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All are the features of rheumatoid ahitis except? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Osteosclerosis of joint Radiological features of RA Following features are seen on X-ray :- Reduced joint space Erosion of aicular margins Subchondral cysts Juxta-aicular rarefaction Soft tissue shadow at the level of the joint because of joint effusion or synol hyperophy Deformities of the hand and fingers Periaicular osteopenia (osteoporosis) | 1,400 | medmcqa_train |
The number of deaths prevented as a result of paicular health programme is best evaluated by: | Cost effective analysis evaluates the benefits of a paicular health programme in terms of results achieved, like number of lives saved or number of days free from disease. Ref: Park 22nd edition pg: 814. | 1,401 | medmcqa_train |
Diagnostic criterion for infective endocarditis includes all EXCEPT: | ESR REF: Harrison's 17th ed Chapter 118 The duke's criteria for Infective endocarditis Major Criteria 1. Positive blood culture Typical microorganism for infective endocarditis from two separate blood cultures Viridans streptococci, Streptococcus bovis, HACEK group, Staphylococcus aureus, or Community-acquired enterococci in the absence of a primary focus, or Persistently positive blood culture, defined as recovery of a microorganism consistent with infective endocarditis from: Blood cultures drawn >12 h apa; or All of three or a majority of four or more separate blood cultures, with first and last drawn at least 1 h apa Single positive blood culture for Coxiella burnetii or phase 1 IgG antibody titer of >1:800 2. Evidence of endocardial involvement Positive echocardiogram Oscillating intracardiac mass on valve or suppoing structures or in the path of regurgitant jets or in implanted material, in the absence of an alternative anatomic explanation, or Abscess, or New paial dehiscence of prosthetic valve, or New valvular regurgitation (increase or change in preexisting murmur not sufficient) Minor Criteria Predisposition: predisposing hea condition or injection drug use Fever 38.0degC (100.4degF) 3. Vascular phenomena: major aerial emboli, septic pulmonary infarcts, mycotic aneurysm, intracranial hemorrhage, conjunctival hemorrhages, Janeway lesions Immunologic phenomena: glomerulonephritis, Osler's nodes, Roth's spots, rheumatoid L factor Microbiologic evidence: positive blood culture but not meeting major criterion as noted previously or serologic evidence of active infection with organism consistent with infective endocarditis | 1,402 | medmcqa_train |
True about celiac disease -a) Villous atrophyb) Crypt hyperplasiac) Infiltration of lymphocytesd) Cryptitise) Superficial layer thinning | Characteristic histopathological features in celiac disease are:
Intraepithelial lymphocytosis (Increased numbers of intraepithelial CD8 T lymphocytes).
Crypt hyperplasia
Villous atrophy
Cmyptitis refers to inflammation of an intestinal crypt. It is not a feature of celiac disease. It is seen in Inflammatory bowel disease (CD, UC), diverticular disease, radiation colitis and infectious colitis. | 1,403 | medmcqa_train |
Longest acting L.A | B i.e. Tetracaine | 1,404 | medmcqa_train |
When is the World No Tobacco Day celebrated? | World no tobacco day is celebrated on 31st May. Ref: Health policies and programmes in India, D.K. Taneja 11th edition page: 368 | 1,405 | medmcqa_train |
Antemortem and postmortem wounds could be differentiated by all, except - | Antemortem wound shows gaping, everted and swollen edges with vital reactions of inflammation, infection and healing.
It bleeds freely and shows extensive, deep and firmly adherent clotting (staining) of surrounding tissue which can't be washed away. | 1,406 | medmcqa_train |
The normal range of total serum bilirubin is: | Ans. A.0.2-1.2mg/100mlIncrease in serum bilirubin (2.4mg/dl) leads to jaundice. Bilirubin in serum exists in two forms: Free/unconjugated/indirect bilirubin which is water insoluble. Conjugate/direct bilirubin which is water soluble. Can be estimated by Van den Berg's diazo reaction. | 1,407 | medmcqa_train |
The structure that integrates impulses for eye-hand coordination is: | Superior colliculus integrates impulses for eye-hand coordination to control rapid directional movements of the two eyes. VISUAL PATHWAY Other impoant areas of the brain involved in visual pathway: Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus, to control circadian rhythms; Pretectal nuclei in the midbrain, to elicit reflex movements of the eyes to focus on objects of impoance and to activate the pupillary light reflex; Superior colliculus, to control rapid directional movements of the two eyes; and Ventral lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus and surrounding basal regions of the brain, to help control some of the body's behavioral functions. | 1,408 | medmcqa_train |
Autopsy of a specimen shows pale infarction. Pale infarct is seen in all of the following organs, EXCEPT: | Classification of Infarcts: Pale (white, anemic) infarcts: They occur as a result of aerial obstruction in solid organs such as the hea, kidney, spleen, and brain that lack significant collateral circulation. The continuing venous drainage of blood from the ischemic tissue accounts for the pallor of such infarcts. Red (or hemorrhagic) infarcts: They found in tissues that have a double blood supply--eg, lung and liver--or in tissues such as intestine that have collateral vessels permitting some continued flow into the area although the amount is not sufficient to prevent infarction. The infarct is red because of extravasation of blood in the infarcted area from necrotic small vessels. Red infarcts may also occur in tissue if dissolution or fragmentation of the occluding thrombus permits reestablishment of aerial flow to the infarcted area. Venous infarcts are always associated with congestion and hemorrhage. They are red infarcts. Ref: Chandrasoma P., Taylor C.R. (1998). Chapter 9. Abnormalities of Blood Supply. In P. Chandrasoma, C.R. Taylor (Eds), Concise Pathology, 3e | 1,409 | medmcqa_train |
