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"explanation": "This is the part of the liver which is not covered by peritoneum and is in direct contact with the diaphrgam, hence 'bare'. It is found superiorly but posteriorly. i.e The area which is not covered by ligaments (which are double folds of peritoneum covering the liver).",
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"explanation": "This is the part of the colon found before the hepatic flexure (where the colon bends at a right angle close to the liver) and continues as the transverse colon.",
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"explanation": "This lies deep to the external oblique with its fibres running superiomedially. It therefore originates where the external oblique inserts at the inguinal ligament, iliac crest and thoracolumbar fascia and inserts at ribs 10-12.",
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"explanation": "The iliacus muscle is a major hip flexor. The hamstrings (biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus muscles) and the gluteus maximus muscle are responsible for extension at the hip joint.",
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"id": "10009362",
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"explanation": "Calot's triad is formed by the cystic duct, hepatic duct and inferior border of the liver. It is a space which contains the cystic artery. It is important to identify the cystic artery and ligate during a cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder) as it may contain smaller branches supplying the liver and associated structures.",
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"explanation": "This is found characteristically in the duodenum, in the submucosa. They produce mucosa to protect the duodenum from damage due to gastric acid.",
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"explanation": "These are intestinal glands that extend into the lamina propria, with Paneth cells located at the base of the crypts (although their function is unclear - perhaps antimicrobial).",
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"explanation": "The jejuneal and ileal arteries anastomose to form loops called arcades which terminate as the vasa recta (straight arteries). In the jejuneum there are fewer arcades but longer vasa recta as compared to the ileum.",
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"explanation": "The arrowed structure is closer to the aorta than the IVC so must be the LEFT adrenal gland.",
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"explanation": "This is a layer of the adrenal cortex which would be difficult to see macroscopically or at least without a cross section. This layer secretes glucocorticoids such as cortisol which is the body's stress hormone and stimulates glucose release.",
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"explanation": "This is the fat protecting the kidneys and is found closest to the kidney as compared to paranephric fat which is found outside the renal fascia. Therefore it is the perinephric fat which separates the adrenal glands (which are found in Gerato's fascia) from the kidneys.",
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"explanation": "This is a posterior view of the renal structures. The aorta is the more rounded looking structure which sits ont he left side of the midline and the IVC is the more flattened looking structure on right side. Therefore, the arrowed structure which sits on the left side of the picture, above the kidney must be the left adrenal gland.",
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"explanation": "This is another layer of the adrenal cortex, again difficult to see. It is responsible for production of sex hormones such as testosterone.",
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"explanation": "This is a remnant of the foetal umbilical vein seen in the free edge of the falciform ligament. It is also called the round ligament of the liver.",
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"explanation": "The right and left triangular ligaments are continuous with the coronary ligaments reaching to the upper corners of the liver.",
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"explanation": "The image shows two distinct points: one at which the ileum joins the caecum and the other at which the vermiform appendix is formed. This helps us to identify the structure as the caecum.",
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"explanation": "This cannot be seen in the image as it is found after the splenic flexure and is the more distal part of the colon.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the abdominal organs, including the liver at the top. The yellow arrow shows the foramen of Winslow, also termed the epiploic foramen. This is a normal anatomical passage through the lesser omentum, representing the connection between the greater sac and the lesser sac of the peritoneal cavity. The epiploic foramen lies in close proximity to the lesser curvature of the stomach. The lesser sac lies posterior to the stomach and lesser omentum. The arrow however, is pointing to a passage rather than an organ.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the abdominal organs, including the liver at the top. The yellow arrow shows the foramen of Winslow, also termed the epiploic foramen. This is a normal anatomical passage through the lesser omentum, representing the connection between the greater sac and the lesser sac of the peritoneal cavity. The arrow is interrupted by the structures which run in the hepatoduodenal ligament (the free edge of the lesser omentum) – including the hepatic artery, the portal vein and the common bile duct.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the abdominal organs, including the liver at the top. The yellow arrow shows the foramen of Winslow, also termed the epiploic foramen. This is a normal anatomical passage through the lesser omentum, representing the connection between the greater sac and the lesser sac of the peritoneal cavity. The portal vein is one of the structures contained in the hepatoduodenal ligament, which forms the anterior border of the epiploic foramen. The hepatoduodenal ligament also contains the hepatic artery and the common bile duct, and which interrupts the yellow arrow in the image.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the abdominal organs, including the liver at the top. The yellow arrow shows the foramen of Winslow, also termed the epiploic foramen. This is a normal anatomical passage through the lesser omentum, representing the connection between the greater sac and the lesser sac of the peritoneal cavity. The gallbladder, while located inferiorly to the liver. The hepatoduodenal ligament, or the free border of the lesser omentum, forms the anterior boundary of the epiploic foramen. This is clinically relevant as the biliary duct, hepatic artery and portal vein travel through this ligament. Therefore, the gallbladder is not located as deep as the yellow arrow indicates.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a sagittal section of the male pelvic cavity. The rectum is located posteriorly to the structure indicated by the blue arrow. That structure is the pouch of Douglas which is the inferior-most extension of the peritoneal cavity in the pelvis. In males this is located between the bladder and the rectum, so it is termed the rectovesical pouch. In females, this space lies between the vaginal canal and the rectum and is termed the rectovaginal pouch.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected spleen with the large splenic artery and the tail of the pancreas (inferiorly) in situ. The artery points towards the spleen. The spleen has a slightly oval shape and is covered by a weak capsule. The splenic artery and splenic vein are located at the hilum of the spleen. The tail of the pancreas is found medial to the spleen.",
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"votes": 158
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected spleen with the large splenic artery and the tail of the pancreas (inferiorly) in situ. The artery points towards the spleen. Toxic megacolon is acute colonic dilatation of the transverse colon, associated with loss of haustration. The spleen can be recognised by its characteristic shape and vasculature.",
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"name": "Sigmoid colon enlarged due to toxic megacolon",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected spleen with the large splenic artery and the tail of the pancreas (inferiorly) in situ. The artery points towards the spleen. The stomach can be distinguished by its characteristic shape and colour. The stomach has a reddish-pink colour and is the most dilated part of the GI tract. It is essentially a muscular bag. The fundus, body and pyloric antrum comprise the main parts of the stomach and the greater and lesser curvatures form the left and right borders respectively.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected view of the spleen with the blood vessels in situ. The arrow is pointing to the splenic hilum, which is where the splenic artery and splenic vein are located. The tail of the pancreas is found medial to the spleen.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected view of the spleen with the blood vessels in situ. The vessels enter and exit the spleen at the region called the hilum, which the arrow is pointing at. The lesser curvature of the stomach is located on the medial side of the stomach and between the cardia and the pyloric sphincter. However, the organ identified in the image is not the stomach.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected view of the spleen with the blood vessels in situ. The vessels enter and exit the spleen at the region called the hilum, which the arrow is pointing at. The hilum of the left lung is the area where the blood vessels coming to and from the lungs are located, as well as where the bronchi and the hilar lymph nodes are found. However, the organ identified in the image is not the left lung.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected view of the spleen with the blood vessels in situ. The vessels enter and exit the spleen at the region called the hilum, which the arrow is pointing at. The inferior surface of the heart is found in contact with the diaphragm. However, the organ identified in the image is not the heart.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected view of the spleen with the blood vessels in situ. The vessels enter and exit the spleen at the region called the hilum, which the arrow is pointing at. The hilum of the kidney is the region where the renal artery enters and the renal vein and the renal pelvis exit the kidney, but the organ identified in the image is not the left kidney.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the kidneys with the aorta and the inferior vena cava in situ. The structure indicated by the blue arrow is the left adrenal gland, whose function is to produce hormones regulating metabolism, immune function, blood pressure and stress responses.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the kidneys with the aorta and the inferior vena cava in situ. The gallbladder is responsible for the storage of bile. However, the structure indicated by the blue arrow is the left adrenal gland, whose function is to produce hormones regulating metabolism, immune function, blood pressure and stress responses.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the kidneys with the aorta and the inferior vena cava in situ. The peri-renal adipose tissue is responsible for protection of kidneys and renal blood vessels from external damage. However, the structure indicated by the blue arrow is the left adrenal gland, whose function is to produce hormones regulating metabolism, immune function, blood pressure and stress responses.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the kidneys with the aorta and the inferior vena cava in situ. The pancreas is responsible for the production of digestive enzymes, insulin and glucagon. However, the structure indicated by the blue arrow is the left adrenal gland, whose function is to produce hormones regulating metabolism, immune function, blood pressure and stress responses.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissection of the kidneys with the aorta and the inferior vena cava in situ. The spleen is responsible for filtering blood and removing damaged red blood cells from the circulation. However, the structure indicated by the blue arrow is the left adrenal gland, whose function is to produce hormones regulating metabolism, immune function, blood pressure and stress responses.",
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"name": "Removes damaged red blood cells from the circulation",
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"explanation": "The image shows an axial view of the abdomen. The stomach is responsible for the storage and digestion of food before its onward passage into the small intestine. However, the arrow indicates the left kidney, whose function is to filter blood and remove waste products of metabolism from the blood in the form of urine.",
