guan-wang/ReDis-QA · Datasets at Hugging Face

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Phenylketonuria is -	AD	AR	X linked dominant	X linked recessive	1	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Phenylketonuria is - Choices: A. AD B. AR C. X linked dominant D. X linked recessive Answer:
Which of the following is a feature of Phenylketonuria?	Loss of deep tendon reflexes	Mental retardation	Macrocephaly	All	1	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Which of the following is a feature of Phenylketonuria? Choices: A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes B. Mental retardation C. Macrocephaly D. All Answer:
Phenylketonuria is caused by deficiency of	Tyrosine transminase	Tyrosine hydroxylase	Phenylalanine transaminase	Phenylalanine hydroxylase	3	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Phenylketonuria is caused by deficiency of Choices: A. Tyrosine transminase B. Tyrosine hydroxylase C. Phenylalanine transaminase D. Phenylalanine hydroxylase Answer:
Phenylketonuria I is due to deficiency of -	Phenylalanine hydroxylase	Homogentisate oxidase	Tyrosinase	None	0	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Phenylketonuria I is due to deficiency of - Choices: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Tyrosinase D. None Answer:
Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of -	Phenylalanine transaminase	Phenylalanine hydroxylase	Tyrosine transaminase	Tyrosine hydroxylase	1	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of - Choices: A. Phenylalanine transaminase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Tyrosine transaminase D. Tyrosine hydroxylase Answer:
True statement regarding a 3-week old child with Phenylketonuria is all, except –	Provocative protein meal tests helps in the diagnosis	Tyrosine becomes an Essential amino–acid in diet	Serum Phenylalanine is increased and urinary Phenyl Pyruvate level is elevated	Phenylalanine should be completely stopped in diet	3	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: True statement regarding a 3-week old child with Phenylketonuria is all, except – Choices: A. Provocative protein meal tests helps in the diagnosis B. Tyrosine becomes an Essential amino–acid in diet C. Serum Phenylalanine is increased and urinary Phenyl Pyruvate level is elevated D. Phenylalanine should be completely stopped in diet Answer:
Phenylketonuria is detected by which urine test:	Guthrie test	Sodium nitroprusside test	Blot test	FeCl3	0	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Phenylketonuria is detected by which urine test: Choices: A. Guthrie test B. Sodium nitroprusside test C. Blot test D. FeCl3 Answer:
Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is seen in Phenylketonuria	Tyrosinemia	Isovaleric Acidaemia	Multiple carboxylase deficiency	Phenylketonuria	0	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is seen in Phenylketonuria Choices: A. Tyrosinemia B. Isovaleric Acidaemia C. Multiple carboxylase deficiency D. Phenylketonuria Answer:
Phenylketonuria is ?	AD	AR	X linked dominant	X linked recessive	1	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Phenylketonuria is ? Choices: A. AD B. AR C. X linked dominant D. X linked recessive Answer:
Which one of the following is not a feature of Phenylketonuria?	Severe mental retardation	Reduced tendon reflexes	Enamel hypoplasia	Vomiting in early infancy	1	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Which one of the following is not a feature of Phenylketonuria? Choices: A. Severe mental retardation B. Reduced tendon reflexes C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Vomiting in early infancy Answer:
Enzyme defect in Classic Phenylketonuria	Phenylalanine hydroxylase	Dihydrobiopterin reductase	Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase	Homogentisate oxidase	0	[ "Phenylketonuria" ]	Question: Enzyme defect in Classic Phenylketonuria Choices: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Dihydrobiopterin reductase C. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase D. Homogentisate oxidase Answer:
Which of the following disorder of mother leads to microcephaly in baby –a) SLEb) Hepatitis A c) Phenylketonuriad) Rubella	ab	cd	bd	ac	1	[ "Phenylketonuria", "Rubella" ]	Question: Which of the following disorder of mother leads to microcephaly in baby –a) SLEb) Hepatitis A c) Phenylketonuriad) Rubella Choices: A. ab B. cd C. bd D. ac Answer:
Pierre Robin Sequence includes	Glossoptosis	Airway obstructions	Cleft lip	Micrognathia	0	[ "Pierre Robin Sequence" ]	Question: Pierre Robin Sequence includes Choices: A. Glossoptosis B. Airway obstructions C. Cleft lip D. Micrognathia Answer:
Regarding syphilis, all are true, except -a) VDRL titre decreases or even absent after treatmentb) VDRL becomes positive after 10-14 days of infectionc) Earliest serological test to become positive in untreated primary syphilis is TPHAd) Yaws and Pinta cannot be differentiated	bc	c	ac	ad	0	[ "Pinta", "Yaws" ]	Question: Regarding syphilis, all are true, except -a) VDRL titre decreases or even absent after treatmentb) VDRL becomes positive after 10-14 days of infectionc) Earliest serological test to become positive in untreated primary syphilis is TPHAd) Yaws and Pinta cannot be differentiated Choices: A. bc B. c C. ac D. ad Answer:
Pinta is caused by:	Treponema peenue	Treponema carateum	Treponema pallidum	Treponema endemicum	1	[ "Pinta" ]	Question: Pinta is caused by: Choices: A. Treponema peenue B. Treponema carateum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema endemicum Answer:
Pinta is caused by	Treponema peenue	Treponema cerateum	Treponema pallidum	Treponema endemicum	1	[ "Pinta" ]	Question: Pinta is caused by Choices: A. Treponema peenue B. Treponema cerateum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema endemicum Answer:
Pinta disease is caused by	Treponema pallidum	Treponema carateum	Leptospira interrogans	None of the above	1	[ "Pinta" ]	Question: Pinta disease is caused by Choices: A. Treponema pallidum B. Treponema carateum C. Leptospira interrogans D. None of the above Answer:
Which is a noveneral form of trephonemal infection – a) Yawsb) Pintac) Syphillisd) GV	ab	a	ad	bc	0	[ "Pinta", "Yaws" ]	Question: Which is a noveneral form of trephonemal infection – a) Yawsb) Pintac) Syphillisd) GV Choices: A. ab B. a C. ad D. bc Answer:
Pityriasis Rosea, true is:	Self-limiting	Chronic relapsing	Life threatening infection	Caused by dermatophytes	0	[ "Pityriasis Rosea" ]	Question: Pityriasis Rosea, true is: Choices: A. Self-limiting B. Chronic relapsing C. Life threatening infection D. Caused by dermatophytes Answer:
The following statement is TRUE for Pityriasis Rosea:	Self limiting	Chronic relapsing	Life threatening infection	Caused by dermatophytes	0	[ "Pityriasis Rosea" ]	Question: The following statement is TRUE for Pityriasis Rosea: Choices: A. Self limiting B. Chronic relapsing C. Life threatening infection D. Caused by dermatophytes Answer:
Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a 'silence period' of	18 years	23 years	28 years	30 years	2	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a 'silence period' of Choices: A. 18 years B. 23 years C. 28 years D. 30 years Answer:
Vectors for Plague transmission	X. cheopis	X. astia	Pulex irritans	All of the above	3	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Vectors for Plague transmission Choices: A. X. cheopis B. X. astia C. Pulex irritans D. All of the above Answer:
Plague is transmitted by the bite of	Rat flea	Culex mosquito	Body louse	Tse-Tse fly	0	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Plague is transmitted by the bite of Choices: A. Rat flea B. Culex mosquito C. Body louse D. Tse-Tse fly Answer:
Plague is transmitted through:-	Tick	Mite	Flea	Mosquito	2	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Plague is transmitted through:- Choices: A. Tick B. Mite C. Flea D. Mosquito Answer:
Plague is what type of zoonosis?	Cyclozoonosis	Direct zoonosis	Sapro-zoonosis	Meta Zoonosis	3	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Plague is what type of zoonosis? Choices: A. Cyclozoonosis B. Direct zoonosis C. Sapro-zoonosis D. Meta Zoonosis Answer:
Plague is transmitted by the bite of -	Culex mosquito	Rat flea	Body louse	Tse-Tse fly	1	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Plague is transmitted by the bite of - Choices: A. Culex mosquito B. Rat flea C. Body louse D. Tse-Tse fly Answer:
Chronic fibrosing mediastinitis is seen ina) Tuberculosisb) Histoplasmosisc) Plagued) Sarcoidosis	acd	bcd	abc	abd	3	[ "Plague", "Tuberculosis" ]	Question: Chronic fibrosing mediastinitis is seen ina) Tuberculosisb) Histoplasmosisc) Plagued) Sarcoidosis Choices: A. acd B. bcd C. abc D. abd Answer:
Indicator for the outbreak of Plague epidemic is	Rat burrow index	Total flea	Specific flea index	Cheopis index	3	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Indicator for the outbreak of Plague epidemic is Choices: A. Rat burrow index B. Total flea C. Specific flea index D. Cheopis index Answer:
