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All among the following are true about Papilledema EXCEPT : | Blurring of margins of optic disc is the earliest sign of papilledema. Papilledema B/L non inflammatory disc edema with increased ICT. |sed ICT - disturbance in axoplasmic flow. Dilation & touosity of vessels. Elevation of disc. Headache, morning stiffness, projectile vomiting. Enlargement of blind spot. Paton's line (circumferential folds of retinal nerve fiber layer ). Pseudotumor cerebri: Raised ICT a/w papilledema, seen in patients without any intracranial lesion. Atrophic papilledema occurs 6-9 months after initial attack (like features of optic atrophy). Papilledema Normal Optic disc | 156,200 | medmcqa_train |
When an outcome is compared with intended objectives, it is called as - | Input-output analysis is an economic technique.In the health feild,input refers to all health service activities which consume resources and output refers to such useful outcomes as cases treated ,lives saved or inoculations performed (refer pgno:872 park 23 rd edition) | 156,201 | medmcqa_train |
Polycythemia is associated with all the following cancers except | *Paraneoplastic syndromes -Syndromes which occur due to hormonal proteins produced by a "Non-endocrine tumor". So if you find an endocrine tumor, you may safely exclude it from the option.*Malignancies associated with polycythemia are the Gastric carcinoma, Renal carcinoma, Cerebellar hemangioma and Hepatocellular carcinoma.Ref: Robbins 8/e p 321 | 156,202 | medmcqa_train |
Most common renal condition in HIV patient is- | About 50%of HIV -infected patients with kidney disease have HIV -associated nephropathy (HIVAN) on biopsy. The ledion in HIVAN is FSGS, and present with nephrotic range proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. They do not commonly have edema, hypeension or Hyperlipidemia In HIV -infected patients not yet on therapy .the presence of HIVAN is an indication to sta anti retroviral therapy. Ref:Harrison 20 th edition pg no 2149 | 156,203 | medmcqa_train |
Nerve Conduction is slowest in | Ans. (a) C fibers(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.94)A a - highest conduction velocity (70 - 120 m/s)C fibers - slowest conduction velocity (0.5 - m/s) | 156,204 | medmcqa_train |
Drug contraindicated in uterine fibroid: | Ans. B Estrogen Ref.: Shaws 15th ed. 1359; Williams Gynecology Ch: 9 * Leiomyomas are benign smooth muscle neoplasms that typically originate from the myometrium. They are often referred to as uterine myomas, and are incorrectly called fibroids because the considerable amount of collagen contained in many of them creates a fibrous consistency. Estrogen has a hormonal role in the patho-physiology of formation of fibroids. * Drugs used to decrease the size of the fibroid: # GnRH analogue (Buserelin, Nafarelin, Goserelin, Triptorelin, Leuprorelin acetate) # GnRH antagonist: Cetrirelix, Ganirelix # Mifepristone (anti-progesterone) # Danazol | 156,205 | medmcqa_train |
Charcot's Joint includes all of the following except : | Answer is D (Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita) : Syringomyelia, Leprosy and diabetes are all common causes fin- Neuropathic / Charcot joint disease. Ahrogryposis multiplex congenita comprises a non progressive condition characterized by multiple joint contractures found throughout the body at bih. Charcot joint has not been mentioned in association with Ahrogryposis multiplex. Charcot joint : Neuropathic joint - Neuropathic joint disease (Charcot's joint) is a progressive destructive ahritis associated with loss of pain sensation, proprioception or both. Without these protective reflexes joints are subject to repeated trauma, resulting in progressive cailage and bone damage. Disorders associated with Neuropathic joint disease/Charcot's joint Diabetes Mellitus Tabes Dorsalis Meningomyelocele Syringomyclia Amyloidosis Leprosy Congenital indifference to pain Peroneal muscular atrophy (Charcot-Marie Tooth disease) Diabetes mellitus is the most common cause for Neuropathic joint disease Q | 156,206 | medmcqa_train |
A previously healthy 45-yr-old labourer suddenly develops acute lower back pain with right-leg pain & weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe. Which of the following is true - | Sudden onset of back pain with radiation to lower limb (right leg pain) and weakness of dorsiflexion of the right great toe in a laborer suggest the diagnosis of PID.
Progression of neurological impairment (for example weakness of toe extension to foot drop) is an indication for surgery. | 156,207 | medmcqa_train |
Umbilical aery doppler finding which will most significantly predict the intrauterine deaths of the foetus - | Please note, the question is 'Which pattern predicts fetal death' hence do not mark 'Absent systolic flow' which no more predicts, but is diagnostic of fetal death. Reversal of diastolic flow most significantly predict the intra uterine deaths of the foetus. Umbilical aery doppler done to assess fetal well being in high risk pregnancy. The order of worsening is estimated in the following sequence Diastolic notching Increased S/D ratio, due to decreased diastolic flow Absent end diastolic flow Reversal of end diastolic flow: most ominous sign, requiring immediate intervention | 156,208 | medmcqa_train |
The average life cycle of cyclops is about - | Cyclops or water flea is crustacean present in collections of fresh water. It's a tiny ahropod just visible to trained eyes. It swims with jerky movements. The life cycle is about 3 months It is an intermediate host of Guinea worm disease. Man acquires infection by drinking water containing infected cyclops. REFERENCE: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 842 | 156,209 | medmcqa_train |
Volume of ECF in body is | Total body weight = 0.6 × body weight
ICF = 0.4 × body weight
ECF = 0.2 × body weight
Plasma = 0.05 × body weight
Interstitial fluid = 0.15 × body weight | 156,210 | medmcqa_train |
Contents of deep perenial pouch include all of the following except | The deep perenial pouch includes deep transverse perineal pouch,membraneous poion of urethra,bulbourethral gland.Deep perineal pouch is the anatomic spacde enclosed by perineum and located superior to the perinial membrane. ref - BDC vol2 6e pg 355,360 | 156,211 | medmcqa_train |
Most malignant tumor of salivary glands ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenoid cystic carcinoma "Adenoid cystic carcinoma has been described as one of the most biologically aggressive and destructive malignant neoplasms, presenting a tendency for local recurrance and late distant metastasis throughout the course of disease." The adenoid cystic carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma and undifferentiated carcinoma are all agggressive malignant tumors that carry a poor prognosis regardless of treatment. The acinic cell carcinoma and the mucoepidermoid carcinoma, although undoubtedly malignant tumors with a potential for local invasion and metastatic spread, are frequently very low grade histologically and do not require the radical treatment needed for more aggressive tumors. Cysadenolymphoma (Wahin's tumor) is a benign tumor. | 156,212 | medmcqa_train |
Civatte bodies are found in - | In Lichen's planus, anucleate necrotic basal cells may become incorporated into the inflamed papillary dermis, where they are referred to as colloid bodies or civatte bodies. | 156,213 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a cause of the generalized increase in bone density in adults? | Caffey's disease (Infantile cortical hyperplasia) causes a generalized increase in bone density in children.