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"explanation": "The image shows an axial view of the abdomen. The production of hormones regulating metabolism, immune function, blood pressure and stress responses are all functions of the adrenal glands. However, the arrow indicates the left kidney, whose function is to filter blood and remove waste products of metabolism from the blood in the form of urine.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected abdominal cavity. The arrow indicates the mesentery, a double-layered peritoneal structure which surrounds the small intestine and large intestine and attaches them to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected abdominal cavity. The lesser omentum is a double-layer of tissue extending between the inferior surface of the liver and the lesser curvature of the stomach. However, the arrow indicates the mesentery, a double-layered peritoneal structure which surrounds the small intestine and large intestine and attaches them to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected abdominal cavity with the liver removed and parts of the bowel partially removed. The mesorectum is a double-layered tissue formed by the peritoneal membrane which surrounds the rectum and allows its attachment to the wall of the abdominal cavity. The rectum is not well visualised in this specimen and would be found much more inferior to the highlighted structure.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected abdominal cavity. The greater omentum is a fibrous-fatty double-layer of tissue covering the contents of the abdominal cavity anteriorly and extending from the greater curvature of the stomach down into the pelvis and back to attach to the transverse colon. However, the arrow indicates the mesentery, a double-layered peritoneal structure which surrounds the small intestine and large intestine and attaches them to the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected section of the small intestine with its mesentery and associated blood supply in situ. The vessel indicated by the arrow is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery which supplies blood to the small intestine. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the GI tract from the hepatic flexure of the large intestine to the distal third of the rectum and would therefore supply the descending colon. However, this image specifically shows a portion of the small bowel, which can be recognised by its vasa recta, arcades and mesentery.",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected section of the small intestine with its mesentery and associated blood supply in situ. The vessel indicated by the arrow is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery which supplies blood to the small intestine. The SMA supplies the foregut (i.e. from the ampullary region of the second part of the duodenum to the hepatic flexure of the large intestine).",
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"explanation": "The image shows a dissected section of the small intestine with its mesentery and associated blood supply in situ. The vessel indicated by the arrow is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery which supplies blood to the small intestine and the large intestine as far as the hepatic flexure. The blood supply to the liver is derived from the coeliac trunk, which is not pictured here.",
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"label": "b",
"name": "Their ability to dissolve readily within the mouth during the first process of digestion to allow immediate action upon reaching the stomach",
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"question": "Which of the following is correct with respect to Proton Pump Inhibitors (PPI)?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 94,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,379 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,457 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The norovirus incubation period is usually 1-2 days.",
"id": "10009548",
"label": "d",
"name": "Norovirus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "*Clostridium perfringens* is enterotoxin induced, and its’ incubation period is usually within hours. This is classically found in reheated meat dishes or cooked meats.",
"id": "10009545",
"label": "a",
"name": "*Clostridium perfringens*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "*Shigella dysenteriae* incubation period is 1-3 days, so this would not be possible here.",
"id": "10009547",
"label": "c",
"name": "*Shigella dysenteriae*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "*Salmonella typhi* is a bacterial infection that causes gastroenteritis. However, it is usually caused by eating a seafood water source infected by faeces/urine or eating raw vegetables fertilised with human waste, neither of which is indicated in this question.",
"id": "10009546",
"label": "b",
"name": "*Salmonella typhi*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 55
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "*Clostridium difficile* is an anaerobic spore former and not transmitted through food. It can also colonise without causing disease.",
"id": "10009549",
"label": "e",
"name": "*Clostridium difficile*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"demo": null,
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"id": "5350",
"name": "GI Infections",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "192",
"name": "Upper GI",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 192,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A woman was on her lunch break from work one day. She buys lunch from a street stall and becomes unwell within 12 hours.\n\nWhat is the likely cause?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 92,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,380 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,458 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Serum albumin is a measure of the synthetic activity of the liver, which is often **reduced** in patients with liver disease due to the change in the volume of distribution of albumin as well as the reduction in synthesis.",
"id": "10009554",
"label": "e",
"name": "Increased serum albumin level is found in liver disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Venous drainage of the liver is by the hepatic **veins** into the IVC",
"id": "10009551",
"label": "b",
"name": "Venous drainage of the liver is by the hepatic arteries in the IVC",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Bilirubin is produced as a product of the breakdown of RBCs, not the creation",
"id": "10009553",
"label": "d",
"name": "Bilirubin is produced due to the creation of red blood cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer",
"id": "10009550",
"label": "a",
"name": "Cholecystokinin stimulates vagal afferents, causing Sphincter of Oddi relaxation and rhythmic gallbladder contraction, which expels stored bile",
"picture": null,
"votes": 59
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The liver is required to store and synthesise **glycogen**, which is utilised to help prevent **hypoglycaemia**",
"id": "10009552",
"label": "c",
"name": "The liver is required to store and synthesise glucose; this is a protective mechanism to prevent hyperglycaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5351",
"name": "Liver",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "262",
"name": "Hepatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 262,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"question": "Which of the following is correct in relation to hepatic physiology?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 85,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,381 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,459 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Na+ residues within the basolateral membrane which will facilitate a low intracellular Na+ concentration, creating a favourable electrochemical gradient for Na+ reabsorption by the Na+/H+ antiporter.",
"id": "10009559",
"label": "e",
"name": "The Na+ pump in the apical membrane creates a low intracellular Na+ concentration and creates a favourable electrochemical gradient",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The PCT is the primary site of reabsorption of HCO3- within the kidney and it is carried out via an indirect method involving carbonic anhydrase since the apical membrane is impermeable to HCO3-",
"id": "10009556",
"label": "b",
"name": "10% of the HCO3- present within the filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT via the indirect method involving Carbonic Anhydrase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct Answer",
"id": "10009555",
"label": "a",
"name": "90% of the HCO3- present within the filtrate is reabsorbed in the PCT via the indirect method involving Carbonic Anhydrase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "PCT has a high permeability to water. Water reabsorption is facilitated paracellularly across tight junctions and transcellular via water channels. There is also the presence of an Osmotic pressure gradient maintained by Na+ reabsorption, and increased oncotic pressure in peritubular capillaries.",
"id": "10009557",
"label": "c",
"name": "PCT is majorly impermeable towards the water in the filtrate, and the reabsorption of water is prevented via a lack of paracellular tight junctions and a lack of osmotic gradient",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "67% of K+ is reabsorbed in the PCT, however, this is via paracellular transport as the primary method of reabsorption. There is also an active transport of K+ inwards via Na+/K+ ATPase",
"id": "10009558",
"label": "d",
"name": "67% of K+ is reabsorbed in the PCT due to passive transport involved in the K+/Cl- ATPase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5352",
"name": "PCT",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "263",
"name": "Renal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 263,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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},
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"question": "The Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) is one of the primary sites of reabsorption for the kidney.\n\nFrom the answers below, select which is the **most** correct in terms of percentage reabsorption in the PCT.",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 78,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,382 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,460 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The descending limb is highly permeable to water. Water will move via Aquaporin-1 channels",
"id": "10009563",
"label": "d",
"name": "The descending limb of the Loop of Henlé is largely impermeable to water",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The fluid at the tip of the ascending limb is hypotonic",
"id": "10009562",
"label": "c",
"name": "At the tip of the ascending limb, fluid is hypertonic",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The ascending limb is largely **im**permeable to the water where 20-30% of Na+, Cl- & K+ is reabsorbed",
"id": "10009561",
"label": "b",
"name": "The ascending limb of the Loop of Henlé is largely permeable to water",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct Answer",
"id": "10009560",
"label": "a",
"name": "Most K+ will leak back into the lumen via apical K+ channels, as a consequence tubular lumen will become positively charged relative to the interstitium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Most K+ will leak back into the lumen via apical K+ channels, as a consequence tubular lumen will become **positively** charged relative to the interstitium",
"id": "10009564",
"label": "e",
"name": "Most K+ will leak back into the lumen via apical K+ channels, as a consequence, the tubular lumen will become negatively charged relative to the interstitium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5353",
"name": "Loop of Henlé",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "263",
"name": "Renal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 263,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "14460",
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"multiAnswer": null,
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"question": "In relation to the Loop of Henlé in the nephron of the kidneys, which of the following statements is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 73,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,383 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,461 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct Answer",
"id": "10009565",
"label": "a",
"name": "ADH increases the permeability of the inner medullary collecting duct to urea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "ADH is released in response to a decrease in extracellular volume not an increase in extracellular volume",
"id": "10009569",
"label": "e",
"name": "ADH is released in response to a rise in extracellular volume",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "ADH **inhibits** the release of renin from juxtaglomerular granular cells of the kidney",
"id": "10009568",
"label": "d",
"name": "ADH stimulates release of renin from juxtaglomerular granular cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The secondary stimulus for the release of ADH is via baroreceptors, however, this is due to a **reduction** of blood pressure. ADH then acts to raise blood pressure to restore normotension.",
"id": "10009567",
"label": "c",
"name": "A secondary stimulus for the release of ADH is via baroreceptors, which are stimulated by a rise in blood pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The release of ADH is actually stimulated by an **increase** in plasma osmolality not by a decrease in plasma osmolality",
"id": "10009566",
"label": "b",
"name": "The release of ADH is stimulated by a decrease in plasma osmolality",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5354",
"name": "ADH",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "263",