Plague is transmitted by -	Mite	Flea	Sand fly	None	1	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Plague is transmitted by - Choices: A. Mite B. Flea C. Sand fly D. None Answer:
Plague is transmitted by all EXCEPT?	X. Cheopsis	X. Astia	Pulexirritans	Culex	3	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Plague is transmitted by all EXCEPT? Choices: A. X. Cheopsis B. X. Astia C. Pulexirritans D. Culex Answer:
Indicator for outbreak of Plague epidemic is	Rat burrow index	Total flea	Specific flea index	Cheopis index	3	[ "Plague" ]	Question: Indicator for outbreak of Plague epidemic is Choices: A. Rat burrow index B. Total flea C. Specific flea index D. Cheopis index Answer:
Drug of choice for Pneumocystis Pneumonia	Cotrimoxazole	Penicillin	Itraconazole	Ivermectin	0	[ "Pneumocystis Pneumonia" ]	Question: Drug of choice for Pneumocystis Pneumonia Choices: A. Cotrimoxazole B. Penicillin C. Itraconazole D. Ivermectin Answer:
POEMS Syndrome includes all, EXCEPT:	Polyneuropathy	Organomegaly	Endocrinopathy	Multiple sclerosis	3	[ "POEMS Syndrome" ]	Question: POEMS Syndrome includes all, EXCEPT: Choices: A. Polyneuropathy B. Organomegaly C. Endocrinopathy D. Multiple sclerosis Answer:
Poland Syndrome is	Congenital absence of Pectoralis minor	Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis minor	Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis major	Congenital absence of Pectoralis major	3	[ "Poland Syndrome" ]	Question: Poland Syndrome is Choices: A. Congenital absence of Pectoralis minor B. Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis minor C. Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis major D. Congenital absence of Pectoralis major Answer:
What is the characterstic of Poland Syndrome ?	Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis major	Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis major	Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor	Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor	0	[ "Poland Syndrome" ]	Question: What is the characterstic of Poland Syndrome ? Choices: A. Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis major B. Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis major C. Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor D. Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor Answer:
Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN) typically involves which of the following?	Large elastic arteries	Small- or medium-sized muscular arteries	Arterioles	Capillaries	1	[ "Polyarteritis Nodosa" ]	Question: Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN) typically involves which of the following? Choices: A. Large elastic arteries B. Small- or medium-sized muscular arteries C. Arterioles D. Capillaries Answer:
Polycythemia Vera is characterized by all, EXCEPT:	Bleeding	Increased viscosity of blood	Splenomegaly	None of the above	0	[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]	Question: Polycythemia Vera is characterized by all, EXCEPT: Choices: A. Bleeding B. Increased viscosity of blood C. Splenomegaly D. None of the above Answer:
A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation -	Hematocrit	Total leukocyte count	Red cell mass	Reticulocyte count	2	[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]	Question: A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation - Choices: A. Hematocrit B. Total leukocyte count C. Red cell mass D. Reticulocyte count Answer:
A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation :	Hematocrit	Total leukocyte count	Red cell mass	Reticulocyte count	2	[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]	Question: A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation : Choices: A. Hematocrit B. Total leukocyte count C. Red cell mass D. Reticulocyte count Answer:
Which is not seen in Polycythemia Vera?	Ocular congestion	Increase RBC count	Increase erythropoietin level	Increased Vit B12 binding capacity	2	[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]	Question: Which is not seen in Polycythemia Vera? Choices: A. Ocular congestion B. Increase RBC count C. Increase erythropoietin level D. Increased Vit B12 binding capacity Answer:
Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs due to defect in metabolism of	Cystein	Tryptophan	Tyrosine	Glycine	3	[ "Primary Hyperoxaluria" ]	Question: Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs due to defect in metabolism of Choices: A. Cystein B. Tryptophan C. Tyrosine D. Glycine Answer:
Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs in defect in metabolism of	Cystein	Tryptophan	Tyrosine	Glycine	3	[ "Primary Hyperoxaluria" ]	Question: Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs in defect in metabolism of Choices: A. Cystein B. Tryptophan C. Tyrosine D. Glycine Answer:
Primary Hyperparathyroidism is associated with -	Increased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia	Decreased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia	Increased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia	Decreased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia	0	[ "Primary Hyperparathyroidism" ]	Question: Primary Hyperparathyroidism is associated with - Choices: A. Increased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia B. Decreased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia C. Increased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia D. Decreased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia Answer:
Which level of Prolactin definitely suggest Prolactinoma?	>50 mg/L	>100 mg/L	>150 mg/L	>200 mg/L	3	[ "Prolactinoma" ]	Question: Which level of Prolactin definitely suggest Prolactinoma? Choices: A. >50 mg/L B. >100 mg/L C. >150 mg/L D. >200 mg/L Answer:
Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except	Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic	Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis	Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis	Regular visual checkup	1	[ "Prolactinoma" ]	Question: Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except Choices: A. Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic B. Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis C. Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis D. Regular visual checkup Answer:
Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomaa) Accounts for 10% of brain tumorsb) Erodes the sellar and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain	acd	abd	abc	ab	1	[ "Prolactinoma" ]	Question: Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomaa) Accounts for 10% of brain tumorsb) Erodes the sellar and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain Choices: A. acd B. abd C. abc D. ab Answer:
Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except -	Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic	Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis	Macroadenoma > 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis	Regular visual checkup	2	[ "Prolactinoma" ]	Question: Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except - Choices: A. Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic B. Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis C. Macroadenoma > 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis D. Regular visual checkup Answer:
Which of the following is true about pituitary tumor?a) It is present in 10% of brain tumors b) Erodes the sella and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain	acd	abd	abc	ab	1	[ "Prolactinoma" ]	Question: Which of the following is true about pituitary tumor?a) It is present in 10% of brain tumors b) Erodes the sella and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain Choices: A. acd B. abd C. abc D. ab Answer:
Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except:	Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic	Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis	Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis	Regular visual checkup	1	[ "Prolactinoma" ]	Question: Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except: Choices: A. Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic B. Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis C. Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis D. Regular visual checkup Answer:
All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except -	↓Serum PTH	↓ Serum calcium	↑ Serum phosphate	Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy	0	[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]	Question: All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except - Choices: A. ↓Serum PTH B. ↓ Serum calcium C. ↑ Serum phosphate D. Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy Answer:
A young patient presented with HTN and VMA 14 mg/24, the causes is/are -a) Medullary carcinoma thyroidb) Von Hippel Lindau syndromec) Graves diseased) Pseudohypoparathyroidisme) Sturge weber syndrome	abc	bcd	cde	abe	3	[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]	Question: A young patient presented with HTN and VMA 14 mg/24, the causes is/are -a) Medullary carcinoma thyroidb) Von Hippel Lindau syndromec) Graves diseased) Pseudohypoparathyroidisme) Sturge weber syndrome Choices: A. abc B. bcd C. cde D. abe Answer:
All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except:	Low Serum PTH	Low Serum calcium	High Serum Phosphate	Albreight's Hereditary osteodystrophy	0	[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]	Question: All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except: Choices: A. Low Serum PTH B. Low Serum calcium C. High Serum Phosphate D. Albreight's Hereditary osteodystrophy Answer:
Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by:	Normal serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH	Decreased serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH	Decreased serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH	Normal serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH	2	[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]	Question: Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by: Choices: A. Normal serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH B. Decreased serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH C. Decreased serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH D. Normal serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH Answer:
Most common cause of Pseudomyxoma Peritonei is	Mucinous tumour of appendix	Ovarian tumour	Colorectal carcinoma	None of the above	0	[ "Pseudomyxoma Peritonei" ]	Question: Most common cause of Pseudomyxoma Peritonei is Choices: A. Mucinous tumour of appendix B. Ovarian tumour C. Colorectal carcinoma D. None of the above Answer:
Q fever is caused by -	Pseudomonas	Francisella	Coxiella burnetii	Rickettsia typhi	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Q fever is caused by - Choices: A. Pseudomonas B. Francisella C. Coxiella burnetii D. Rickettsia typhi Answer:
Q fever is caused by-	R Quintana	C. burnetii	R typhi	R akari	1	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Q fever is caused by- Choices: A. R Quintana B. C. burnetii C. R typhi D. R akari Answer:
Q fever is transmitted by -	Ticks	Mites	Louse	Flea	0	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Q fever is transmitted by - Choices: A. Ticks B. Mites C. Louse D. Flea Answer:
All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except-	it is zoonotic disease	Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia	No rash is seen	Weil felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis	3	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except- Choices: A. it is zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis Answer:
Q fever is caused by?	Rickettsia typhi	Rochalimea Quintana	Coxiella burnetii	Rickettsia ricketssi	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Q fever is caused by? Choices: A. Rickettsia typhi B. Rochalimea Quintana C. Coxiella burnetii D. Rickettsia ricketssi Answer:
All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except -	It is zoonotic disease	Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia	No rash is seen	Weil-felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis	3	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except - Choices: A. It is zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil-felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis Answer:
True about Q fever -	Rash on palms and soles, headache and fever are common symptoms	Transmitted by human body louse	Inhaled acrosols spread the infection	Mosquito bite prevention is impoant in prevention	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: True about Q fever - Choices: A. Rash on palms and soles, headache and fever are common symptoms B. Transmitted by human body louse C. Inhaled acrosols spread the infection D. Mosquito bite prevention is impoant in prevention Answer:
Which of the following statement about Q fever is false-	Highly infectious zoonotic disease	The mode of transmission is by inhalation	Ahropods are involved in its transmission to man	There is no rash or local lesion	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Which of the following statement about Q fever is false- Choices: A. Highly infectious zoonotic disease B. The mode of transmission is by inhalation C. Ahropods are involved in its transmission to man D. There is no rash or local lesion Answer:
Mode of transmisstion of Q fever -	Bite of infected louse	Bite of infected tick	Inhalation of aerosol	Bite of infected mice	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Mode of transmisstion of Q fever - Choices: A. Bite of infected louse B. Bite of infected tick C. Inhalation of aerosol D. Bite of infected mice Answer:
All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except.	It is a zoonotic infection.	Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia	No rash is seen	Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis.	3	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except. Choices: A. It is a zoonotic infection. B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis. Answer:
Mode of transmission of Q fever is	Bite of infected louse	Bite of infected tick	Bite of infected mite	Inhalation of aerosol	3	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Mode of transmission of Q fever is Choices: A. Bite of infected louse B. Bite of infected tick C. Bite of infected mite D. Inhalation of aerosol Answer:
Mode of transmission of Q fever is -	Bite of infected louse	Bite of infected tick	Inhalation of aerosol	Bite of infected mite	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Mode of transmission of Q fever is - Choices: A. Bite of infected louse B. Bite of infected tick C. Inhalation of aerosol D. Bite of infected mite Answer:
Which of the following characterizes Q fever?	Has an incubation period of four to six weeks	is an acute febrile illness caused by Coxiella Burnetii	Is an illness confined to the upper respiratory tract	Is most commonly found in tropical region	1	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Which of the following characterizes Q fever? Choices: A. Has an incubation period of four to six weeks B. is an acute febrile illness caused by Coxiella Burnetii C. Is an illness confined to the upper respiratory tract D. Is most commonly found in tropical region Answer:
Q fever is caused by which Rickettsial Agent	R. prowazekii	R. tsutsugamushi	C. burnetii	Rochalimaea quintana	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Q fever is caused by which Rickettsial Agent Choices: A. R. prowazekii B. R. tsutsugamushi C. C. burnetii D. Rochalimaea quintana Answer:
Serological diagnosis is made in -a) Actinomycosis b) T.B.c) Syphilisd) Gonorrhoeae) Q fever	abd	acd	cde	ade	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Serological diagnosis is made in -a) Actinomycosis b) T.B.c) Syphilisd) Gonorrhoeae) Q fever Choices: A. abd B. acd C. cde D. ade Answer:
False about Q fever	Causative agent is Coxiella burnetii	Incubation period is 2-3 weeks	Vector is louse	Mode of transmission is inhalation of infected dust	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: False about Q fever Choices: A. Causative agent is Coxiella burnetii B. Incubation period is 2-3 weeks C. Vector is louse D. Mode of transmission is inhalation of infected dust Answer:
All of the following statements are true regarding Q fever except:	It is a zoonotic disease	Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia	No rash is seen	Weil-Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis	3	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: All of the following statements are true regarding Q fever except: Choices: A. It is a zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil-Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis Answer:
Mode of transmission of Q fever:	Ticks	Mites	Aerosols	Mosquito	0	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Mode of transmission of Q fever: Choices: A. Ticks B. Mites C. Aerosols D. Mosquito Answer:
All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except:	It is a zoonotic disease	Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia	No rash is seen	Weil Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis	3	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except: Choices: A. It is a zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis Answer:
Which of the following statements about Q fever is false -	Highly infectious zoonotic disease	The mode of transmission is by inhalation	Arthropods are involved in its transmission to man	There is no rash or local lesion	2	[ "Q fever" ]	Question: Which of the following statements about Q fever is false - Choices: A. Highly infectious zoonotic disease B. The mode of transmission is by inhalation C. Arthropods are involved in its transmission to man D. There is no rash or local lesion Answer:
Which among the following country is a 'Rabies free country'?	USA	Russia	Australia	France	2	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Which among the following country is a 'Rabies free country'? Choices: A. USA B. Russia C. Australia D. France Answer:
True about Rabies a) Bats Transmit disease in some parts of the world b) Brainstem encephalitis is characteristic c) Negri bodies commonly found in thalamus and anterior pituitary d) Paraesthesia is not seen e) Recovery is the usual course	ab	abc	abd	bcd	0	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: True about Rabies a) Bats Transmit disease in some parts of the world b) Brainstem encephalitis is characteristic c) Negri bodies commonly found in thalamus and anterior pituitary d) Paraesthesia is not seen e) Recovery is the usual course Choices: A. ab B. abc C. abd D. bcd Answer:
Rabies vaccine schedule is:	0,3,7,14,28	8,0,4,0,1,1	8,0,0,4,1,1	8,0,4,0,0,1	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies vaccine schedule is: Choices: A. 0,3,7,14,28 B. 8,0,4,0,1,1 C. 8,0,0,4,1,1 D. 8,0,4,0,0,1 Answer:
Dose of Rabies immunoglobulin is?	10 IU/Kg body weight	15 IU/kg body weight	20 IU/kg body weight	25 IU/kg body weight	2	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Dose of Rabies immunoglobulin is? Choices: A. 10 IU/Kg body weight B. 15 IU/kg body weight C. 20 IU/kg body weight D. 25 IU/kg body weight Answer:
Rabies virus is inactivated by	Phenol	UV radiation	BPL	All	3	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies virus is inactivated by Choices: A. Phenol B. UV radiation C. BPL D. All Answer:
In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,0 means -	Day of dog bite	Day of first injection	Day of symptom onset	Day of dog death	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,0 means - Choices: A. Day of dog bite B. Day of first injection C. Day of symptom onset D. Day of dog death Answer:
Negri bodies are hallmark of Rabies, these Negri bodies are seen in?	Neurons	Microglia	Astrocytes	Oligodendroglia	0	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Negri bodies are hallmark of Rabies, these Negri bodies are seen in? Choices: A. Neurons B. Microglia C. Astrocytes D. Oligodendroglia Answer:
Negri bodies, which are pathognomonic of Rabies, are commonly found in which of the following cells?	Anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cord	Purkinje cells of the cerebellum	Microglial cells	Ependymal lining cells	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Negri bodies, which are pathognomonic of Rabies, are commonly found in which of the following cells? Choices: A. Anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cord B. Purkinje cells of the cerebellum C. Microglial cells D. Ependymal lining cells Answer:
Rabies in not found in	Lakshadweep Islands	Rajasthan	Meghalaya	Orrisa	0	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies in not found in Choices: A. Lakshadweep Islands B. Rajasthan C. Meghalaya D. Orrisa Answer:
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Rabies Virus:	It is double stranded RNA virus	Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase	Negative sense RNA Genome	Affects motor neurons	2	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Which of the following statements is TRUE about Rabies Virus: Choices: A. It is double stranded RNA virus B. Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C. Negative sense RNA Genome D. Affects motor neurons Answer:
Rabies free country is:	China	Russia	Australia	France	2	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies free country is: Choices: A. China B. Russia C. Australia D. France Answer:
A 4-year-old child comes to you with a history of dog bite from a street dog. This child had already received Rabies vaccine last year (full course). What will be your next course of action with regard to immunization:	Repeat the entire schedule of Rabies vaccine	No further dosages of Rabies vaccines required	Two booster doses at day 0 and day 3	Two booster dosages at day 0 and day 14	2	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: A 4-year-old child comes to you with a history of dog bite from a street dog. This child had already received Rabies vaccine last year (full course). What will be your next course of action with regard to immunization: Choices: A. Repeat the entire schedule of Rabies vaccine B. No further dosages of Rabies vaccines required C. Two booster doses at day 0 and day 3 D. Two booster dosages at day 0 and day 14 Answer:
Rabies can be confirmed in patients early in illness by: March 2013 (b, e)	Antigen detection by corneal smears immunofluorescence	Antigen detection by immunofluorescence of skin biopsy	Demonstration of neutralizing antibodies	Demonstration of Negri bodies in hippocampus	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies can be confirmed in patients early in illness by: March 2013 (b, e) Choices: A. Antigen detection by corneal smears immunofluorescence B. Antigen detection by immunofluorescence of skin biopsy C. Demonstration of neutralizing antibodies D. Demonstration of Negri bodies in hippocampus Answer:
Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at: September 2005	Medial pa of thigh	Deltoid muscle	Anterior Abdomen	Lateral pa of thigh	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at: September 2005 Choices: A. Medial pa of thigh B. Deltoid muscle C. Anterior Abdomen D. Lateral pa of thigh Answer:
Rabies vaccine is prepared from:-	Street viral strain	Fixed viral strain	Wild viral strain	Any of the above	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies vaccine is prepared from:- Choices: A. Street viral strain B. Fixed viral strain C. Wild viral strain D. Any of the above Answer:
In Rabies, the characteristic pathological manifestation is -	Ventriculitis	Encephalitis	Basal ganglia affection	Meningitis	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: In Rabies, the characteristic pathological manifestation is - Choices: A. Ventriculitis B. Encephalitis C. Basal ganglia affection D. Meningitis Answer:
Rabies free country is	China	Australia	France	Russia	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies free country is Choices: A. China B. Australia C. France D. Russia Answer:
Incubation period of Rabies depends on:	Severity of bite	Number of bite	Site of bite	All of the above.	3	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Incubation period of Rabies depends on: Choices: A. Severity of bite B. Number of bite C. Site of bite D. All of the above. Answer:
Neurological complications following Rabies vaccine is common with -	HDCS Vaccine	Chick embryo Vaccine	Semple Vaccine	Duck Egg Vaccine	2	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Neurological complications following Rabies vaccine is common with - Choices: A. HDCS Vaccine B. Chick embryo Vaccine C. Semple Vaccine D. Duck Egg Vaccine Answer:
Which of the following is NOT seen in furious Rabies -	Hyperexcitability	Aerophobia	Hypertension	Constriction of pupil	3	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Which of the following is NOT seen in furious Rabies - Choices: A. Hyperexcitability B. Aerophobia C. Hypertension D. Constriction of pupil Answer:
Rabies can be transmitted by all EXCEPT: March 2013 (d)	Bite of rabid dog	Bite of bats	Bite of fox	Bite of squirrel	3	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies can be transmitted by all EXCEPT: March 2013 (d) Choices: A. Bite of rabid dog B. Bite of bats C. Bite of fox D. Bite of squirrel Answer:
Rabies virus	Cytotropic	Dermatotropic	Chromophilic	Neurotropic	3	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies virus Choices: A. Cytotropic B. Dermatotropic C. Chromophilic D. Neurotropic Answer:
Rabies vaccine Pre exposure prophylaxis schedule is:	0,3,7	0,7,28	0,3,7,28	0,3,7,21,28	1	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies vaccine Pre exposure prophylaxis schedule is: Choices: A. 0,3,7 B. 0,7,28 C. 0,3,7,28 D. 0,3,7,21,28 Answer:
Incubation period of Rabies depends on: September 2010	Number of bites	Site of bite	Animal species	All of the above	3	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Incubation period of Rabies depends on: September 2010 Choices: A. Number of bites B. Site of bite C. Animal species D. All of the above Answer:
Rabies vaccine is prepared from:	Liver virus	Street virus	Fixed virus	None of the above.	2	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Rabies vaccine is prepared from: Choices: A. Liver virus B. Street virus C. Fixed virus D. None of the above. Answer:
Select false statement regarding Rabies infection Rabies is dead end infection in man Can be transmitted by aerosols Suturing is usually recommended on local wound Human Rabies immunoglobulin dose - 10 IU/kg Human bite can transmit Rabies infection	2, 3, 4, 5	2, 3, 4	4, 5	3, 4, 5	3	[ "Rabies" ]	Question: Select false statement regarding Rabies infection Rabies is dead end infection in man Can be transmitted by aerosols Suturing is usually recommended on local wound Human Rabies immunoglobulin dose - 10 IU/kg Human bite can transmit Rabies infection Choices: A. 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 3, 4 C. 4, 5 D. 3, 4, 5 Answer:

Phenylketonuria is -

AD

AR

X linked dominant

X linked recessive

1

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Phenylketonuria is - Choices: A. AD B. AR C. X linked dominant D. X linked recessive Answer:

Which of the following is a feature of Phenylketonuria?

Loss of deep tendon reflexes

Mental retardation

Macrocephaly

All

1

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Which of the following is a feature of Phenylketonuria? Choices: A. Loss of deep tendon reflexes B. Mental retardation C. Macrocephaly D. All Answer:

Phenylketonuria is caused by deficiency of

Tyrosine transminase

Tyrosine hydroxylase

Phenylalanine transaminase

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

3

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Phenylketonuria is caused by deficiency of Choices: A. Tyrosine transminase B. Tyrosine hydroxylase C. Phenylalanine transaminase D. Phenylalanine hydroxylase Answer:

Phenylketonuria I is due to deficiency of -

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Homogentisate oxidase

Tyrosinase

None

0

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Phenylketonuria I is due to deficiency of - Choices: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Homogentisate oxidase C. Tyrosinase D. None Answer:

Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of -

Phenylalanine transaminase

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Tyrosine transaminase

Tyrosine hydroxylase

1

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of - Choices: A. Phenylalanine transaminase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Tyrosine transaminase D. Tyrosine hydroxylase Answer:

True statement regarding a 3-week old child with Phenylketonuria is all, except –

Provocative protein meal tests helps in the diagnosis

Tyrosine becomes an Essential amino–acid in diet

Serum Phenylalanine is increased and urinary Phenyl Pyruvate level is elevated

Phenylalanine should be completely stopped in diet

3

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: True statement regarding a 3-week old child with Phenylketonuria is all, except – Choices: A. Provocative protein meal tests helps in the diagnosis B. Tyrosine becomes an Essential amino–acid in diet C. Serum Phenylalanine is increased and urinary Phenyl Pyruvate level is elevated D. Phenylalanine should be completely stopped in diet Answer:

Phenylketonuria is detected by which urine test:

Guthrie test

Sodium nitroprusside test

Blot test

FeCl3

0

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Phenylketonuria is detected by which urine test: Choices: A. Guthrie test B. Sodium nitroprusside test C. Blot test D. FeCl3 Answer:

Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is seen in Phenylketonuria

Tyrosinemia

Isovaleric Acidaemia

Multiple carboxylase deficiency

Phenylketonuria

0

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is seen in Phenylketonuria Choices: A. Tyrosinemia B. Isovaleric Acidaemia C. Multiple carboxylase deficiency D. Phenylketonuria Answer:

Phenylketonuria is ?

AD

AR

X linked dominant

X linked recessive

1

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Phenylketonuria is ? Choices: A. AD B. AR C. X linked dominant D. X linked recessive Answer:

Which one of the following is not a feature of Phenylketonuria?

Severe mental retardation

Reduced tendon reflexes

Enamel hypoplasia

Vomiting in early infancy

1

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Which one of the following is not a feature of Phenylketonuria? Choices: A. Severe mental retardation B. Reduced tendon reflexes C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Vomiting in early infancy Answer:

Enzyme defect in Classic Phenylketonuria

Phenylalanine hydroxylase

Dihydrobiopterin reductase

Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase

Homogentisate oxidase

0

[ "Phenylketonuria" ]

Question: Enzyme defect in Classic Phenylketonuria Choices: A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Dihydrobiopterin reductase C. Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase D. Homogentisate oxidase Answer:

Which of the following disorder of mother leads to microcephaly in baby –a) SLEb) Hepatitis A c) Phenylketonuriad) Rubella

ab

cd

bd

ac

1

[ "Phenylketonuria", "Rubella" ]

Question: Which of the following disorder of mother leads to microcephaly in baby –a) SLEb) Hepatitis A c) Phenylketonuriad) Rubella Choices: A. ab B. cd C. bd D. ac Answer:

Pierre Robin Sequence includes

Glossoptosis

Airway obstructions

Cleft lip

Micrognathia

0

[ "Pierre Robin Sequence" ]

Question: Pierre Robin Sequence includes Choices: A. Glossoptosis B. Airway obstructions C. Cleft lip D. Micrognathia Answer:

Regarding syphilis, all are true, except -a) VDRL titre decreases or even absent after treatmentb) VDRL becomes positive after 10-14 days of infectionc) Earliest serological test to become positive in untreated primary syphilis is TPHAd) Yaws and Pinta cannot be differentiated

bc

c

ac

ad

0

[ "Pinta", "Yaws" ]

Question: Regarding syphilis, all are true, except -a) VDRL titre decreases or even absent after treatmentb) VDRL becomes positive after 10-14 days of infectionc) Earliest serological test to become positive in untreated primary syphilis is TPHAd) Yaws and Pinta cannot be differentiated Choices: A. bc B. c C. ac D. ad Answer:

Pinta is caused by:

Treponema peenue

Treponema carateum

Treponema pallidum

Treponema endemicum

1

[ "Pinta" ]

Question: Pinta is caused by: Choices: A. Treponema peenue B. Treponema carateum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema endemicum Answer:

Pinta is caused by

Treponema peenue

Treponema cerateum

Treponema pallidum

Treponema endemicum

1

[ "Pinta" ]

Question: Pinta is caused by Choices: A. Treponema peenue B. Treponema cerateum C. Treponema pallidum D. Treponema endemicum Answer:

Pinta disease is caused by

Treponema pallidum

Treponema carateum

Leptospira interrogans

None of the above

1

[ "Pinta" ]

Question: Pinta disease is caused by Choices: A. Treponema pallidum B. Treponema carateum C. Leptospira interrogans D. None of the above Answer:

Which is a noveneral form of trephonemal infection – a) Yawsb) Pintac) Syphillisd) GV

ab

a

ad

bc

0

[ "Pinta", "Yaws" ]

Question: Which is a noveneral form of trephonemal infection – a) Yawsb) Pintac) Syphillisd) GV Choices: A. ab B. a C. ad D. bc Answer:

Pityriasis Rosea, true is:

Self-limiting

Chronic relapsing

Life threatening infection

Caused by dermatophytes

0

[ "Pityriasis Rosea" ]

Question: Pityriasis Rosea, true is: Choices: A. Self-limiting B. Chronic relapsing C. Life threatening infection D. Caused by dermatophytes Answer:

The following statement is TRUE for Pityriasis Rosea:

Self limiting

Chronic relapsing

Life threatening infection

Caused by dermatophytes

0

[ "Pityriasis Rosea" ]

Question: The following statement is TRUE for Pityriasis Rosea: Choices: A. Self limiting B. Chronic relapsing C. Life threatening infection D. Caused by dermatophytes Answer:

Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a 'silence period' of

18 years

23 years

28 years

30 years

2

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Plague epidemic in Surat in 1995 has occurred after a 'silence period' of Choices: A. 18 years B. 23 years C. 28 years D. 30 years Answer:

Vectors for Plague transmission

X. cheopis

X. astia

Pulex irritans

All of the above

3

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Vectors for Plague transmission Choices: A. X. cheopis B. X. astia C. Pulex irritans D. All of the above Answer:

Plague is transmitted by the bite of

Rat flea

Culex mosquito

Body louse

Tse-Tse fly

0

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Plague is transmitted by the bite of Choices: A. Rat flea B. Culex mosquito C. Body louse D. Tse-Tse fly Answer:

Plague is transmitted through:-

Tick

Mite

Flea

Mosquito

2

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Plague is transmitted through:- Choices: A. Tick B. Mite C. Flea D. Mosquito Answer:

Plague is what type of zoonosis?

Cyclozoonosis

Direct zoonosis

Sapro-zoonosis

Meta Zoonosis

3

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Plague is what type of zoonosis? Choices: A. Cyclozoonosis B. Direct zoonosis C. Sapro-zoonosis D. Meta Zoonosis Answer:

Plague is transmitted by the bite of -

Culex mosquito

Rat flea

Body louse

Tse-Tse fly

1

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Plague is transmitted by the bite of - Choices: A. Culex mosquito B. Rat flea C. Body louse D. Tse-Tse fly Answer:

Chronic fibrosing mediastinitis is seen ina) Tuberculosisb) Histoplasmosisc) Plagued) Sarcoidosis

acd

bcd

abc

abd

3

[ "Plague", "Tuberculosis" ]

Question: Chronic fibrosing mediastinitis is seen ina) Tuberculosisb) Histoplasmosisc) Plagued) Sarcoidosis Choices: A. acd B. bcd C. abc D. abd Answer:

Indicator for the outbreak of Plague epidemic is

Rat burrow index

Total flea

Specific flea index

Cheopis index

3

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Indicator for the outbreak of Plague epidemic is Choices: A. Rat burrow index B. Total flea C. Specific flea index D. Cheopis index Answer:

Plague is transmitted by -

Mite

Flea

Sand fly

None

1

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Plague is transmitted by - Choices: A. Mite B. Flea C. Sand fly D. None Answer:

Plague is transmitted by all EXCEPT?

