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82a9a6ef-0e91-4565-8449-3835409aadbd | The central neurons system and its overlying bones are subject to a variety of malformations and developmental diseases. The defect described in the question stem is a cranial encephalocele, in which brain herniates through a defect in the skull bones. The most common site for such a herniation is the occipital bone. Small defects in the occipital bone can be treated surgically, but large defects are very problematic, paicularly if significant herniation has occurred, since the brain becomes very vulnerable to trauma and infection. Meningocele is the term used when the meninges, but not the brain or spinal cord, herniate through a defect in the bony cranium or spinal column. Myelocele is the term used when the spinal cord herniates through a defect in the spinal column. Spina bifida refers to veebral defects through which the spinal cord or meninges may herniate. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 16. Fetal Imaging. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | null | A baby is born with a large defect in the occipital bone through which the posterior poion of the brain has herniated. Which of the following terms best describes this lesion?
A. Encephalocele
B. Meningocele
C. Myelocele
D. Spina bifida
| Encephalocele |
747afe53-ff3d-4087-a4aa-f9bb4d7fdebb | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Stomach Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GlSTs)o GISTs are the most common mesenchymal neoplasm of gastrointestinal tumor.o GIST represents a distinct group of gastrointestinal tumors that originate from the interstial cells of cajal which control gastrointestinal peristalsis.o GISTs can occur anywhere in the gastroinstestinal tract; the most common site being the stomach followed by small intestine.Stomach-50-70%Small intestine -20-30%Colon & rectum-5-15%Esophagus -<5% Immunohistochemistrvo Following markers are present in GISTs:i) CD 117 (c kit)- 95%ii) CD 34-70%iii) Smooth muscle actin- 5%o CD 117 (c kit) is considered the most specific markero CD 117 (c kit) immunoreactivity is the best defining feature of GISTs distinguishing them from true smooth muscle tumors (leiomyoma) and tumors arising from neural crest.o Although CD 117 (c kit) is considered the most specific marker for GIST, it is not pathognomonic of GIST as other tumors may also express CD 117. These tumors include mast cell tumor, germ cell tumors (seminomas), leukemias, malignant melanoma, angiolipomas, and some sarcomas.o Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) originate from the interstitial cells of Cajal. | Pathology | Stomach | Most common site of GIST is -
A. Ileum
B. Esophagus
C. Colon
D. Stomach
| Stomach |
420c52e6-ea7d-4725-a171-86b3269ec515 | Nearly all patients with neurologic involvement in Wilson disease develop eye lesions called Kayser-Fleischer rings, green to brown depositsof copper in Descemet membrane in the limbus of the cornea.Wilson disease is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by mutation of the ATP7B gene, resulting in impaired copper excretion into bile and a failure to incorporate copper into ceruloplasmin. This disorder is marked by the accumulation of toxic levels of copper in many tissues and organs, principally the liver, brain, and eye.Ref: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 849 | Pathology | miscellaneous | In which layer of cornea, copper is deposited to form Kayser-Fleischer ring in Wilsons disease?
A. Bowman's layer
B. Corneal stroma
C. Descemet's membrane
D. Corneal endothelium
| Descemet's membrane |
a2245923-558f-4656-ae04-a803d47f34cb | Acute mastitis, frequently complicated by breast abscess formation, typically develops in the postpaum period, when the nipples are first subjected to the physical stresses of breast feeding. Bacteria enter the breast cracks in the nipple, and flourish in the microenvironment of the lactating breast. Acute mastitis causes redness, pain, and swelling in the affected breast; Staph. aureus is the most common pathogen. Although endocarditis could send septic emboli to the breast, Staph. aureus endocarditis is more commonly associated with bacteremia and fevers, proliferative glomerulonephritis, valvular dysfunction, and emboli to the brain, kidneys, hea, and gut. Inflammatory breast carcinoma does not invoke an inflammatory response, and it is not associated with an infection. Inflammatory breast carcinoma is characterized by tumor spread into the dermal lymphatics, producing diffuse induration and skin tenderness with the typical peau d'orange appearance. Mastitis arising in the perimenopausal period is usually a chronic mastitis, caused by obstruction of ducts due to inspissated secretions. Chronic mastitis is sterile. The breast tissue shows lymphocytes and plasma cells surrounding dilated ducts filled by cellular debris. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 17. Pathology of the Male and Female Reproductive Tract and Breast. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds),Pathology: The Big Picture. | Pathology | null | A microbiology laboratory repos growth of Staphylococcus aureus from pus drained from a breast abscess. What is the most likely condition predisposing the patient to the development of a breast abscess?
A. Breast feeding
B. Endocarditis
C. Inflammatory breast carcinoma
D. Menopause
| Breast feeding |
359cf365-209e-48e0-9f0a-fe124b0690d5 | covalent interaction means Irreversible inhibition of enzyme. Aspirin irreversibly acitylates the cox enzyme Refer kDT 6/e p185 | Pharmacology | Autacoids | Which of the following drugs have covalent interaction with its target
A. Aspirin
B. Penicillin
C. Nitric oxide
D. Basanta
| Aspirin |
dbaa9326-9fbb-4b46-a574-bd05214e821e | Brunner's grading of Lymphoedema:-
Latent = Subclinical
Grade I = Spontaneously reversible lymphoedema
Grade II = Spontaneously irreversible lymphoedema
Grade III = Irreversible skin changes like-fibrosis, fissuring in lymphoedema. | Surgery | null | Non-pitting oedema which does not reduce on elevation of limb belongs to which grade of lymphoedema
A. Latent
B. Grade I
C. Grade II
D. Grade III
| Grade II |
fd4cc6c3-9839-4f65-af93-bedfff8ac0cd | Were there no other source of glucose, liver and muscle glycogen would be exhausted after about 18 hours of fasting. As fasting becomes more prolonged, so an increasing amount of the amino acids released as a result of protein catabolism is utilized in the liver and kidneys for gluconeogenesis. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Chapter 14; Page no: 149 | Biochemistry | nutrition and digestion | When there is no other source of glucose, liver and muscle glycogen would be exhausted after
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 36 hours
| 18 hours |
843fb52d-512e-4fea-8480-d4df7952d09a | Ans. b. 39 `Section 39 of CrPC gives a list of offences, the information regarding which is to be mandatorily provided to the police. That is, the doctor is duty bound to provide information about these enlisted offences (in Sec 39 CrPC) to the police.' Impoant Criminal Procedure Codes (CrPC) CrPC Description 39 Doctor is duty bound to provide information about enlisted offences to the policeQ 53 Examination of accused by medical practitioner at request of policeQ 53A Examination of accused of rapeQ 54 Examination of arrested person by medical officer at request of arrested personQ 61 Format of summonsQ 62 Summons how servedQ 70 Form of warrant of arrest and durationQ 174 Police inquestQ 176 Magistrates inquestQ 293 Exception to oral evidenceQ 327 Open trial-closed roomIn camera trial-rape casesQ | Forensic Medicine | null | A case of suspected homicide comes to a doctor. He is supposed to inform police under section of CrPC:
A. 37
B. 39
C. 174
D. 176
| 39 |
65ac0711-9606-474c-9ac5-21f01e8f8a66 | Ans. is ''a' i.e., Cushing reflex o When intracranial pressure is increased, the blood supply to RVLM neurons is compromised, and the local hypoxia and hypercapnia increase their discharge.o The resultant rise in systemic arterial pressure (Cushing reflex) tends to restore the blood flow to the medulla and over a considerable range, the blood pressure rise is proportional to the increase in intracranial pressure,o The rise in blood pressure causes a reflex decrease in heart rate via the arterial baroreceptors.o This is why bradycardia rather than tachycardia is characteristically seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure.o Cushing reflex consists of hypertension, bradyacardia and tachypnoea. | Physiology | Circulation: Arterial Pressure Regulation - Role of Kidney | Maintainence of BP according to intracranial pressure is-
A. Cushing reflex
B. Cushing disease
C. Starling's reflex
D. Gometz reflex
| Cushing reflex |
b1d4c875-0782-4f10-9537-d52e1935bc6e | Based on the articulating surfaces of the prosthesis, THR may be of the following type:-
Metal on poly: One surface is metallic (femoral side) and the other is of polyethene (on the acetabular side).
Metal on metal: Both articulating surfaces are of metal.
Ceramic on ceramic: Both articulating surfaces are of ceramic.
Contraindications to Metal on Metal Bearing surfaces
(Metal on Metal Total Hip Replacement or Metal on Metal Hip Resurfacing)
Patients with Renal Insufficiency (Chronic Renal failure) (Kidney are chiefly responsible for eliminating metal ions from the blood)
Young females of childbearing age (Women who may potentially still have children) (Elevated levels of metal ions have harmful effects on the fetus)
Patients with metal hypersensitivity
Contraindications to (Metal on Metal) Hip Resurfacing (Not contraindications to Metal on metal articulation)
Loss of femoral head (severe bone loss: poor bone stock)
Large femoral neck cysts (poor bone stock: found at surgery)
The small or bone deficient acetabulum
Conditions that require caution: Associated with increased risk of failure
Tall thin patients
Female patients
Patients with femoral head cysts > 1 cm (on preoperative radiographs)
Patients with high body mass index > 35
Rheumatoid arthritis (Inflammatory arthritis) and Osteonecrosis (AVIV)
Rheumatoid arthritis (Inflammatory arthritis) and osteonecrosis of the hip/ perthe's disease were earlier considered contraindications/ semi- contraindications for Resurfacing. These have now shown to have successful results. | Orthopaedics | null | Metal on Metal articulation should be avoided in -
A. Osteonecrosis
B. Young female
C. Inflammatory arthritis
D. Revision surgery
| Young female |
333afe0a-3f1c-47c2-8d39-b6d23fe95c3e | Increased salivation, lacrimation, miosis, fasciculation, tachycardia and confusion, all are seen in organophosphate poisoning. | Forensic Medicine | null | A 5-year-old child presents with confusion, increased salivation, lacrimation, fasciculations, miosis, tachycardia, and hypotension. Which of the following poisons can cause these manifestations?