Accumulation of homogentisic acid causes? | ANSWER: (A) OchronosisREF: Clinical Paediatric Dermatology by Thappa - Page 156, Differential diagnosis in internal medicine: from symptom to diagnosis - Page 347, http:.//en.wikipedia,org/wiki/Ochronosis,http: // en. wikipedia .org/wiki/AlkaptonuriaRepeat from December 2009, June 2009Ochronosis is the syndrome caused by the accumulation of homogentisic add in connective tissues. The condition was named after the yellowish (ocher-like) discoloration of the tissue seen on microscopic examination. However, macroscopically the affected tissues appear bluish grey because of a light scattering phenomenon known as the Tyndall effect. The condition is most often associated with alkaptonuria but can occur from exogenous administration of phenol complexes like hydroquinone.Alkaptonuria (black urine disease or alcaptonuria) is a rare inherited genetic disorder of phenylalanine and tyrosine metabolism. This is an autosomal recessive condition that is due to a defect in the enzyme homogentisate 1,2-dioxygenase, which participates in the degradation of tyrosine. As a result, a toxic tyrosine byproduct called homogentisic acid (or alkapton) accumulates in the blood and is excreted in urine in large amounts (hence -uria) | 1,410 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are anti-Pseudomonal drugs except:- | DRUGS EFFECTIVE AGAINST PSEUDOMONAS Beta lactam antibiotics Carboxypenicillins i. Carbenicillin ii. Ticarcillin Ureidopenicillin i. Piperacillin ii. Azlocillin iii. Mezlocillin Carbapenems i. Imipenem ii. Doripenem iii. Meropenem Monobactams i. Aztreonam Cephalosporins i. Ceftazidime ii. Cefoperazone iii. Moxalactam iv. Cefepime v. Cefpirome Fluoroquinolones i. Ciprofloxacin ii. Levofloxacin Polypeptide Antibiotics i. Colistin ii. Polymixin B. Aminoglycosides | 1,411 | medmcqa_train |
Oronasal intubation is not indicated in? | Nasal intubation is contraindicated in severe fractures of midface, nasal fracture and basilar skull fracture | 1,412 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following drugs can be administered in acute hypeension during labour,except | Sodium nitroprusside is contraindicated in eclampsia. Contraindications. Sodium nitroprusside should not be used for compensatory hypeension (e.g. due to an anteriovenous stent or coarctation of the aoa). It should not be used in patients with inadequate cerebral circulation or in patients who are near death. Refer kDT 7/e p732 | 1,413 | medmcqa_train |
Most common type of TAPVC - | Ans. is 'a' Supracardiac * Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is characterized by abnormal drainage of pulmonary veins into the right heart either by direct connection into the right atrium or into its tributaries.* According to the site or level of connection of the pulmonary veins to the systemic venous system TAPVC has been classified into four types# Type I (most common: 45%): Anomalous connection at supracardiac level (PV drains into left innominate vein or SVC).# Type II (25%): Anomalous connection at cardiac level (PV joins the coronary sinus or enter right atrium directly).# Type III (25%): Anomalous connection at infracardiac level (PV drain into portal vein).# Type IV (5%): Anomalous connection at multiple levels.* In supracardiac TAPVC the pulmonary veins join to form a single trunk (common pulmonary vein) which than drain through anomalous connection. | 1,414 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following benzodiazepines can be used in the elderly and those with liver disease EXCEPT: | Benzodiazepines which are short acting and not metabolized by the liver include:
S: Short-acting BZD
T: Triazolam, Temazepam
O: Oxazepam
L: Lorazepam
E: Estazolam | 1,415 | medmcqa_train |
Barr body is seen in : | Klinefelters syndrome | 1,416 | medmcqa_train |
Calorie requirement per day of a child weighing 15 kg would be - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1250 kcal | 1,417 | medmcqa_train |
A 24-year-old medical student was bitten at the base of her thumb by her dog. The wound became infected and the infection spread into the radial bursa. The tendon(s) of which muscle will most likely be affected? | Tenosynovitis can be due to an infection of the synovial sheaths of the digits. Tenosynovitis in the thumb may spread through the synovial sheath of the flexor pollicis longus tendon, also known as the radial bursa. The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus muscles are enveloped in the common synovial flexor sheath, or ulnar bursa. Neither the flexor carpi radialis nor flexor pollicis brevis tendons are contained in synovial flexor sheaths. | 1,418 | medmcqa_train |
Angular vein infection causes thrombosis in: | Ans. A Cavernous sinusRef: Gray's Anatomy, 40th ed. Ch; 29* The upper most segment of the facial vein, above its junction with the superior labial vein, is also called the angular vein.* Any infection of the mouth or face can spread via the angular veins to the cavernous sinuses resulting in thrombosis. | 1,419 | medmcqa_train |
Which laxative acts by opening of Chloride channels ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lubiprostone o Lubiprostone is used for chronic constipation, it acts by - o Stimulating Cl- channel opening in the intestine. Increasing liquid secretion in gut. Decreasing transit time. | 1,420 | medmcqa_train |
Lallu a 22 yrs. old male suffers from decreased sleep, increased sexual activity, excitement and spending excessive money for last 8 days. The diagnosis is- | Decreased sleep, increased sexual activity, excitement and spending excessive money are symptoms of mania. | 1,421 | medmcqa_train |
Branches of celiac trunk are all except- | Ans. is 'd' i.e.. Inferior phrenic artery Inferior phrenic artery is a branch of abdominal aorta, not of Celiac trunk. Branches of Celiac trunk is a extremely important topic for PG exams. Branches of important arteries are very often asked in PG exams. I am giving a list of important arteries. Learn their branches by heart if you want to get selected Celiac trunk Superior mesentric artery Inferior mesentric artery Abdominal aorta Thoracic aorta Internal iliac artery Subclavian artery Axillary artery Carotid artery Maxillary artery Basilar artery Don't waste time on learning the course or relation of arteries. They are never or very rarely asked. | 1,422 | medmcqa_train |
The disease process that best accounts for this problem: | Vomiting | 1,423 | medmcqa_train |
Loeffler&;s syndrome occurs in all except | *Giardia lamblia -intestinal flagellate,causing intestinal infection. *Loeffler syndrome- inflammatory and hypersensitivity reaction in the lungs lead to cough ,fever, dyspnoea and eosinophilia *toxocara causes visceral larva migrans . ref:Baveja textbook of parasitology 3rd edition. | 1,424 | medmcqa_train |
A 7-day-old premature infant born at 26 weeks of gestation now has a grossly bloody stool, abdominal distention, and increasing oxygen requirements. choose the best initial diagnostic step in the evaluation of the patient's apparent GI hemorrhage. | Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) is a life-threatening condition seen mostly in premature infants. Although the precise etiology is unknown, contributing factors include GI tract ischemia, impaired host immunity, the presence of bacterial or viral pathogens, and the presence of breast milk or formula in the gut. Findings include bloody stools, abdominal distension, hypoxia, acidosis, and emesis. The initial diagnostic test of choice is plain film radiographs. The characteristic finding in NEC is pneumatosis intestinalis; free air in the peritoneum may also be seen. Perforation is a surgical emergency, otherwise observation and antibiotics are indicated. | 1,425 | medmcqa_train |