Causes of a generalized increase in bone density in adults:- Myeloproliferative disorders, myelosclerosis, renal osteodystrophy, poisoning (lead), fluorosis, osteoblastic metastasis, lymphoma, mastocytosis, Paget's disease, Metabolic (Hypercalcemia), and idiopathic. | 156,214 | medmcqa_train |
vesicles over erythematous plaques in T3 dermatome region of trunk. Which of fle following would be the most likely causative or:,tn? | Ans. a. Varicella zoster A 60-year-old male presents with painful, grouped vesicles over erythematous plaques in T dermatome region of trunk. Varicella zoster is the most likely causative organism. | 156,215 | medmcqa_train |
The most common primary cause of intraocular tumor in children- | *Most common intraocular tumor of childhood is retinoblastoma. Ref:Khurana 7th/e p.314, | 156,216 | medmcqa_train |
Which type of FSGS has worst prognosis | Collapsing variant has the worst prognosis.
It is also associated with HIV. | 156,217 | medmcqa_train |
Baonella heaselae causes all except - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oroya fever Baonella henselae causes Cat scratch disease (Afipia felis also causes cat scratch disease) Bacillary angiomatosis (B. quintana also causes angiomatosis) Bacillary peliosis Bacteremia Endocarditis (SABE) Oroya fever is caused by Baonella bacilliformis. | 156,218 | medmcqa_train |
Fistula leading to highest electrolyte imbalance is: | In general, the more proximal the fistula in the intestine, the more serious the problem, with greater fluid and electrolyte loss. The drainage has a greater digestive capacity, and the distal segment is not available for absorption of nutrients. Fistula leading to highest electrolyte imbalance is Duodenal fistula | 156,219 | medmcqa_train |
Drug monitoring is required for the following | (A) Lithium# Lithium is generally taken with food, although its absorption is not markedly affected by the presence of food.> Doses vary widely and are adjusted based on measurements of the levels of lithium in the blood.> Early in therapy, dose adjustments are made as often as every 5 to 7 days to establish the correct dose.> Patients with kidney diseases excrete less lithium from the body and, therefore, require lower doses. | 156,220 | medmcqa_train |
Patient comes with crush injury to upper limb, doctor is concerned about gangrene and sepsis what can help decide between amputation and limb salvage? | Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) used as predictor of eventual amputation versus limb salvage in crushing injuries. Higher the score lower the chances of salvage. Type Points (Depending on severity) Shock group 0-2 Ischemia group 1-4 Velocity of trauma 1-4 Age group 0-1 Total score 11 Mess Score: Total Score is 11, six or less consistent with a salvageable limb. Seven or greater amputation is generally the eventual result. Crush syndrome Limb is compressed for a prolonged period and after extended use of pneumatic antishock garment resulting in hypoperfusion and myonecrosis in the crushed limb. When the limb is released from the compression, toxic metabolites get released to cause reperfusion injury. Can result in a systemic reaction due to tissue necrosis. Free myoglobin can lead to acute tubular necrosis and renal failure. Myonecrosis can lead to metabolic acidosis with hyperkalaemia and hypocalcaemia. | 156,221 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a contraindication for breastfeeding? | d. Active untreated TB(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 287)Related to baby: Galactosemia, Lactose intoleranceRelated to mother:AbsoluteRelative contraindications to breastfeedingMother on Chemotherapy or RadiotherapyConditionCommentMaternal HIVContraindicated in developed countries; In developing countries, mixed feeding is contraindicatedActive untreated TBBreastfeeding is contraindicated until completion of at least 2 weeks of antitubercular therapyVaricella-zosterInfant should not have direct contact to active lesions; Infant should receive immune globulinHerpes simplex infectionBreastfeeding is contraindicated with active herpetic lesions of the breast | 156,222 | medmcqa_train |
Prostate glands is homologous to: | Ans. is c, i.e. Skene glandsRef: COGDT 11th/ed, p24Glands in maleHomologous glands in females* Prostate gland* Skene glands/paraurethral glands* Cowper's gland* Bartholin gland* Glands of Littre (in penile urethra)* Glands of labia majora* Glands of labia minora | 156,223 | medmcqa_train |
Skull of a male differs from that of a female by all of the following except - | As a general rule, muscular markings are more prominent and marked on male skeleton.
Capacity of male skull is 1500-1550 cc.
Orbits of male’s are square and frontal eminences are small. | 156,224 | medmcqa_train |
The windswept deformity is seen in- | Windswept deformity is seen in rickets.