A. Opium
B. Organophosphorus
C. Dhatura
D. Organochlorine pesticide
| Organophosphorus |
643e2b63-bdea-426d-b93b-c68c7be359ff | Refer katzung 11e 180-181 nitric oxide donors include Sodium nitroprusside organic nitrates nitrates Hydralazine Propofol Nebivolol | Pharmacology | Cardiovascular system | Which of the following does not result in the release of nitric oxide
A. Fenoldopam
B. Hydralizine
C. Nitroprusside
D. Nitroglycerin
| Fenoldopam |
bfc4b4fb-de12-4f16-922f-3a1ee38ddd54 | The yellow fever virus is transmitted by the bite of female mosquitoes (the yellow fever mosquito, Aedes aegypti. After transmission of the virus from a mosquito the viruses replicate in the lymph nodes and infect dendritic cells in paicular. Hepatitis-A and Cholera are transmitted through feco-oral route. Leprosy is transmitted by fomites. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | In which of the following infections mosquito is the main vector?
A. Hepatitis - A
B. Cholera
C. Yellow fever
D. Leprosy
| Yellow fever |
e146e788-6f85-48a9-978e-5bbc6fa8c8c8 | The fumarate formed may be funnelled into TCA cycle to be converted to malate and then to oxaloacetate to be transaminated to aspartate. Thus, the urea cycle is linked to TCA cycle through fumarate.
Reference: Vasudevan 7th ed, pg 204 | Biochemistry | null | A compound serving a link between citric acid cycle and urea cycle is:
A. Malate
B. Citrate
C. Succinate
D. Fumarate
| Fumarate |
c3639327-dc10-4a69-a63c-14cf56b71d72 | (A) Craniopharyngioma[?]Craniopharyngioma:Craniopharyngioma are pituitary gland tumor develop from the embryogenic remnants in pituitary gland.Present at any time during childhood, tumor is congenital &d arises from squamous epithelial cell rests of the embryonic Rathke's pouch.The neoplasm is usually cystic & benign.Clinical presentation:Headaches and raised ICPVisual symptoms: 20% of children & 80% adults.Hormonal imbalances:Short stature and delayed puberty in childrenDecreased libido; Amenorrhoea; Diabetes insipidusBehavioural change due to frontal or temporal extension.Growth failure; Signs of increased intracranial pressure; Endocrine abnormalities such as diabetes insipidus and delayed puberty (<10% of cases); Retarded Bone age.X-ray of skull may show calcificationMost preferred treatment is micro surgical excision & transcranial route through craniotomy.Tumor cyst can be aspirated or malignant craniopharyngiomas are treated with radiotherapy or implants.Types of Non Cancerous Brain Tumors seen in ChildrenChordomasMeningiomasCraniopharyngiomaPineocytomasGangliocytomasPituitary AdenomaGlomus JugulareSchwannomasOther Options[?]Pituitary apoplexy:Pituitary apoplexy or pituitary tumor apoplexy is bleeding into or impaired blood supply of the pituitary gland at the base of the brain. This usually occurs in the presence of a tumor of the pituitary, although in 80% of cases this has not been diagnosed previously.The most common initial symptom is a sudden headache, often associated with a rapidly worsening visual field defect or double vision caused by compression of nerves surrounding the gland.This is followed in many cases by acute symptoms caused by lack of secretion of essential hormones, predominantly adrenal insufficiency[?]Nasopharyngeal fibroma:Nasopharyngeal fibroma is a benign tumour but locally invasive and destroys the adjoining structures. It may extend into: Nasal cavity causing nasal obstruction, epistaxis and nasal discharge.Cranial cavity: Middle cranial fossa is the most common.There are two routes of entry:-By erosion of floor of middle cranial fossa, anterior to foramen lacerum. The tumour lies lateral to carotid artery & cavernous sinus.-Through sphenoid sinus, into the sella. Tumour lies medial to carotid artery.Surgical excision is now the treatment of choice. Radiotherapy has been used as a primary mode of treatment.Hormonal therapy as the primary or adjunctive treatment.Recurrent and residual lesions have been treated by chemotherapy.[?]Hypothalamic glioma:Rare tumors cause diencephalic syndrome in infants.Fail to thrive, loss of subcutaneous fat & suffer sleep & respiratory disturbances.Precocious puberty seen in older children.Associated histological types include glioma, pinealoma, teratomas & hamartomas. | Pediatrics | Childhood Tumors | A 8 years boy with headache, supracellar mass, with bilateral hemianopia, showing the following MRI scan of head. What is the diagnosis
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Pituitary apoplexy
C. Nasopharyngeal fibroma
D. Hypothalamic glioma
| Craniopharyngioma |
11f6efda-fdbe-424b-9657-5c090a22a3a6 | * Age:- It is mostly seen in fifth to seventh decades but may involve younger age groups. It is not uncommon to see the cancer of nasopharynx in the twenties and thiies. * Sex:-Males are three times more prone than females. (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat, P.L Dhingra, 7th edition, page 284) | ENT | Pharynx | Nasopharyngeal carcinoma affects which age group
A. Children
B. Adolescents
C. 3rd decade
D. 5th decade
| 5th decade |
24273860-3e7a-46a3-a884-7338e8d07211 | Gating Respiratory gating : It is a technique in radiotherapy in which the radiation is applied during that phase of respiratory cycle in which the tumour is in the best range. This is to prevent unnecessary radiation exposure to normal structures. | Radiology | Radiotherapy Pa 1 | The technique employed in radiotherapy to counteract the effect of tumour motion due to breathing is known as
A. Arc technique
B. Modulation
C. Gating
D. Shunting
| Gating |
f1c94b4d-3bcd-4d7c-83af-ad9087103c33 | paprika sign is the appearance of live bone after removal of sequestrum. Bone Debridement: * The goal of debridement is to leave healthy, ble tissue. Debridement of bone is done until punctuate bleeding is noted called the "PAPRIKA SIGN" * Copious irrigation with io to 14 L of normal saline is expected. * The extent of resection during debridement is impoant in Type B host patient. Such patient is treated with marginal resection. * Repeated debridement may be required. REF :MAHESWARI 9TH ED | Anatomy | Skeletal infections | paprika sign during debridement is crucial in management of which of the following condition?
A. chronic osteomyelitis
B. osteosarcoma
C. osteoid osteoma
D. brodie's abscess
| chronic osteomyelitis |
a2db7511-91e3-4d11-b036-eccd84a3505f | Following iron therapy in a child with iron deficiency anemia, initial bone marrow response is seen within 48hours. The earliest response seen is a rise in the level of reticulocyte which occur by the 2nd to 3rd day. This is followed by elevation of hemoglobin level. After the correction of the hemoglobin levels, body iron stores are repleted. Ref: Essential Pediatrics, 6th Edition By O P Ghai, Page 302. | Pediatrics | null | The earliest indicator of response after staing iron in a 6 year old girl with iron deficiency is:
A. Increased reticulocyte count
B. Increased hemoglobin
C. Increased ferritin
D. Increased serum iron
| Increased reticulocyte count |
870b876b-8df1-4c17-bb2f-d882be6f5ea4 | Cowden's syndrome or multiple hamaoma syndrome is a rare autosomal dominant syndrome characterised by orocutaneous hamaomatous tumours, gastrointestinal polyps, abnormalities of the breast, thyroid gland and genitourinary system. The gastrointestinal polyps are generally benign and malignant transformation is seen very rarely. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3384 | Medicine | null | The patient with oro-cutaneous hamaomatous tumours, gastrointestinal polyps, abnormalities of the breast, thyroid gland and genitourinary system is suffering from which of the following?
A. Familial adenomatous polyposis
B. Cowden's syndrome
C. Peutz Jeghers' syndrome
D. Juvenile polyposis
| Cowden's syndrome |
db0f7698-7a9e-4284-906b-f72fcdcbc318 | Chlorprocaine is the shortest acting LA. Amongst the given options procaine is shortest acting. | Anaesthesia | null | Shortest acting local anaesthetic agent is –
A. Procaine
B. Lidocaine
C. Tetracaine
D. Bupivacaine
| Procaine |
595a432d-8367-4956-ab1a-6d101aba66fd | Ans. is 'a' i.e., GERD o Fundoplication is indicated in patients of GERD in following conditions-Patients with evidence of severe esophageal injury (ulcer/stricture/barrett's).No response''relapse/incomplete resolution on medical therapy.Patients with long duration of symptoms.Patients with persistant symptoms at a young age. | Surgery | Benign Gastric Disease | Indication for fundoplication?
