathyroid adenoma
Phaeochromocytoma
Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
When it is associated with mucocutaneous neuromas involving lips, tongue, eyelids, it is called Sipple syndrome, with an occasional marfanoid habitus (MEN type IIb)
It has got a characteristic amyloid stroma
These tumours are not TSH-dependent and do not take up radioactive iodine
Hormones produced by MCT
Calcitonin
Prostaglandins
Serotonin (5-HT), ACTH
Spread
Both by lymphatics and blood, thus, worsening the prognosis.
Key Concept:
Medullary Carcinoma arises from parafollicular C cells which are derived from ultimobranchial bodies and not from thyroid follicle. The medullary carcinoma produces hormones such as Calcitonin, Prostaglandins and serotonin.
Reference: Manipal Manual of Surgery 4th ed page no 348 | 156,397 | medmcqa_train |
Study time, place, and person of a disease is__________study - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Descriptive | 156,398 | medmcqa_train |
The ideal time for operation of quinsy after an attack of acute tonsillitis is | Treatment The above conservative measures may cure peritonsillitis. If a frank abscess has formed, incision and drainage will be required. INCISION AND DRAINAGE: A peritonsillar abscess is opened at the point of a maximum bulge above the upper pole of the tonsil or just lateral to the point of junction of the anterior pillar with a line drawn through the base of uvula. INTERVAL TONSILLECTOMY: Tonsils are removed 6 weeks following an acute attack of quinsy. ABSCESS OR HOT TONSILLECTOMY: Some people prefer to do hot tonsillectomy instead of incision and drainage. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat and head and neck surgery, 7th edition Pg no. 298) | 156,399 | medmcqa_train |
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