Commonest site of liquifactive necrosis is | Ans. a (Brain). (Ref. Robbins, Pathologic Basis of Disease, 8th/pg.7-13)NECROSIS# Enzymatic degradation of a cell resulting from exogenous injury.# Characterized by enzymatic digestion and protein denaturation, with release of intracellular components.# Morphologically occurs as coagulative (heart, liver, kidney), liquefactive (brain), caseous (tuberculosis), fat (pancreas), fibrinoid (blood vessels), or gangrenous (limbs, GI tract).# Kidney infarct exhibiting coagulative necrosis will be seen with loss of nuclei and clumping of cytoplasm but with preservation of basic outlines of glomerular and tubular architecture.# Liquefactive necrosis in the kidney can be caused by fungal infection, which will be seen filled with white cells and cellular debris, creating a renal abscess that obliterates the normal architecture.IRREVERSIBLE INJURY AND CELL DEATHMORPHOLOGIC PATTERNCHARACTERSTICSCOAGULATIVE NECROSISMost common type (e.g. Heart, liver, kidney)LIQUEFACTIVE NECROSISAbscesses, brain infarcts, pancreatic necrosisCellular destruction by hydrolytic enzymesCASEOUS NECROSISSeen in tuberculosisCombination of coagulation and liquefaction necrosis soft, friable, and "cottage-cheese-like" appearanceFAT NECROSISCaused by the action of lipases on fatty tissue (e.g. with pancreatic damage)Chalky white appearanceFIBRINOID NECROSISEosinophilic homogenous appearance - resembles fibrinGANGRENOUS NECROSISCommon sites: lower limbs, gallbladder, Gl tract and testesDry gangrene - coagulative necrosisWet gangrene - liquefactive necrosisAPOPTOSISA specialized form of programmed cell death, an active process under genetic control.Executed in mitochondria.Mediated by a cascade of caspases (digest nuclear and cytoskeletal proteins and active endonucleases). | 1,426 | medmcqa_train |
Ixabepilone is used in: | Chemotherapy regimen in CA BreastMnemonic- CMF- C- cyclophosphamide- M- methotrexate- F -5- FUMnemonic-CAF- C- cyclophosphamide- A- Adriamycin (doxorubicin) (anthracycline derivative)- F - 5 - FU- The preferred form of chemotherapy for CA breast - CAF or Adriamycin or Anthracycline based Chemotherapy.- Usually 6 cycles are given- For Adriamycin resistant breast cancer - Taxanes are given (Docetaxel, Paclitaxel)- Chemotherapy agent given in Adriamycin & Taxane resistant breast cancer - IXABEPILONE- LAPATINIB - 2nd line agent for HER-2-NEU + ve breast cancer- HERCEPTIN /TRASTUZUMAB - 1st line agent for HER-2-neu +ve breast cancer Drug given in metastatic and refractory breast cancer - SUNITINIB 1st line agent for advanced and metastatic RCC - SUNITINIBDrug of choice for Imatinib resistant GIST - SUNITINIB. | 1,427 | medmcqa_train |
Head of sperm is derived from: | Ans. B. NucleusThe spermatozoon consists of head, neck, and tail. The tail is further divided into three parts: middle piece, principle piece, and end piece.a. The head mainly consists of a nucleus that contains the condensed chromatin material (mostly DNA).b. Anterior two-third of the nucleus is covered by an acrosomal cap that contains various enzymes including hyaluronidase and acrosin.c. Neck contains a funnel-shaped basal plate and a centriole. The centriole gives rise to axial filament that extends throughout the tail.d. Middle piece contains the axial filament in the center that is surrounded by spirally arranged mitochondrial sheath. | 1,428 | medmcqa_train |
Spinal anaesthesia in an adult is given at this level: | Spinal cord ends at lower border of L1 in adults .Hence spinal anesthesia can be given at levels below L1 . L2-L3 or L4-L5 are considered best in adults | 1,429 | medmcqa_train |
Decreased motility of fallopian tube is seen in - | Ans-B | 1,430 | medmcqa_train |
The earliest manifestation of increased intracranial pressure following head injury is | • Early signs of elevated ICP includes drowsiness and a diminished level of consciousness.
• Coma and unilateral papillary changes are late signs and require immediate intervention. | 1,431 | medmcqa_train |
What is the most likely diagnosis in this 50-year-old woman? | Answer A. MetastasisFollowing radiography that revealed a lytic lesion of the terminal phalynx, the firm 2-cm lesion with a scab in the center was biopsied and found to represent a metastasis from follicular thyroid carcinoma. | 1,432 | medmcqa_train |
At what level of b-hCG is it that normal pregnancy can be earliest detected by TVS (transvaginal USG)? | Ans. is b, i.e. 1000IU/MLRef Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 642Critical titre of hCG:b-hCG level (mIU/ml)Structure visibleTVS/TAS* 1000-1200Gestational sacTVS* 6000Gestational SacTAS | 1,433 | medmcqa_train |
In a patient of cholangitis, surgical intervention was performed. In post-operative period, on 10th day this investigation was performed. What is the name of this investigation? | The investigation is T-tube cholangiogram. | 1,434 | medmcqa_train |
Hepatitis B virus is NOT present in | (ref: Harrison's 18/e p2108) | 1,435 | medmcqa_train |
Erythropoietin is inhibited by | Glycoprotein hormone that controls erythropoiesis, or red blood cell production. Estrogen inhibits the erythropoietin whereas testosterone stimuates production . Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology; 24th edition; page no: 709 | 1,436 | medmcqa_train |
Other than nitrogen and oxygen, which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the eah's atmosphere? | Atmosphere composition Nitrogen 78% O2 21% Argon 0.9% CO2 0.03% | 1,437 | medmcqa_train |
Blood spill disinfection by: | ANS. B# Spaulding's classification for sterilization1. Critical, e.g. heart lung machine, scalpel (contact with blood)2. Semicritical, e.g. endoscopes3. Noncritical, e.g. stethoscope, BP cuff, plasters.Method of sterilization1. Critical: Autoclave/ethylene oxide2. Semicritical: 2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes3. For plastic tubes: Gamma rays | 1,438 | medmcqa_train |
Most permissible capillaries are seen in | Capillaries are classified in toContinuous or non fenestrated capillaries - Endothelial cells are arranged without any gap in between them. Eg. Skin, BBB. Allows only very small molecules to pass through. Fenestrated capillaries - Gaps in between endothelial cells ranging from 70-100nm in diameter which are lined by basement membrane. Eg. Capillaries of intestinal villi, renal glomeruli, choroid plexus of the ventricles of the brain, ciliary process of eyes and endocrine glandsDiscontinuous type- Very wide cleft are present in between endothelial cells. The basement membrane is incomplete or absent. Almost all substance in plasma can cross this gap. Seen in liver sinusoids, sinusoids of spleen, anterior pituitary and parathyroid gland Ref: Textbook of medical physiology by N Geetha, 2nd edition, page no. 194 | 1,439 | medmcqa_train |
Anaplasia is a hallmark feature of _________. | Anaplastic cells often display the following morphologic features:
Pleomorphism (i.e. variation in size and shape).
Nuclear abnormalities, consisting of extreme hyperchromatism (dark-staining), variation in nuclear size and shape, or unusually prominent single or multiple nucleoli. Enlargement of nuclei may result in an increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio that approaches 1:1 instead of the normal 1:4 or 1:6. Nucleoli may attain astounding sizes, sometimes approaching the diameter of normal lymphocytes.
Tumor giant cells may be formed.
Atypical mitoses, which may be numerous. Anarchic multiple spindles may produce tripolar or quadripolar mitotic figures.
Loss of polarity.
Reference-Robbins BASIC PATHOLOGY 10th edition pg-193 | 1,440 | medmcqa_train |
Active moiety of CoA is | - Synthesis of coenzyme A from pantothenate occurs in a series of reactions. Pantothenate is first phosphorylated to which cysteine is added. Decarboxylation, followed by addition of AMP moiety and a phosphate (each from ATP) results in coenzyme A.
-Coenzyme A serves as a carrier of activated acetyl or acyl groups (as thiol esters). | 1,441 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are radiological features of Chronic Cor pulmonale except- | Answer is B (Prominent lower lobe vessels) : Chronic Cor Palmonale is associated with prominence of upper lobe and not lower lobe veins. Features of Congestive Cardiac Failure(CCF / CHF) include : 1. Enlarged cardiac silhouette / Cardiac shadow on chest X-rayQ 2. Ground glass appearance of pulmonary edema Q 3. 'Kerley B' linesQ 4. Prominence of upper lobe blood vessels Q (not lower lobe veins) 5. Pleural effusion, usually bilateral Q 'Kerley B' lines', also known as 'Septa' lines', represent dilated lymphatics and distended interlobular septa. They occur most commonly in pulmonary edema as a result of chronic pulmonary venous hypeension (in CCF). Kerley 'A' lines stand for Apex, 'B' for Base, and 'C' for Central region. B lines are most commonly seen Q.Infact they have a relation with left atrial pressure Q :They are invariably present if LA pressure goes above 20 mmHg. Q Small bilateral pleural effusions are frequently seen in acute LVF. Large effusion may be present in long standing cases of congestive hea failure. | 1,442 | medmcqa_train |
Nestritide is a - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Brain natriuretic peptide analogue | 1,443 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following tooth can show any of the eight types of Vertucci’s classification? | Maxillary 2nd premolar can show any of the eight types of Vertucci's classification. | 1,444 | medmcqa_train |
A 25 yr old lady develops brown macular lesions over the bridge of nose and cheeks following exposure to sunlight. What is the most probable diagnosis? | This lady is showing features of chloasma which is a brownish macular hyperpigmentation of the face mostly over the cheek, forehead, nose, upper lip and chin. In a small percentage of cases it is also seen on the malar or mandibular areas of the face and occasionally the dorsum of the forearms. It is exacerbated by sunlight. This is usually seen in women during pregnancy, in women taking OCPs and living in sunny regions. It is also associated with the ingestion of diphenylhydantoin. Ref: Suurmond D. (2009). Section 13. Pigmentary Disorders. In D. Suurmond (Ed), Fitzpatrick's Color Atlas & Synopsis of Clinical Dermatology, 6e. | 1,445 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a BNP analogue? | Ans. B. NesiritideBNP (Brain natriuretic peptide) is peptide which is secreted & formed in right atrium of the heart. This is responsible for vasodilation & hence used in CHF. Nesiritide is BNP analogue | 1,446 | medmcqa_train |
Intravascular heamolysis occurs in | Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobunuria (PNH) is the only hemolytic anemia caused by an acquired intrinsic defect in the cell membrane. It is associated with intravascular hemolysis. Rest all conditions causes extravascular heamolysis. | 1,447 | medmcqa_train |
Intra uterine growth retardation can be caused by all except - | Ans. is d i.e., Phenotiazines | 1,448 | medmcqa_train |
An alcoholic is brought to the casualty, 3 days after he quit alcohol, with the complaints of irrelevant talking. On examination, he is found to be disoriented to time, place and person. He also has visual illusions and hallucinations. There is no history of head injury. The most probable diagnosis is: | This patient in the question who is a chronic alcoholic is showing features of delirium tremens, which typically appears after 3-4 days of abstinence from alcohol (24 hours to 7 days). Ref: CURRENT Diagnosis and Treatment: Emergency Medicine, 7th Edition, Chapter 37 ; CURRENT Diagnosis and Treatment: Psychiatry, 2nd Edition, Chapter 14 | 1,449 | medmcqa_train |
Repeat upper GI endoscopy in a patient with a gastric ulcer is performed after how many weeks of PPI therapy to assess the healing of the ulcer and confirm absence of malignancy: | Repeat upper endoscopy is done in patients with a gastric ulcer after 6 to 10 weeks of acid suppressive therapy to confirm healing of the ulcer and absence of malignancy. 2% to 4% of repeat upper endoscopies have been repoed to disclose gastric cancer. Ref: Sleisenger and Fordtran's, E-9, P-305 | 1,450 | medmcqa_train |
Hassal's corpuscles are seen in | Corpuscles of hassall present in the medulla of thymus Formed from eosinophilic epithelial reticular cells arranged concentrically INDERBIR SINGH'S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY SEVENT EDITION PAGE NO139 | 1,451 | medmcqa_train |
True regarding amaurosis fugax are all except: | Amaurosis fugax Sudden, temporary and painless monocular visual loss occurring due to a transient failure of retinal circulation. Uniocular lesion Lasts for 2-5 minutes and resolves in the reverse pattern of progression, leaving no residual deficit. Fundus : May be normal or shows retinal ischemia-Retinal oedema and small superficialhaemorrhages Causes : Carotid transient ischaemic attacks (TIA) Embolization of retinal circulation Papilloedema Giant cell aeritis Raynaud's disease Migraine Hypeensive retinopathy Venous stasis retinopathy | 1,452 | medmcqa_train |
Not a indication for admission in pneumonia ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Fever of 39degC Indications for urgent referral for hospital in AI Not able to drink Convulsions Severe malnutrition Stridor in calm child Abnormally sleepy or difficult to wake o All these are signs of very severe disease which is an indication for urgent hospital referrel. o Signs of very severe pneumonia i.e., chest retraction, cyanosis are also indications for urgent referrel to a hospital. | 1,453 | medmcqa_train |
Best way to prevent infection after cataract surgery is | Topical antibiotics such as tobramycin or gentamicin or ciprofloxacin QID for 3 days just before surgery is advisable as prophylaxis against endophthalmitis.Ref: Khurana; 4th edition; Pg- 184 | 1,454 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following antismoking drugs can lead to suicidal ideation? | Vareniciline is a partial agonist at α4 β2 substype of nicotine receptor used to treat tobbacco addiction.
Side effects include suicidal ideation, nausea, headache & insomnia. | 1,455 | medmcqa_train |
Positive dipstick for RBC with red color urine and red supernatant and clear sediment with positive dipstick - | Answer- D. RhabdomyolysisIf a urine dipstick of the red supernatant is positive for heme, the patient has either hemoglobinuria or myoglobinuria.If a urine dipstick of the red supernatant is negative for heme, the patient may have one of a variety of unusual conditions | 1,456 | medmcqa_train |
Complications of obesity is/are: 1. Venous ulcer 2. Pulmonary embolism 3. Pickwickian syndrome 4. Hernias 5. Pulmonary hypeension | Clinical presentation of obesity The morbidly obese patients often presents with chronic weight-related problems such as migraine headaches; back and lower extremity joint pain from degenerative joint disease; venous ulcers; dyspnea on exeion; biliary colic; stress urinary incontinence; dysmenorrhea; infeility; gastroesophageal reflux; and inguinal, umbilical, and incisional hernias. Obesity has a profound effect on overall health and life expectancy. The morbidly obese are predisposed to developing serious weight-related comorbidities, including hypeension, CAD, adult onset DM, sleep apnea and/or obesity hypoventilation syndrome (Pickwickian syndrome), deep venous thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, hypercoagulability, hyperlipidemia, and depression among others. Physiological abnormalities resulting from OSA include hypoxemia, hypercapnia, pulmonary and systemic vasoconstriction, and secondary polycythemia (from recurrent hypoxemia). These result in an increased risk of ischemic hea disease and cerebrovascular disease. Right ventricular failure can occur from hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction. Obesity is now considered to be the second leading cause of preventable death behind cigarette smoking. The incidence of comorbidities and moalities is directly related to the degree of obesity. in a study with 12 year follow up, moalities rates for those weighing 50% over average weight were doubled. Moalities and morbidities is largely attributable to the comorbidities of obesity. Ref: Schwaz 9/e, Page 1743. | 1,457 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about popliteus except - | Popliteus has an intracapsular origin that arises from lateral surface of lateral condyle of femur and from outer margin of lateral meniscus of knee. It inserts onto the posterior surface of shaft of tibia above the soleal line. Nerve supply: Tibial nerve.
Action: Unlocking of knee joint by lateral rotation of femur, prior to flexion. It is also an accessory flexor of the knee joint. | 1,458 | medmcqa_train |
Which among the following is it best inotrope drug for use in right hea failure | (Ref Goamnan and Gilman, 11/e p575, inotropic drugs are not used for treatment of right sided where the major treatment is diuretics and vasodilators. Milriinone being a phosphodiesterase inhibitor act as an inodilator. Thus, this is the only inotropic drug that should be used in right sided failure due to its ablity to produce vasodilation. It is indicated in right hea failure with pulmonary hypeension. | 1,459 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is a disadvantage of topically applied sodium fluoride solution? | Advantages of neutral sodium fluoride solution-
1. It is relatively stable when kept in a plastic container and there is no need to prepare a fresh solution for each patient.
2. The taste is well accepted by patients.
3. The solution is non-irritating to the gingiva.
4. It does not cause discoloration of tooth structure.
5. Once applied to the teeth, the solution is allowed to dry for 3 minutes. Thus the clinician in public health programs can pursue a multiple-chair procedure.
6. The series of treatments must be repeated only four times in the general age range of 3 to 13, rather than at annual or semiannual intervals, therefore in a public health program, other groups of children can be treated in theJintervening years.
Disadvantage of neutral sodium fluoride solution-
1. The major disadvantage of the use of sodium fluoride is that the patient must make four visits to the dentist within a relatively short period of time. | 1,460 | medmcqa_train |
The antimicrobial agent which inhibits the ergosterol biosynthesis is: | IMIDAZOLES AND TRIAZOLES: These are presently the most extensively used antifungal drugs. Four irnidazoles are entirely topical, while ketoconazole is used both orally and topically. Two triazoles fluconazole and itraconazole have largely replaced ketoconazole for systemic mycosis because of greater efficacy, longer tlh, fewer side effects and drug interactions. The imidazoles and triazoles have broadspectrum antifungal activity covering dermatophytes, Candida, other fungi involved in deep mycosis (except mucor), Nocardia, some grampositive and anaerobic bacteria, e.g. Staph. aureus, Strep. faecal is, Bac. fragilis and Leishmania. The mechanism of action of irnidazoles and triazoles is the same. They inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 enzyme &;lanosterol l4--demethylase&; and thus impair ergosterol synthesis leading to a cascade of membrane abnormalities in the fungus. The lower host toxicity of triazoles compared to irnidazoles has correlated with their lower affinity for mammalian CYP450 enzymes and lesser propensity to inhibit mammalian sterol synthesis. However, because they are active against ceain bacteria as well (which do not have ergosterol), other mechanisms of action also appear to be involved. Ketoconazole (KTZ): It is the first orally effective broad-spectrum antifungal drug, useful in both dermatophytosis and deep myc osis. The oral absorption of KTZ is facilitated by gastric acidity because it is more soluble at lower pH. Hepatic metabolism is extensive; metabolites are excreted in urine and faeces. Elimination of KTZ is dose dependent: tlh varies from llh to 6 hours. Penetration in CSF is poor: not effective in fungal men ingitis. However, therapeutic concentrations are attained in the skin and vaginal fluid. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:761,762 | 1,461 | medmcqa_train |
In embalmingr solution is given through ? | Emblamings may be aerial emblaming and cavity emblaming. | 1,462 | medmcqa_train |
Lipids are transferred from intestine to liver by | . | 1,463 | medmcqa_train |
A 7 year old boy presented with generalized edema.Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria.Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminaemia with hyperlipidemia.Kidney biopsy was undeaken.On light microscopic examination, the kidney appeared normal.Electron microscopic examination is most likely to reveal | Answer is A (Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells):The presence of generalized edema is a 7 year old boy with proteinuria suggests a diagnosis of Nephrotic syndrome. This child is likely to have. Minimal change disease as this is the most common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with normal findings on Light microscopyGeneralized edema May develop Pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, ascitis Patients with minimal change disease characteristically show fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epethelial cells on electron microscopy.Minimal change Disease: ReviewMost common cause of Nephrotic syndrome in children (80% in children; 20% in adults)Peak Age of onset is between 6-8 years of Age (usually < 10 years)Type of onset : InsiduousClinical featuresPeripheral Edema: Presenting FeatureNephrotic syndrome is the typical presentationPeripheral edema is the hallmark of Nephrotic syndrome occurring when serum albumin levels become less than 3g/dlInitially dependent Edema > Generalized edema May develop Pleural effusion, pulmonary edema, ascitisHematuria : 20-30%Hypeension : V. RareRenal failure : Does not usually progress to renal failureLaboratory (Features of Nephrotic syndrome)ProteinuriaHypoalbuminemiaHyperlipidemia/Hyper cholesterolemia (Increased hepatic prduction of lipids)HypercoagulabilityRenal pathology (Biopsy)InvestigationLight microscopy QElectron microscopy QImmunofluorescence QObservationNo abnormality hence the term minimal changeFusion of foot processesAbsence of immunoglobulin or complementPrognosisPrognosis is GoodResponse to steroids is ExcellentDoes not progress to Renal FailureTreatmentsCoicosteroids form the mainstay for treatment of MCD | 1,464 | medmcqa_train |
Which is not synthesized by the vascular epithelium? | Endothelial cells constitute a large and impoant tissue. They secrete many growth factors and vasoactive substances. The vasoactive substances include prostaglandins and thromboxanes, nitric oxide, and endothelins.Lungs activate angiotensin I to angiotensin II; this reaction is paicularly prominent in the lungsRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology;23rd edition; Page No: 606 | 1,465 | medmcqa_train |
All true about conus syndrome except | Since the spinal segments involved in knee and ankle jerks are at higher level than the level of lesion, they are preserved.and not lost. Root value of knee reflex is L-2,3 and 4 and for the ankle reflex is S-1 Conus medullary syndrome is lower motor neuron lesion and involves the lower 3 sacral and coccygeal segments Plantar reflex remains flexor in this syndrome since its spinal arc is also above the level of lesion and is unaffected Root value of plantar reflex is S-1,2. Conus medullary syndrome produces saddle anaesthesia in the perineal region as per the dermatomal pattern. Ref: Gray's 39e/p-227 | 1,466 | medmcqa_train |
An infant with respiratory distress was intubated. The fastest and accurate method to confirm intubation | Ans. a. Capnography Capnography is the surest confirmatory sign of correct intubationQ So, the fastest and accurate method to confirm intubation in the above mentioned infant is capnography Capnography Capnography is the continuous measurement of end tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO,) and its waveform. Normal: 32 to 42 mmHe (3 to 4 mmHg less than aerial pCO, which is 35 to 45 mmHg) Principle: Infrared light is absorbed by carbon dioxide Uses of Capnography It is the surest confirmatory sign of correct intubation (esophageal intubation will yield ETCO2=0) Intraoperative displacement of endotracheal tubedeg (ETCO2 will become zero) Diagnosis of malignant hypehermie (ETCO, may rise to more than 100 mm Hg) For detecting obstructions and disconnections of endotracheal tubes (ETCO, will fall) Capnography Uses of Capnography Diagnosing pulmonary embolism by air, fat or thrombus (sudden fall of ETCO2 occurs. It may become zero if embolus is large enough to block total pulmonary circulation) Exhausted sodalime or defective valves of closed circuit will show high ETCO2 values. To control level of hypocapnia during hyperventilation in neurosurgery Indicator of cardiac output. In cardiac arrest ETCO, is zero. | 1,467 | medmcqa_train |
All are impoant mechanisms in the formation of lithogenic bile: | Mechanisms in the formation of lithogenic (stone-forming) bile. The most impoant is increased biliary secretion of cholesterol. This may occur in association with obesity, the metabolic syndrome, high-caloric and cholesterol-rich diets, or drugs (e.g., clofibrate) and may result from increased activity of hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2617 | 1,468 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not true of caloric test? | Nystagmus can be induced both by cold as well as thermal stimulationCold stimulation causes nystagmus towards opposite side while thermal stimulation causes Nystagmus towards same side. (COWS)In canal paresis either there is a reduced or absent response (causes of U/L canal paresis are-U/L vestibular Schwannoma or vestibular neuritis).B/L absence of caloric nystagmus is seen in case of amminoglycoside ototoxicity or postmeningitis | 1,469 | medmcqa_train |
Enlarged liver with Hepatocellular dysfunction may be seen in all of the following, except: | Answer is D (Post necrotic cirrhosis) Liver is typically shrunken in size and not enlarged in post necrotic cirrhosis. Alcoholic hepatitis, NASH, Wilson's disease and Budd chiari syndrome may all present with enlarged liver and hepatocellular dysfunction. | 1,470 | medmcqa_train |
Right-sided vocal cord palsy seen in - | First I would like to exclude other three options : -
Aortic aneurysm (option b) and mediastinal lymphadenopathy (option c) cause left sided vocal cord paralysis.
Vocal nodules does not cause vocal cord paralysis.
Now we are left with option 'a' only : -
"Laryngeal carcinoma especially glottic can cause unilateral or bilateral vocal cord paralysis" ─ Conn's current therapy
So, answer of this question is laryngeal carcinoma as it can cause unilateral (right or left) or bilateral vocal cord paralysis. | 1,471 | medmcqa_train |
The Efferent fibers bundle of the substantia nigra transmits dopamine to one of the following areas | Ans. (b) Corpus striatum(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.243)The Efferent fibers bundle of the substantia nigra transmits dopamine to corpus striatum | 1,472 | medmcqa_train |
About lidocaine, all are true except : | C i.e. Ester | 1,473 | medmcqa_train |
Acid fast organisms are - | Spores may be seen in unstained preparations as Refractile bodies. The forespore stains intensely but once the spores envelope is laid down the spores does not stain readly. Spores appear as unstained areas in Gram-stained preparations but being more acid fast than the vegetative cells they can be stained by a modification of the Diehl -Nelson technique. Ref: Ananthanarayan & paniker's Textbook of Microbiology 9th edition pg no 21 | 1,474 | medmcqa_train |
Maternal disomy of chromosome 15 is seen in | Uniparental disomy occurs when both chromosomes of a pair or areas from 2 chromosome in any individual have been inherited from a single parent. Maternal uniparental disomy is seen in Leader -Willi syndrome. Paternal uniparental disomy is seen in Angelman syndrome . Reference: Nelson TB of pediatrics pg 412 19th edition. | 1,475 | medmcqa_train |
The mesentery of small intestine, along its attachment to the posterior abdominal wall, crosses all of the following structures except: | A i.e. Left gonadal vesselsRoot of mesentery crosses (successively) te ascending (4th) and inferior horizontal (3rd) pas of duodenum, abdominal aoa, IVC, right ureter, right psoas major and right gonadal (testicular/ovarian) vesselQ. It does not cross left ureter, leftgonadal vessels and superior mesenteric vessels. | 1,476 | medmcqa_train |
Drug used to prolong action of LA in Hypeensive pts? | Ans. is 'b'.e., Felypressin | 1,477 | medmcqa_train |
A 28 year old female nearing her date of delivery has been admitted following regular contractions. The resident doctor did an examination documents that the head is at +1 station.Where is the exact position of head? | Station is leading point of Head. Station 0 = Head at level of Ischial spines + means below Ischial spines - means above Ischial spines Numbers like 1 , 2 denote distance in cm below or above Ischial spine | 1,478 | medmcqa_train |
Capillary refill time in a child with shock is? | Capillary refill is a simple test that assesses how quickly blood returns to the skin after pressure is applied.
It is carried out by applying pressure to the pink part of the nail bed of the thumb or big toe in a child and over the sternum or forehead in a young infant for 3 seconds.
The capillary refill time is the time from release of pressure to complete return of the pink colour. It should be less than 3 seconds.
If it is more than 3 seconds the child may be in shock. Lift the limb slightly above heart level to assess arteriolar capillary refill and not venous stasis.
This sign is reliable except when the room temperature is low, as the cold environment can cause a delayed capillary refill.
In such a situation check the pulses and decide about shock | 1,479 | medmcqa_train |
In a lady at 32 weeks pregnancy is given an injection of dexamethasone to prevent which of the following in the newborn ? | The lung maturity occurs at 34 weeks of gestation and this is ceified by checking the L:S ratio which should be > 2:1 or appearance of Phosphatidyl glycerol in the amniotic fluid. Maternal administration of coicosteroid is advocated where the pregnancy is less than 34 weeks. This helps in fetal lung maturation so that the incidence of RDS, Intra Ventricular Hemorrhage , Necrotising Enterocolitis , and Patent Ductus Aeriosus are minimized. Respiratory distress of newborn often results in multiple debility in the fetus if not prevented. | 1,480 | medmcqa_train |
Initial site of RBC production in fetus- | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Yolk sac* Embryonic and fetal hematopoiesis occurs in three phases: megaloblastic, hepatic, and myeloid. At each phase of RBC development both the sites of production and the cell composition change.* Sites and stages of fetal erythropoiesis: Primitive erythropoiesis begins in the yolk sac at 2 to 3 weeks after conception. By the end of the first trimester, the liver has become the main erythroid organ. The liver is the primary source of red blood cells during the second trimester, and the bone marrow is the primary source of red blood cells during the last trimester | 1,481 | medmcqa_train |
Best anaesthetic agent for out patient anasthesia is | C i.e. Alfentanyl | 1,482 | medmcqa_train |
A 24 yr-old female has flaccid bullae over the skin and oral erosions. Histopathology shows intraepidermal blister with acantholytic cells. Diagnosis is: | The features of intaepidermal acantholytic blisters coupled with flacid bullae over skin and oral erosions points towards P. vulgaris. The other 3 diseases do now show intraepidermal blistering. They are devoid of mucosal involement. Erythema Multiforme: Target lesion seen on distal extremeties. If mucosa involved it is called as Epidermal Multiforme Major Dermatitis herpetiformis: Extremely pruritic vesicopapules over extensors Pemphigoid: Tense bullae | 1,483 | medmcqa_train |
After postmoem body is handed over to : | A i.e. The authority who has conducted inquest in that paicular case | 1,484 | medmcqa_train |
A 16-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH. On examination, her height was 58 inches. What would be the histopathological finding in the ovary? | Ans. (a) Absence of oocytes in the ovaries (streak ovaries)(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 166-167; 8th/pg 165-166)In this question, the patient is presenting with primary amenorrhea and raised FSH, along with short stature(Given Height =58 inches, which is less than 5th percentile of expected at 16 years age). All these features are suggestive of Turner Syndrome.Infertility Q due to rudimentary uterus and streak ovaries is an important feature Q, as ovaries are reduced to atrophic fibrous strands without ova and follicles in Turner syndrome | 1,485 | medmcqa_train |
Pseudohemoptysis is caused by: | Serratia grows in sputum after collection and makes sputum red (pigment production) This condition is pseudohemoptysis. | 1,486 | medmcqa_train |
Interstitial keratitis is commonly seen in: March 2005 | Ans. B: Congenital syphilis It develop from host immune mechanisms to active infections or antigens within the stromal keratocytes. Diseases known to cause interstitial keratitis include: congenital syphilis, herpes simplex, herpes zoster, Epstein-Barr, tuberculosis and leprosy. Clinical manifestations: superficial stromal scarring, necrotizing stromal keratitis and disciform keratitis. As the inflammation subsides, intracorneal blood vessels will regress and become nonperfused vascular channels, which are known as "ghost" vessels. These vessels can be readily visualized using slit lamp biomicroscopy and can become active if inflammation recurs. | 1,487 | medmcqa_train |
Most common cause of gangrene of foot of 30 years old farmer who is a chronic smoker - | All four can cause gangrene (Myocardial infarction can cause gangrene by thromboembolism)
Lets see, each option one by one.
Raynauds disease
Is ds of young women* (F:M ratio is 5:1)
commonly the upper limbs* are affected specially the fingers (the thumb is generally escaped)
The disease is characterized by Raynauds phenomenon* which is a series of attacks of
Local syncope → digits become cold and white*
Local asphyxia → digits turn blue with burning sensation*
Local recovery →digits regain normal colour*
Pulses remain unaffected* as this is the disease which affects arterioles
With the help of points (a) and (b) Raynauds ds can be ruled out.
Atherosclerosis (Senile gangrene)
Seen in elderly people over 50 years of age.
Thus because of age factor we can rule out atherosclerosis.
Myocardial infaction
Age factor again helps in ruling it out as MI is generally seen in elderly, though its incidence is increasing in young, but it cannot be a more common cause than Buerger's disease.
Buerger's (Thromboangitis obliterans) Usual victims of this ds are young men below 40 yrs of age, who are smokers (ds is not seen in females and nonsmokers).
Buerger ds is the inflammatory reaction in the arterial wall with involvement of the neighbouring vein and nerve, terminating in thrombosis of the artery.
It characterstically involves small and medium sized arteries (plantars, tibial and radial artery)
Both upper and lower extremities are affected.
In lower extremity the ds. occurs beyond the popliteal artery. In upper extremity the ds occurs beyond the brachial art.
Early in the course of Buergers ds the superficial veins are involved producing the characterstic migratory, recurrent superficial thrombophlebitis.
An imp difference with atheroselerosis is that, atherosclerosis is a disease of large sized arteries, buergers is a ds of small arteries. | 1,488 | medmcqa_train |
The most commonly seen primary orbital tumour in children is | Rhabdomyosarcoma It is a highly malignant tumour of the orbit arising from the extraocular muscles. It is the most common primary orbital tumour among children, usually occurring below the age of 15 years (90%). Clinical features: It classically presents as rapidly progressive proptosis of sudden onset in a child of 7-8 years. Massive proptosis due to rhabdomyosarcoma located in the superonasal quadrant (mimmicking acute inflammatory process). The clinical presentation mimics an inflammatory process. The tumour commonly involves the superionasal quadrant; but may invade any pa of the orbit. Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-394 | 1,489 | medmcqa_train |
All is true regarding case fatality rate except ? | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Very useful for chronic disease CFR is typically used in acute infectious disease e.g. food poisoning, cholera, measles. o Its usefulness in chronic disease is limited, because the period from onset to death is long and variable. CFR is closely related to virulence of agent. o Limitation of CFR is that time period is not specified. o The case fatality rate for the same disease may vary in different epidemics because of changes in host, agent and environment factors. o Case fatality rate is the complement of survival rate. CFR =1 - survival rate CRF will be more if survival rate is less more patients are dying due to disease (i.CFR) or in other words less patients are surviving survival rate). | 1,490 | medmcqa_train |
Length of naso lacrimal duct is: | Ans. 12 mm | 1,491 | medmcqa_train |
A collection of information in a table has been arranged as satisfied, very satisfied and dissatisfied. Which of the following will be the right term for such information? | Ordinal data is that data which has a meaningful arrangement of order but no valuable data or information can be obtained from the order arrangement. For example in the above question, though the data is arranged as satisfied, very satisfied and dissatisfied no information is obtainable as to what is the difference between satisfied and very satisfied and the difference between very satisfied and dissatisfied and so on. Thus this data is a ordinal data. Ref: High-Yield Bio statistics By Anthony N. Glaser; 3rd Edition; Page 4; Statistics for Management and Economics By Gerald Keller; Pages 13 - 16 | 1,492 | medmcqa_train |
Subcapsular orchiectomy is done for | Orchidectomy Orchidectomy is performed in advanced disease. In 1941, prostate cancer was shown to be responsive to such treatment by Charles Huggins, the only urologist to win a Nobel Prize. Bilateral orchidectomy, whether total or subcapsular, will eliminate the major source of testosterone production. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1474 | 1,493 | medmcqa_train |
Neostigmine antagonizes non depolarising blockade by all of the following mechanism except | Refer Katzung 10/e p 436 Neostigmine is an anti cholinerasterase. It inhibits the breakdown of ACh at the mother end plate This results in increased activity of ACh that causes depolarization of motor end plate by opening Na+channels . It posseses some direct agonistic activating on NM receptors resulting in depolarization | 1,494 | medmcqa_train |
True about peripheral nerve injury in upper limb-a) Radial nerve injury cause anaesthesia over anatomical snuff boxb) Median nerve injury cause wrist dropc) Ulnar nerve injury cause claw handd) Index finger anesthesia is caused by median nerve injurye) Thumb anaesthesia is caused by ulnar nerve injury | Radial nerve injury causes wrist drop. Thumb anaesthesia is due to median nerve injury. | 1,495 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are synonymous codon pair EXCEPT | Synonymous codons Codons that specify the same amino acids. E.g- GGA, GGG, GGU, and GGC codes for glycine Methionine is coded by AUG only. So, there is no synonymous codon for methionine. | 1,496 | medmcqa_train |
Widened anion gap is caused by all EXCEPT : | Ans.(b) Diarrhea* Anion gap :The anion gap is the difference between primary measured cations (sodium Na+ and potassium K+) and the primary measured anions (chloride Cl and bicarbonate HCO3) in serum.* So we take value of sodium and from it subtract the value of chloride and bicarbonate.* Value of Normal anion gap =10 to 12 mmol/LAG calculated as follows: AG = Na+ - (Cl" + HCO3~)Normal anion gap(Mn: FUSED CAR)Increased anion gap(Mn: MUDPILES)Decreased anion gap(Mn: BPH-M)F- Fistula pancreaticM - MethanolBromide intoxicationU- UreterosigmoidostomyU - UremiaPlasma cell dyscrasiaS- Small bowel fistulaD - DKA/ AKA/ SKA (diabetic/alcoholic/ starvation)HypoalbuminemiaE- Extra chlorideP - Paraldehyde / phenforminMonoclonal proteinD- Diarrhea1 - Iron / INH C- Carbonic anhydraseInhibitor (acetazolamide)L - Lactic acidosis A- Adrenal insufficiencyR- Renal tubular acidosisE - Ethylene glycol S - Salicylates | 1,497 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following provisions are included in the Primary health care according to the Alma Ata declaration except: | ALMA - ATA CONFERENCE: Called for WHO Goal of "Health for All" by 2000 India is a signatory Provisions included under Primary Health Care according to Alma Ata conference: E- Essential drugs ; 33-38 essential drugs are included in PHC. Most essential drug is Paracetamol L - Locally endemic disease prevention & control E - Education M - Maternal & child health E - EPI 1978; UIP- 1985 N- Nutrition T - Treatment of common ailments S - Safe water supply & sanitation | 1,498 | medmcqa_train |
A 65yr old male with his of Diabetes and HTN presents Ito OPD with complaints of diplopia and squint on examination secondary detion is seen to be more than primary detion Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis | ref : ak khurana 7th ed | 1,499 | medmcqa_train |
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