Also know
The windswept deformity is also seen in RA, physical osteochondromatosis, and hereditary dysplasia (epiphyseal dysplasia). | 156,225 | medmcqa_train |
True statement about latch bridge mechanism | Latch bridge mechanism is seen in smooth muscle. In smooth muscle, even after depolarisation of muscle cross bridge continue to cling for sometime leading to sustained contraction of smooth muscle. | 156,226 | medmcqa_train |
Isolation has a definitive value in all except: | Hepatitis E | 156,227 | medmcqa_train |
All are features of RPGN except | Answer is A (Rapid recovery) : RPGN is characterised by rapidly progressive renal disease which culminates in End stage renal disease (ESRF) within months after onset. Recovery is rare. RPGN is characterized by a Subacute glomerular inflammation with : Nephritic urinary sediment, i.e. RBC casts, WBC casts Sub-nephrotic non-selective proteinuria (proteinuria < 3.5 g/24 hr) (selective proteinuria is a feature of minimal change disease) Oliguria and Edema Hypeension Presence of crescents pathologically | 156,228 | medmcqa_train |
Drug with beta adrenergic blocking, with antioxidant, with calcium channel blocking, with alpha 1 antagonist activity' is - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carvedilol Carvedilolo Carvedilol is b1 + b2 + a1 adrenoceptor blocker with a : b blocking property of 1 : 9.o It has antioxidant and antimitotic property.o It produces peripheral vasodilation due to a-l blockade as well as calcium channel blockade (direct effect).o It is used in hypertension and angina.o It is used as cardioprotective in CHF.o t 1/2 is 2-8 hrs.o It is eliminated through liver and kidney,o It causes orthostatic hypotension. | 156,229 | medmcqa_train |
Cobicistat is used along which of the following antiretroviral drug? | Cobicistat, with trade name Tybost (formerly GS-9350) is a licensed drug for use in the treatment of human immunodeficiency virus infection (HIV/AIDS). Its major mechanism of action is through the inhibition of human CYP3A proteins. Like ritonavir (Norvir), cobicistat is of interest for its ability to inhibit liver enzymes that metabolize other medications used to treat HIV, notably elvitegravir, an HIV integrase inhibitor and darunavir. By combining cobicistat with elvitegravir, higher concentrations of the latter are achieved in the body with lower dosing, theoretically enhancing elvitegravir's viral suppression while diminishing its adverse side-effects. Indinavir and Ritonavir both are use protease inhibitor use for HIV patient. | 156,230 | medmcqa_train |
Maximum global warming is by? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Desflurane Desflurane is a greenhouse gas. It causes maximum global warming. Global warming potential (as an equal amount of O2) Isoflurane 210 times Sevoflurane 510 times Desflurane 1620 times | 156,231 | medmcqa_train |
The instrument formula of a Gingival margin trimmer is 12 1/2-100-7-14. This instrument cannot be used for: | The gingival margin trimmer is designed to produce a proper bevel on gingival enamel margins of proximoocclusal preparations. When the second number in the formula is 90 to 100, the pair is used on the distal gingival margin. When this number is 85 to 75, the pair is used to bevel the mesial margin. The 100 and 75 pairs are for inlay/onlay preparations with steep gingival bevels. The 90 and 85 pairs are for amalgam preparations with gingival enamel bevels that decline gingivally only slightly. Among other uses for these instruments is the rounding or beveling of the axiopulpal line angle of two-surface preparations.
Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 315 | 156,232 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of pseudoaneurysm | Answer- B. TraumaWhen wall, is ruptured and there is collection of blood outside the vessel wall (extravascular hematoma) that is freelycommunicating with vessel wall - false aneurysm (Pseudoaneurysm). Most common cause of false aneurysm is Trauma. | 156,233 | medmcqa_train |
Brinell hardness number of a dental gold alloy is directly proportional to its : | The Brinell hardness number is related to the proportional limit and the ultimate tensile strength of dental gold alloys. Because the test is a relatively simple one, it may often be conveniently used as an index of properties that involve more complex test methods. The Brinell hardness test is one of the oldest tests employed for determining the hardness of metals.
Key Concept: The Brinell hardness number is related to the proportional limit and the ultimate tensile strength of dental gold alloys.
Phillips dental materials 12th edition page no 64 | 156,234 | medmcqa_train |
Neurotrophic keratopathy is caused by - | Neuroparalytic keratitis occurs due to paralysis of the sensory nerve supply of the cornea. Causes I.Congenital 1.Familial dysautonomia (Riley-Day syndrome) 2.Congenital insensitivity to Pain. 3.Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia. II.Acquired 1.Following alcohol-block or electrocoagulation of Gasserian ganglion or section of the sensory root of trigeminal nerve for trigeminal neuralgia. 2.A neoplasm pressing on Gasserian ganglion. 3.Gasserian ganglion destruction due to acute infection in herpes zoster ophthalmicus. 4.Acute infection of Gasserian ganglion by herpes simplex virus. 5.Syphilitic (luetic) neuropathy. 6.Involvement of corneal nerves in leprosy. 7.Injury to Gasserian ganglion Reference:Comprehensive ophthalmology,AK Khurana,4th edition,page no.107 | 156,235 | medmcqa_train |
True about Perseveration? | Ans. A. Persistent and inappropriate repetition of same wordsPerseveration: it is mental operations tend to persist beyond the point of relevance in response to a question.For e.g. a person is asked1. What is your name? he gives correct answer2. Where u live? he gives the same answer but not relevant3. What u do? He again gives the same answerIt is a sign of organic brain disease-- nearly pathognomic sign but may be seen in schizophrenia. It is of 3 types:* Compulsive repetition* Impairment of switching* Ideational perseveration | 156,236 | medmcqa_train |
Most common site of carcinoma of stomach in developed countries is | The proximal stomach is now the most common site for gastriccancer in resource-rich western countriesIt can be seen that just under 60% of all of the malignancies occurring in the oesophagus and stomach occur in proximity to the oesophago-gastric junction.This high prevalence of proximal gastric cancer is not seen in Japan, where distal cancer still predominates, as it does in most of the rest of the world.Bailey and Love 27e pg: 1132 | 156,237 | medmcqa_train |
A 23-year-old man with hemophilia is recently wheelchair bound. Which of the following best accounts for this development? | Hemarthrosis refers to bleeding into the joint cavity. It is associated with joint swelling and is a crippling complication of hemophilia. Repeated bleeding may cause deformities and may limit the mobility of the joints. Hematemesis (choice B) is vomiting blood. Hematocephalus (choice C) is an intracranial infusion of blood. Hematochezia (choice D) is passage of blood caused by lower gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Hemoptysis (choice E) is coughing up blood.Diagnosis: Hemophilia, hemarthrosis | 156,238 | medmcqa_train |
A 9-years-old female child presented with polyuria, polydipsia and metabolic acidosis. On slit lamp examination crystal deposits are seen in cornea. What is the diagnosis? | b. Cystinosis(Ref: Nelson 20/e p 2529-2530)Features of renal tubular dysfunction like polyuria, polydipsia and metabolic acidosis, along with presence of crystal deposits in cornea on slit lamp examination of eye suggest a diagnosis of Cystinosis | 156,239 | medmcqa_train |
Acetylcholine receptors are decreased in:September 2009 | Ans. D: Myasthenia gravisMyasthenia gravis is a serious and sometimes fatal disease in which skeletal muscles are weak and tire easily. It is caused by the formation of circulating antibodies to the muscle type of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. These antibodies destroy some of the receptors and bind others to neighboring receptors, triggering their removal by endocytosis. The reason for the development of autoimmunity to acetylcholine receptors in this disease is still unknown. Another condition that resembles myasthenia gravis is Lambe-Eaton syndrome. In this condition, muscle weakness is caused by antibodies against one of the Ca2+ channels in the nerve endings at the neuromuscular junction. This decreases the normal Ca2+ influx that causes acetylcholine release. However, muscle strength increases with prolonged contractions as more Ca2+ is released. | 156,240 | medmcqa_train |
Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis is seen in all except? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Gitelman syndrome | 156,241 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following nerves have general visural fibers except | Olfactory nerve belongs to SSA (special somatic afferent) neural column.
Cranial nerve 1, 2 and 8 are under SSA.There nerve brings spaecial sensahirns (smell, visim, hearing and balance) from the periphery.
GVE(General Viscural Efferent) nerval column belongs to autonomic nervous system and supplies the three effectors : cardiac muscles, smooth muscle and glands.
Occulomotor nerve supplies to smooth muscles under this neural column.
Facial nerve has superior salivatory nucleus and glassopharyngeal nerve has inferior salivary nucleus smooth muscle of glands under this column. | 156,242 | medmcqa_train |
Mucous membrane of vagina is lined by: | Ans. A: Nonkeratinized Stratified Squamous epithelium | 156,243 | medmcqa_train |
Which antiepileptic drug does not act inhibition of sodium channels? | It is an inhibitor of GABAtransaminase, the enzyme which degrades GABA. Anticonvulsant action may be due to increase in synaptic GABA concentration Ref: KD TRIPATHI 8thh ed. | 156,244 | medmcqa_train |
According to disabilities ACT 1995. Seventh disability is usually refferred to as ? | Mental illness According to disabilities act 1995, the disabilities are:- i) Blindness ii) Low vision iii) Leprosy cured iv) Hearing impairment v) Locomotor disability vi) Mental retardation vii) Mental illness | 156,245 | medmcqa_train |
Lallo, the 25-year-old man, presented with h/o of pain, redness & watering of left eye for last 1 day. There is also intolerance to light. Most probable diagnosis is – | First see the information in question :
Pain, redness & watering (lacrimation)
Intolerance to light (Photophobia)
Acute posterior uveitis does not cause pain, redness, photophobia and lacrimation. The most prominent symptom is diminished vision especially if the lesion involves macula, maculopapillary bundle and optic nerve.
In Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis, initially there are symptoms of conjunctivitis, i.e. conjunctival congestion, lacrimation, chemosis, lid hemorrhage and conjunctival hemorrhage. Conical involvement (Photophobia) occurs at around one week after onset of conjunctivitis. In this question, all the symptoms are appearing at same time (since one day).
Now we are left with keratitis (corneal ulcer) and acute anterior uveitis. Both can present with pain, redness, lacrimation and photophobia. We cannot differentiate between these two on the basis of information provided in the question.
But, we have to choose one option, and keratitis seems to be best because :-
The more classical signs of anterior uveitis, i.e. KPs and aqueous flare have not been mentioned in the question.
Photophobia is more prominent in conical involvement. | 156,246 | medmcqa_train |
The greatest total cross-sectional area in the circulatory system is of | The greatest cross sectional area in the circulatory system is of capillaries. The total cross-sectional area is minimum for the aoa. Characteristics of Various Types of Blood Vessels in Systemic Circulation: Vessel Lumen Diameter Wall Thickness Approx. Total cross sectional area (Cm2) % of Blood volume contained * Aoa 2.5cm 2mm 4.5 2 Aery 0.4cm 1mm 20 8 Aeriole 30 mcm 1 mcm 400 1 Capillary 5 mcm 1 mcm 4500 5 Venule 20 mcm 2 mcm 4000 54 Vein 0.5cm 0.5mm 40 54 Vena cava 3 cm 1.5mm 18 54 *In systemic vessels; there is an aditional 12% in the hea and 18% in the pulmonary circulation. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology 26th edition Pgno: 559 | 156,247 | medmcqa_train |
Elevated androgens in PCOD | Elevated androgen convert vellus hair into coarse terminal hair. This conversion is irreversible. | 156,248 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following increases castability of base metal alloys? | Beryllium refines grain size, which increases strength, and lowers the fusion temperature of the alloys, which improves castability. Manganese and silicon also improve the castability of the alloys.
Phillips 12 ed page no 375 | 156,249 | medmcqa_train |
Which diuretic could be considered appropriate for combining with ACE inhibitors? | Ans. (C) Hydrochlorothiazide(Ref: Katzung 10/e p571; KDT 8/e p632)*ACE inhibitors are contra-indicated in the presence of hyperkalemia. Aldosterone antagonists (like spironolactone and epleronone) and epithelial sodium channel blockers (like amiloride and triamterene) are potassium sparing diuretics and should not be combined with ACE inhibitors. Thiazides on the other hand cause hypokalemia and can be combined with ACE inhibitors. | 156,250 | medmcqa_train |
Advantages of complete veneer crown include all of the above except: | Advantages of complete veneer crown
Most effective retention and resistance.
Alteration in tooth form and occlusion possible.
Disadvantages of complete veneer crown
Extensive tooth preparation.