"name": "Renal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 263,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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},
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a key hormone involved in the homeostasis of the renal system.\n\nWhich one of the following statements concerning ADH is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 76,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,384 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,462 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Furosemide will increase the delivery of Na+ to the DCT, leading to a promotion of K+ loss, so patients taking Furosemide are at risk of hypokalaemia.",
"id": "10009573",
"label": "d",
"name": "Furosemide decreases Na<sup>+</sup> delivery to the Distal Convoluted Tubule which will help to promote the retention of K<sup>+</sup> ions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Loop diuretics actually **block** sodium chloride’s entry into the Macula Densa causing the patient to have volume depletion. As a consequence, the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System will be activated to stimulate Na+ retention and K+ loss.",
"id": "10009574",
"label": "e",
"name": "Loop diuretics like Furosemide stimulate NaCl entry into the Macula Densa, helping to increase a patient’s circulating volume and causing an activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAAS) system",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Furosemide in fact blocks the Na<sup>+</sup>/2Cl<sup>-</sup>/K<sup>+</sup> symporter of the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henlé",
"id": "10009572",
"label": "c",
"name": "Furosemide works on the Na<sup>+</sup>/H<sup>+</sup> antiporter within the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henlé",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct Answer. This will create an osmotic gradient which will increase water loss from the kidneys.",
"id": "10009570",
"label": "a",
"name": "Furosemide is a loop diuretic, which causes 15-25% of filtered sodium (Na<sup>+</sup>) to be excreted within the urine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The mechanism of action of Furosemide will **reduce** the ability of the loop of henlé to concentrate urine by preventing the creation of a hypertonic interstitium in the medulla",
"id": "10009571",
"label": "b",
"name": "Furosemide increases the ability of the loop of Henlé to concentrate urine by creating a hypotonic interstitium in the medulla",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5355",
"name": "Diuretics - Loop Diuretics",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "263",
"name": "Renal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 263,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "14462",
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"question": "A patient has been prescribed the medication, Furosemide.\n\nWhich of the following statements is the correct regarding Furosemide?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 71,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,385 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,463 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Growth Hormone and Prolactin are hormones which are comprised of single-chain polypeptides with disulfide bridges",
"id": "10009576",
"label": "b",
"name": "Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone (ACTH) and LH are made up of single-chain polypeptides connected via disulfide bridges",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Prolactin stimulates the mammary glands to produce lactation and promote the growth and development of the breasts. Follicle stimulating hormone will stimulate follicular development rather than stimulating ovulation. A surge of LH acts to trigger ovulation.",
"id": "10009577",
"label": "c",
"name": "Prolactin and FSH act to stimulate steroid hormone synthesis in the Gonads and within Females, causing ovulation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Thyroid stimulating hormone and adrenocorticotrophic hormone do not work together, they work independently as TSH stimulates the synthesis and release of thyroid hormones and ACTH will stimulate the synthesis and release of cortisol.",
"id": "10009578",
"label": "d",
"name": "TSH and ACTH are working synergistically to stimulate the mammary glands to produce lactation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because TSH is released from the anterior pituitary via the process of **exocytosis**",
"id": "10009579",
"label": "e",
"name": "When TSH is produced within the anterior pituitary, it is released via endocytosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer",
"id": "10009575",
"label": "a",
"name": "Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH), Luteinising Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) are glycoproteins comprised of 2 subunits",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5356",
"name": "Anterior Pituitary Hormones",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "221",
"name": "Endocrine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 221,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"psaSectionId": null,
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"question": "The Anterior Pituitary produces critical hormones, necessary for maintaining homeostasis within the body.\n\nWhich of the following statements with respect to these hormones is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 66,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,386 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,464 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because most of the anterior pituitary hormones are regulated or controlled via **negative feedback **",
"id": "10009581",
"label": "b",
"name": "The majority of hormones secreted by the anterior pituitary gland are regulated and/or controlled via positive feedback",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Thyroid hormones are circulated bound to plasma proteins because they are lipophilic in nature, so thyroid hormones are unable to dissolve in plasma",
"id": "10009584",
"label": "e",
"name": "Thyroid hormones are circulated as free hormones unbounded",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the posterior pituitary is actually neural tissue secreting neurohormones, and the lobe is formed by a down growth of neural tissue from the brain",
"id": "10009582",
"label": "c",
"name": "In the development of the posterior pituitary, it is composed of \"true\" endocrine tissue",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer",
"id": "10009580",
"label": "a",
"name": "The posterior pituitary is primarily comprised of axons of the hypothalamic neurons which extend downwards",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is actually an example of endocrine communication",
"id": "10009583",
"label": "d",
"name": "The thyroid hormones being sent out via the bloodstream to various target organs is an example of intracrine communication",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5357",
"name": "Hormonal Regulation Mechanisms",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "221",
"name": "Endocrine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 221,
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"question": "With regards to the Hypothalamus and Pituitary Glands, which of the following is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 65,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,387 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,465 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hypothalamic or anterior pituitary failure would cause *hypo-* rather than hyper-thyroidism.",
"id": "10009586",
"label": "b",
"name": "This may be secondary to hypothalamic or anterior pituitary failure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, these are symptoms a patient suffering from hypothyroidism would present with, this patient may present with tremors, goitre and eye protrusion.",
"id": "10009589",
"label": "e",
"name": "Other symptoms the patient may be experiencing are cold intolerance, menstrual irregularity, hair loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would be the treatment for a patient suffering from hypothyroidism, as this medication would replicate the hormones produced by the thyroid to achieve a euthyroid state",
"id": "10009588",
"label": "d",
"name": "The management of this condition is via synthetic thyroid hormones, Levothyroxine (T4)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer",
"id": "10009585",
"label": "a",
"name": "Goitre can be observed in this patient",
"picture": null,
"votes": 47
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Propranolol can be prescribed for symptomatic relief of palpitations in hyperthyroidism. However, it does not treat the underlying condition. The first line treatment in hyperthyroidism may include radioactive iodine, anti-thyroid drugs such as carbimazole, or surgery.",
"id": "10009587",
"label": "c",
"name": "Propranolol can be prescribed to treat the underlying cause",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
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"id": "5358",
"name": "Thyroid Disorders",
"status": null,
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"id": "221",
"name": "Endocrine",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A patient presents with symptoms of weight loss, palpitations and sweating. A diagnosis of Hyperthyroidism is made.\n\nWhich of the following statements is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 66,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,388 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,466 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would be hyperthyroidism that is secondary due to excess hypothalamic or anterior pituitary secretion",
"id": "10009593",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increased T3 and T4 levels and an increase in Thyroid Stimulating Hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is unlikely to be consistent with the diagnosis of the patient’s case",
"id": "10009594",
"label": "e",
"name": "Decreased T3 and T4 levels, but a normal plasma concentration of Thyroid Stimulating Hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This blood work would be consistent with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism due to Grave’s Disease or hyper-secreting thyroid tumour",
"id": "10009592",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increased T3 and T4 and decreased Thyroid Stimulating Hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would be consistent with a diagnosis of primary failure of the thyroid gland, with 90% of the cases being due to Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis or due to a lack of dietary iodine",
"id": "10009591",
"label": "b",
"name": "Decreased T3 and T4 levels, increased Thyroid Stimulating Hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer",
"id": "10009590",
"label": "a",
"name": "Decreased T3 and T4 levels and decreased Thyroid Stimulating Hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
}
],
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"id": "5358",
"name": "Thyroid Disorders",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "221",
"name": "Endocrine",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A patient had a suspected diagnosis of Hypothyroidism secondary to hypothalamic failure. Blood work was carried out.\n\nWhat results are likely to be consistent with this diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 67,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,389 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,467 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an unlikely side effect of uncontrolled blood sugars unless is extreme case scenarios such as nerve damage as a result of diabetes",
"id": "10009596",
"label": "b",
"name": "Constipation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as this is not a likely complication of uncontrolled blood sugars",
"id": "10009597",
"label": "c",
"name": "Nose bleeds",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Peripheral sensory **loss** is however a common side effect of poorly controlled blood sugars. This will ascend in glove and stocking distribution. This loss of sensation, and increased risk of infections, can lead to ulceration and necrosis of the feet, ankles or digits. As such, patients with diabetes are invited for annual feet check appointments.",
"id": "10009598",
"label": "d",
"name": "Peripheral hypersensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer. Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of poor glucose control. As such, diabetic patients are invited for annual eye screening in addition to their regular management.",
"id": "10009595",
"label": "a",
"name": "Retinopathy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 63
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as it is unlikely to be a side effect of uncontrolled blood sugars",
"id": "10009599",
"label": "e",
"name": "Acid reflux",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5359",
"name": "Diabetes",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "221",