A. GERD
B. Gastric volvulus
C. Diaphragmatic eventration
D. Bockdelec's hernia
| GERD |
956e7573-b8b6-4a2d-9b3b-05ffae1b94e0 | For solid agar - 1-2%
For Semisolid agar - 0.5%
For solid agar to inhibit proteus swarming - 6% | Microbiology | null | Concentration of agar used for solid agar to Inhibit Proteus swarming
A. 1-2%
B. 0.50%
C. 6%
D. 5%
| 6% |
e696d7ec-ac25-4427-b665-44b7db2bb499 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2 ASA GradePatient conditionASA 1Normal healthy patient (no physical or mental illness)ASA 2Mild systemic disease not limiting functional activity(mild heart disease, DM, Mild hypertension, Anemia, Old age, obesity, mild chronic bronchitis)ASA 3Severe systemic disease that limits activity but not incapaciating (Angina, Severe DM, cardiac failure)ASA 4Severe systemic disease that is life-threatening(Marked cardiac insufficiency; presistent angina; severe renal, respiratory or hepatic insufficiency)ASA 5Moribund patient who is not expected to survive without operationASA 6Brain dead patient (for organ donation). | Anaesthesia | Anaesthesia For Special Situations | For anesthesiology mild systemic disease included in ASA grade-
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
| 2 |
a7c607b9-13ce-4e1c-b6b9-d5e9d99f9b49 | Insecticides are substances used to kill insects.
They are contact poisons,stomach poisons,fumigants.
Stomach poisons are those which when ingested cause death of the insects.
Examples are paris green and sodium flouride. DDT and pyrethrum are synthetic and natural contact poisons respectively.
Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Which one of the following is a stomach poison for the larvae of insects of medical importance?
A. DDT
B. Paris green
C. Pyrethrum
D. Antilarva oil
| Paris green |
f29a16e9-b61e-4cbe-bf8d-efb5ab71dbb2 | Hypercarbia from any cause increase the release of catecholamines and cause hypeension. It cause increase in HR, myocardial contractility, high systolic blood pressure, wide pulse pressure, greater cardiac output and higher pulmonary pressures. Effects of hypercarbia are: Increased respiratory drive Anxiety, restlessness, tachycardia, hypeension and arrhythmias Peripheral vasodilatation Increases in cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure Decreased level of consciousness and coma Causes of hypercarbia: Most common cause: alveolar hyperventilation. It can be due to airway obstruction, narcotics, CNS disorders, PNS disorders, chest wall disorders. V/Q inequality Increased dead space Ref: Clinical Intensive Care and Acute Medicine By Ken Hillman page 291. Essentials of Anaesthesiology By Arun Kumar Paul page 218 | Physiology | null | Which of the following change occur secondary to hypercarbia?
A. Miosis
B. Cool extremities
C. Bradycardia
D. Hypeension
| Hypeension |
4f3eb55a-7189-45d8-8b6f-c6d8a04a6f02 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 5HT ID/IB * Sumatriptan is the first selective 5-HT1D/1B receptor agonist; activates other subtypes of 5-HT1 receptors only at very high concentrations, and does not interact with 5-HT2, 5-HT3, 5-HT4-7, a or b adrenergic, dopaminergic, cholinergic or GABA receptors. | Pharmacology | C.N.S | Sumatriptan exerts antimigraine action through which receptors?
A. 5HT1D/1B
B. 5 HT2
C. 5HT3
D. 5HT4
| 5HT1D/1B |
40f1e19d-595f-4151-8eb4-915e3940e005 | Fertility
By fertility is meant the actual bearing of children.
A woman's reproductive period is roughly from 15 to 45 years - a period of 30 years.
Measurement of fertility are :-
Birth rate
General fertility rate (GFR)
General marital fertility rate (GMFR)
Age specific fertility rate (ASFR)
Age specific marital fertility rate (ASMFR)
Total fertility rate (TFR)
Total marital fertility rate (TMFR)
Gross reproduction rate (GRR)
Net reproduction rate (NRR)
Child woman ratio
Pregnancy rate
Abortion rate
Abortion ratio
Marriage rate
Birth rate
Birth rate defined as "the number of live birth per 1000 estimated mid yr. populations in a give yr."
Birth rate = Number of live birth during the year / Estimated mid year population x 1000 | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Birth rate is -
A. Live birth/1000 mid yr. population
B. Birth/1000 mid yr population
C. Live birth/10000 mid yr. population
D. Live birth/10,000 population of reproductive age group (15-45)
| Live birth/1000 mid yr. population |
d239f1b7-2ac8-465e-93e8-ba6e45d67657 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Suction evacuation * Vacuum aspiration: Suction evacuation is the treatment of choice for hydatidiform mole, regardless of uterine size. After most of the molar tissue has been removed by aspiration, oxytocin is given. After the myometrium has contracted, thorough but gentle curettage with a large sharp curette usually is performed.* Intraoperative ultrasonographic examination may help document that the uterine cavity has been emptied.* Induction of labour is contraindicated. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Patient with 20 weeks size uterus & vesicular mole. Treatment is:
A. Induction of labour
B. Methotrexate
C. Hysterotomy
D. Suction evacuation
| Suction evacuation |
61685b2a-5a35-4a85-9bf4-c99d40e59e6a | Ans. is 'c* i.e., Orthomyxoviridae RNA VirusesPicornaviridae:Poliovirus, Coxsackievirus, Eehovirus, Enterovirus, Rhinovirus, Hepatitis A virusCalicivtridae: Norwalk virus. Hepatitis E virusTogaviridae: Rubella virus, Eastern equine encephalitis virus, Western equine encephalitis virusFlaviviridae: Yellow fever virus, Dengue virus, St. Louis encephalitis virus. West nile virus. Hepatitis C virus. Hepatitis G virusCoronaviridae: Coronavi rusesRhabdoviridae: Rabies virus. Vesicular stomatitis virusFiloviridae :: Marburg virus, Ebola virusParamyxoviridae: Parainfluenza virus, Respiratory syncytial virus, Newcastle disease virus , Mumps virus. Rubeola (measles) vimsOrthomyxoviridae: Influenza vims | Microbiology | Myxo Viruses | Influenza virus belongs to family -
A. Picomaviridae
B. Calciviridae
C. Orthomyxoviridae
D. Paramyxoviridae
| Orthomyxoviridae |
627c6677-b31d-4ba4-b33c-eb894c70f00a | Carboxylation The only known biological role of vitamin K is as a cofactor for an enzyme carboxylase that catalyzes carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on vitamin K-dependent proteins. The key vitamin K-dependent proteins include: Coagulation proteins: factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X Anticoagulation proteins: proteins C, S and Z Bone proteins: osteocalcin and matrix-Gla protein Gas6 is a vitamin K-dependent protein that is found throughout the nervous system, as well in the hea, lungs, stomach, kidneys, and cailage. These proteins have in common the requirement to be post-translationally modified by carboxylation of glutamic acid residues (forming gamma-carboxyglutamic acid) in order to become biologically active. Prothrombin, for example, has 10 glutamic acids in the amino-terminal region of the protein which are carboxylated. Without vitamin K. the carboxylation does not occur and the proteins that are synthesized are biologically inactive. Carboxylation of glutamic acid residues is critical for the calcium-binding function of those proteins. Also Know There are two naturally occurring forms of vitamin K: - phylloquinone synthesized by plants - menaquinones synthesized by intestinal bacteria Synthetic forms of vitamin K are: - menadiotze - menadiol - menadiol acetate | Biochemistry | null | Vitamin K is required for
A. Hydroxylation
B. Chelation
C. Transamination
D. Carboxylation
| Carboxylation |
6cadc5c0-a5dd-4025-bef4-984f1fb5f90f | Macular edema is the most common cause of loss of vision in NPDR. | Ophthalmology | null | Commonest cause of loss of vision in non- proliferative diabetic retinopathy is –
A. Vitreous heamorrhage
B. Macular edema
C. Detachment of retina
D. Subretinal haemorrhage
| Macular edema |
fca90256-afc1-4b0c-80a5-b4e063ef41e9 | Ahritis mutilans (A feature of psoriatic ahritis) This is a deforming erosive ahritis targeting the fingers and toes; it occurs in 5% of cases of PsA. Prominent cailage and bone destruction results in marked instability. The encasing skin appears invaginated and 'telescoped' ('main en lorgnette') and the finger can be pulled back to its original length. Ref Davidsons 23e p1033 | Medicine | Immune system | "Telescope fingers" occur in
A. Rheumatic ahritis
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Psoriatic ahritis
D. Reiter's ahritis
| Psoriatic ahritis |
51e22daf-e3c8-40ac-bb9a-1433f0f05e07 | TIBIALIS POSTERIOR:Origin: upper two-thirds of lateral pa of posterior surface of tibia below the soleal line.Posterior surface of fibula in front of medial crest Posterior surface of interosseous membrane.Popliteus: arises from lateral surface of lateral condyle of femur.origin is intracapsular.lateral meniscus of knee joint.Flexor digitorum longus: uppercut two third of medial pa of posterior surface of tibia below soleal line.Flexor hallucis longus: posterior surface of fibula and interosseous membrane.{Reference: BDC 6E pg no.106} | Anatomy | Lower limb | Which muscle originates from tibia, fibula and interosseous membrane?