Margins are close to gingiva and need meticulous maintenance. | 156,251 | medmcqa_train |
A stenotic valve is removed from a 70-year-old man. The value demonstrates hard nodular masses heaped up within the sinuses of Valsalva. On microscopic section, the acellular masses stain darkly blue with hematoxylin and eosin. Which of the following is the MOST significant constituent of the masses? | The valvular disease is calcific aoic stenosis, a disease of the elderly in which nodules of calcium salts, notably calcium phosphate salts, form as a result of dystrophic calcification. Dystrophic calcification can also be seen at sites of previous necrosis of many etiologies (coagulative, caseous, liquefactive, or enzymatic fat necrosis) and in advanced atherosclerosis.Calcium oxalates are found in some kidney stones.Complexed iron is seen in hemosiderin deposits, often at sites where there has been previous hemorrhage or if there is a systemic overload of iron.Magnesium phosphates are found in some kidney stones. Ref: Taylor R.D., Asinger R.W. (2009). Chapter 29. Long-Term Anticoagulation for Cardiac Conditions. In M.H. Crawford (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Cardiology, 3e. | 156,252 | medmcqa_train |
Turner syndrome is maximally associated with ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Coarctation of aoa Among the given options Aoic coarctation is most common. | 156,253 | medmcqa_train |
Ego's defence mechanism "Undoing" is typically seen in - | Undoing is seen in OCD. | 156,254 | medmcqa_train |
The period of normalcy is seen between two psychotic episodes. The diagnosis is | Bipolar mood disorder earlier known as manic-depressive psychosis is characterised by recurrent episodes of mania and depression in the same patient at different times. These episodes can occur in any sequence. (Ref: a sho textbook of psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja,7th edition, pg no73) | 156,255 | medmcqa_train |
Patient with bleeding due to platelet function defects has which of the following features? | Platelet defect are of two types- Functional defect and quantitative defect . Platelet function defect - - Normal platelet count - | Bleeding Time - Bernard Soulier disease ,VWD, Glanzmann's disease | 156,256 | medmcqa_train |
The most commonly used myocutaneous pedicle graft for pelvis surgeries contains muscle segments from - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rectus abdominis muscle * Grafts used for reconstructive operations in the pelvis are skin grafts, which are full or partial thickness, or myocutaneous grafts which are composed of full thickness of the skin, its associated subcutaneous tissue and a portion of closely associated muscle.* The most frequently used mvocutneous pedicle grafts contain, muscle segments from the rectus abdominis muscle of the anterior abdominal wall gracialis muscle of the inner thigh, bulbocavernosus muscle of the vulva, the tensor fascia lata muscle of the lateral thigh, and gluteus maximus muscle. | 156,257 | medmcqa_train |
In the upper jaw, deciduous teeth erupt earlier than those in the lower jaw, except: Odisha 11 | Ans. Central incisors | 156,258 | medmcqa_train |
Oral manifestation of scarlet fever: | The chief oral manifestations of scarlet fever have been referred to as stomatitis scarlatina.
Small punctate red macules may appear on the hard and soft palate and uvula. These are called Forchheimer spots; however, these are not diagnostic since they may be present in other infectious conditions like rubella, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, and septicemia.
The palate and the throat are often fiery red. The tonsils and faucial pillars are usually swollen and sometimes covered with a grayish exudate. More important are the changes occurring in the tongue. Early in the course of the disease, the tongue exhibits a white coating and the fungiform papillae are edematous and hyperemic, projecting above the surface as small red knobs. This phenomenon has been described clinically as ‘strawberry tongue’.
The coating of the tongue is soon lost; beginning at the tip and lateral margins, and this organ becomes deep red, glistening and smooth except for the swollen, hyperemic papillae. The tongue in this phase has been termed as the ‘raspberry tongue’. | 156,259 | medmcqa_train |
A 22-year-old man with inflammatory bowel disease is noted to have a "string sign" in the ileal area on barium enema. In which of the following conditions is this sign most often seen? (See Fig. below.) | The string sign represents long areas of circumferential inflammation and fibrosis. It is seen in the stenotic and non-stenotic phase of Crohn's disease. In addition to the string sign, abnormal puddling of barium and fistulous tracts are other helpful x-ray signs of ileitis. Other radiologic findings in Crohn's disease include skip lesions, rectal sparing, small ulcerations, and fistulas. | 156,260 | medmcqa_train |
A 30-year-old woman complains of headache, visual disturbances, deepening of the voice, and generalized weakness. She reports amenorrhea for the past year and states that she recently required a larger shoe size. Laboratory studies show impaired glucose tolerance. What other procedure would be useful for establishing your diagnosis? | This patient has clinical features of a pituitary adenoma with acromegaly. Pituitary adenomas range from small lesions that do not enlarge the gland to expansive tumors that erode the sella turcica and impinge on adjacent cranial structures. Adenomas smaller than 10 mm in diameter are referred to as microadenomas, and larger ones are termed macroadenomas. Microadenomas do not produce symptoms unless they secrete hormones. The mass effects of pituitary macroadenomas include impingement on the optic chiasm, often with bitemporal hemianopsia and loss of central vision, oculomotor palsies when the tumor invades the cavernous sinuses, and severe headaches. Large adenomas may invade the hypothalamus and lead to loss of temperature regulation, hyperphagia, and hormonal syndromes because they interfere with the normal hypothalamic input to the pituitary. Symptoms of acromegaly include characteristic facial changes, goiter, barrel chest, abnormal glucose tolerance, male sexual dysfunction, menstrual disorders in women, degenerative arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, and thickened skin. The other choices represent tests that will not provide the diagnosis of pituitary tumor.Diagnosis: Acromegaly, pituitary adenoma | 156,261 | medmcqa_train |
Severe mental retardation means IQ in the range of | ICD-10 Codes for Mental Retardation F70 Mild mental retardation IQ 50-69 F71 Moderate mental retardation IQ 35-49 F72 Severe mental retardation IQ 20-34 F73 Profound mental retardation IQ <20 Reference: Page No .3450 chap. 37 Intellectual Disability (Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition) | 156,262 | medmcqa_train |
A 55 year old man who has been on bed rest for the past 10 days, complains of sudden onset breathlessness and chest pain. His chest X-ray is normal. Which of the following is the next investigation of choice for making the diagnosis? | This patient who was bedridden for 10 days is at high risk of developing deep venous thrombosis. Since he has developed chest pain and breathlessness and his chest x ray is appearing normal he has most likely developed pulmonary embolism. The next best investigation for this patient would be ventilation perfusion scan. Cases of high clinical probability combined with a high probability V/Q scan are viually diagnostic of Pulmonary Embolism (Philip A Karla 3rd edition). Lung scanning is a second-line diagnostic test for PE, used mostly for patients who cannot tolerate intravenous contrast. Perfusion scan is done by injecting small paiculate aggregates of albumin labeled with a gamma-emitting radionuclide. Ventilation scans, are obtained using radiolabelled inhaled gas such as xenon or krypton. When the V/P scan shows 2 or more segmental perfusion defects in presence of normal ventilation it is said to e a high probability scan. The diagnosis of PE is about 90% ceain in patients with high-probability scans. Ref: Harrisons Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 262 | 156,263 | medmcqa_train |
In Revised National Tuberculosis Control programme the silent features are to achieve ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cure rate 85% & diagnosis rate 70% Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme The Government of India, WHO and World Bank together reviewed the NTP in the year 1992. Based on the findings a revised strategy for NTP was evolved. The salient features of this strategy are : - Achievement of at least 85 percent cure rate of infectious cases through supervised Sho Course Chemotherapy involving peripheral health functionaries. Augmentation of case finding activities through quality sputum microscopy to detect at least 70 percent estimated cases; and Involvement of NG0s; Information, Education and communication and improved operational research. For a "TB - free India" following objectives have been proposed : To achieve 90% notification rate To achieve 90% success rate for all new cases and 85% for retreatment cases To significantly improve the successful outcomes of treatment of drug resistant TB cases To decrease morbidity and moality of HIV associated TB To improve outcomes of TB care in the private sector | 156,264 | medmcqa_train |
Lactose intolerance in a suspected patient is diagnosed by giving an oral load of lactose and measuring concentration of: | b. H2 (Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2870, Ghai 8/e p 297)Breath hydrogen tests can be used to determine a specific carbohydrate malabsorption.It can be used to diagnose bacterial overgrowth or lactose/fructose malabsorption. | 156,265 | medmcqa_train |
Least desirable material for storing the tooth is: | Least desirable medium for storing tooth is WATER (hypotonic). | 156,266 | medmcqa_train |
The most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils is | H2O2-MPO-halide system is the most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils H2O2 is not able to efficiently kill microbes by itself. the azurophilic granules of neutrophils contain the enzyme myeloperoxidase (MPO), in the presence of a halide such as Cl-, conves H2O2 to hypochlorite(OCl2-) which is a potent antimicrobial agent that destroys microbes by halogenation (in which the halide is bound covalently to cellular constituents) or by oxidation of proteins and lipids (lipid peroxidation). Robbins 9th ed page 79 | 156,267 | medmcqa_train |
Shyam, a 50 years old male presents with a hard scrotal swelling. All of the following can be done EXCEPT ? | Ans is 'a' ie. testicular biopsy As already explained a testicular biopsy (more specifically a trans-scrotal testicular biopsy) is not done, rather is contraindicated. A suspected scrotal mass is investigated by ultrasonography & on finding a testicular mass, a radical inguinal orchiectomy is done. A trans-scrotal testicular biopsy would breach anatomical barriers and would spread the tumor. | 156,268 | medmcqa_train |
All are features, seen in cardiac tamponade ,EXCEPT- | Rapid Y descent seen in cardiac tamponade Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, is when fluid in the pericardium (the sac around the hea) builds up, resulting in c of the hea. Onset may be rapid or gradual.Symptoms typically include those of cardiogenic shock including shoness of breath, weakness, lightheadedness, and cough. Other symptoms may relate to the underlying cause A very large pericardial effusion resulting in tamponade as a result of bleeding from cancer as seen on ultrasound. Closed arrow - the hea; open arrow - the effusion Common causes of cardiac tamponade include cancer, kidney failure, chest trauma, and pericarditis. Other causes include connective tissues diseases, hypothyroidism, aoic rupture, and complications of cardiac surgery. In Africa, tuberculosis is a relatively common cause. Diagnosis may be suspected based on low blood pressure, jugular venous distension, pericardial rub, or quiet hea sounds. The diagnosis may be fuher suppoed by specific electrocardiogram (ECG) changes, chest X-ray, or an ultrasound of the hea.If fluid increases slowly the pericardial sac can expand to contain more than 2 liters; however, if the increase is rapid as little as 200 mL can result in tamponade Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1523 | 156,269 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are composite muscles, except? | Flexor carpi ulnaris receives a single innervation and is not classified as a Composite or Hybrid muscle. | 156,270 | medmcqa_train |
The Haversian system is found in - | Shaft (diaphysis) of a long bone is made up of cortical (compact) bone which consists of Haversian system. | 156,271 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following pulmonary condition is associated with widespread formation of hyaline membranes in the alveolar cavities? | Diffuse alveolar damage, clinically referred to as adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), is characterized by diffuse damage to the alveolar/capillary barrier, which may result from diverse acute conditions. The four most frequent causes are trauma, sepsis, shock, and gastric aspiration. The pathogenesis is not entirely clear, but influx of neutrophils and release of cytokines, eicosanoids, and free radicals seem to be crucial in promoting alveolar damage. The most characteristic histopathologic hallmark of diffuse alveolar damage is formation of hyaline membranes within the alveolar cavities. These consist of proteinaceous material of plasma origin and necrotic debris from desquamated epithelium. The condition has a 60% moality and manifests with acute respiratory failure.Also Know:The pathologic features of asthma are relatively nonspecific and are similar, for example, to those of chronic bronchitis, including chronic inflammatory infiltration, hyperplasia of mucous glands, and hyperophy of smooth muscle. The presence of numerous eosinophils, however, is more characteristic of asthma. Bacterial pneumonia is characterized by intra-alveolar exudation of neutrophils, fibrin, and erythrocytes. Bacteria are also present within the alveolar cavities. Desquamative interstitial pneumonitis (DIP) is a form of interstitial disease referred to as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. In contrast to usual interstitial pneumonitis (another form of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis), DIP is more responsive to steroid treatment. Histopathologically, DIP leads to hyperplasia of pneumocytes and accumulation of histiocytes that fill the alveolar cavities. Ref: Levy B.D., Choi A.M. (2012). Chapter 268. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | 156,272 | medmcqa_train |
Cushing's triad includes all except: | Cushing's Triad:
Hypertension, bradycardia and irregular respiration form the Cushing triad.
It’s a protective reflex to overcome the CNS ischemic response due to an increase in CSF pressure. This reflex leads to increase in arterial pressure above the CSF and blood flows once again into blood vessels of the brain to relieve ischemia. This increase in arterial pressure (hypertension) causes reflex bradycardia.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology T W E N T Y - F I F T H E D I T I O N page no 593 | 156,273 | medmcqa_train |
Effect of Propofol on coagulation is? | Propofol does not alter tests of coagulation or platelet function. However, propofol inhibits platelet aggregation that is induced by proinflammatory lipid mediators including thromboxane A2 and platelet-activating factor. | 156,274 | medmcqa_train |
Scab or crust of abrasion appears brown- | At 2 - 3 days the scab is reddish-brown. | 156,275 | medmcqa_train |
Total feility rate | Total feility rate represents the average number of children a woman would have if she were to pass through her reproductive years bearing children at the same rates as the women now in each age group It gives the appropriate magnitude of completed family size Reference : Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Pag no: 489 | 156,276 | medmcqa_train |
All the drugs are used in the treatment of Giardiasis except: | Treatment options for Giardiasis:metronidazole (250 mg tds for 5 days)tinidazole (2 g once by mouth)nitazoxanide (500 mg bd for 3 days)paromomycin, an oral aminoglycosideDiloxanide furoate is a lumenal amebicide(ref:Harrison's 18/e p1731, 17/e p1313) | 156,277 | medmcqa_train |
Dose of Dapsone is - | A. i.e. 1-2 mg/kg | 156,278 | medmcqa_train |
Axillary nerve injury likely to be seen in: | Axillary nerve is damaged due to the following causes: Shoulder dislocation(anterior/inferior) Fracture of upper end of Humerus Injection into deltoid muscle | 156,279 | medmcqa_train |
The following is false of placenta pre : | Associated with toxemia | 156,280 | medmcqa_train |
A 60 year man had undergone cardiac bypass surgery 1 month back. Now he staed forgetting things and was not able to recall names and phone numbers of his relatives. What is the probable diagnosis? | This patient is showing features of cognitive dysfunction following cardiac surgery. Postoperative cognitive dysfunction can occur in 20-30% of patients 1 month after surgery. Patients develop changes in personality, attention and memory.The etiology is multi factorial and includes cerebral microembolization, global cerebral hypo perfusion, systemic and cerebral inflammation, cerebral temperature peurbations, cerebral edema, and possible blood-brain barrier dysfunction. It can be assessed by a battery of psychometric tests typically before and after surgery. These tests evaluates attention, sho and long term memory, visuomotor function and other cognitive domains. Ref: Cardiothoracic Surgery in the Elderly By Mark R. Katlic, page 58; Case-Based Anesthesia: Clinical Learning Guides By George Shoen, page 35-7; The Annals of Thoracic Surgery Volume 59, Issue5, May 1995, Pages 1326-1330. | 156,281 | medmcqa_train |
Which transfusion will result in a transfusion reaction? Assume that the patient has never had a transfusion | Type O RBCs are considered to be universal donor blood. Reactions occur between the recipient's antibody and donor antigen as shown in the following table. Donor Donor antigen Recipient Recipient Antibody Reaction O - negative None AB - positive None None A - positive A, Rh A - negative B None AB-positive A,B, Rh AB-positive None None A - positive A, Rh O - positive A, B A (antigen and A (antibody) | 156,282 | medmcqa_train |
The best choice of antianxiety agent for a 40-year-old woman with generalized anxiety disorder and a history of benzodiazepine abuse is | The best choice of antianxiety agent for a 40-year-old patient with a generalized anxiety disorder and a history of BZ abuse is buspirone, a non-benzodiazepine with very low abuse potential. Benzodiazepines such as flurazepam, clonazepam, and chlordiazepoxide have higher abuse potential than buspirone Bupropion is an antidepressant, which is also used for smoking cessation. Zolpidem is a nonbenzodiazepine sleep agent. | 156,283 | medmcqa_train |
Diabetic ketoacidosis mimics acute pancreatitis in all findings except: | Diabetic ketoacidosis is often accompanied by abdominal pain and elevated total serum amylase levels, thus closely mimicking acute pancreatitis. However, the serum lipase level is not elevated in diabetic ketoacidosis. Hyperglycemia is common and is due to multiple factors, including decreased insulin release, increased glucagon release, and an increased output of adrenal glucocoicoids and catecholamines. | 156,284 | medmcqa_train |
Choline in seminal fluid is detected by ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Florence test Microchemical tests for semen analysisFlorence test - Brown crystals of choline periodideBarberio's test - Yellow coloured crystals of spermin picrate. | 156,285 | medmcqa_train |
Gas commonly used in laparoscopy is : | CO2 | 156,286 | medmcqa_train |
In a suspected case of legionnaires disease, medium used for culture is: | Definitive method for diagnosis of Legionella infection is isolation of the organism. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BCVE) supplemented with antibiotics and dye is the most sensitive medium for Legionella. | 156,287 | medmcqa_train |
For normal mammography, X-ray tube with a nominal focal size of-mm is used? | Ans BIn general smaller the focal spot sharper the image Routinely focal spot size 0.3x0.3mm while magnification technique small focus of 0.1x0.1mm is used. | 156,288 | medmcqa_train |
Which enzyme deficiency is most commonly responsible for presence of long clitoris and fused vagina? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 21 hydroxylase o Features of long clitoris and fused vagina are suggestive of adrenogenital syndrome/ congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH). 21 hydroxylase deficiency is responsible for 95% cases of CAH.Congenital adrenal hyperplasiao It is an autosomal recessive disorder. It is due to inborn error of adrenal steroid metabolism, commonly due to 21 - hydroxylase (95%) and rarely due to 11-hydroxylase or 3p hydroxy steroid dehydrogenase deficiency.Clinical presentationo Ambiguity of sex at birth - Cases of ambiguity of sex detected at birth are due to adrenogenital syndrome unless proved otherwise.Hirsutism and amenorrhea may be the presenting features around puberty in milder form.Diagnosis at birtho The suspected anatomic abnormalities include:# An enlarged clitoris.# Presence of penile urethra or hypospadius.# Associated metabolic abnormality-salt wasting (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia) and hypotension may be present.# Fused vagina.o The presence of any one or more of the above features necessitates further investigations for confirmation of an early diagnosis. | 156,289 | medmcqa_train |
The law of insanity and criminal responsibility is embodied in section | B. i.e. (84 - IPC) (6.27 - Parikh 6th)* The law of insanity and criminal responsibility is embodied in section 84 IPC while section 85 and 86 deal with drunkenness and criminal responsibilityIMPORTANT - SECTIONS***Perjury (Giving false evidence)-191-IPC*Fabricating false evidence-192 IPC*Punishment for false evidence-193 IPC*Culpable homicide-299 IPC*Murder-302 IPC***Criminal negligence-304 - A IPC*** Dowry death-304 - B IPC*Abetment of suicide-306 IPC*Attempt to commit suicide-309 IPC***Grievous hurt (Kerala 08)-320 IPC*** Rape-375 IPC** Punishment of Rape-376 IPC* Issuing or signing a false certificate is punishable under section 197 IPC*** **Tests for criminal responsibility - Right or wrong, Durham's, Curren's | 156,290 | medmcqa_train |
A5 year old boy is detected to be HBs Ag positive on two separate occasions during a screening program for hepatitis B. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Child was given three doses of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine at the age of 1 year. His mother was treated for chronic hepatitis B infection around the same time. The next relevant step for fuher investigating the child would be to - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Obtain anti HBs levels The child in question has received complete vaccination for Hepatitis B, is currently asymptomatic but has tested positive for HBsAg. The aim in avestigating the child fuher is to establish his immune status which can be best revealed by obtaining anti HBsAg levels. o If the tests shows inadequate levels of anti-HBsAg it would indicate that the vaccine had failed to mount an adequate immune response. Such a child should consult a pediatric hepatologist. o If the test shows adequate levels of anti-HBs Ag, the adequacy of vaccination is confirmed and as the child is asymptomatic no fuher intervention is required. o Positivity of HBsAg indicates that the child is a carrier of the antigen. Vaccination does not effect the HBsAg carrier state. | 156,291 | medmcqa_train |
In a child presenting with obstructive Jaundice, all are seen except – | Neonatal cholestasis
Neonatal cholestasis is defined as prolonged elevation of serum levels of conjugated bilirubin beyond the first 14 days of life.
Neonatal cholestasis can be divided into extrahepatic and intrahepatic disease and clinical features of any form of cholestasis are more or less similar.
Neonatal hepatitis is the prototype of intrahepatic cholestasis
Biliary atresia is the prototype of extrahepatic biliary atresia
Enzymes that reflect cholestasis: There are three enzymes that are usually elevated in cholestasis
Alkaline phosphatase → Found in or near bile canalicular membrane of hepatocytes
5' nucleotidase
Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase → Located in the endoplasmic reticulum and in bile duct epithelial cells.
Because GGT is more diffusely localized in the liver, its elevation in serum is less specific than are the elevation of Alkaline phosphatase & 5' nucleotidase.
Nevertheless, the following distinction is worthwhile.
"GGT levels are commonly elevated to values more than 10 times normal in biliary atresia while in hepatic causes it is raised to about three times normal."
Normal values for GGT is about 5-40 IU/L and thus a value of 600 IU/L in the patient in question reflects an elevation of more than ten times the normal value. The patient is thus likely suffering from `biliary atresia'. | 156,292 | medmcqa_train |
Lining epithelium of fallopian tube is | INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-PAGE NO:354 The uterine tube is characterized by presence of numerous branching mucosal folds that almost fill the lumen of the tube The mucosa is lined by ciliated columnar epithelium The uterine tube has a muscular wall with an inner circular and outer longitudinal layer | 156,293 | medmcqa_train |
"La belle indifference" is seen in | "La belle indifference" is seen in conversion disorder, where the patient has feeling of indiference towards his symptoms.
Example: If a person suddenly experiences loss of vision he is expected to get extremely concerned about it. But patient of conversion disorder seems to be unconcerened towards his symptoms. | 156,294 | medmcqa_train |
2 weeks old baby having scrotal pigmentation along with hyponatremia, gypoglycemia and hyperkalemia enzyme deficient- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 21 a- hydroxylase Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)o Autosomal recessive disorder,o MC. is a-hvdroxylase deficiency.In 21a-hyroxylese deficiencyo There is deficiency of mineralocorticoids & glucocorticoid,o This leads to hypoglycemia, hyponatremia. | 156,295 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not a high pitched hea sound | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Tumor plop sound Low pitch hea sounds are : S3 S4 Tumor plop sound Mid systolic clicks are Heard in mitral valve prolapse during systole and are high pitch sounds. The pericardial knock (PK) is Also high-pitched and occurs slightly later than the opening snap, corresponding in timing to the abrupt cessation of ventricular expansion after tricuspid valve opening and to an exaggerated y descent seen in the jugular venous waveform in patients with constrictive pericarditis. A tumor plop is A lower-pitched sound that can be heard in patients with atrial myxoma. It may be appreciated only in ceain positions and arises from the diastolic prolapse of the tumor across the mitral valve | 156,296 | medmcqa_train |
'Drooping water Lilly' sign is seen in: | ANSWER: (D) Upper pole renal massREF: Sutton's textbook of radiology 7th edition, volume 2, page 933-934The classical drooping lily sign on IVU of duplication anomalies of ureters:* Duplication abnormalities (duplex kidneys) are characterized by two or rarely more ureters and renal pelvis. The lower pole moiety has been displaced inferolaterally by an upper pole hydronephrosis.* The duplication of the ureter may be incomplete (the ureters fusing at some point in their course and having a common distal ureter and orifice) or complete (both ureters having separate distal orifices* Incomplete duplication is almost always of no clinical significance, although in a small proportion of cases it may be associated with yo-yo reflux in which urine from one ureter refluxes back up the other ureter.* Completely duplicated meters are associated with a number of potential problems. If the upper moiety ureter is severely obstructed, the upper moiety becomes hydronephrotic and shows diffuse cortical loss, demonstrable on ultrasound, CT or MRI. The upper moiety may opacity late or not at all and the hydronephrotic pelvis may displace the lower pole moiety inferiorly, giving rise to the so-called drooping lily sign | 156,297 | medmcqa_train |
In the posterior wall of the stomach a perforation is seen at radiography in 36 year old female , in which the gastric contents spilled into the lesser sac. Surgeon open lienorenal ligament to reach the lesser sac and notes erosion of the ulcer into an aery. Which of the following vessels is most likely affeccted ? | The left gastroepiploic aery runs through the lienogastric ligament; hence it is the aery most likely injured. The splenic aery is found in the lienorenal ligament. The right and left gastric aeries run within the lesser omentum. The gastroduodenal aery descends between the duodenum and the head of the pancreas. | 156,298 | medmcqa_train |
In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is , characterized by the presence of all of the following except- | Acanthocytes arise from either alterations in membrane lipids or structural proteins. This causes abnormalities of membrane of RBC causing remodeling in spleen and formation of acanthocytes. In abetalipoproteinemia, there is deficiency of lipids and vitamin E causing abnormal morphology of RBCs Ref Harrison20th edition pg 296 | 156,299 | medmcqa_train |
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