"name": "Endocrine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 221,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A patient has been suffering from Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus for 8 years. They have a history of uncontrolled blood sugars.\n\nFrom this information, which of the following statements below is the most correct in regard to complications this patient might suffer from?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 66,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,390 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,468 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as cortisol have immunosuppressive effects by which there is a decrease in the number and activation of T-Lymphocytes, making patients under extreme stress more susceptible to illnesses and pathogens. Cortisol levels will increase when a patient is under extreme stress.",
"id": "10009603",
"label": "d",
"name": "When a patient is under extreme stress, there will be an increase in the number and activation of T-lymphocytes, allowing enhancement of the patients’ immune system, there will also be a decrease in the circulating volume of Cortisol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because cortisol actually has a catabolic effect on muscle and adipose tissue, meaning it will break down both muscle and fat cells",
"id": "10009601",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cortisol has an anabolic effect on skeletal muscle and adipose tissue",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer",
"id": "10009600",
"label": "a",
"name": "Within the Liver, Cortisol will stimulate gluconeogenesis and glycogen storage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "this is incorrect because cortisol will stimulate the production of lipocortin which will result in the anti-inflammatory properties of cortisol.",
"id": "10009602",
"label": "c",
"name": "The production of lipocortin will be inhibited under an environment high in cortisol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cortisol is produced by the adrenal glands however, it is produced from the Zona fasciculata region of the adrenal gland.",
"id": "10009604",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cortisol is produced from the Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"demo": null,
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"id": "5360",
"name": "Cortisol",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "221",
"name": "Endocrine",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "In regards to the stimulus and release of cortisol, which of the following statements is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 62,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,391 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,469 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia can present in patients with short height and early puberty in both males and females",
"id": "10009608",
"label": "d",
"name": "Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Addison's disease is incorrect as it manifests as postural hypotension, muscle weakness, weight loss and increased pigmentation",
"id": "10009606",
"label": "b",
"name": "Addision’s disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Conn's disease presents as frequent urination, muscle cramps and heart palpitations, so this diagnosis would be incorrect",
"id": "10009609",
"label": "e",
"name": "Conn’s disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct because Cushing’s syndrome is clinically characterised by muscle weakness, hypertension, and purple abdominal striae. When investigated by a 48hr low dose dexamethasone test, if there is non-suppression of plasma cortisol at 48hrs is a confirmatory investigation",
"id": "10009605",
"label": "a",
"name": "Cushing’s Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 55
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Grave’s disease is an example of hyperthyroidism, characterised by weight loss, sweating and palpitations, so this is incorrect",
"id": "10009607",
"label": "c",
"name": "Grave’s disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"demo": null,
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"id": "4398",
"name": "Cushing's syndrome",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "221",
"name": "Endocrine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 221,
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"question": "A patient presents with symptoms of muscle weakness, fat deposition around the centre of the abdomen and high blood pressure. A 48hr low dose dexamethasone test was carried out to investigate. The result of this was a non-suppression of the patient's plasma cortisol.\n\nWhich of the following conditions is consistent with the symptoms and investigations?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 63,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,392 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,470 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, FSH stimulates around 30-40 primordial follicles",
"id": "10009614",
"label": "e",
"name": "Follicle stimulating hormone stimulates the development of 5-10 primordial follicles at puberty",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the right ovary drains into the IVC itself and the left ovary is the left renal vein",
"id": "10009613",
"label": "d",
"name": "The venous drainage of the right ovary is the left renal vein and the left ovary is the inferior vena cava",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as it is actually luteinizing hormone that stimulates the Leydig cells to produce testosterone",
"id": "10009612",
"label": "c",
"name": "Testosterone stimulates Leydig cells to produce Luteinizing hormone, which will bind to the receptor on the Sertoli cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct answer",
"id": "10009610",
"label": "a",
"name": "The process of capacitation, that takes place within the female reproductive system is the process by which the glycoprotein coat and seminal plasma proteins from the acrosomal region of the sperm are removed",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as this is the role of the Testes. The ductal system will facilitate the carriage of spermatozoa to the exterior and the maturation of sperm",
"id": "10009611",
"label": "b",
"name": "In regard to the male genital system, the ductal system produces and temporarily stores sperm, and also synthesises and secretes testosterone and oxytocin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
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"entitlement": null,
"id": "5361",
"name": "Reproductive",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "264",
"name": "Reproductive Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 264,
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"question": "The reproductive system of both males and females has distinctive hormones with distinctive functions.\n\nWhich one of the following statements is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 60,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,393 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,471 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because *chlamydia trachomatis* is frequently asymptomatic in women. If symptoms are present, they may include dysuria, intermenstrual bleeding and vaginal discharge. Abdomina pain and systemic upset such as fever are less common. Cervical motion tenderness indicate peritoneal infection, which makes an uncomplicated sexually transmitted infection less likely than pelvic inflammatory disease.",
"id": "10009616",
"label": "b",
"name": "*Chlamydia Trachomatis *",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Primary *Treponema Pallidum*, or primary syphilis, presents as a painless ulcer at the site of inoculation (mouth or genitals) and regional lymphadenopathy.",
"id": "10009618",
"label": "d",
"name": "Primary *Treponema Pallidum *",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Secondary *Treponema Pallidum* usually presents with fever and rash (on palms and soles) headaches and diffuse lymphadenopathy",
"id": "10009619",
"label": "e",
"name": "Secondary *Treponema Pallidum *",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer based on a clinical diagnosis. This condition does need a bi-manual examination for rebound and cervical motion tenderness. Cervical motion tenderness indicate peritoneal infection.",
"id": "10009615",
"label": "a",
"name": "Pelvic Inflammatory Disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Gonococcal Urethritis presents as an abrupt onset of severe dysuria and yellowish-green purulent urethral discharge in males and the cervix presenting as red and possible bloody discharge in females",
"id": "10009617",
"label": "c",
"name": "Gonococcal Urethritis/Cervicitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"demo": null,
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"id": "5362",
"name": "Sexually Transmitted Infections",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "264",
"name": "Reproductive Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 264,
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"question": "A 28 year old female patient presents with pelvic, and abdominal pain with cervical motion tenderness and a fever.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 59,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,394 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,472 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this often can be managed by the GP in the community. All men that present with erectile dysfunction should have a diabetes screen, a lipid profile for CVD disease via Q risk 3 and a morning total testosterone measured, all of which can cause and exacerbate the condition",
"id": "10009623",
"label": "d",
"name": "All men that present with erectile dysfunction should be referred to an erectile dysfunction specialist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because taking PDE5Is on a full stomach slows drug absorption",
"id": "10009624",
"label": "e",
"name": "When taking phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors, it is important to take on a full stomach",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "this is incorrect, as the nerve impulses actually **stimulate** the release of nitric oxide from cavernous nerve terminals which will diffuse into cavernosal smooth muscle cells",
"id": "10009622",
"label": "c",
"name": "In the development of an erection, nerve impulses inhibit the release of nitric oxide from cavernous nerve terminals which diffuse into cavernosal smooth muscle cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as one of the treatments for erectile dysfunction is a phosphodiesterase type 5 **inhibitors**, which works by blocking the enzyme which breaks down cGMP to GMP, leading to a sharp rise in cGMP levels. This causes smooth muscle **relaxation** which improves erection",
"id": "10009621",
"label": "b",
"name": "Treatment with phosphodiesterase Type 5 stimulates smooth muscle contraction to promote erection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer. Hypercholesterolaemia is also a vasculogenic cause",
"id": "10009620",
"label": "a",
"name": "Some of the vasculogenic causes of erectile dysfunction are atherosclerosis, hypertension, and diabetes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5363",
"name": "Erectile Dysfunction",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "264",
"name": "Reproductive Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 264,
"totalCards": null,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Erectile dysfunction affects up to 50% of men aged between 40 and 70 years old.\n\nWhich of the following is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 58,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,395 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,473 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct because the production of oestrogens requires androgens as precursors, which are in fact steroids.",
"id": "10009625",
"label": "a",
"name": "The production of oestrogens requires the synthesis of steroids as precursors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as telarche and menarche are exclusive to females as this is the development of breast tissue and menstruation respectively.",
"id": "10009626",
"label": "b",
"name": "The first stage of puberty in males is stimulated by the beginning of telarche and menarche",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the growth of facial hair in males is described as being a later androgen-dependent event",
"id": "10009627",
"label": "c",
"name": "The growth of facial hair in males is described as being an early androgen-dependent event",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "TRH will affect the pituitary to release TSH for the thyroid not to stimulate puberty. The hypothalamic neurons that produce GnRH will ‘awake’ the HPG axis",
"id": "10009628",
"label": "d",
"name": "One of the triggers for puberty in both sexes is the maturation of hypothalamic neurons to produce TRH",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as later androgen-dependent events for example is the growth of facial hair in males, are driven by androgens produced by the Gonads",
"id": "10009629",
"label": "e",
"name": "Later androgen-dependent events are driven by androgens produced by the adrenal cortex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5364",
"name": "Puberty",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "264",
"name": "Reproductive Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 264,
"totalCards": null,
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"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"question": "There are distinct differences between puberty in males and females.\n\nIn regards to this, which of the following is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,396 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,474 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because mid-cycle pain is quite common amongst females during the Luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. This pain can be caused by the rupture of the dominant follicle- this will release the Oocyte",
"id": "10009632",
"label": "c",
"name": "It is uncommon for females to experience mid-cycle pain, if they do, they should seek advice from their GP",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009630",
"label": "a",
"name": "The remnants of the dominant follicle will go on to develop the Corpus Luteum. The Granulosa cell will begin to start to respond to luteinizing hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because although the remnants of the dominant follicle will develop the Corpus Luteum, the Granulosa cells will begin to respond to Luteinizing hormone and not FSH any more",
"id": "10009634",
"label": "e",
"name": "The remnants of the dominant follicle will go on to develop the Corpus Luteum and Granulosa cell will begin to start to respond to follicle-stimulating hormone rather than luteinizing hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect because progesterone drives the secretory phase of the uterine cycle",
"id": "10009633",
"label": "d",
"name": "Oestrogen drives the secretory phase of the uterine cycle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as it is actually the high levels of progesterone that maintains the endometrial lining and increases glandular secretion",
"id": "10009631",
"label": "b",
"name": "The low levels of Progesterone will help to maintain the endometrial lining and increase glandular secretion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5365",
"name": "Implantation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "264",
"name": "Reproductive Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 264,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "During the Luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, a number of physiological and hormonal changes take place.\n\nWhich of the following statements below is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,397 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,475 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, the progesterone-only pill comes in injectable forms, not the combined oral contraceptive pill",
"id": "10009638",
"label": "d",
"name": "The combined oral contraceptive pill can also come in injectable forms, taken 8-12 weeks",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because this is the method for the progesterone-only pill, the oral combined contraceptive pill is monocyclic in nature, it is 21 days on and 7 days off",
"id": "10009636",
"label": "b",
"name": "The oral combined contraceptive pill is needed to be taken continuously, with no breaks within the cycle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, the dual effect is with the progesterone-only pill not the combined oral contraceptive pill",
"id": "10009639",
"label": "e",
"name": "In the combined oral contraceptive pill, it will also thicken cervical mucus making it more difficult for sperm cells to enter the uterus and gain access to the oocyte",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because during the 7 days off for the oral combined oral contraceptive pill, the endometrium breaks which stimulates menstruation",
"id": "10009637",
"label": "c",
"name": "During the 7 days off for the oral combined contraceptive pill, the output of GnRH, FSH and LH is suppressed",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009635",
"label": "a",
"name": "The progesterone-only pill has a dual effect, in which it also will thicken cervical mucus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5366",
"name": "Cycles and Contraception",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "264",
"name": "Reproductive Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 264,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"dislikes": 1,
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"highlights": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following statements regarding menstrual cycles and contraception is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 55,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,398 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,476 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the vertebral artery supplies the upper part of the spinal cord, brainstem, cerebellum and posterior part of the brain",
"id": "10009644",
"label": "e",
"name": "Vertebral Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the Basilar artery supplies the brainstem, cerebellum and occipital lobes",
"id": "10009643",
"label": "d",
"name": "Basilar Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009640",
"label": "a",
"name": "Anterior Cerebral Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the Posterior Cerebral Artery supplies the occipital lobe, posteromedial temporal lobes, midbrain, thalamus, choroid plexus and part of the lateral and third ventricles",
"id": "10009641",
"label": "b",
"name": "Posterior Cerebral Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, the Middle Cerebral Artery supplies specific regions or brain parenchyma",
"id": "10009642",
"label": "c",
"name": "Middle Cerebral Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
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"id": "5367",
"name": "Brain Anatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
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},
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"question": "Which of the following arteries supplies the medial and superior parts of the frontal lobe, and the anterior parietal lobe?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,399 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,477 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the Anterior Communicating Artery supplies the medial and superior parts of the frontal lobe and the anterior parietal lobe",
"id": "10009647",
"label": "c",
"name": "Anterior Communicating Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the anterior cerebral artery supplies the medial and superior parts of the frontal lobe and the anterior parietal lobe",
"id": "10009649",
"label": "e",
"name": "Anterior Cerebral Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the Posterior Cerebral Artery supplies the occipital lobe, posteromedial temporal lobes, midbrain, thalamus, choroid plexus and part of the lateral and third ventricles",
"id": "10009648",
"label": "d",
"name": "Posterior Cerebral Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer because the most lateral part of the Somatosensory cortex is found within the post-central gyrus, supplied by the middle cerebral artery",
"id": "10009645",
"label": "a",
"name": "Middle Cerebral Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the Posterior Communicating Artery supplies the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic chiasm and mamillary bodies",
"id": "10009646",
"label": "b",
"name": "Posterior Communicating Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"name": "Brain Anatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
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"question": "Which artery supplies the most lateral part of the Somatosensory Cortex?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,400 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,478 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because it is actually characterised by abrupt changes in intracellular ion gradients not extracellular ion gradients",
"id": "10009651",
"label": "b",
"name": "The cortical spreading depression is characterised by abrupt changes in extracellular ion gradients and sustained depolarisation of neurons",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is correct as the perceived answer is the enhanced trigeminovascular neuron activity, and the correct proposed theory is intracerebral vasoconstriction causing the aura and vasodilation causing the headache",
"id": "10009654",
"label": "e",
"name": "Intracerebral vasoconstriction which causes headache and then vasodilation causing the aura",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, in terms of genetics of the Migraine, 50% of cases are caused by point mutations in the CACNA1A gene that encodes the pore-forming a1a subunit of the P/Q Voltage-Gated Calcium Channel",
"id": "10009653",
"label": "d",
"name": "Point mutations in the AHCNA1A gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer, because the cortical spreading depression theory, states that higher extracellular K+ ion concentrations lead to inhibition of neural activity in the cortex",
"id": "10009652",
"label": "c",
"name": "Within Cortical spreading depression, a lower extracellular K+ ion concentration leads to inhibition of neural activity in the cortex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009650",
"label": "a",
"name": "Enhanced trigeminovasular neuron activity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4491",
"name": "Migraine",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
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"question": "There are several proposed aetiological concepts of the development of a migraine, which of the following is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 50,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,401 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,479 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, alpha waves are picked up on an EEG when a patient is drowsy",
"id": "10009656",
"label": "b",
"name": "If a patient is undergoing an Electro-encephalogram (EEG), alpha waves are picked up when they are awake",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus is stimulated by light to keep someone awake, it is especially sensitive to blue light.",
"id": "10009657",
"label": "c",
"name": "Located just above the junction of the optic nerves is the Suprachiasmatic Nucleus and it has a major role in the generation of a circadian rhythm facilitating sleep",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009655",
"label": "a",
"name": "The Ventrolateral preoptic nucleus is named as one of the sleep centres, and when its neurons are stimulated, it will induce sleep",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an incorrect answer. Although all these processes do happen whilst sleep takes place, sleep is not a passive process",
"id": "10009659",
"label": "e",
"name": "Sleep is a passive process to allow tissue healing, hormone regulation, memory preparation, processing and consolidation to take place",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, in REM sleep there is a fluctuating heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate and skeletal muscles are relaxed",
"id": "10009658",
"label": "d",
"name": "In REM sleep, there is a steady heartrate, blood pressure, respiratory rate and muscles are relaxed",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
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"question": "In regards to sleep and the physiology of sleep, which of the following statements is correct?",
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"a"
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"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
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173,464,402 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,480 | {
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer.",
"id": "10009663",
"label": "d",
"name": "at least 6 weeks",
"picture": null,
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer.",
"id": "10009664",
"label": "e",
"name": "at least 4 weeks",
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"votes": 13
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer",
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"label": "b",
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"votes": 1
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"label": "a",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer.",
"id": "10009662",
"label": "c",
"name": "at least 1 week",
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"votes": 0
}
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"question": "A patient presents with a history of a low mood, a loss of interest in their daily activities, an increase in agitation and guilt surrounding a recent breakup of their marriage.\n\nHow long must this patient have had these symptoms to meet the diagnosis criteria for depression?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,464,403 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,481 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the anterior cingulate cortex is a form of attention, which will regulate cognitive and emotional processing",
"id": "10009667",
"label": "c",
"name": "The anterior cingulate cortex is involved in concentration serving to regulate both cognitive and emotional processing",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, appraisal is a theory to describe that we must perceive a stimulus before experiencing emotion related to that stimulus",
"id": "10009668",
"label": "d",
"name": "In the process of emotion, appraisal is a physiological theory suggesting that emotions occur as a result of physiological reactions to events",
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"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Elkcam had suggested 6 biologically programmed primary emotions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because Plutchik suggested 8 basic emotions grouped into 4 pairs of opposites",
"id": "10009666",
"label": "b",
"name": "Plutchik suggested that there is 10 basic emotions grouped into 5 pairs of opposites\n\nB The anterior cingulate cortex is involved in concentration serving to regulate both cognitive and emotional processing",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, this is the definition of mood. The definition of emotion is a positive or negative reaction to an appropriately evocative stimulus",
"id": "10009669",
"label": "e",
"name": "Emotion can be defined as a frame of mind that is defined by one’s internal state rather than external behaviour",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
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"question": "In relation to emotion and emotional responses and mood, which of the following is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 49,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,404 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,482 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This incorrect, the Striatum is affect first, not the cortex of the brain",
"id": "10009671",
"label": "b",
"name": "The brain cortex is first affected",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The HD gene codes for the Huntingtin protein (HTT) HD gene and if found on **Chromosome 4**",
"id": "10009674",
"label": "e",
"name": "The HD gene is found on Chromosome 7",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Huntington’s disease is a trinucleotide repeat disorder, however, it is repeats of CAG",
"id": "10009672",
"label": "c",
"name": "Huntington's disease is a trinucleotide repeat disorder with repeating CGG",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The diagnosis relies upon a positive gene test, but the patient must *also* have a movement disorder",
"id": "10009673",
"label": "d",
"name": "HD is diagnosed with a genetic test only",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009670",
"label": "a",
"name": "HD can cause symptoms such as chorea, dystonia, dysarthria and dysphagia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
}
],
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"question": "Huntington’s disease (HD) is an inherited neurological disorder.\n\nWhich of the following statements is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,405 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,483 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Microglia are the resident immune cells and produce enzymes, and cytokines and, have the capability of phagocytosis",
"id": "10009679",
"label": "e",
"name": "Microglia has a characteristic star shape and have a role in repair and scarring",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because Microglia are the resident immune cells whilst astrocytes help to maintain homeostasis and the blood-brain barrier",
"id": "10009676",
"label": "b",
"name": "Astrocytes are the resident immune cells and are mobile when activated",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Astrocytes have end feet which will help maintain the blood-brain barrier not Oligodendrocytes",
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"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because oligodendrocytes make up the white matter",
"id": "10009678",
"label": "d",
"name": "The cells that make up the white matter are microglia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009675",
"label": "a",
"name": "Astrocytes maintain homeostasis through sequestering K+ ions and glutamate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
}
],
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"name": "Glial Cells",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "There are various different types of Glial cells.\n\nWhich of the following statements regarding them is correct?",
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"a"
],
"totalVotes": 54,
"typeId": 1,
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173,464,406 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,484 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009680",
"label": "a",
"name": "Middle cerebral artery infarction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because these strokes present as dizziness, nystagmus, truncal and/or limb ataxia",
"id": "10009683",
"label": "d",
"name": "Vertobrobasilar Stroke",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as a patient suffering from a posterior cerebral artery stroke will present with bilateral sensory/motor defects and deconjugate eye movement",
"id": "10009684",
"label": "e",
"name": "Posterior cerebral artery infarction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This incorrect as lacunar infarction will present as memory problems and difficulty speaking or understanding spoken language",
"id": "10009682",
"label": "c",
"name": "Lacunar infarction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because patients with a haemorrhagic stroke present with a thunderclap headache, seizures, nausea and unilateral weakness",
"id": "10009681",
"label": "b",
"name": "Haemorrhagic stroke",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
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"question": "A patient presenting with a loss of contralateral hemiplegia and hemisensory loss is most characteristic of what type of stroke?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,407 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,485 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is the description for frontotemporal dementia and not lewy body dementia",
"id": "10009687",
"label": "c",
"name": "Lewy body dementia will affect frontal and temporal lobes and cause primary progressive aphasia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009685",
"label": "a",
"name": "In Alzheimer’s disease, glutamate is released in excessive amounts when cells are damaged, causing further damage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is the cause of Alzheimer’s disease.",
"id": "10009686",
"label": "b",
"name": "Frontotemporal dementia is caused by a build-up of proteins in the brain, more specifically amyloid beta and tau protein",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Patients with these symptoms are characteristic of vascular dementia, not Alzheimer’s disease.",
"id": "10009688",
"label": "d",
"name": "Patients with Alzheimer’s disease will present with problems with thinking speed, concentration and communication and anxiety and depression",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Cholinesterase inhibitors are licensed for use in mild-moderate Alzheimer’s disease to help increase acetylcholine levels allowing stabilisation of cognition, function and behaviour",
"id": "10009689",
"label": "e",
"name": "With mild-moderate Lewy Body dementia, there is an option for the use of cholinesterase inhibitors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
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"name": "Dementia",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "In regards to Dementia, which of the following is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,408 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,486 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, this is the role of the occipital lobe",
"id": "10009691",
"label": "b",
"name": "Distance and depth perception",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009690",
"label": "a",
"name": "Processing auditory information",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, this is the role of the occipital lobe",
"id": "10009693",
"label": "d",
"name": "Visuospatial processing, memory formation and face recognition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as this is the role of the frontal lobes",
"id": "10009692",
"label": "c",
"name": "Voluntary movement and expressive language",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The parietal lobe is responsible for the processing of the sense of touch",
"id": "10009694",
"label": "e",
"name": "The processing of the sense of touch",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
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"name": "Brain Function",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following is the function of the temporal lobe?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,409 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,487 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because items are shifted from short-term memory to long-term memory via rehearsal and attention is for shifting items from the sensory memory to short-term memory",
"id": "10009699",
"label": "e",
"name": "Items are shifted from short-term memory to long-term memory via attention",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as sensory memory has a larger capacity than short-term memory, items visually acknowledged fade too fast for a verbal report to have been made to encode them into the short-term memory",
"id": "10009698",
"label": "d",
"name": "Short-term memory has a larger capacity than sensory memory",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009695",
"label": "a",
"name": "Information can be lost from long-term memory through the interference of new material on previous old material",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the unrehearsed information is lost in 10-15seconds",
"id": "10009696",
"label": "b",
"name": "Unrehearsed information in the short-term memory is lost within 30seconds to one minute",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This incorrect, this is the correct duration of the sensory memory",
"id": "10009697",
"label": "c",
"name": "short-term memory has a duration of milliseconds - seconds",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
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"question": "Atkinson and Shiffrin, 1968 Modal model of the theories of memory suggest which of the following?",
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"a"
],
"totalVotes": 50,
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173,464,410 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,488 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because long-term memory may be impacted in severe/chronic states of depression and anxiety",
"id": "10009701",
"label": "b",
"name": "Long-term memory impairments, especially in episodic and semantic memories",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect due to the fact their short-term memory and working memory are commonly associated with deficits and long-term memory is affected in severe/chronic states of depression.",
"id": "10009704",
"label": "e",
"name": "A patient with depression is unlikely to experience any memory deficits",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is the case for dementia, not depression",
"id": "10009703",
"label": "d",
"name": "During the early development of the illness, the short-term and working memory is usually affected",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is characteristic of the development of dementia, not depression",
"id": "10009702",
"label": "c",
"name": "Long-term loss is experienced through gradual fading of episodic, semantic and procedural memories",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009700",
"label": "a",
"name": "Long-term memory can be affected in severe/chronic states of depression",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
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"question": "A patient with depression is likely to experience what deficits in regard to their memory?",
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"a"
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"totalVotes": 47,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,411 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,489 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, the cerebellum only makes up 10% of total brain volume",
"id": "10009706",
"label": "b",
"name": "The cerebellum makes up 35% of total brain volume",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the posterior lobe is separated via the superior border primary fissure and the anterior lobe is divided by inferior border primary fissure",
"id": "10009708",
"label": "d",
"name": "The Posterior lobe of the cerebellum can be divided via the inferior border primary fissure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because it is the cerebellar peduncles which connect the cerebellum to the brainstem",
"id": "10009707",
"label": "c",
"name": "The pons connect the cerebellum to the brainstem",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer, it also assists in dynamic coordination and synchronisation of muscles",
"id": "10009705",
"label": "a",
"name": "The cerebellum assists in posture and equilibrium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as ataxia is the inability to coordinate movement, including postural and gait disturbances",
"id": "10009709",
"label": "e",
"name": "Injury to the cerebellum can result in ataxia which will cause an increase in the number of involuntary movements",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
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"name": "Cerebellum",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following statements regarding the Cerebellum is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,412 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,490 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the tympanic membrane is externally lined by a thin skin and internally lined by mucous membrane",
"id": "10009713",
"label": "d",
"name": "The tympanic membrane is externally lined by mucous membrane and internally lined by thin skin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer as the tip links pull and push causing an opening, allowing K+ ions in to depolarise the neuron.",
"id": "10009711",
"label": "b",
"name": "Attached to the top of stereocilia are tip links, which when they move pull and push cause an opening, allowing K+ ions to rapidly leave the synapse and allowing Ca2+ ions in",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the role of the semi-circular canals is as a balance system and helps in orientation in space",
"id": "10009714",
"label": "e",
"name": "The role of the semi-circular canals is to help collect sound and determine the direction of a sound",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, the Anvil and Stirrup will actually convert the vibrations of the air into vibrations in the bone to facilitate the understanding of sound",
"id": "10009712",
"label": "c",
"name": "At the end of the ear canal, the Anvil and Stirrup play a role in converting vibrations (sound waves) of the air into electrical vibrations within the ear to allow the understanding of sound",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009710",
"label": "a",
"name": "Attached to the top of stereocilia are tip links, which when they move pull and pushes causing an opening, allowing K+ ions to depolarise neurons and allowing Ca2+ ions in allowing neurotransmitters through the synapse",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
}
],
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"name": "Hearing",
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"id": "141",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which one of the following statements regarding the mechanism of hearing is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 51,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,413 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,491 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the role of the levator palpebrae superioris to elevate the superior eyelid",
"id": "10009716",
"label": "b",
"name": "Levator palpebrae superioris",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer because the medial rectus will adduct the eye only",
"id": "10009719",
"label": "e",
"name": "Medial Rectus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the superior rectus is to elevate, adduct and intort the eye",
"id": "10009718",
"label": "d",
"name": "Superior Rectus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the role of the superior oblique is to abduct, depress and intort the eye",
"id": "10009717",
"label": "c",
"name": "Superior Oblique",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer as the role of the inferior oblique is to abduct, elevate and extorsion of the eye",
"id": "10009715",
"label": "a",
"name": "Inferior Oblique",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
}
],
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"question": "A patient presents to their GP with the inability to abduct, elevated and extort their eye.\n\nWhat muscle of the eye is the likely cause of these symptoms?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,414 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,492 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009720",
"label": "a",
"name": "The blood-brain barrier is surrounded by glial cells to help support its function",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the blood-brain barrier is an extreme form of the lipid barrier, not a water-soluble barrier",
"id": "10009723",
"label": "d",
"name": "The blood-brain barrier is an extreme form of water-soluble barrier",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the blood-brain barrier has got numerous tight junctions",
"id": "10009722",
"label": "c",
"name": "The blood-brain barrier has not got any tight junctions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, because Clarityn will not cross the blood-brain barrier so it is unable to have a sedating effect",
"id": "10009724",
"label": "e",
"name": "Drugs such Clarityn are able to cross the blood-brain barrier, meaning it has a sedating effect",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The blood-brain barrier is less effective in meningitis, allowing a greater variety of antibiotics to be given that don’t normally pass through the blood-brain barrier",
"id": "10009721",
"label": "b",
"name": "In meningitis, the blood-brain barrier is more effective making it more difficult to treat",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
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"question": "Which of the following statements regarding the Blood-Brain Barrier is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,415 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,493 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, this pathway is altered in Parkinson’s disease, not in Schizophrenia",
"id": "10009727",
"label": "c",
"name": "The Nigrostriatal pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer as the mesocortical pathway is affected by decreased dopamine responsible for the depressive symptoms of schizophrenia",
"id": "10009725",
"label": "a",
"name": "Mesocortical pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer as dopamine projections to the limbic regions can cause psychotic symptoms, which is associated with Schizophrenia",
"id": "10009728",
"label": "d",
"name": "Mesolimbic pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the Mesocortical pathway is consistent with the depressive symptoms of Schizophrenia",
"id": "10009726",
"label": "b",
"name": "No dopamine pathways are involved in the development of depressive symptoms of Schizophrenia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This pathway is associated with the release of prolactin by the pituitary gland",
"id": "10009729",
"label": "e",
"name": "Tuberoinfundibular pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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"id": "5380",
"name": "Schizophrenia",
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"question": "In Schizophrenia, which of the following dopamine pathways is consistent with the development of depressive symptoms?",
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"a"
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"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,416 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,494 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is a belief that someone else is controlling their actions, which is a negative symptom of psychosis",
"id": "10009733",
"label": "d",
"name": "Anhedonia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because this is a negative symptom of psychosis",
"id": "10009732",
"label": "c",
"name": "Flattened mood",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because this is a negative symptom of psychosis",
"id": "10009734",
"label": "e",
"name": "Social withdrawal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because this is a negative symptom of psychosis",
"id": "10009731",
"label": "b",
"name": "Spontaneous behaviour",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer because there is a false perception in the absence of a stimulus",
"id": "10009730",
"label": "a",
"name": "Hallucinations",
"picture": null,
"votes": 45
}
],
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"name": "Psychosis",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following are examples of positive symptoms of psychosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,464,417 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,495 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer, for genetic counselling in pregnancy",
"id": "10009735",
"label": "a",
"name": "Allow the patient to have all the information to guide their decision in pregnancy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 43
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as genetic testing is always offered in pregnancy if there is a justified reason",
"id": "10009736",
"label": "b",
"name": "There is no opportunity to carry out genetic testing in pregnancy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because it would only be able to test the current pregnancy, and the best opportunity would be to carry a genetic test on the mother and father and calculate the risk of future siblings having the condition",
"id": "10009739",
"label": "e",
"name": "To discover if subsequent siblings will develop the condition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because it would be to discover if the foetus is at risk of developing the condition",
"id": "10009738",
"label": "d",
"name": "To discover if the paternal parent will develop the condition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because it would be to discover if the foetus is at risk of developing the condition",
"id": "10009737",
"label": "c",
"name": "To discover if the maternal parent will develop the condition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
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"name": "Genetic Counselling",
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"question": "Genetic counselling should be offered in various different genetically linked conditions but which of the following statements is most correct in regard to genetic testing in pregnancy?",
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"a"
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"totalVotes": 54,
"typeId": 1,
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173,464,418 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,496 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because a complex focal seizure is one in which consciousness is affected",
"id": "10009741",
"label": "b",
"name": "A complex focal seizure is one in which consciousness is unaffected",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because seizures are described as the hyper-synchronised firing of networks",
"id": "10009744",
"label": "e",
"name": "The neural activity of seizures can be described as the hypo-synchronised firing of networks",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because a primary generalised seizure is one in which arises instantaneously in both hemispheres",
"id": "10009743",
"label": "d",
"name": "A primary generalised arises in one part of one hemisphere",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009740",
"label": "a",
"name": "A secondary generalised seizure starts with a focal seizure and spreads to both hemispheres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as a focal seizure is an electrical activity limited to one hemisphere or one area of the brain",
"id": "10009742",
"label": "c",
"name": "A focal seizure is where both hemispheres of the brain are involved",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
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"name": "Epilepsy",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "Epilepsy is a disorder of the brain which is characterised by seizures.\n\nWhich of the following statements regarding seizures is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,464,419 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,497 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because this is characteristic of injury to the facial nerve or a lower motor neuron lesion",
"id": "10009747",
"label": "c",
"name": "Facial weakness, or paralysis of the upper facial muscles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer as this would indicate damage to the Trigeminal nerve",
"id": "10009745",
"label": "a",
"name": "Weakness of the jaw on clenching and side-to-side movement",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because this would be common in a vagus nerve injury",
"id": "10009749",
"label": "e",
"name": "Palatal weakness",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is characteristic of an injury to the vestibulocochlear nerve",
"id": "10009746",
"label": "b",
"name": "Unilateral sensorineural deafness",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is consistent with damage to the abducent nerve",
"id": "10009748",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inability to look laterally and the eye deviates medially",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
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173,464,420 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,498 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the incorrect answer because this is what is most commonly seen in Optic Ataxia, whereas Visual Agnosia is deficits in recognising objects, even when processes for analysing basic properties such as shape and colour remain intact",
"id": "10009751",
"label": "b",
"name": "Visual agnosia can be seen in patients with deficits in completing visually guided reaching tasks in the absence of other sensory cues",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer because the dorsal stream projects to the parietal lobe which codes information for ‘Where’ or ‘How’",
"id": "10009750",
"label": "a",
"name": "The dorsal stream pathway is damaged in Optic Ataxia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because associative agnosia is commonly described as perception without recognition, and patients are",
"id": "10009754",
"label": "e",
"name": "In patients with Associative Agnosia, they will be unable to copy figures and not able to recognise objects",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because patients with visual agnosia will not have a sensory, naming or memory deficit",
"id": "10009753",
"label": "d",
"name": "Patients with visual agnosia have sensory and memory deficit",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because the ventral stream pathway is more commonly seen in visual agnosia",
"id": "10009752",
"label": "c",
"name": "The Ventral stream pathway is damaged in Optic Ataxia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
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"a"
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"typeId": 1,
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173,464,421 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,499 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the middle cerebral artery supplies the basal ganglia area of the brain",
"id": "10009757",
"label": "c",
"name": "The anterior cerebral artery supplies the basal ganglia area of the brain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009755",
"label": "a",
"name": "The Substantia Nigra contains two sub-nuclei: the Pars Retriculata and Pars Compacta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as the Substantia Nigra is made up of two sub-nuclei not one",
"id": "10009758",
"label": "d",
"name": "The Substantia Nigra has one sub-nucles, the Pars Reticulata",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as it is the Caudate and the Putamen that forms the Striatum",
"id": "10009756",
"label": "b",
"name": "The Caudate and the Globus Pallidus form the Striatum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as planned movements are filtered through the basal ganglia",
"id": "10009759",
"label": "e",
"name": "Involuntary movements are filtered through the basal ganglia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
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"name": "Basal Ganglia",
"status": null,
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"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "The Basal Ganglia is a key component for motor control.\n\nWhich of the following statements is correct?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"totalVotes": 55,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,464,422 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,151 | null | false | [] | null | 14,500 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because of decreased prostaglandin generation means less sensitisation of nociceptive nerve endings",
"id": "10009764",
"label": "e",
"name": "The analgesic effect of NSAIDs causes a decrease in prostaglandin generation and means a higher degree of sensitisation of nociceptive nerve endings",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as NSAIDs will decrease vasodilation and decrease oedema",
"id": "10009761",
"label": "b",
"name": "The anti-inflammatory action of NSAIDs decreases prostaglandins and increases vasodilation and oedema",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as NSAIDs are non-selective and inhibit prostaglandin biosynthesis by direct action on both COX-1 and COX-2",
"id": "10009762",
"label": "c",
"name": "NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin biosynthesis by direct action exclusively on COX-2 enzymes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as COX-1 enzymes are involved in tissue homeostasis, whereas the description above describes COX-2 enzymes",
"id": "10009763",
"label": "d",
"name": "COX-1 enzymes are induced in activated inflammatory cells and responsible for the production of prostaglandin mediators of inflammation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer",
"id": "10009760",
"label": "a",
"name": "In the antipyretic effect of NSAIDs inhibition of COX-2 prevents inflammatory mediators such as Interleukin-1 from increasing prostaglandins in the central nervous system which in turns prevents the elevation of the hypothalamic point for temperature control.",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
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"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The external iliac artery is a terminal branch of the common iliac artery. It is the main blood supply to the lower limb as it continues down into the thigh as the femoral artery at the level of the inguinal ligament.",
"id": "10014200",
"label": "c",
"name": "External Iliac artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The internal iliac artery is the major artery of the pelvis. It originates at the bifurcation of the common iliac artery at the vertebral level L5-S1, into its internal and external branches.\nMany branches then arise from the internal iliac. These can be thought of as arising from the anterior trunk or the posterior trunk of the internal iliac.",
"id": "10014198",
"label": "a",
"name": "Internal Iliac Artery",
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"votes": 102
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The internal pudendal artery arises from the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery. It exits the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen and enters the perineum via the lesser sciatic foramen. It is the main blood supply to the perineum.",
"id": "10014202",
"label": "e",
"name": "Internal pudendal artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The Lateral Sacral arteries (superior and inferior) again arise from the posterior trunk of the internal iliac artery. They supply skin and muscle posterior to the sacrum.",
"id": "10014201",
"label": "d",
"name": "Lateral sacral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The superior gluteal artery is a terminal branch of the posterior branch and exits the pelvic cavity via the Greater Sciatic Foramen. It enters the gluteal region superiorly to the Piriformis muscle.",
"id": "10014199",
"label": "b",
"name": "Superior Gluteal artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
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"explanation": "## Summary\n\nArterial supply to the pelvis is primarily supplied by the internal iliac artery. This is a paired artery formed at the bifurcation of the common iliac artery.\n\nThe internal iliac artery has a posterior and anterior trunk.\n\n[lightgallery]\n\n## Posterior trunk\n\nThe ***posterior trunk*** contains :\n\n1. **Iliolumbar artery** - supplying the posterior and superior parts of the pelvis\n2. **Lateral sacral arteries** - gives branches that pass into the anterior sacral foramina\n3. **Superior gluteal artery** - the largest branch, leaves the pelvic cavity through the greater sciatic foramen above the piriformis muscle, supplying gluteus medius and minimus as well as tensor fasciae latae.\n\n## Anterior trunk\n\nThe ***anterior trunk*** contains:\n\n1. **Umbilical artery** - this reaches the abdominal wall and umbilicus. After birth, the vessel closes and becomes a solid fibrous cord. The fibrous remnant is the medial umbilical ligament.\n2. **Superior vesical artery** - normally from the root of the umbilical artery, and supplies the superior aspect of the bladder and distal parts of the ureter\n3. **Inferior vesical artery** - in men this supplies the bladder, ureter, seminal vesicle and prostate. In women, this is the vaginal artery, and supplies branches of the vagina and adjacent parts of the bladder and rectum\n4. **Middle rectal artery** - this :\n\t* anastomoses with the superior rectal from the inferior mesenteric artery\n\t* anastomoses with the inferior rectal artery from the internal pudendal artery\n5. **Obturator artery** - this supplies the adductor region of the thigh\n6. **Internal pudendal artery** - this follows the course of the pudendal nerve to exit out of the greater sciatic foramen and back into the lesser sciatic foramen along the pudendal canal. It supplies the erectile tissues of the clitoris and penis.\n7. **Inferior gluteal artery** - this is the terminal branch of the anterior trunk of the internal iliac artery\n8. **Uterine artery** - this is the major blood supply to the uterus, ovary and vagina, and anastomoses with the ovarian artery (from the abdominal aorta). It courses medially and anteriorly in the base of the broad ligament to reach the cervix. It crosses the ureter and passes superiorly to the lateral vaginal fornix.\n\n\n## Clinical points\nBleeding from branches of the internal iliac artery can be difficult to control surgically because of their deep location within the pelvis. They are therefore most commonly treated by endovascular occlusion (i.e. treatment through the arteries).",
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"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The body is the large area situated between the apex and the fundus.",
"id": "10014206",
"label": "d",
"name": "The body",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The fundus or base is the posteroinferior part of the bladder. It is usually triangular in shape and is directed downward and backwards towards the rectum.",
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"name": "The fundus",
"picture": null,
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"explanation": "This is the external opening of the urethra where urine exits in both females and males and semen in males.",
"id": "10014207",
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"votes": 10
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"explanation": "The internal urethral meatus or opening is found surrounded by the internal urethral sphincter found in the neck of the bladder leading into the urethra. It is usually crescent-shaped. The neck of the bladder is the constricted part of the bladder that leads to the urethra.",
"id": "10014203",
"label": "a",
"name": "The internal urethral meatus",
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"explanation": "## Summary\n\nThe urinary bladder is the most anterior element of the pelvic viscera and a part of the urinary system. It occupies the pelvic cavity when empty but expands into the abdominal cavity as it fills. It is an extraperitoneal organ.\n\n## Anatomy\n\nThe bladder resembles the shape of a 3D pyramid when empty. It consists of a base, apex, a superior surface and 2 inferolateral surfaces.\n\n* **Base (or fundus)** - shaped like an inverted triangle and faces posterolaterally. At the upper corners of the base, the 2 ureters enter the bladder and at the lower corner of the base the urethra exits the bladder.\n* **Apex** - located superiorly and directed towards the pubic symphysis. The median umbilical ligament (an embryological remnant of the urachus) continues from the apex up the anterior abdominal wall to the umbilicus.\n* **Superior surface** - domed when the bladder is empty and balloons upwards as it fills\n* **Inferolateral surfaces** - located between the levator ani muscles and the adjacent obturator internus muscles\n\nIn the inside of the bladder, the smooth triangular area between the openings of the ureter and the urethra is known as the trigone. The smooth walls of the trigone are distinct from the rest of the bladder which is explained by its embryological origin from the mesonephric ducts.\n\nThe ureters course down the posterior abdominal wall and the posterolateral aspect of the pelvis. They run _inferior to the vas deferens_ in males and _inferior to the broad ligament_ in females to reach the base of the bladder. \n\nThis relation can be remembered as *\"water (ureters) under the bridge\"*. The ureters enter the bladder at an angle through the mucosa and the muscle. A flap valve is created to prevent the backflow of urine (vesicoureteric reflux).\n\nThe neck of the bladder is anchored by ligaments to the pelvis floor and the body of the pubis:\n\n* In females this is the pubovesical ligament\n* In males this is the puboprostatic ligament as it blends with the fibrous capsule of the prostate\n\nThe walls of the bladder are made of smooth muscle and detrusor muscle. The mucosa of the bladder is lined by transitional epithelium which is able to withstand the toxic urine that the bladder holds and the stretching of the bladder as it fills.\n\n**Urethral sphiincters:**\n- Internal urethral sphincter: Located at the base of the bladder and blends with the detrusor muscle. It is under involuntary autonomic control. It is the dominant sphincter for maintaining continence.\n- External urethral sphincter: Located in the perineal pouch. In women this is just inferior to the bladder, in male this is just inferior to the prostate (in the membranous urethra).\n\n[lightgallery]\n\n[lightgallery1]\n\n## Blood Supply\n\n**Arterial:**\n* Superior, middle and inferior vesical arteries - derived from the anterior trunk of the hypogastric\n* Obturator artery\n* Inferior gluteal artery\n* In females additional branches are derived from the uterine and vaginal arteries.\n\n**Venous**\nVenous drainage occurs via a vesical venous plexus that drains into the internal iliac veins.\n\n## Innervation\nThe detrusor muscle has both parasympathetic and sympathetic innervation for micturition and closure of the bladder neck (during ejaculation) respectively. The parasympathetic supply is via the pelvic splanchnic nerves, S2-S4. The preganglionic sympathetic fibres arise from the L1-L2 spinal cord and the postganglionic fibres are from the ganglia within the hypogastric plexus.\n\nSomatic innervation is via the pudenal nerve which innervates the external urethral sphincter. This enables the voluntary control of micturition.\n\n## Function\n* Storage of urine\n* Expulsion of urine through the contraction of the muscles of the bladder\n\n\n## Clinical points\n- Prostate surgery can injury the internal urethral sphincter causing incontinence.\n- The bladder is an extraperitoneal organ but there is peritoneal reflection of it's dome. If there is a rupture of the bladder at the dome, the fluid is leak into the peritoneum. However, if any other part ruptures then the leak will be exxtraperitoneal.\n",
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