A. Popliteus
B. Flexor digitorum longus
C. Flexor hellus longus
D. Tibialis posterior
| Tibialis posterior |
5455a00a-9205-4442-9ff4-193a6ea4cf9a | Boutonneuse fever (also called, fievre boutonneuse, Kenya tick typhus, Indian tick typhus, Marseilles fever, African tick-bite fever, or Astrakhan fever) is a fever as a result of a Rickettsial infection caused by the bacterium Rickettsia conorii Transmitted by the dog tick - Rhipicephalus sanguineus. | Microbiology | Systemic Bacteriology (Haemophilus, Yersinia, Spirochaetes, Ricketssia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma and Miscellaneous Bacteria) | Boutonneuse fever is caused by-
A. Rickettsia japonica
B. Rickettsia conorii
C. Rickettsia sibirica
D. Rickettsia australis
| Rickettsia conorii |
c5475290-ec6c-4d92-8eb5-3157f8459fee | - Historically, ductal carcinoma in situ (intraductal carcinoma) has been divided
into five architectural subtypes : comedocarcinoma, solid, cribriform, papillary and micropapillary.
Comedocarcinoma is characterized by solid sheets of pleomorphic cells with high grade nuclei and central necrosis
The necrotic cell membranes commonly calcify and are detected on mammography as clusters of linear and branching microcalcifications. | Unknown | null | In which of the following types of Carcinoma Breast, Comedo growth pattern in seen ?
A. Ductal carcinoma in situ
B. Medullary carcinoma
C. Lobular carcinoma in situ
D. Infiltrating lobular carcinoma
| Ductal carcinoma in situ |
d00f10ef-a045-4bfd-8007-eef651692f29 | Vander Walls' forces are too weak, to actively paicipate in formation of enzyme- substrate complex. Forces contribute in binding are:- Hydrogen bondingQ- Ionic (electrostatic) bonding- Hydrophobic interactionEnzymes function to decrease the activation energy so that reactions can occur at normal body temperature. The substrate form a covalent bond with the enzymes active site, & accelerates the reaction. | Biochemistry | null | Force not acting in an enzyme substrate complex :
A. Electrostatic
B. Covalent
C. Van der waals
D. Hydrogen
| Van der waals |
03206583-d9fc-4207-a636-3e519a807ef5 | Causes of thrombocytopenia: I. -Decreased production of platelets: 1)selective impairment of platelet production: a)drug induced : alcohol , thiazides . b) Infections : measles, HIV .Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) occurs as a complication of a wide variety of disorders. DIC is caused by the systemic activation of coagulation and results in the for- mation of thrombi throughout the microcirculation. As a conse- quence, platelets and coagulation factors are consumed and, secondarily, fibrinolysis is activated. Thus, DIC can give rise to either tissue hypoxia and microinfarcts caused by myriad microthrombi or to a bleeding disorder related to patho- logic activation of fibrinolysis and the depletion of the ele- ments required for hemostasis (hence the term consumptive coagulopathy). This entity probably causes bleeding more commonly than all of the congenital coagulation disorders combined. 2)nutritional deficiency: B12 and folate deficiency. 3) Bone marrow failure: aplastic anemia 4) Bone marrow replacement: Leukemia , disseminated cancer 5)Infective hematopoiesis:MDS II. -Decreased platelet survival 1) immunologic destruction: a)primary autoimmune:a/c & c/c immune thrombocytopenic purpura. b) secondary autoimmune:SLE, B-cell lymphoid neoplasms, Alloimmune , drug induced : (quinidine , heparin ,sulfa compounds.),infections:HIV , IMN. 2)non immunologic destruction: DIC, thrombotic microangiopathies , giant hemangiomas. III.- Sequestration: Hypersplenism IV. -Dilution :Transfusions Ref :Robbins pathologic basis of disease ; south east asia edition-9 ;pg450:table: 14-9. | Pathology | Haematology | Thrombocytopenia is caused by: -
A. Aspirin
B. Acyclovir
C. DIC
D. Henoch-schonlein purpura (HSP)
| DIC |
9c2fc540-a2e9-454a-b7c0-563157e5ebfa | J receptors are activated by pulmonary congestion, increase in the interstitial fluid volume of the alveolar wall, hyperventilation, and intravenous injection of chemicals like capsaicin. So, J receptors are not a stimulus for normal respiration Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 658 | Physiology | Nervous system | Which of the following is not a stimulus for normal/resting ventilation?
A. Stretch receptors
B. J receptors
C. PO2
D. PCO2
| J receptors |
682aaa77-f36e-40bd-bcaa-8817f7f46eea | Trachea bifurcates at the lower border of fouh thoracic veebrae. <img src=" /> BA CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOLUME 1. 6TH EDITION.page no-280 | Anatomy | Thorax | Bifurcation of trachea is at
A. Upper border of T5
B. Lower border of T4
C. Upper border of T4
D. Lower border of T5
| Lower border of T4 |
a3ecc768-36d9-4e9e-88ae-dbf03f300555 | Ans. (a) VolvulusRef: Manipal Manual of surgery, 4th ed./739* In sigmoid volvulus, the X ray abdomen erect shows hugely dilated sigmoid loop called bent inner tube sign.* Acute sigmoid volvulus presents as intestinal obstruction and starts after straining at stool. It occurs in anti-clockwise direction and after one and a half turns, the entire loop becomes gangrenous.* The percussion note on the abdomen shall be tympanitic note. | Surgery | Oesophagus | Bent inner tube sign is seen in
A. Volvulus
B. Intussusception
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Gastric antral vascular ectasia
| Volvulus |
ac16887f-e72a-40d8-bd38-3167ee70e5ba | Von Meyenburg Complexes
Close to or within the portal tract, these are small clusters of modestly dilated bile ducts embedded in a fibrous, sometimes hyalinised stroma.
Although these "bile duct microhamartomas" may communicate with the biliary tree, they generally are free of the pigmented material tree.
They presumably arise from residual embryonic bile duct remnants. Occasionally, a triangular bile duct hamartoma may lie just under Glisson's capsule.
Polycystic liver disease
There are multiple diffuse cystic lesions in the liver.
Congenital hepatic fibrosis
Portal tracts are enlarged by irregular, broad bands of collagenous tissue, forming septa that divide the liver into irregular islands.
Variable numbers of abnormally shaped bile ducts are embedded in the fibrous tissue and are in continuity with the biliary tree.
Caroli disease
The larger ducts of the intrahepatic biliary tree are segmentally dilated and contain inspissated bile. | Pathology | null | Von-Meyenburg's complexes are seen in -
A. Brain
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Spleen
| Liver |
2d48cae1-1034-49c4-ac7f-c149443edd6d | Most leg swelling is caused by oedema, the accumulation of fluid within the interstitial space. Unilateral swelling usually indicates a localised pathology in either the venous or the lymphatic system, while bilateral oedema often represents generalised fluid overload combined with the effects of gravity. However, all causes of unilateral leg swelling may present bilaterally, and generalised fluid overload may present with asymmetrical (and therefore apparently unilateral) oedema. Fluid overload may be the result of cardiac failure, pulmonary hypertension (even in the absence of right ventricular failure), renal failure, hypoalbuminaemia or drugs (calcium channel blockers, glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and others).
Approximately 60% of lean body weight is water, two-thirds of which is intracellular. Most of the remaining water is found in extracellular compartments in the form of interstitial fluid; only 5% of the body’s water is in blood plasma. As noted earlier, edema is an accumulation of interstitial fluid within tissues.
Increase in hydrostatic pressure are mainly caused by disorders that impair venous return. Local increases in intravascular pressure caused, for example, by deep venous thrombosis in the lower extremity can cause edema restricted to the distal portion of the affected leg.
Reduction of plasma albumin concentrations leads to decreased colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood and loss of fluid from the circulation.
Edema may result from lymphatic obstruction that compromises resorption of fluid from interstitial spaces.
Reference:Davidson’s Internal Medicine 23rd edition, page no.186 | Pathology | null | A male patient 56 year old complains of swelling in legs. He is a known case of hypertension and is under treatment. On general physical examination pitting oedema is seen on legs and TSH level 3mU/L. Which of the following is not a cause of this condition?
A. Increase in hydrostatic pressure
B. Decreased colloid osmotic pressure
C. Due to lymphatic obstruction
D. Myxedema
| Myxedema |
b32c10bb-3196-4fdd-89f7-7e59d61682bc | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Malformation of vein of galen o Open anterior fontanel seen in all 4 condition.o Cranial Bruits which is heard over anterior fontanel may be seen normally in children upto 4 years of age.o AV malformation of middle cerebral artery or vein of galen.o Severe anemia, raised intracranial pressure may also produce cranial bruit. | Pediatrics | Nervous System Disorders | Open anterior fontanelle, bruit present. Midline lesion in brain diagnosis -
A. Malformation of vein of galen
B. Congenital hydrocephalus
C. Down syndrome
D. Rickets.
| Malformation of vein of galen |
17100076-4f4b-4c84-b7b0-0d57f8ca70f5 | Endochondral (enchondral) ossification → long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, skull base bones.
Intramembranous ossification → Skull vault, maxilla, most of mandible, and clavicle. | Anatomy | null | Enchondral ossification is/are seen in-
A. Long bones
B. Flat bones of skull
C. Clavicle
D. Mandible
| Long bones |
213891b8-9743-4614-b7d2-bee7d7684f83 | Treatment of pertussis
DOC → Macrolides (Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin)
Alternative → Cotrimoxazole | Pediatrics | null | The antibiotic of choice of pertussis is –
A. Ampicillin
B. Gentamicin
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin
| Erythromycin |
a40cf5c4-480e-4b66-a96b-a6432e8bc6d6 | Ans. (a) HAV Ref. Harrison 19/e, p 2006, 18/e, p 2539 HAV is a nonenveloped ss RNA virus of picorna family For details see answer no 12 of chapter 27. | Microbiology | null | Hepatitis virus without envelope:
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
| HAV |
abe3b105-dac3-4b70-89d3-37c44439d767 | *Meningiomas commonly arise from the dura of sphenoid wing, i.e.sphenoid wing meningioma. Ref:Opthalmic oncology p.84. | Ophthalmology | Tumors | Most common tumor to extend from intracranial to orbit is-
A. Astrocytoma
B. Pituitary adenoma
C. Craniopharyngioma
D. Sphenoidal wing meningioma
| Sphenoidal wing meningioma |
7a038185-a481-44b3-8879-64cf38f62c5d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Amino acids Impoant chemical reactions of amino acids Following are some impoant chemical reactions. A. Reaction used to determine amino acid sequence in polypeptide chain : - Generally, amino terminal (N-terminal) of amino acid is tagged with some reagent. It is split off by hydrolysis and tagged amino acid is identified. The reaction is, then, repeated with new N-terminal of subsequent amino acid and so on. The two reactions are used for identification of amino acid sequence : ? Sanger's reaction : - Uses Sanger's reagent ( 1 -fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene) to tag amino terminal. Edman's reaction : - Uses Edman's reagent (phenylisothiocyanate) to tag amino terminal. B. Reaction used to identification of individual or group of amino acids : - These reactions are frequently used for qualitative detection and quantitative measurement of various amino acids. Ninhydrin tese : - All a-amino acids. Xanthophoretic reaction : - Aromatic amino acidse (Tyrosine, tryptophan, phenylalanine). Millan's teste (Millon-Nasse reaction) : - Tyrosinedeg (phenol group of tyrosine). Therefore millon's test is positive in tyrosinosisdeg. Aldehyde test : - Tryptophan (indole ring) Hopkins-tole reaction : - Tryptophan (indole ring) Sakaguch's reaction : - Arginine (guanidinium group of arginine). Sulphur test : - Cysteine (sulphydryl group) Nitroprusside test : - Cysteine (sulphydryl group) Pauly's test : - Histidine (imidazole group) Biuret reaction : - Peptide bond Diazo reaction Q (Pauli's) : - Histidine or tyrosine. | Biochemistry | null | Ninhydrin test is used for ?
A. Bile salts
B. Amino acids
C. Nucleic acid
D. Lipids
| Amino acids |
e09ebb34-ac1f-4bbe-8502-120b05141534 | Pancreatic juice contains lipase, colipase, phospholipase A & B Colipase: Facilitates the action of lipase Prevents inactivation of lipase by bile salts SALIVA: 2 types of secretion 1. Serous: contains ptyalin (a amylase ) - digest carbs 2. Mucus: contains mucin - for lubrication & protection STOMACH: Mucus neck cells - secrete mucus Peptic/chief cells - Pepsinogen Parietal / oxyntic - HCL, intrinsic factor Pyloric glands - gastrin PANCREATIC JUICE: For protein : trypsin , chymotrypsin , carboxypolypeptidase Carbohydrates : pancreatic amylase Fat: pancreatic lipase, cholesterol esterase, phospholipase BILE: composition: Liver Bile Gallbladder Bile Water 97.5 g/dl 92 g/dl Bile salts 1.1 g/dl 6 g/dl Bilirubin 0.04 g/dl 0.3 g/dl Cholesterol 0.1 g/dl 0.3 to 0.9 g/dl Fatty acids 0.12 g/dl 0.3 to 1.2 g/dl Lecithin 0.04 g/dl 0.3 g/dl Na+ 145.04 mEq/L 130 mEq/L K+ 5 mEq/L 12 mEq/L Ca++ 5 mEq/L 23 mEq/L CI- 100 mEq/L 25 mEq/L HCO3- 28 mEq/L 10 mEq/L | Physiology | FMGE 2017 | Colipase is an enzyme found in--------?
A. Saliva
B. Bile
C. Pancreatic juice
D. Succus entericus
| Pancreatic juice |
691dc727-fed0-4fd8-8a42-c8b77777d1b1 | New drug for osteoporosis: 1. Teriparatide: PTH with 1-34 amino acid, stimulates osteoblast.2. Strontium ranelate: dual action: stimulate osteoblast and inhibit osteoclast.3. Denosumab: monoclonal antibody against rank ligand. | Pharmacology | Endocrine | The drug X is used in osteoporosis. Its mechanism of action is shown in the Figure below. X is likely to
A. Teriparatide
B. Alendronate
C. Denosumab
D. Estrogen
| Denosumab |
12f45a95-8083-4d9a-9029-de7d4bf1848c | Pharmacodynamics- the branch of pharmacology concerned with the effects of drugs and the mechanism of their action. Ref-KDT 7/e p1 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Pharmacodynamics includes
A. Drug Elimination
B. Drug excretion
C. Drug Absorption
D. Mechanism of action
| Mechanism of action |
3d0e0040-8106-4289-8595-6762eb7965ca | (C) C5 to T1 # Preganglionic lesions have a poor prognosis as these do not recover and are surgically irreparable.> Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction> Postganglionic lesions: Disruption proximal to the dorsal root ganglion Avulsion of nerve root from the spinal cord Cannot Recover Surgically irreparable Histamine test is positive Pseudomeningoceles on CT myelography or MRI due to root avulsion may be seen (positive result is unreliable during first few days). Sensory conduction from anaesthetic dermatome on nerve conduction studies suggests a preganglionic lesion (i.e. nerve distal to ganglion is not interrupted)> Erb's palsy: Upper obstetric palsy C5-C6 roots are affected Abductors and external rotators of the shoulder are paralysed Arm is held to the side (adducted), internally rotated and pronated (Waiter's tip deformity)> Klumpke's palsy: Lower obstetric palsy C8-T1 roots are affected (Involvement of T1 root may cause a homer's syndrome due to sympathetic nerve disturbance) This is a complete plexus lesion and more severe. Arm is frail and pale. Generalized wasting of all intrinsic muscles and a claw hand deformity is seen. Unilateral (ipsilateral) Horner's syndrome is often associated.> Histamine test: Intradermal injection of histamine usually causes a triple response in the surrounding skin. Central capillary dilatation Wheel Surrounding flare> If the flare reaction persists in an anaesthetic area of skin, the lesion must be proximal to the posterior root ganglion i.e. it is probably a root avulsion.> Postganglionic lesions have better prognosis than preganglionic lesions and histamine test is useful in making the distinction. | Orthopaedics | Miscellaneous | In an RTA, a patient sustained soft tissue and Brachial plexus injuries with nerve affected in weakness of extensors of entire arm, forearm, hand with shoulder flexion, and extension. This is suggestive of involvement of
A. Middle and lower cord
B. C5,6,7
C. C5 to T1
D. Posterior trunk
| C5 to T1 |
cf286767-0d81-4316-bb83-6e783c2f5b12 | Lymphatics from the glans drain into the deep inguinal nodes also called gland of Cloquet. Lymphatics from the rest of the penis drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes.Ref: Vishram Singh; Volume II; 2nd edition; Page no: 464 | Anatomy | Abdomen and pelvis | Lymph from glans penis drain into
A. External iliac lymph nodes
B. Internal iliac lymph nodes
C. Deep inguinal lymph nodes
D. Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
| Deep inguinal lymph nodes |
cb4b2fd4-8ca5-48d3-8f68-4abdb9655bf9 | Ans. D. Termination of pregnancyPatient presents with the characteristics of Severe Hypertension indicating delivery.Induction of labor is the best suited management of choice.Magnesium Sulfate prophylaxis should be provided to prevent the onset of seizures.Severe pre-eclampsia can be characterized as:* Pulmonary edema* BP >160/110* Fetal growth restriction* >-3+ proteinuria* Complaints of convulsion, headache, upper abdominal pain, oliguria and visual disturbances* Increased levels of serum creatinine, serum transaminase or presence of thrombocytopenia | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy | A pregnant lady at 32 weeks' gestation period presents with a BP of 160/110 mm Hg, Proteinuria with Retinal Hemorrhage What is the Definitive Management of choice in this case?
A. Ritodrine
B. Nifedipine
C. Magnesium sulphates
D. Termination of pregnancy
| Termination of pregnancy |
43504d8a-760b-4c4d-91b9-cfa32188d7d5 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., LSD o Clinically significant withdrawal syndrome (requires treatment)Alcohol, opioids, amphetamines, Barbiturates, BZDs, Nicotine.o No or minimal clinically significant withdrawal syndrome (requires no treatment) :-LSD (nil). Cannabis (minimal). | Pharmacology | C.N.S | No treatment of withdrawal is req uired in -
A. LSD
B. Opium
C. Alcohol
D. Amphetamine
| LSD |
5a184f05-c50b-41a9-b44b-5f86660c3716 | The government of india has established a national institute of Ayurveda in Jaipur and a national institute of homeopathy in Kolkata. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 849. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | National institute of Homeopathy is located in:
A. Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Chennai
D. Mumbai
| Kolkata |
dcb97307-a7cc-4397-b92b-4afad19f5d04 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chromosomal abnormalitieso Karyotyping is the study of chromosomes and is used in cytogenetics to study the chromosomal abnormalities. o After arresting the cells in metaphase the chromosomes are examined to see for:(i) Numbers --> to detect abnormalities in chromosome numbers such as aneuploidy (trisomy, tetrasomy), polyploidy.(ii) Structure ---> to detect structural chromosomal anomalies such as translocations, deletions, inversions. | Pathology | null | Karyotyping is useful in diagnosis of -
A. Autosomal recessive disorders
B. X-linked recessive disorders
C. Chromosomal abnormalities
D. Biochemical abnormalities
| Chromosomal abnormalities |
27021304-6316-4b34-903a-79819c835f76 | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Chlamydia trachomatis Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by chlamydia trachomatis (serotypes D- K).Chlamydial inclusion conjunctivitis is generally spread by sexual transmission from the genital reservoir of infection. The primary source of infection is a benign subclinical venereal disease producing a mild urethritis in the male and cervicitis in the female.The modes of transmission are orogenital activities and hand to eye spread of infective genital secretions. A common mode of transmission is through the water in swimming pools; thus the disease may occur in local epidemics (swimming pool conjunctivitis). It is also transmitted from the mother to the newborn.Treatment- azithromycin or doxycycline | Ophthalmology | Inflammations of Conjunctiva - Infective | Inclusion conjunctivitis is caused by:
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Chlamydia psittaci
C. Herpes
D. Gonorrhoea
| Chlamydia trachomatis |
18c9fafd-6e63-4afd-b795-82895464ffb7 | Ans. (b) Granulomatous reaction(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 208-211; 8th/pg 205-208; Illustrated Dictionary of Immunology by M.P.Arora - Page 501)Granulomatous reaction is an example of type IV hypersensitivitySerum sickness & Arthus reactions are examples of type III hypersensitivityShwartzman reaction is a non-immunologic phenomenon in which endotoxin (lipopolysaccharide) induces local & systemic reactions; It can either be local or systemic type; | Pathology | Immunity | Example of Type IV hypersensitivity is -
A. Serum sickness
B. Granulomatous reaction
C. Shwartzman reaction
D. Arthus reaction
| Granulomatous reaction |
ff2276eb-fe5a-42f9-8102-32bb250fab59 | C- MYC amplification may be responsible for Ca breast, Ca colon, Ca stomach and lung. L - MYC amplification is associated with Ca lung and bladder. N- MYC amplification is associated with neuroblastoma and Ca lung. Ref: Harrison, 17th Edition, Page 496 | Pathology | null | Which of the following changes in C-MYC oncogene may be associated with colonic malignancy?
A. Point mutation
B. Amplification
C. Rearrangement
D. Deletion
| Amplification |
6d291b0d-377b-4b1e-814d-c02c07083358 | Laryngoscopy (larynx + scopy) is a medical procedure that is used to obtain a view of the vocal folds and the glottis. Following are the types of the available laryngoscopes :- i) Straight blade: Miller ii) Curved blade: Macintosh | ENT | null | Name of the curved laryngoscope ?
A. Miller
B. Macintosh
C. Muller
D. Merkel
| Macintosh |
92ecdf25-6ae8-495b-877b-3da11122ed8e | Factor VIII is also called as anti hemophilic factor Its half life is 8-12 hrs Ref: Harrison's 19th edition Pgno :138 | Anatomy | General anatomy | Half life of factor 8
A. 4 hrs
B. 8 hrs
C. 24 hrs
D. 30 hrs
| 8 hrs |
c5c85fb3-b838-4e07-b572-0fd85f5a0ebc | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Streptococcal pneumonia | Pediatrics | null | Most common cause of lower respiratory tract infection in 3 year old child is
A. Klebsella
B. H-influenza
C. Streptococcal pneumonia
D. Staphe aureus
| Streptococcal pneumonia |
84048add-bdc5-4728-b544-f841dcc04818 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., BronchoscopeEndoscopes are sterilized by chemical methods Methods for sterilization of endoscopes Rigid endoscope - Autoclave Flexible - Glutaraldehyde Peracetic acidNowadays musculoskeletal tissue allografts are being increasingly used for knee reconstructive procedures.The soft tissue allografts commonly being used are bone-patellar tendon-bone, Achilles tendon, fascia lata, anterior and posterior tibial tendon.Infections with allografts is a serious concern.Therefore these allografts need proper sterilization and disinfection.The proper sterilization procedure for these allografts is Gamma/Electron beam irradiation. | Microbiology | General | Irradiation can be used to sterilize A/E -
A. Bone graft
B. Suture
C. Artificial tissue graft
D. Bronchoscope
| Bronchoscope |
48397be3-6bec-4cd5-9129-1ff7a259dcfc | Ans. is'a'i.e., 0 - 8 mmHgNormal intra-abdominal pressure is 0-6 mmHg. | Physiology | null | Normal intraabdominal pressure is ?
A. 0 - 8mmHg
B. 10 - 15mmHg
C. 15 - 20mmHg
D. 20 - 26mmHg
| 0 - 8mmHg |
3e454fc7-1ed5-4de8-bb90-e980d5a63f1b | Motor neuron disease is at anterior horn cell, pyramidal neurons and not the nerves. Thus the conduction velocity in the nerves is normal. Leprosy - Affects nerves and both sensory nerve conduction /motor nerve conduction studies may demonstrate reduced amplitude in affected nerves but occasionally may reveal demyelinating features. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (CMT) -MC hereditary neuropathy and has reduced motor nerve conduction velocity A.I.D.P -Segmental demyelination in the spinal cord and peripheral nerves. Early features-prolonged F-wave latencies Prolonged distal latencies Reduced amplitudes of compound muscle action potentials, d/t involvements of nerve roots and distal motor nerve terminals | Medicine | Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis and other motor neuron diseases | Conduction velocity of nerves is NOT affected by which of the following?
A. Leprosy
B. Motor neuron disease
C. Hereditary neuropathy
D. A.I.D.P
| Motor neuron disease |
36672a93-fda0-4188-9825-b7a86ebd9590 | Arterioles regulate the distribution of blood flow by altering their diameter to increase or decrease the peripheral resistance as required. | Physiology | null | Arteriole is
A. Conducting vessel
B. Resistance vessel
C. Exchange vessels
D. Capacitance vessel
| Resistance vessel |
30510bbb-818d-4e5d-b2b3-ad3e7ef9a418 | Granulocytic Sarcoma Also known as Choloroma or myeloblastoma. It is a hematopoietic stem cell tumour. It is an extramedullary tumor of immature granulocytic series cells. It is a localised tumour forming a mass in the skin of orbital & periorbital tissue due to infiltration of tissues by leukemic cells. It is most commonly associated with AML M2 Arbiskov cells are monocytes which can be seen in choloroma. | Pathology | Acute Myelogenous Leukemia | In which of the following Arbiskov cells are seen ?
A. Myelodysplastic syndrome
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Granulocytic sarcoma
D. Leukemia cutis
| Granulocytic sarcoma |
04e8a383-bb55-4dc4-83d7-165c63f84848 | (c) Hypertension(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed. 680)The most common cause of epistaxis in an elderly person is hypertension.Foreign body is not seen at this age.Bleeding disorder will present with bleeding from multiple sites.Nasopharyngeal carcinoma presents with upper deep cervical lymph node. Nasal obstruction and blood tinged nasal discharge can occur later on. | ENT | Epistaxis | Epistaxis in elderly person is most commonly due to:
A. Foreign body
B. Bleeding disorder
C. Hypertension
D. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
| Hypertension |
2eb2df01-2c9a-48cd-bd36-0746be39a901 | Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and Western blotting are used to initially detect HIV-specific antibodies but these tests are not used for diagnosis in patients younger than 18 months of age. This is because of the persistence of the maternal HIV antibody in infants younger than 18 months.
Infants younger than 18 months require virologic assays that directly detect HIV in order to diagnose HIV infection. | Pediatrics | null | In an infant born to a HIV infected mother, at what age of child the ELISA test can reliably diagnose HIV infection
A. 18 months
B. 9 months
C. 12 months
D. 3 months
| 18 months |
02cf570c-1c2b-414b-a650-add41404d88f | - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 350 mcg retinol. - daily intake of vitamin A recommended by ICMR for infants is 2800 mcg beta carotene. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:616 <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and health | Vitamin A requirement in infant is -
A. 350 mg
B. 600 mg
C. 800 mg
D. 1000 mg
| 350 mg |
4294eaef-3fab-4069-9b86-293f4cac94fa | Ans. is 'a' i.e., < 10 years * Sarcoma botryoides or botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma is a subtype of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, that can be observed in the walls of hollow, mucosa lined structures such as the nasopharynx, common bile duct, urinary bladder of infants and young children or the vagina in females, typically younger than age 8. The name comes from the gross appearance of "grape bunches" (botryoid in Greek). | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | Sarcoma botryoides of vagina commonly occurs in which age group-
A. <10 years
B. 20-30 years
C. 40-50 years
D. 50-60 years
| <10 years |
750794f1-4afe-46e4-ba92-e0e11bf94b43 | Option A= High B.P | Aoic dissection | Leads to Retrograde spread | develop Aoic Root dilation | Leads to develop Aoic Regurgitation- Diastolic Murmur Option B= STEMI with Papillary muscle dysfunction have systolic murmur. Option C= Myocarditis with functional regurgitation- Systolic murmur Option D= Flash Pulmonary edema related to Renal aery stenosis/Reno vascular hypeension | Medicine | CVS | A 70-year-old man with hypeension wakes up with severe chest pain and diaphoresis. On examination he has bounding pulses with wide pulse pressure. A diastolic murmur is heard along the right sternal border. Which of the following is the possible etiology?
A. Aoic dissection
B. STEMI with papillary muscle dysfunction
C. Myocarditis with functional regurgitation
D. Flash pulmonary edema
| Aoic dissection |
5d356a71-c7a1-4f0b-ad57-bd55ac2d5c1b | FDA approved indications for deep brain stimulation are: a. Parkinson's disease and essential tremors b. Dystonia c. Obsessive compulsive disorder | Psychiatry | Mood Disorders | Which of the following indications of deep brain stimulation is not FDA approved?
A. OCD
B. Major depression
C. Parkinsonism
D. Dystonia
| Major depression |
bafd2068-e156-4a6f-a93a-94429906c21e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., CT-scan o Has been explained in previous session | Unknown | null | Most sensitive investigation to see intracranial bleed in a patient with head injury -
A. MRI
B. X-ray
C. CT-scan
D. Ultrasound
| CT-scan |
1879669a-1e58-429d-922f-d523d80a9279 | Polysaccharide vaccines are: Typhim-Vi Pneumococcal vaccine Meningococcal vaccine Hib. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Concepts of Immunity, Classification of Vaccines | Which one of following is Polysaccharide vaccine:-
A. Peussis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Meningococcal
D. Yellow fever
| Meningococcal |
0a2b4c53-243f-4966-9c06-b9201364a8a8 | Among the vaccines, polio is the most sensitive to heat, requiring storage at minus 20 degree Celsius. Vaccines which must be stored in the vaccine compaments are polio and measles. The cold chain is a system of storage and transpo of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to the actual vaccination site (refer pgno:109 park 23 rd edition) | Social & Preventive Medicine | Epidemiology | Vaccine which requires the most stringent conditions for storage
A. DPT
B. OPV
C. BCG
D. TT
| OPV |
80e65ded-43bd-44a4-b0ed-60988a0906bb | Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) are found in nearly all individuals with active SLE. Antibodies to native double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) are relatively specific for the diagnosis of SLE. Anti-SSA or anti-SSB antibodies are seen in Sjogren's syndrome. Topoisomerase I antibodies (also known as Scl-70), Anticentromere antibodies, Fibrillarin antibodies and antibodies to ribonucleoprotein (RNP) are present in scleroderma. Anti-U1-RNP antibodies, and antibodies against U1-70 kd small nuclear ribonucleoprotein (snRNP) are characteristic of mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD). | Medicine | null | Which among the following condition is positive for double stranded DNA antibody?
A. SLE
B. Sjogren's syndrome
C. Scleroderma
D. Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder
| SLE |
d653240c-9ab4-412a-80a6-3a4643993d78 | Ans. b. CeftriaxoneRef: Goodman Gilman 13th E/PI 035Ceftriaxone is the drug of choice for treatment of meningitis caused by H. influenza, N. meningitidis (meningococcal meningitis) and S. pneumoniae.Ampicillin is the drug of choice for treatment of meningitis caused by L. monocytogenes.Meningitis seen in post neurosurgery or penetrating head trauma patients caused by staphylococcus, Propionibacterium, pseudomonas or acinetobacter is treated by meropenem+vancomycin.Note: For prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis (contacts or mass chemoprophylaxis) ciprofloxacin is the drug of choice. Ceftriaxone though us the best drug for prophylaxis is not the drug of choice as it is a parenteral drug. | Pharmacology | Anti Microbial | The drug of choice for treatment of meningococcal meningitis is
A. Piperacillin
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Ampicillin
D. Meropenem
| Ceftriaxone |
35971f4c-67b5-4560-9f73-286e844bdf01 | Cerium nitrate boosts cell - mediated immunity and forms sterile eschar in burns. | Surgery | null | Which of the following topical agent boosts cell - mediated immunity in burns
A. Mafenide acelate
B. Silver nitrate
C. Cerium nitrate
D. Povidone iodine
| Cerium nitrate |
8d286edf-0818-4531-88ab-8afaa6569623 | The features are consistent with the diagnosis of Pl vivax .yellow brown pigment-vivax Dark brown pigment-falciparum Ref: D.R. Arora. Medical parasitology 4th ed pg. 77 | Microbiology | parasitology | A 40yr old patient developed high fever of sudden onset .Peripheral blood film showed malaria parasite pigment was yellowish brown and schizonts were 9-10microns and contained 20 merozoites each
A. Pl vivax
B. Pl falciparum
C. Pl malariae
D. Pl ovale
| Pl vivax |
0c069ff7-c4c1-4c85-9d9b-1dfbc3ab1674 | Ans. is d, i.e. Leydig cellsBlood testis barrier is formed by Sertoli cells which keeps the growing germ cells (its all stages) separated from blood. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Endometriosis and Infertility | The cells which lie outside blood testis barrier:
A. Sertoli cells
B. Spermatocyte
C. Spermatid
D. Leydig cells
| Leydig cells |
8423e689-1634-4c4c-8c1e-65a51791921b | Order of anastomosis in lung transplant pulmonary vein, bronchus, pulmonary aery. LUNG TRANSPLANTATION PROCEDURE SLT: Performed through posterolateral thoracotomyQ image on left side DLT: Performed through bilateral thoracotomy or median sternotomyQ Sequence of anastomoses in lung transplantation (PV By BA PA): Pulmonary Vein - Bronchial Anastomosis - Pulmonary AeryQ COMPLICATIONS OF LUNG TRANSPLANTATION Dehiscence of airway anastomosisQ Late airway stenosis at bronchial anastomosis due to ischemia: Treated by dilatationQ | Surgery | Transplantation | Order of anastomosis in lung transplant:
A. Pulmonary aery, pulmonary vein, bronchus
B. Pulmonary vein, bronchus, pulmonary aery
C. Pulmonary vein, pulmonary aery, bronchus
D. Pulmonary aery, bronchus, pulmonary vein
| Pulmonary vein, bronchus, pulmonary aery |
fa052bdd-545f-468b-bcb3-e7e2177c4b7d | Hydrops fetalis - Excessive destruction of the fetal red cells leads to severe anemia, tissue anoxemia and metabolic acidosis It is accumulation of fluid in the body of the fetus in two out of three compaments: ascites, pleural effusion, pericardial effusion Most common cause of immune hydrops fetalis - Rh incompatibility Others causes of hydrops fetalis Cardio vascular cause - congenital hea block ( Most common) Chromosomal cause - turner syndrome (45 XO ), triploidy , trisomies 21,18 and 13 Hematological - a 4 - thalassemia (HB bas) , fetomaternal hemorrhage Infections - Parvovirus B19(mc) , syphilis , cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis Rubella, HSV | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | FMGE 2018 | Feature of hydrops fetalis in a fetus can be due to:
A. Ebstein barr virus
B. Human papilloma virus
C. Parvovirus B19
D. Influenza Virus
| Parvovirus B19 |
5d685a8f-e95e-483e-9468-edfe7b76934c | (A) PCOD# Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS):> it was earlier known as Stein Leventhal syndrome. 1% female population suffers from PCOS, and the patients are mostly 15-25 years age.> PCOS includes chronic non-ovulation and hyperandrogenemia associated with normal or raised oestrogen (E2), raised, LH & low FSH/LH ratio.> In PCOS-LH>FSH: Obesity and hirsuitism are important features PCOS includes chronic non- ovulation and hyper androgenemia. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Miscellaneous (Gynae) | The most common ovarian cause of increased androgenic state is:
A. PCOD
B. Premature adrenarche
C. Androgen secreting tumor
D. Choriocarcinoma
| PCOD |
3a941dcf-241d-407d-8d47-e9192b2b2718 | The uptake of exogenous cholesterol by cells results in a marked suppression of endogenous cholesterol synthesis. Low-density human lipoprotein not only contains the greatest ratio of bound cholesterol to protein but also has the greatest potency in suppressing endogenous cholesterogenesis. normally suppress cholesterol synthesis by binding to a specific membrane receptor that mediates inhibition of hydroxymethylglutaryl (HMG) coenzyme A reductase. In familial hypercholesterolemia the LDL receptor is dysfunctional, with the result that cholesterol synthesis is less responsive to plasma cholesterol levels. Suppression of HMG CoA reductase is attained using inhibitors (statins) that mimic the structure of mevalonic acid, the natural feedback inhibitor of the enzyme. Note: The LDL (apoB-100, E) receptor is defective in familial hypercholesterolemia, a genetic condition in which blood LDL cholesterol levels are increased, causing premature atherosclerosis. Ref: Botham K.M., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 25. Lipid Transpo & Storage. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | Biochemistry | null | What is the major source of extracellular cholesterol for human tissues?
A. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)
B. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)
C. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)
D. Albumin
| Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) |
1d83a082-3511-4e2c-990c-1d066a7cc378 | syndesmosis is a fibrous joint between two bones and linked by ligaments and a strong membrane. The distal tibiofibular syndesmosis is asyndesmotic joint. Ref: Maheshwari 6e pg 159,162,163. | Orthopaedics | All India exam | Inferior tibiofibular joint is which type of joint
A. Gomphosis
B. Condylar
C. Syndesmosis
D. Synchondrosis
| Syndesmosis |
b842efa3-fae6-40c2-b473-c436ff68e227 | Ans. (b) Doxorubicin(Ref: Bailey 26/e p815, 25/e p844; Schwartz 10/e p550-551, 9/e p263)* In CAF regimen- Adriamycin (Anthracylcines- Doxorubicin or Epirubicin) is used* Anthracyclines have cardio toxicity | Surgery | Breast | Which is used in CA Breast?
A. Daunorubicin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Cisplatin
D. Actinomycin D
| Doxorubicin |
f8bd7ba3-6393-42ff-886e-617391a8f9d2 | The hard palate contains keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, has a submucosa, and contains minor salivary gland. The bony structure of the hard palate is covered by a firmly attached mucosa in the central pa. In the lateral pas, the hard palate also has a submucosal layer containing blood vessels. There are minor mucous type salivary glands in the submucosa in the posterior pa of the hard palate. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 510 | Anatomy | All India exam | The hard palate contains
A. Keratinized epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands
B. Keratinised epithelium, absent submucosa, no salivary glands
C. Non-keratinised epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands
D. Non-keratinised epithelium, absent submucosa, minor salivary glands
| Keratinized epithelium, submucosa, minor salivary glands |
07dd0e57-d225-476b-9604-015f4af82c3d | Answer is D (Asymptomatic hypercalcemia) In view of the above facts from Harrison the best option to consider a 'subtle presentation' should probably be `asymptomatic hypercalcemia' | Medicine | null | Subtle presentation of hyperparathyroidism is:
A. Psychiatric manifestation
B. Neprocalcinosis
C. Abdominal pain
D. Asymptomatic hypercalcemia
| Asymptomatic hypercalcemia |
e0b2cf62-719e-4fbf-a498-06fddb109424 | Yawning bullet is irregular pattern, thus producing key hole entry wound in some cases. | Forensic Medicine | null | Which bullet may produce key hole entry wound?
A. Tracer bullet
B. Tandem bullet
C. Dum-Dum bullet
D. Yawning bullet
| Yawning bullet |
3d7b4a32-c889-427e-abe9-c9f6fa3ea115 | Rosilglitazone are selective agonists for the nuclear peroxisome proliferator activated receptor,which enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes Metformin and glitazones- antihyperglycemic agents- no hypoglycemia but reduce excess plasma glucose levels REF: K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 270) | Pharmacology | Endocrinology | Oral hypoglycemic drug that is less likely to cause hypoglycemia is:
A. Repaglinide
B. Gliclazide
C. Rosiglitazone
D. Glimipiride
| Rosiglitazone |
a548535f-9998-402b-92f7-dd94627040e6 | Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is treated with radical excision of the head of the pancreas along with the duodenum. Continuity of the biliary and GI tract is established by performing hepaticojejunostomy, pancreaticojejunostomy, and gastrojejunostomy (Figure below). The 5-year survival rate is higher for periampullary carcinoma (30%) than that for pancreatic head lesions (10%). Most centers do not give irradiation routinely before or after surgery, because pancreatic cancers do not respond well to radiotherapy. Endoscopically placed stents alone are used only in palliative circumstances in patients with limited life expectancy.Pancreaticoduodenectomy (Whipple procedure). A: Preoperative anatomic relationships showing a tumor in the head of the pancreas. B: Postoperative reconstruction showing pancreatic, biliary, and gastric anastomoses. A cholecystectomy and bilateral truncal vagotomy are also part of the procedure. In many cases, the distal stomach and pylorus can be preserved, and vagotomy is then unnecessary | Surgery | Pancreas | A 66-year-old man with obstructive jaundice is found on ERCP to have periampullary carcinoma. He is otherwise in excellent physical shape and there is no evidence of metastasis. What is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Radical excision (Whipple procedure) where possible
B. Local excision and radiotherapy
C. External radiotherapy
D. Internal radiation seeds via catheter
| Radical excision (Whipple procedure) where possible |
6da8add8-d101-4ad3-bce5-ade8ac3c4d6a | There are lots of controversies regarding the reflux laryngitis secondary to reflux gastrointestinal disease. But now some studies document that there is a clear relation between the two.
Reflux laryngitis may have the following sequlae:
– Bronchospasm
– Chemical pneumonitis
– Refractory subglottic stenosis
– Refractory contact ulcer
– Peptic laryngeal granuloma
– Acid laryngitis (Heart burn, burning pharyngeal discomfort, nocturnal chocking due to interarytenoid pachydermia)
– Laryngeal Carcinoma (According to recent reports laryngeal reflux is the cause of laryngeal carcinoma in patients who are life time non-smokers).
Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Here classical GERD symptoms are absent. Patients have more of daytime/upright reflux without the nocturnal/supine reflux of GERD. In laryngopharyngeal reflux esophageal motility and lower esophageal sphincter is normal, while upper esophageal sphincter is abnormal. The traditional diagnostic tests for GERD are not useful in LPR.
Symptom Chronic or Intermittent dysphonia, vocal strain, foreign body sensation, excessive throat mucus, Postnasal discharge and cough. Laryngeal findings: Interarytenoid bunching, Posterior laryngitis and subglottic edema (Pseudosulcus)
Sequelae of Laryngopharyngeal Reflux
Subglottic stenosis
Carcinoma larynx
Contact ulcer/granuloma
Cricoarytenoid joint fixity
Vocal nodule/polyp
Sudden infant deaths
Laryngomalacia (Association)
Treatment is in similar lines as GERD, but we need to give proton pump inhibitors at a higher dose and for a longer duration (at least 6–8 months). | ENT | null | Reflux laryngitis produces -a) Sub- glottic stenosis b) Ca larynxc) Cord fixationd) Acute supra- glottitise) Laryngitis
A. abe
B. bcd
C. cde
D. acd
| abe |
28c69602-3c54-4503-93dc-74d54517725d | During development, the kidneys typically "ascend" from a position in the pelvis to a position high on the posterior abdominal wall. Although the kidneys are bilateral structures, occasionally the inferior poles of the two kidneys fuse. When this happens, the "ascent" of the fused kidneys is arrested by the first midline structure they encounter, the inferior mesenteric artery. The incidence of horseshoe kidney is about 0.25% of the population. | Anatomy | Abdomen & Pelvis | Fusion of the caudal portions of the kidneys during embryonic development is most likely to result in which of the following congenital conditions?
A. Bicornuate uterus
B. Cryptorchidism
C. Horseshoe kidney
D. Hypospadias
| Horseshoe kidney |
76ddc44c-b631-4394-9443-7d05acccba7e | Diseases caused by mutations in mitochondrial genes are rare. Because mitochondrial DNA encodes enzymes involved in oxidative phosphorylation, diseases caused by mutations in such genes affect organs most dependent on oxidative phosphorylation (skeletal muscle, hea, brain). Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is the prototypical disorder in this group. This neurodegenerative disease manifests itself as progressive bilateral loss of central vision that leads in due course to blindness. Prader-Willi and Angelman Syndromes- Diseases Caused by Alterations of Imprinted Regions (Robbins Basic Pathology, 9 th edition. page : 243) | Pathology | General pathology | Mitochondrial chromosomal abnormaity leads to
A. Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy
B. Angelman syndrome
C. Prader villi syndrome
D. Myotonic dystrophy
| Lebers hereditary optic neuropathy |
e966ba8d-8106-48b9-8427-1e2cdcc9c86f | Oligodendroglioma is associated with calcification. BT associated with calcification (COM):CraniopharyngiomaQ (most) > ODGQ (90%) > MeningiomaQ (20-25%) | Surgery | CNS Tumors | The CNS tumor present with calcification:
A. Oligodendroglioma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Pheochromocytoma
| Oligodendroglioma |
22a01327-5bbe-4144-95ef-e02cfd0db63f | The most impoant reason to classify the antipsychotics in typical and atypical agents is the occurrence of extrapyramidal symptoms. Typical antipsychotics have significant extrapyramidal symptoms such as parkinsonism, acute muscle dystonia and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects are negligible or minimal with atypical agents like clozapine, olanzapine and risperidone. | Psychiatry | Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders | The major difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics is that
A. The latter cause minimal or no increase in prolactin
B. The former cause tardive dyskinesia
C. The former are available as parenteral preparations
D. The latter cause substantial sedation
| The former cause tardive dyskinesia |
8f3f97c6-c0ff-4fe8-8f0a-6adedd15cf8d | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Neuroblastoma o Neuroblastoma can present as paraneoplastic syndrome of autoimune origin manifesting as ataxia or oposmyoclonus (Dancing eyes and dancing feat). o In such cases primary tumor is in the chest or abdomen and the brain is negative for tumor. o Some tumor produce catecholamines that can cause sweating and HTN and some release vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) causing secretary diarrhea. | Pediatrics | null | Opsomyoclonus is encountered as C/F of-
A. Meningioma
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Neurofibromatosis
D. Excision
| Neuroblastoma |
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