X. Cheopsis

X. Astia

Pulexirritans

Culex

3

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Plague is transmitted by all EXCEPT? Choices: A. X. Cheopsis B. X. Astia C. Pulexirritans D. Culex Answer:

Indicator for outbreak of Plague epidemic is

Rat burrow index

Total flea

Specific flea index

Cheopis index

3

[ "Plague" ]

Question: Indicator for outbreak of Plague epidemic is Choices: A. Rat burrow index B. Total flea C. Specific flea index D. Cheopis index Answer:

Drug of choice for Pneumocystis Pneumonia

Cotrimoxazole

Penicillin

Itraconazole

Ivermectin

0

[ "Pneumocystis Pneumonia" ]

Question: Drug of choice for Pneumocystis Pneumonia Choices: A. Cotrimoxazole B. Penicillin C. Itraconazole D. Ivermectin Answer:

POEMS Syndrome includes all, EXCEPT:

Polyneuropathy

Organomegaly

Endocrinopathy

Multiple sclerosis

3

[ "POEMS Syndrome" ]

Question: POEMS Syndrome includes all, EXCEPT: Choices: A. Polyneuropathy B. Organomegaly C. Endocrinopathy D. Multiple sclerosis Answer:

Poland Syndrome is

Congenital absence of Pectoralis minor

Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis minor

Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis major

Congenital absence of Pectoralis major

3

[ "Poland Syndrome" ]

Question: Poland Syndrome is Choices: A. Congenital absence of Pectoralis minor B. Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis minor C. Acquired Weakness and disuse atrophy of Pectoralis major D. Congenital absence of Pectoralis major Answer:

What is the characterstic of Poland Syndrome ?

Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis major

Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis major

Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor

Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor

0

[ "Poland Syndrome" ]

Question: What is the characterstic of Poland Syndrome ? Choices: A. Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis major B. Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis major C. Amastia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor D. Athelia with the absence of the Pectoralis minor Answer:

Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN) typically involves which of the following?

Large elastic arteries

Small- or medium-sized muscular arteries

Arterioles

Capillaries

1

[ "Polyarteritis Nodosa" ]

Question: Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN) typically involves which of the following? Choices: A. Large elastic arteries B. Small- or medium-sized muscular arteries C. Arterioles D. Capillaries Answer:

Polycythemia Vera is characterized by all, EXCEPT:

Bleeding

Increased viscosity of blood

Splenomegaly

None of the above

0

[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]

Question: Polycythemia Vera is characterized by all, EXCEPT: Choices: A. Bleeding B. Increased viscosity of blood C. Splenomegaly D. None of the above Answer:

A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation -

Hematocrit

Total leukocyte count

Red cell mass

Reticulocyte count

2

[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]

Question: A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation - Choices: A. Hematocrit B. Total leukocyte count C. Red cell mass D. Reticulocyte count Answer:

A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation :

Hematocrit

Total leukocyte count

Red cell mass

Reticulocyte count

2

[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]

Question: A 59-year-old male came with Hb 18.0 gm/dl on three occasions. The resident doctor wants to exclude Polycythemia Vera. Which of the following is the most relevant investigation : Choices: A. Hematocrit B. Total leukocyte count C. Red cell mass D. Reticulocyte count Answer:

Which is not seen in Polycythemia Vera?

Ocular congestion

Increase RBC count

Increase erythropoietin level

Increased Vit B12 binding capacity

2

[ "Polycythemia Vera" ]

Question: Which is not seen in Polycythemia Vera? Choices: A. Ocular congestion B. Increase RBC count C. Increase erythropoietin level D. Increased Vit B12 binding capacity Answer:

Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs due to defect in metabolism of

Cystein

Tryptophan

Tyrosine

Glycine

3

[ "Primary Hyperoxaluria" ]

Question: Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs due to defect in metabolism of Choices: A. Cystein B. Tryptophan C. Tyrosine D. Glycine Answer:

Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs in defect in metabolism of

Cystein

Tryptophan

Tyrosine

Glycine

3

[ "Primary Hyperoxaluria" ]

Question: Primary Hyperoxaluria occurs in defect in metabolism of Choices: A. Cystein B. Tryptophan C. Tyrosine D. Glycine Answer:

Primary Hyperparathyroidism is associated with -

Increased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia

Decreased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia

Increased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia

Decreased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia

0

[ "Primary Hyperparathyroidism" ]

Question: Primary Hyperparathyroidism is associated with - Choices: A. Increased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia B. Decreased serum PTH and Hypercalcemia C. Increased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia D. Decreased serum PTH and Hyporcalcemia Answer:

Which level of Prolactin definitely suggest Prolactinoma?

>50 mg/L

>100 mg/L

>150 mg/L

>200 mg/L

3

[ "Prolactinoma" ]

Question: Which level of Prolactin definitely suggest Prolactinoma? Choices: A. >50 mg/L B. >100 mg/L C. >150 mg/L D. >200 mg/L Answer:

Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except

Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic

Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis

Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis

Regular visual checkup

1

[ "Prolactinoma" ]

Question: Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except Choices: A. Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic B. Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis C. Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis D. Regular visual checkup Answer:

Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomaa) Accounts for 10% of brain tumorsb) Erodes the sellar and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain

acd

abd

abc

ab

1

[ "Prolactinoma" ]

Question: Which of the following is true about pituitary adenomaa) Accounts for 10% of brain tumorsb) Erodes the sellar and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain Choices: A. acd B. abd C. abc D. ab Answer:

Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except -

Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic

Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis

Macroadenoma > 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis

Regular visual checkup

2

[ "Prolactinoma" ]

Question: Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except - Choices: A. Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic B. Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis C. Macroadenoma > 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis D. Regular visual checkup Answer:

Which of the following is true about pituitary tumor?a) It is present in 10% of brain tumors b) Erodes the sella and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain

acd

abd

abc

ab

1

[ "Prolactinoma" ]

Question: Which of the following is true about pituitary tumor?a) It is present in 10% of brain tumors b) Erodes the sella and extends into surrounding areac) Prolactinoma is least commond) It is differentiated by reticulin stain Choices: A. acd B. abd C. abc D. ab Answer:

Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except:

Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic

Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis

Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis

Regular visual checkup

1

[ "Prolactinoma" ]

Question: Prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true except: Choices: A. Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic B. Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis C. Macroadenoma> 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis D. Regular visual checkup Answer:

All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except -

↓Serum PTH

↓ Serum calcium

↑ Serum phosphate

Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy

0

[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]

Question: All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except - Choices: A. ↓Serum PTH B. ↓ Serum calcium C. ↑ Serum phosphate D. Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy Answer:

A young patient presented with HTN and VMA 14 mg/24, the causes is/are -a) Medullary carcinoma thyroidb) Von Hippel Lindau syndromec) Graves diseased) Pseudohypoparathyroidisme) Sturge weber syndrome

abc

bcd

cde

abe

3

[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]

Question: A young patient presented with HTN and VMA 14 mg/24, the causes is/are -a) Medullary carcinoma thyroidb) Von Hippel Lindau syndromec) Graves diseased) Pseudohypoparathyroidisme) Sturge weber syndrome Choices: A. abc B. bcd C. cde D. abe Answer:

All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except:

Low Serum PTH

Low Serum calcium

High Serum Phosphate

Albreight's Hereditary osteodystrophy

0

[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]

Question: All of the following statements about Pseudohypoparathyroidism are true, except: Choices: A. Low Serum PTH B. Low Serum calcium C. High Serum Phosphate D. Albreight's Hereditary osteodystrophy Answer:

Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by:

Normal serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH

Decreased serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH

Decreased serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH

Normal serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH

2

[ "Pseudohypoparathyroidism" ]

Question: Pseudohypoparathyroidism is characterized by: Choices: A. Normal serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH B. Decreased serum Ca++ and decreased serum PTH C. Decreased serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH D. Normal serum Ca++ and Increased serum PTH Answer:

Most common cause of Pseudomyxoma Peritonei is

Mucinous tumour of appendix

Ovarian tumour

Colorectal carcinoma

None of the above

0

[ "Pseudomyxoma Peritonei" ]

Question: Most common cause of Pseudomyxoma Peritonei is Choices: A. Mucinous tumour of appendix B. Ovarian tumour C. Colorectal carcinoma D. None of the above Answer:

Q fever is caused by -

Pseudomonas

Francisella

Coxiella burnetii

Rickettsia typhi

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Q fever is caused by - Choices: A. Pseudomonas B. Francisella C. Coxiella burnetii D. Rickettsia typhi Answer:

Q fever is caused by-

R Quintana

C. burnetii

R typhi

R akari

1

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Q fever is caused by- Choices: A. R Quintana B. C. burnetii C. R typhi D. R akari Answer:

Q fever is transmitted by -

Ticks

Mites

Louse

Flea

0

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Q fever is transmitted by - Choices: A. Ticks B. Mites C. Louse D. Flea Answer:

All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except-

it is zoonotic disease

Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia

No rash is seen

Weil felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis

3

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except- Choices: A. it is zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis Answer:

Q fever is caused by?

Rickettsia typhi

Rochalimea Quintana

Coxiella burnetii

Rickettsia ricketssi

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Q fever is caused by? Choices: A. Rickettsia typhi B. Rochalimea Quintana C. Coxiella burnetii D. Rickettsia ricketssi Answer:

All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except -

It is zoonotic disease

Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia

No rash is seen

Weil-felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis

3

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except - Choices: A. It is zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil-felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis Answer:

True about Q fever -

Rash on palms and soles, headache and fever are common symptoms

Transmitted by human body louse

Inhaled acrosols spread the infection

Mosquito bite prevention is impoant in prevention

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: True about Q fever - Choices: A. Rash on palms and soles, headache and fever are common symptoms B. Transmitted by human body louse C. Inhaled acrosols spread the infection D. Mosquito bite prevention is impoant in prevention Answer:

Which of the following statement about Q fever is false-

Highly infectious zoonotic disease

The mode of transmission is by inhalation

Ahropods are involved in its transmission to man

There is no rash or local lesion

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Which of the following statement about Q fever is false- Choices: A. Highly infectious zoonotic disease B. The mode of transmission is by inhalation C. Ahropods are involved in its transmission to man D. There is no rash or local lesion Answer:

Mode of transmisstion of Q fever -

Bite of infected louse

Bite of infected tick

Inhalation of aerosol

Bite of infected mice

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Mode of transmisstion of Q fever - Choices: A. Bite of infected louse B. Bite of infected tick C. Inhalation of aerosol D. Bite of infected mice Answer:

All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except.

It is a zoonotic infection.

Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia

No rash is seen

Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis.

3

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: All of following statements are true regarding Q fever except. Choices: A. It is a zoonotic infection. B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil Felix reaction is very useful for diagnosis. Answer:

Mode of transmission of Q fever is

Bite of infected louse

Bite of infected tick

Bite of infected mite

Inhalation of aerosol

3

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Mode of transmission of Q fever is Choices: A. Bite of infected louse B. Bite of infected tick C. Bite of infected mite D. Inhalation of aerosol Answer:

Mode of transmission of Q fever is -

Bite of infected louse

Bite of infected tick

Inhalation of aerosol

Bite of infected mite

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Mode of transmission of Q fever is - Choices: A. Bite of infected louse B. Bite of infected tick C. Inhalation of aerosol D. Bite of infected mite Answer:

Which of the following characterizes Q fever?

Has an incubation period of four to six weeks

is an acute febrile illness caused by Coxiella Burnetii

Is an illness confined to the upper respiratory tract

Is most commonly found in tropical region

1

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Which of the following characterizes Q fever? Choices: A. Has an incubation period of four to six weeks B. is an acute febrile illness caused by Coxiella Burnetii C. Is an illness confined to the upper respiratory tract D. Is most commonly found in tropical region Answer:

Q fever is caused by which Rickettsial Agent

R. prowazekii

R. tsutsugamushi

C. burnetii

Rochalimaea quintana

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Q fever is caused by which Rickettsial Agent Choices: A. R. prowazekii B. R. tsutsugamushi C. C. burnetii D. Rochalimaea quintana Answer:

Serological diagnosis is made in -a) Actinomycosis b) T.B.c) Syphilisd) Gonorrhoeae) Q fever

abd

acd

cde

ade

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Serological diagnosis is made in -a) Actinomycosis b) T.B.c) Syphilisd) Gonorrhoeae) Q fever Choices: A. abd B. acd C. cde D. ade Answer:

False about Q fever

Causative agent is Coxiella burnetii

Incubation period is 2-3 weeks

Vector is louse

Mode of transmission is inhalation of infected dust

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: False about Q fever Choices: A. Causative agent is Coxiella burnetii B. Incubation period is 2-3 weeks C. Vector is louse D. Mode of transmission is inhalation of infected dust Answer:

All of the following statements are true regarding Q fever except:

It is a zoonotic disease

Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia

No rash is seen

Weil-Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis

3

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: All of the following statements are true regarding Q fever except: Choices: A. It is a zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil-Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis Answer:

Mode of transmission of Q fever:

Ticks

Mites

Aerosols

Mosquito

0

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Mode of transmission of Q fever: Choices: A. Ticks B. Mites C. Aerosols D. Mosquito Answer:

All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except:

It is a zoonotic disease

Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia

No rash is seen

Weil Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis

3

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: All of the following statement are true regarding Q fever except: Choices: A. It is a zoonotic disease B. Human disease is characterized by an interstitial pneumonia C. No rash is seen D. Weil Felix reactions is very useful for diagnosis Answer:

Which of the following statements about Q fever is false -

Highly infectious zoonotic disease

The mode of transmission is by inhalation

Arthropods are involved in its transmission to man

There is no rash or local lesion

2

[ "Q fever" ]

Question: Which of the following statements about Q fever is false - Choices: A. Highly infectious zoonotic disease B. The mode of transmission is by inhalation C. Arthropods are involved in its transmission to man D. There is no rash or local lesion Answer:

Which among the following country is a 'Rabies free country'?

USA

Russia

Australia

France

2

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Which among the following country is a 'Rabies free country'? Choices: A. USA B. Russia C. Australia D. France Answer:

True about Rabies a) Bats Transmit disease in some parts of the world b) Brainstem encephalitis is characteristic c) Negri bodies commonly found in thalamus and anterior pituitary d) Paraesthesia is not seen e) Recovery is the usual course

ab

abc

abd

bcd

0

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: True about Rabies a) Bats Transmit disease in some parts of the world b) Brainstem encephalitis is characteristic c) Negri bodies commonly found in thalamus and anterior pituitary d) Paraesthesia is not seen e) Recovery is the usual course Choices: A. ab B. abc C. abd D. bcd Answer:

Rabies vaccine schedule is:

0,3,7,14,28

8,0,4,0,1,1

8,0,0,4,1,1

8,0,4,0,0,1

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies vaccine schedule is: Choices: A. 0,3,7,14,28 B. 8,0,4,0,1,1 C. 8,0,0,4,1,1 D. 8,0,4,0,0,1 Answer:

Dose of Rabies immunoglobulin is?

10 IU/Kg body weight

15 IU/kg body weight

20 IU/kg body weight

25 IU/kg body weight

2

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Dose of Rabies immunoglobulin is? Choices: A. 10 IU/Kg body weight B. 15 IU/kg body weight C. 20 IU/kg body weight D. 25 IU/kg body weight Answer:

Rabies virus is inactivated by

Phenol

UV radiation

BPL

All

3

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies virus is inactivated by Choices: A. Phenol B. UV radiation C. BPL D. All Answer:

In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,0 means -

Day of dog bite

Day of first injection

Day of symptom onset

Day of dog death

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: In the Rabies vaccine schedule of 0,3,7,14,30,90,0 means - Choices: A. Day of dog bite B. Day of first injection C. Day of symptom onset D. Day of dog death Answer:

Negri bodies are hallmark of Rabies, these Negri bodies are seen in?

Neurons

Microglia

Astrocytes

Oligodendroglia

0

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Negri bodies are hallmark of Rabies, these Negri bodies are seen in? Choices: A. Neurons B. Microglia C. Astrocytes D. Oligodendroglia Answer:

Negri bodies, which are pathognomonic of Rabies, are commonly found in which of the following cells?

Anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cord

Purkinje cells of the cerebellum

Microglial cells

Ependymal lining cells

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Negri bodies, which are pathognomonic of Rabies, are commonly found in which of the following cells? Choices: A. Anterior horn motor neurons of the spinal cord B. Purkinje cells of the cerebellum C. Microglial cells D. Ependymal lining cells Answer:

Rabies in not found in

Lakshadweep Islands

Rajasthan

Meghalaya

Orrisa

0

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies in not found in Choices: A. Lakshadweep Islands B. Rajasthan C. Meghalaya D. Orrisa Answer:

Which of the following statements is TRUE about Rabies Virus:

It is double stranded RNA virus

Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Negative sense RNA Genome

Affects motor neurons

2

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Which of the following statements is TRUE about Rabies Virus: Choices: A. It is double stranded RNA virus B. Contains a DNA-dependent RNA polymerase C. Negative sense RNA Genome D. Affects motor neurons Answer:

Rabies free country is:

China

Russia

Australia

France

2

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies free country is: Choices: A. China B. Russia C. Australia D. France Answer:

A 4-year-old child comes to you with a history of dog bite from a street dog. This child had already received Rabies vaccine last year (full course). What will be your next course of action with regard to immunization:

Repeat the entire schedule of Rabies vaccine

No further dosages of Rabies vaccines required

Two booster doses at day 0 and day 3

Two booster dosages at day 0 and day 14

2

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: A 4-year-old child comes to you with a history of dog bite from a street dog. This child had already received Rabies vaccine last year (full course). What will be your next course of action with regard to immunization: Choices: A. Repeat the entire schedule of Rabies vaccine B. No further dosages of Rabies vaccines required C. Two booster doses at day 0 and day 3 D. Two booster dosages at day 0 and day 14 Answer:

Rabies can be confirmed in patients early in illness by: March 2013 (b, e)

Antigen detection by corneal smears immunofluorescence

Antigen detection by immunofluorescence of skin biopsy

Demonstration of neutralizing antibodies

Demonstration of Negri bodies in hippocampus

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies can be confirmed in patients early in illness by: March 2013 (b, e) Choices: A. Antigen detection by corneal smears immunofluorescence B. Antigen detection by immunofluorescence of skin biopsy C. Demonstration of neutralizing antibodies D. Demonstration of Negri bodies in hippocampus Answer:

Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at: September 2005

Medial pa of thigh

Deltoid muscle

Anterior Abdomen

Lateral pa of thigh

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Cell culture Rabies vaccine is given at: September 2005 Choices: A. Medial pa of thigh B. Deltoid muscle C. Anterior Abdomen D. Lateral pa of thigh Answer:

Rabies vaccine is prepared from:-

Street viral strain

Fixed viral strain

Wild viral strain

Any of the above

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies vaccine is prepared from:- Choices: A. Street viral strain B. Fixed viral strain C. Wild viral strain D. Any of the above Answer:

In Rabies, the characteristic pathological manifestation is -

Ventriculitis

Encephalitis

Basal ganglia affection

Meningitis

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: In Rabies, the characteristic pathological manifestation is - Choices: A. Ventriculitis B. Encephalitis C. Basal ganglia affection D. Meningitis Answer:

Rabies free country is

China

Australia

France

Russia

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies free country is Choices: A. China B. Australia C. France D. Russia Answer:

Incubation period of Rabies depends on:

Severity of bite

Number of bite

Site of bite

All of the above.

3

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Incubation period of Rabies depends on: Choices: A. Severity of bite B. Number of bite C. Site of bite D. All of the above. Answer:

Neurological complications following Rabies vaccine is common with -

HDCS Vaccine

Chick embryo Vaccine

Semple Vaccine

Duck Egg Vaccine

2

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Neurological complications following Rabies vaccine is common with - Choices: A. HDCS Vaccine B. Chick embryo Vaccine C. Semple Vaccine D. Duck Egg Vaccine Answer:

Which of the following is NOT seen in furious Rabies -

Hyperexcitability

Aerophobia

Hypertension

Constriction of pupil

3

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Which of the following is NOT seen in furious Rabies - Choices: A. Hyperexcitability B. Aerophobia C. Hypertension D. Constriction of pupil Answer:

Rabies can be transmitted by all EXCEPT: March 2013 (d)

Bite of rabid dog

Bite of bats

Bite of fox

Bite of squirrel

3

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies can be transmitted by all EXCEPT: March 2013 (d) Choices: A. Bite of rabid dog B. Bite of bats C. Bite of fox D. Bite of squirrel Answer:

Rabies virus

Cytotropic

Dermatotropic

Chromophilic

Neurotropic

3

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies virus Choices: A. Cytotropic B. Dermatotropic C. Chromophilic D. Neurotropic Answer:

Rabies vaccine Pre exposure prophylaxis schedule is:

0,3,7

0,7,28

0,3,7,28

0,3,7,21,28

1

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies vaccine Pre exposure prophylaxis schedule is: Choices: A. 0,3,7 B. 0,7,28 C. 0,3,7,28 D. 0,3,7,21,28 Answer:

Incubation period of Rabies depends on: September 2010

Number of bites

Site of bite

Animal species

All of the above

3

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Incubation period of Rabies depends on: September 2010 Choices: A. Number of bites B. Site of bite C. Animal species D. All of the above Answer:

Rabies vaccine is prepared from:

Liver virus

Street virus

Fixed virus

None of the above.

2

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Rabies vaccine is prepared from: Choices: A. Liver virus B. Street virus C. Fixed virus D. None of the above. Answer:

Select false statement regarding Rabies infection Rabies is dead end infection in man Can be transmitted by aerosols Suturing is usually recommended on local wound Human Rabies immunoglobulin dose - 10 IU/kg Human bite can transmit Rabies infection

2, 3, 4, 5

2, 3, 4

4, 5

3, 4, 5

3

[ "Rabies" ]

Question: Select false statement regarding Rabies infection Rabies is dead end infection in man Can be transmitted by aerosols Suturing is usually recommended on local wound Human Rabies immunoglobulin dose - 10 IU/kg Human bite can transmit Rabies infection Choices: A. 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 3, 4 C. 4, 5 D. 3, 4, 5 Answer: