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44634f4a-e203-402e-9a56-aec9702a1423 | (A) Sarcoidosis # OCULAR MANIFESTATIONS OF SARCOIDOSIS:> Anterior segment: Conjunctival involvement has been reported in patients with ocular sarcoidosis.> Sarcoidosis granulomas are solitary, yellow "millet-seed" nodules.> Anterior uveitis occurs in 22%- 70% of patients with ocular sarcoidosis, and is usually granulomatous & chronic.> Iris nodules have been reported in up to 12.5% of patients with sarcoidosis associated uveitis.> Exacerbations of granulomatous uveitis are often associated with an appearance of fresh iris or fundus nodules.> Posterior synechiae, cataract and glaucoma are common complications.> Corneal band keratopathy develops in a few patients and is usually associated with hypercalcemia.> Posterior segment: The most common manifestations at the posterior segment are vitritis, intermediate uveitis, panuveitis, posterior uveitis, retinal vasculitis & optic nerve involvement. Other manifestations include choroidal nodules & exudative retinal detachment.> Overall, patients with chronic posterior uveitis and panuveitis have significantly more complications than do patients with anterior uveitis.> "Candle wax drippings" and "punched-out" lesions can be seen in patients with uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis. | Ophthalmology | Miscellaneous | "Candle-wax spots" in the retina are present in
A. Sarcoidosis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Syphilis
D. Tuberculosis
| Sarcoidosis |
2fa36968-f396-4677-a256-c353757b82b8 | The Ty21a vaccine is licensed for use in individuals > 5 years. A three dose regimen is recommended. Vaccine is administered on alternate days: 0n days 1, 3 and 5. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 215. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | The number of doses recommended for oral Ty21a typhoid vaccine is:
A. 14
B. 5
C. 3
D. 1
| 3 |
9587b40f-5950-423e-aaa2-7a05f813f832 | Ethosuximide and valproate are the drugs of choice for absence seizures and are more effective than lamotrigineReference: Katzung Pharmacology; 12th edition; Page no: 418 | Pharmacology | Central Nervous system | The drug used in petit mal seizures and has a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is
A. Lamotrigine
B. Ethosuximide
C. Phenytoin
D. Primidone
| Ethosuximide |
037720db-3d5f-4488-be9b-b12a0cc81c2d | Answer is C (PET Scan) : PET scan has- not been mentioned as a test to investigate syncope in Harrisons text. It is the single best answer of exclusion. Electrophysiological tests and 24 hour ECG Holter monitoring are indicated in patients where history suggests a cardiac disease. Upright tilt table testing is indicated for suspected neurogenic / vasodepressor syncope in patients with normal history / examination. Invasive Cardiac Electrophysiologic testing : provides diagnostic and prognostic information regarding Sinus Node function, AV conduction and Supraventricular and Ventricular arrhythmia. Holter monitor : provides 24 - 48 hours monitoring of ECG rhythm on an outpatient basis and is indicated for detection of conduction abnormalities. Upright tilt table testing : Is a test for vasodepressor / neurogenic syncope in patients with normal history / examination. In susceptible patients upright tilt at an angle between 60deg to 80deg for 30 to 60 minutes induces a vasovagal episode. Indications for Table Tilt test include : Recurrent syncope - Single syncope episode that caused injury - Single syncope event in high risk setting (pilot, commercial vehicle driver) Syncope The choice of diagnostic test should be guided by the history and physical examination For All patients Serum electrolytes Glucose Haematocrit | Medicine | null | Which test is not useful in a patient with history of Syncopal attack?
A. Electrophysiological testing
B. Tilt Table testing
C. PET Scan
D. Holter monitoring
| PET Scan |
897b2724-c93d-4e41-965a-d58fbd6c8cde | “MAGIC syndrome” (Mouth and Genital ulcers with Inflamed Cartilage) has been proposed to describe patients with clinical features of both relapsing polychondritis and Behcet disease. | Pathology | null | Magic syndrome is seen in:
A. Behcet disease
B. Aphthous major
C. Herpetiform
D. Bloom syndrome
| Behcet disease |
3eb8e753-2c11-4d5a-aee4-da83f114752e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enterovirus 70 Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (AHC) may be caused by adenoviruses, but two enteroviruses, enterovirus 70 and coxsackie A24 variant, are the major causes. | Microbiology | null | Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is caused by ?
A. Enterovirus 70
B. Adenovirus
C. Poliovirus
D. Hepadnavirus
| Enterovirus 70 |
f5168131-b12b-4477-8c70-9199583db3ae | The axial skeleton shapes the longitudinal axis of the human body. Coracoclavicular ligament suspends the scapula from the lower one third of the clavicle and forms a strong bond between them. The weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton through this ligament. A fracture of the clavicle, medial to the attachment of this ligament leads to drooping of upper limb. Ref: TB of Anatomy and Physiology PR Ashalatha, 1st Ed, Page 110 | Anatomy | null | In a 24 year old man weight of the upper limb is transmitted to the axial skeleton by:
A. Coracoacromial ligament
B. Coracoclavicular ligament
C. Costoclavicular ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
| Coracoclavicular ligament |
edcaea9c-f584-43db-a696-4422c66034d4 | Answer: A. Alma ata. (Ref Park's Textbook of PSM 22nd/Pg.832)The new approach to health care came into existence in 1978 following an international conference at Alma Ata (USSR).The Alma-Ata conference defines the primary health care as follows: Primary health care is essential health care made universally accessible to individuals and acceptable to them, through their full participation and at a cost the community and the country can afford.Millennium Development Summit was held in New York in 2000 where MDG are formulated.World Health Assembly is held in Geneva, which is a head quarter of WHO.Note: The term "comprehensive health care" (womb to tomb) was first used by Bhore committee in 1946. | Social & Preventive Medicine | Healthcare of the Community & International Health | Primary health care was proposed in 1978 at:
A. Alma ata
B. New York
C. Geneva
D. Delhi
| Alma ata |
c55a313a-5fd4-479d-9513-944926fede44 | (B) PTENo"Phosphatase and Tensin'' homolog (PTEN) - protein in humans encoded by the PTEN gene. Gene mutations promotes development of cancers.[?]Cowden's disease/Multiple Hamartoma Syndrome:-Part of PTEN hamartoma tumor syndrome-An autosomal dominant syndrome-Trichilemmomas - Numerous tumors of hair follicles in face-Multiple hamartomatous polyps in GI tract, Lipomas, Granulomas-Very high risk of breast, Follicular endometrail carcinoma & thyroid carcinomaoTreatment: Bilateral mastectomies recommended-Contraindicated are mammography & other radiation exposure of breast tissue.-Mean age at presentation <10 years-Very high risk of breast, follicular carcinoma of thyroid & Endometrial carcinomaoPTEN (phosphatase and tensin homologue) is a membrane-associated phosphatase encoded by a gene on chromosome 10q23 that is mutated in Cowden syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder marked by frequent benign growths, such as skin appendage tumors, and an increased incidence of epithelial cancers, particularly of the breast, endometrium, and thyroid.oPTEN acts as a tumor suppressor by serving as a brake on the PI3K/AKT arm of the receptor tyrosine kinase pathway.oPTEN gene function is lost in many cancers through deletion, deleterious point mutations, or epigenetic silencing.SELECTED TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES & ASSOCIATED FAMILIAL SYNDROMES & CANCERS, SORTED BY CANCER HALLMARKS*Gene (Protein)Familial SyndromesAssociated CancersInhibitors of Mitogenic Signaling PathwaysAPC (Adenomatous polyposis coli protein)Familial colonic polyps and carcinomasCarcinomas of stomach, colon, pancreas; melanoma*. NF1 (Neurofibromin-1)Neurofibromatosis type 1 (neurofibromas and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors)Neuroblastoma, juvenile myeloid leukemia*. NF2 (Merlin)Neurofibromatosis type 2 (acoustic schwannoma and meningioma)Schwannoma, meningioma*. PTCH (Patched)Gorlin syndrome (basal cell carcinoma, medulloblastoma, several benign tumors)Basal cell carcinoma, medulloblastoma*. PTEN (Phosphatase and tension homologue)Cowden syndrome (variety of benign skin, GI, and CNS growths; breast, endometrial, and thyroid carcinoma)Diverse cancers, particularly carcinomas and lymphoid tumors*. SMAD2, SMAD4 (SMAD2, SMAD4)Juvenile polyposisFrequently mutated (along with other components of TGFb signaling pathway) in colonic & pancreatic CaInhibitors of Ceil Cycle Progression*. RB Retinoblastoma (RB) proteinFamilial retinoblastoma syndrome (retinoblastoma, osteosarcoma, other sarcomas)Retinoblastoma; osteosarcoma carcinomas of breast, colon, lung*. CDKN2A p16/INK4a & pU/ARFFamilial melanomaPancreatic, breast, and esophageal carcinoma, melanoma, certain leukemiasInhibitors of "Pro-growth" Programs of Metabolism and Angiogenesis*. VHL (Von Hippel Lindau (VHL) protein)Von Hippel Lindau syndrome (cerebellar hemangioblastoma, retinal angioma, renal cell carcinoma)Renal cell carcinoma*. STK11 (Liver kinase B1 (LKB1) or STK11)Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (GI polyps, GI cancers, pancreatic carcinoma and other carcinomas)Diverse carcinomas (5%-20% of cases, depending on type)*. SDHB, SDHD (Succinate dehydrogenase complex subunits B & D)Familial paraganglioma, familial pheochromocytomaParaganglioma | Pathology | Neoplasia | Gene involved in Cowden syndrome is
A. P53
B. PTEN
C. RB
D. Ras
| PTEN |
78353090-0d67-40f9-9067-b6ddcfa932cc | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pulmonary orifice and atrioventricular orifice Interior of right ventricle* It is anteroinferior chamber and projects to the left of right atrium. It is in contact with the sternum.* It is divided into -i) Rough inflowing part (ventricle proper)# It is developed from right half of primitive ventricle.# Its interior is rough due to the presence of muscular ridges known as trabeculae carneae, which are more prominent in apical region.# Trabeculae carneae are of 3 types: -1. Ridges - Linear elevations.Supraventricular crest - a ridge present between the pulmonary and atrioventricular orifices, extends downwards in the posterior wall of the infundibulum.2. Bridges -'Muscular elevations with fixed ends on ventricular walls, the center being free.Septomarginal trabecula: It is a specialized bridge which extends from the right of ventricularseptum to the base of anterior papillary muscle. It contains the right branch of atrioventricular bundle.3. Papillary muscles are conical projections of muscle fiber bundles. Their base is attached to the ventricular wall and the apex is attached to the chordae tendinae, which are further attached to the cusps of atrioventricular (AV) valves. There are three papillary muscles in the right and two in the left ventricle. They regulate closure of atrioventricular valves.ii) Smooth outflowing part (infundibulum or conus arteriosus)# Smooth outflowing part develops from mid portion of bulbus cordis and surrounds pulmonary valveSupraventricular crest (crista supraventriculars) or infundibuloventricular crest separates tricuspid (AV) orifice and pulmonary orifice, i.e. inlet and outlet parts. | Anatomy | Thorax | Supraventricular crest lies between-
A. Pulmonary orifice and atrioventricular orifice
B. Atrioventricular orifice and fossa ovalis
C. SVC and right atrium
D. Right an dleft coronary artery
| Pulmonary orifice and atrioventricular orifice |
47a7e08c-e3a3-46bf-8927-d9e194a385c1 | Freely filterable substances by glomerulus
- Water
- Na+
- Cl-
- HCO3-
- Inulin
- Glucose
- Creatinine
- Free Calcium or phosphate | Physiology | null | Which of the following is freely filtered by kidney across glomerular capillariesa) Albumin (across glomerular capillaries)b) Globulinc) Creatinined) HCO3 e) Glucose
A. cde
B. acd
C. bde
D. ade
| cde |
b90b1e07-21e0-4760-a2dc-8edd5fddac7d | Tonsilar fossa is bounded by Anterior - Palatoglossal fold containing palatoglossal muscle Posterior - Palatopharyngeal fold containing palato pharyngeal muscle Apex - Soft palate, where both arches meet Base - Dorsal surface of posterior one-third of tongue. (Ref: Anatomy of head, neck and brain. Vishram Singh. P 227 ) | ENT | Pharynx | Tonsillar fossa is bounded anteriorly by
A. Pharyngobasilar fascia
B. Palatopharyngeal fold
C. Buccopharyngeal fascia
D. Palatoglossal fold
| Palatoglossal fold |
04c2701f-e97b-451d-a824-49d4c35c4ffb | Ans: A (Stagnant hypoxia)Ref: Pat GK, Hypoxia and Oxygen Therapy, In: Textbook of Medical Physiology, 2nd ed, Abuja Publishing House 2011: 94: 754-55Explanation:Refer the explanation of previous question | Physiology | Circulation: Circulatory Shock and Its Treatment | Shock causes:
A. Stagnant hypoxia
B. Anemic hypoxia
C. Hypoxic hypoxia
D. Histotoxic hypoxia
| Stagnant hypoxia |
2b84d3c8-a571-4f34-aaea-b58afabb9ee5 | Mineral trioxide aggregate was developed by Dr Torabinejad in 1993.
It contains tricalcium silicate, dicalcium silicate, tricalcium aluminate, bismuth oxide, calcium sulfate and tetracalcium aluminoferrite.
pH of MTA is 12.5.
Textbook of Endodontics Nisha Garg 3rd Ed | Dental | null | Calcium silicate based material is:
A. MTA
B. Geristore
C. Dieket
D. Retroplast
| MTA |
4eafd9d8-b2ea-4f44-ac7f-a12103f61945 | IQ range for categoriesICD-10DSM-IVMild50-6950-55 to 70Moderate35-4935-40 to 50-55Severe20-3420-25 to 35-40ProfoundBelow 20Below 20-25Reference: Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry; 3rd edition; Chapter 18; Learning Disability | Psychiatry | Child psychiatry | In Profound MR, IQ is
A. 50-69
B. 35-49
C. 20-34
D. < 20
| < 20 |
f0a88604-cf9c-4181-87f8-e3daccd3d389 | THYROID HORMONE SYNTHESIS AND SECRETIONThyroid hormones are synthesized in the colloid, near the apical cell membrane of the follicular cells. Catalyzed by the enzyme thyroidal peroxidase, iodide in the thyroid cell is oxidized to iodine.The iodine enters the colloid and is rapidly bound at the 3 position to tyrosine molecules attached to thyroglobulin, forming monoiodotyrosine (MIT).MIT is next iodinated at the 5 position, forming diiodotyrosine (DIT).Two DIT molecules then condense in an oxidative process ("coupling reaction") to form one thyroxine (T4) molecule.Some T3 is probably formed within the thyroid gland by condensation of MIT with DIT. A small amount of reverse T3 (rT3) is also formed.In the normal thyroid, the average distribution of iodinated compounds is 23% MIT, 33% DIT, 35% T4, 7% T3, and 2% reverse T3. | Microbiology | All India exam | Which of the following iodinated compound is present in a maximum concentration in the thyroid?
A. Monoiodotyrosine (MIT)
B. Diiodotyrosine (DIT)
C. T3
D. Reverse T3
| Diiodotyrosine (DIT) |
940903a9-03dd-4900-bf86-2a421380958b | Cryptococcus is a yeast, candida is a yeast-like fungus. Both are reproduced by budding Histoplasma is a dimorphic fungus Mucor and Rhizopus are produced by asexual means sporangiospores Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition | Microbiology | mycology | Budding reproduction in tissue is seen in
A. Cryptococcus, candida
B. Candida, rhizopus
C. Rhizopus, mucor
D. Histoplasma, candida
| Cryptococcus, candida |
08531c7b-c9f3-49f2-a8f2-e64ac23974e7 | terbutaline can be given as s.c (0.25mg) in asthma. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drugs can be administered by subcutaneous route?
A. Albuterol
B. Metaproterenol
C. Terbutaline
D. Pirbuterol
| Terbutaline |
ccb6817f-6a6b-49c6-879b-0bd13daf314d | Ans. C: Debilitation after major surgery Acute bacterial parotitis is now infrequent, but its historical impoance. Mumps and bacterial parotitis were differentiated by 1800, but neither was effectively treated. The moality rate for bacterial parotitis was 80%. Before antibiotics and intravenous administration of fluids were available, bacterial parotitis occurred in postoperative patients or other severely ill patients who became dehydrated and contributed to their demise as an incurable sepsis. | Surgery | null | Bacterial pyogenic parotitis affecting the parotid gland is most common after: March 2008
A. Uveo-parotid fever
B. Mumps
C. Debilitation after major surgery
D. After administration of iodine
| Debilitation after major surgery |
f2bed904-d182-4df2-97d4-3e5d9186bc39 | High grade squamous intraepithelial lesion have a propensity to progress and become invasive, therefore need investigations and treatment Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 410. | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Gynaecological oncology | Patient diagnosed as squamous cell intraepithelial lesion which of the following has the highest risk for progression to carcinoma;
A. Low grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
B. High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia
C. Squamous intraepithelial associated with HPV 16
D. Squamous intraepithelial neoplasia associated with HIV
| High grade squamous intraepithelial neoplasia |
78c840a3-5ead-4b96-97b6-6b99a2b98f9b | The following are the adverse effect following immunisation: Vaccine reaction - Here the event is caused by the inherent propeies of the vaccine when given correctly. Programme error - In this case the event is as a result of error in preparation, handling or administration of the vaccine. Coincidental - The event after immunisation is not caused by the vaccine but by a chance association. Injection reaction - The anxiety of the pain an injection itself may cause hyperventilation, dizziness etc. This is not a result of the vaccine and is called injection reaction. Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 103, 107. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | You are the medical officer in charge of the immunisation programme at a sub-centre and you are informed by the local ASHA worker that one of the children who was immunised has has been dizzy. On fuher investigation it was confirmed that the symptoms were due to anxiety of pain of the injection and not as a result of the vaccine. You would consider the incidence as:
A. Vaccine reaction
B. Injection reaction
C. Programme error
D. Coincidental
| Injection reaction |
dc05e667-659f-4f8f-a534-b329a1b356cc | Bicipital aponeurosis lies superficial to the brachial aery and median nerve. -lies deep to superficial veins. -provides protection for the deeper structures during venepuncture at cubital fossa. -routinely released to decompress the median nerve | Anatomy | Muscles of arm and forearm region & Cubital fossa | Bicipital aponeurosis lies over which structure in cubital fossa:-
A. Median cubital vein
B. Radial nerve
C. Brachial aery
D. Anterior interosseous aery
| Brachial aery |
77e67056-21d4-4dad-ba62-f785e6ce4e38 | Suppression is pushing of unwanted feelings into unconscious which has reached conscious awareness. | Psychiatry | null | Postponing paying attention of conscious impulse or conflict is a mature defence mechanism known as -
A. Sublimation
B. Suppression
C. Humor
D. Anticipation
| Suppression |
3779c7ae-2be8-498b-adc9-45465595bf19 | • Risks of colonoscopy: Perforation and hemorrhage
• MC site of bleeding after colonoscopy: Stalk after polypectomy.
• MC site of perforation during colonoscopy: Sigmoid colon
• Perforation can be caused by excessive air pressure, tearing of the antimesenteric border of the colon from excessive pressure on colonic loops, and at the sites of electrosurgical applications | Surgery | null | The commonest site of perforation during colonoscopy is -
A. Caecum
B. Hepatic flexure
C. Splenic flexure
D. Sigmoid colon
| Sigmoid colon |
8556ec34-5fc9-46de-8be9-bce2fbd3ea06 | Ref Robbins 9/e p106 Incised wound for the formation of collagen and new tissue, thick layer of epithelial ,and granulation tissue formation along with new blood vessels requires atleast 4_5 days | Anatomy | General anatomy | After an incised wound ,new collagen fibrils are seen along with a thick layer of growing epithelium.The approximate age of the wound is
A. 4-5days
B. About 1week
C. 12-24hrs
D. 24-48 hrs
| 4-5days |
784827e3-b944-4c14-98d5-ed648eb38bc8 | Ans: C (Saphenofemoral incompetency) Ref : 74 A Manual on Clinical Surgery S. DasExplanation:Clinical Examination of Varicose VeinsBrodie-Trendelenherg TestDone to determine the incompetency of Saphenofemoral valve.Patient is placed in recumbent position.Limbs are raised to empty the veins. Veins are milked proximally for further emptying.Saphenofemoral junction is compressed either with the thumb of the examiner/toumiquet and the patient is asked to stand up quickly.There are two variants of this test.The first method is to assess saphenofemoral incompetency. The pressure is released and if the column of blood fills up quickly from above downwards it indicates saphenofemoral incompetency.The second method is to assess the perforators. Here, the pressure is maintained for one minute. Gradual filling of the veins during this period indicates incompetent perforators allowing reflux of blood from deep veins to superficial veins.Positive Brodie--Trendelenberg test i~ an indication for surgery.Tests to Assess Saphenofemoral IncompetencyBrodie -Trendelenberg testMorrisey's cough impulse testTests to Assess Deep VeinsPerthe's testModified Perthe's testTests to Assess PerforatorsMultiple tourniquet testPratt's testFegan's testBrodie-Trendelenberg testTest to Assess V alves in Superficial VeinSchwartz testNote:Even though Brodie-Trendelenberg test is used to assess both saphenofemoral incompetency and incompetent perforators its primary purpose is to assess saphenofemoral incompetency. | Surgery | Varicose Veins | Trendlenburg's test done for varicose veins is for detection of:
A. Perforator in competency
B. Deep veins patency
C. Saphenofemoral incompetency
D. Site of perforators
| Saphenofemoral incompetency |
3a63a6c3-1c1d-4578-a6b2-08e42456d546 | <p> Leptospirosis is the most wide zoonotic disease in the world. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:291. <\p> | Social & Preventive Medicine | Communicable diseases | Most common widespread zoonotic disease in the world is -
A. Rabies
B. Leptospirosis
C. Brucella
D. Anthrax
| Leptospirosis |
1e61071d-fa24-4df4-b39d-ad51308c63e2 | Inherited hyperammonemias are a group of six diseases caused by inborn deficiencies of the enzymes of the Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle. The enzymes involved are: 1. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase 2. Arbamyl phosphate synthetase (CPS) 3. Ornithine transcarbamylase (OTC) 4. Argininosuccinic acid synthetase (citrullinemia) 5. Argininosuccinase deficiency 6. Arginase deficiency Most Severe Cases: In the most severe forms of the hyperammonemic disorders, the infants are asymptomatic at bih and during the first day or two of life, after which they refuse their feedings, vomit, and rapidly become inactive and lethargic, soon lapsing into an irreversible coma. Profuse sweating, focal or generalized seizures, rigidity with opisthotonos, hypothermia, and hyperventilation have been observed in the course of the illness. These symptoms constitute a medical emergency, but even with measures to reduce serum ammonia, the disease is usually fatal. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 37. Inherited Metabolic Diseases of the Nervous System. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | Biochemistry | null | Inherited hyperammonemia is a result of deficiency of which enzyme of Krebs-Henseleit urea cycle?
A. Malate dehydrogenase
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. N-acetyl glutamate synthetase
D. Succinate dehydrogenase
| N-acetyl glutamate synthetase |
598d5484-6c3d-4983-aa72-cafaf6a4719a | Ref:Textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology (V.V.Pillay) 17th edition, page no.377 Infanticide refers to the deliberate killings of chlid below the age of one year.In England, Germany, UK, there is a clear-cut distinction between homicide and infanticides. In India, no such distinction exists, and accuse is punished under sec.302IPC,the same manner as in murder. | Forensic Medicine | Sexual offences and infanticide | Punishment for infanticide comes under -
A. IPC102
B. IPC324
C. IPC302
D. IPC300
| IPC302 |
ed76ceeb-7206-424c-b2b0-222a1d226703 | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Doppler o Color doppler ultrasonography is the screening method of choice (not simple USG : option a is incorrect),o Carotid angiography is the investigation of choice for diagnosis,o MRI is the investigation of choice for demyelinating disorder, e.g. multiple sclerosis.Investigations in nervous systemo Investigation of choice for white matter disease - MRI (CT is second choice),o Investigation of choice of acoustic neuroma - GD enhanced MRIo Best investigation for all brain tumors - Contrast enhanced MRIo Investigation of choice for meningeal carcinomatosis - Contrast (gadolinium) enhanced MRI.o Investigation of choice for posterior fossa tumor - MRIo Investigation of choice for para meningeal rhabdomyosarcoma - MRIo Investigation of choice for nasopharyngeal angiofibroma - Contrast enhanced CT.o Investigation of choice for hydrocephalus in older patients and for low pressure hydrocephalus - MRI.o Investigation of choice for acute (<48hrs) subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) - Non-Contrast CT scan,o Investivation of choice to know the etiology of SAH - Four vessels digital substruction angiography.o Hallmark of SAH - Blood in CSF on lumbar puncture,o Investigation of choice for chronic SAH - MRI.o Primary procedure of choice for evaluating intracranial complications of acute head injury - CT scan,o Best modality for assessing fractures of the skull base, calvarium and facial bone - CT scan,o Investigation of choice for demyelinating disorders MRI.o Investigation of choice for AV malformation and aneurysm - Angiography (MRI angiography or CT angiography),o Investigation of choice for Craniospinal infection - MRIo Investigation of choice for all intrinsic spinal cord lesions; all causes of cord compression - MRI.o Procedure of choice for emergent evaluation of acute intracerebral hemorrhage - CT scan,o Investigation of choice for myelopathy - MRI.o Shape of epidural hematomas on imaging - Biconvex, hyperdense or mixed density.o Shape of acute subdural hematoma on imaging - Crescent-shaped, hyperdense or mixed density ,o Chronic subdural hematoma on imaging - Hypodense.o Most sensitive test for ischaemic stroke - Diffusion weighted (DW) MRI. | Radiology | Head and Neck Imaging | Carotid artery stenosis screening invivo choice is -
A. USG
B. CT
C. MRI
D. Doppler
| Doppler |
9696296f-f81e-42b8-90e5-398da9c83945 | Key guidelines aspects of WHO recommended drinking water quality: Colour <15 true colour units (TCU) Turbidity <1 nephlometric turbidity units (NTU) pH: 6.5-8.5 Total dissolved solids (TDS) <500 mg/Litre Zero pathogenic microorganisms Zero infectious viruses Absence of pathogenic protozoa and infective stages of helminthes Fluoride <1.0 ppm (0.5-0.8 ppm: Optimum level) Nitrates <45 mg/Litre Nitrites <3 mg/Litre Gross alpha radiological activity <0.5 Bq/Litre (new guidelines -WHO) Gross Beta radiological activity <1.0 Bq/Litre (new guidelines-WHO) Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno: 762 | Social & Preventive Medicine | Environment and health | Proposed guideline value for Radioactivity in drinking water is:
A. Gross a activity 0.1 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L
B. Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L adn Gross b activity 0.1 Bq/L
C. Gross a activity 1.0 Bq/L and Gross b activity 10.0 Bq/L
D. Gross a activity 10 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L
| Gross a activity 0.1 Bq/L and Gross b activity 1.0 Bq/L |
ec9dbeb5-1b72-43fd-869c-896778e840e3 | Ans. c (Surface ectoderm). (Ref. Human Embryology by IB Singh, 6th/352)LENS# LENS develops from surface ectoderm.# Compared to the cornea, it has a much lower converging power of 17 diopters because of the relatively similar refractive indices of aqueous humor, lens, and vitreous body (cornea 42 D).# However, the lens is the only part of the refractive apparatus that is adjustable.# Adjustment to near vision (accommodation) therefore involves only the lens.# In addition, the lens functions as a UV filter for wavelengths between 300 and 400 nm and thus has a protective function for the macula.# Notching of the lens = "pseudocoloboma".# Wilson's disease can induce a yellow-green lens discoloration (chalcosis/ sunflower cataract).# Granular gold deposits located under the lens (chrysiasis lends) can occasionally occur after prolonged treatment with gold preparations (e. g. in primary chronic polyarthritis ).# Other medications, e.g., amiodarone or chlorpromazine, are sometimes deposited in the lens.# In patients with cataract, glittering cholesterol crystals are not infrequently found in the lens (so-called Christmas tree/ decoration cataract). | Ophthalmology | Lens | Lens develops from?
A. Endoderm
B. Mesoderm
C. Surface ectoderm
D. Neuroectoderm
| Surface ectoderm |
edf16f12-4d4c-48c3-bb35-478666e34498 | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Clostridia There are two medically impoant spore forming bacteria. Both of them are 'gram positive' `bacilli' :-Aerobic : BacillusAnaerobic (obligate anaerobes) : Clostridia. | Microbiology | null | Spore forming anaerobic gram positive bacilli ?
A. Bacillus Anthracis
B. Clostridia
C. Corynebacterium
D. Peptostreptococcus
| Clostridia |
daf88486-94e5-4799-960e-a3fc5137e1ab | DOC for Falciparum Malaria - ACT.( Aemisinin based Combination therapy ) In Noh Eastern states:- ACT-AL co-formulated tablet of Aemether-20 mg / Lumefantrine - 120 mg. Primaquine 0.75 mg/ kg Body weight on day 2. 2. In Other States:- ACT-SP -Aesunate 50 mg tablet for 3 days and Sulphadoxine (500mg) - Pyremethamine (25mg) tablets for 1 Day. Primaquine tablets should be given on Day 2. | Social & Preventive Medicine | VBDs, Arboviral & Viral Infections, Surface Infections | Drug of choice for Falciparum Malaria is:-
A. Chloroquine
B. Mefloquine
C. ACT
D. Proguanil
| ACT |
a7bcda01-d462-4e60-bd9c-394439c1f79f | Platypnea: Increase dyspnea on sitting position Seen in 1. Atrial myxoma 2. Hepatopulmonary syndrome | Medicine | Acute Kidney Injury | Platypnea is seen with?
A. Hepato-pulmonary syndrome
B. Hepato-renal syndrome
C. Renal aery stenosis
D. Kyphoscoliosis
| Hepato-pulmonary syndrome |
9dda09e1-8bdc-4fae-be9e-ef95d04e3f71 | Mutation in factor V (called the Leiden mutation, after the city in the Netherlands where it was discovered) causes recurrent DVTs. The mutation results in a glutamine to arginine substitution at position 506 that renders factor V resistant to cleavage by protein C. As a result, an impoant antithrombotic counter-regulatory pathway is lost Ref: Robbins 8th edition Chapter 4. | Pathology | null | Factor V Leiden is caused due to a mutation that results in a substitution at position 506 glutamine to which of the following:
A. Alanine
B. Arginine
C. Glycine
D. Glutamine
| Arginine |
7af5d515-19b4-4b9c-b795-224e68a0176b | Cystometric studies are urodynamic studies in which the pressure changes in the bladder is simultaneously measured with bladder filling and during micturition.
It helps in accurate assessment of detrusor and sphincter activity especially if a neurogenic abnormality is suspected.
Though it is also used in stress incontinence but the aim here is to rule out any neurogenic cause. | Surgery | null | In which case cystometric study is indicated -
A. Neurogenic bladder
B. Stress incontinence
C. Fistula
D. Urge incontinence
| Neurogenic bladder |
a18b8864-370a-4ef2-a61f-1265eba77975 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., M. Marinum o Fish tank granulomaalso called ' swimming pool granuiomaf is caused by M. marinum.Principal types of opportunist mycobacterial disease in man and the usual causative agents.DiseasesUsual causative agentLymphadenopathyM. avium complexM. scrofulaceumSkin lesionPost-trauma abscessSwimming pool granulomaBuruli ulcerM. chelonaeM.fortuitumM. terraeM.marinumM. ulceransPulmonary' diseaseM. avium complexM. kansasiiM.xenopiM.malmoenseDisseminated diseaseAIDS-relatedM, avium complexM.genevenseM.avium complexM. chelonae | Microbiology | Bacteria | Fish tank granuloma is seen in -
A. Mfortuitum
B. Mkansasi
C. Mmarinum
D. M leprosy
| Mmarinum |
6928a986-b002-4115-9c81-631f67d6c07a | Gastritis is a nonspecific term that describes any inflammation of the gastric mucosa. Acute gastritis refers to the clinical situation of gastric mucosal erosions (not mucosal ulcers). Acute gastritis is also known as hemorrhagic gastritis or acute erosive gastritis. Acute gastritis is associated with the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as aspirin, ibuprofen, and coicosteroids, and also with alcohol, chemotherapy, ischemia, shock, and even severe stress. Two types of stress ulcers are Curling's ulcers, seen in patients with severe burns, and Cushing's ulcers, seen in patients with intracranial lesions. Grossly acute gastritis appears as multiple, scattered, punctate (less than 1 cm) hemorrhagic areas in the gastric mucosa. This is helpful in differentiating acute gastritis from peptic ulcers, which tend to be solitary and larger. Microscopically the gastric mucosa from a patient with acute gastritis is likely to reveal mucosal erosions, scattered neutrophils, edema, and possibly hemorrhage. Acute gastritis. Erosion and complete effacement of the epithelium is observed. The residual glands, on the left, display regenerative changes with basophilic epithelium. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition | Pathology | miscellaneous | A 49-year-old female taking ibuprofen for increasing joint pain in her hands presents with increasing pain in her midsternal area. Gastroscopy reveals multiple, scattered, punctate hemorrhagic areas in her gastric mucosa. Biopsies from one of these hemorrhagic lesions reveal mucosal erosions with edema and hemorrhage. No mucosal ulceration is seen.
A. Active chronic gastritis
B. Acute gastritis
C. Autoimmune gastritis
D. Chronic gastritis
| Acute gastritis |
3ce61463-a3ad-4e05-8e97-b404f9f04e0e | Ans : b 8S Ref: Ananthanarayanan 8th editionSvedberg unit - a sedimentation constant of 1 x 1013sec. Sedimentation unit is studied by ultracentrifugation - for diversity of antibody moleculeIgG -7IgA -7IgM -19Ig D -7IgE -8 | Microbiology | Immunology | Sedimentation coefficient of Ig E is:
A. 7S
B. 8S
C. 11S
D. 20 S
| 8S |
9e9842eb-7ec0-4d06-9a22-bbcb97151aec | Ans. A: Ankylosing Spondylitis The basic pathologic lesion of ankylosing spondylitis occurs at the entheses, which are sites of attachment to bone of ligaments, tendons, and joint capsules. Enthesopathy results from inflammation, with subsequent calcification and ossification at and around the entheses. Inflammation with cellular infiltration by lymphocytes, plasma cells, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes is associated with erosion and eburnation of the subligamentous bone. The process usually stas at the sacroiliac joints. Other enthesopathic sites include the iliac crest, ischial tuberosity, greater trochanter, patella, and calcaneum. Ankylosing spondylitis/ AS/ Bechterew's disease/ Bechterew syndrome/ Marie Strumpell disease/Spondyloahritis is a chronic, painful, degenerative inflammatory ahritis primarily affecting spine and sacroiliac joints, causing eventual fusion of the spine. AS is a systemic rheumatic disease and one of the seronegative spondyloahropathies. About 90% of the patients express the HLA-B27 genotype. Men are affected more than women by a ratio in excess of 10:1. Typical signs of progressed AS are the visible formation of syndesmophytes on X-rays and abnormal bone outgrowths similar to osteophytes affecting the spine. Complete fusion results in a complete rigidity of the spine, a condition known as bamboo spine. In 40% of cases, ankylosing spondylitis is associated with iridocyclitis causing eye pain and photophobia. 4.1 AS is also associated with ulcerative colitis, Crohn's disease, psoriasis, and Reiter's disease Other complications are aoic regurgitation, Achilles tendinitis, AV node block and amyloidosis & restrictive lung disease. A clinical examination and X-ray studies of the spine, which show characteristic spinal changes and sacroiliitis, are the major diagnostic tools. The Schober's test is a useful clinical measure of flexion of the lumbar spine performed during examination. | Surgery | null | Iliac crest involvement is common in which condition: March 2007
A. Ankylosing spondylitis
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Reiter's syndrome
D. Osteoahritis
| Ankylosing spondylitis |
be876641-0cee-4b0d-973f-af68790776da | EVENTS PHASE of cell cycle Proofreading S phase Most repairs G1 phase Mismatch repair G2 phase | Biochemistry | Molecular Biology | In which phase of cell cycle, proof reading occurs?
A. G1
B. S
C. G2
D. M
| S |
2435c2fd-0ab9-4097-9969-6ce371e46532 | Ans. is 'b' > b' i.e., 24 One turn of the TCA cycle, staing with acetyl CoA produces 10 ATPs. When the staing molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2.5 ATPs and therefore, 12.5 ATPs are produced when staing compound is pyruvate. Since, two molecules of pyruvate enter the TCA cycle when glucose is metabolized (glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate), the number of ATPs is doubled. Therefore, 25 ATP molecules, per glucose molecule, are produced when pyruvate enters the TCA cycle.Note : Previously calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH generates 2 ATPs. This will amount a net generation of 30 ATP molecules in TCA per molecule glucose and total 38 molecules from staing. Recent experiments show that these values are overestimates and NADH produces 2.5 ATPs and FADH produces 1.5 ATPs. Therefore, net generation during TCA is 25 ATPs and complete oxidation of glucose through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle yield a net 32 ATPs.Energy yield (number of ATP generated) per molecule of glucose when it is completely oxidized through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle, under aerobic conditions, is as follows :- Method ofNo of ATPsNo of ATPsPathwayStepEnzymeSource ATP formationgained perglucose(new calculation)As per oldcalculationGlycolysis1Hexokinase MinusMinus 1Do3Phosphofructokinase MinusMinus 1Do5Glyceraldehyde-3-p DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5 x 2 = 53 x 2 = 6Do61,3-BPGkinase ATPSubstrate level1 x 2 -- 21 x 2 = 2Do9Pyruvate kinaseATP Substrate level1 x 2 = 21 x 2 = 2Pyruvate to?PyruvateNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53x2= 6Acetyl CoA Dehydrogenase TCA cycle3Isocitrate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53 x 2= 6Do4Alpha keto glutarate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53x2= 6Do5Succinate thiokinaseGTP Substrate level1 x 2 = 21 x 2 = 2Do6Succicinate DHFADH2Respiratory chain1.5x2= 32 x 2= 4Do8Malate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53 x 2= 6Net generation in glycolytic pathway 9 minus 2= 7 10 minus 2= 8Generation in pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction 5 * 6Generation in citric acid cycle 20 * 24Net generation of ATP from one glucose mole 32 * 38 | Biochemistry | null | The number of ATPs generated in krebs cycleare ?
A. 12
B. 24
C. 15
D. 30
| 24 |
daea259a-2232-46db-8d5a-e04d5a1d4c5c | Cleavage is a series of mitotic divisions by which the large amount of zygote cytoplasm is successively paitioned among the newly formed blastomeres. Although the number of blastomeres increases during cleavage, the size of individual blastomeres decreases until they resemble adult cells in size. | Anatomy | Development period- week 1,2,3,4 | Which of the following events is involved in cleavage of the zygote during week 1 of development?
A. A series of meiotic divisions forming blastomeres
B. Production of highly differentiated blastomeres
C. An increased cytoplasmic content of blastomeres
D. A decrease in size of blastomeres
| A decrease in size of blastomeres |
2490c0e2-5e57-46de-a276-0163f4b35337 | 9] Congenital adrenal hyperplasia represents a group of autosomal recessive inherited, metabolic errors,
each characterized by decency or total lack of a particular enzyme involved in the biosynthesis of cortical steroids,
Steroidogenesis is then channelled into other pathways leading to increased production of androgens,
which accounts for virilization.
Simultaneously, the decency of cortisol results in increased secretion of ACTH resulting in adrenal hyperplasia.
Following enzymes are implicated in the congenital adrenal hyperplasia 21 α hydroxylase decency (partial or complete) 17 α hydroxylase deficiency 11β hydroxylase
deficiency 21 α hydroxylase deficiency
• Two forms of this deficiency include -
A. Salt-wasting adrenogenital ism
B. Simple Virilizing adrenogenital ism
A) Salt-wasting syndrome (complete lack) The salt wasting syndrome results from complete lack of 21 hydroxylases.
There is no synthesis of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids in the adrenal cortex.
Decreased mineralocorticoids causes marked sodium loss in the urine, resulting in hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, acidosis and hypotension.
Because of the enzyme block, there is increased formation of 17 - hydroxyprogesterone, which is then shunted into the production of testosterone.
This may cause virilism (pseudo-hermaphroditism) in female infants.
That is (XX) Female with 21 hydroxylase deficiency develops ovaries,
female ductal structures and external male genitalia. But in the male child, the effect of increased testosterone will not be manifested at the time of birth.
The complete21 hydroxylase deficiency or salt wasting syndrome usually comes to light only after the birth because in utero the electrolytes and uids
can be maintained by maternal kidneys. Males with this disorder comes to clinical attention 5 to 15 days later because of salt losing crisis while
females come to attention soon after the birth because of the virilization.
B) Simple Virilizing adrenogenital syndrome (Partial deficiency) Occurs in individuals
with partial deficiency of 21 hydroxylases Less severe deficiency of mineralocorticoid, is sufficient for salt reabsorption, but the lowered glucocorticoid fails to cause
feedback inhibition of ACTH secretion.
Thus level of aldosterone is mildly reduced, testosterone is increased and ACTH elevated with resultant adrenal hyperplasia.
11B hydroxylase deficiency-. Rare Leads to decreased cortisol and increased ACTH.
This, in turn, leads to the accumulation of DOC (deoxycorticosterone) and 11 deoxycortisol
both of which are strong mineralocorticoids. This results in increased sodium retention by the kidneys and hypertension, hypokalemia.
Patients also develop virilization due to androgen excess. 17 α hydroxylase deficiency - Patients with deficiency of 17 hydroxylases also have impaired cortisol production,
increased ACTH and secondary increased DOC.
These patients, however, cannot synthesize normal amount of androgens and estrogens.
This is because the gene that codes for 17 α hydroxylase is the same for the enzyme in the adrenal cortex and the gonads and the decency is same in both organs.
Because of decreased sex hormones, genotypic females develop primary amenorrhoea and fail to develop secondary sex characteristics while genotypic
males will present as pseudohermaphrodite.
3 β hydroxylase deficiency 3-β hydroxylase deficiency is a rare genetic disorder of steroid biosynthesis that results
in decreased production of all three groups of adrenal steroids which include mineralocorticoid, glucocorticoid and sex steroids.
Decreased mineralocorticoid secretion
results in varying degrees of salt wasting in both males and females.
Decent androgen production results in ambiguous genitalia in males
The usual presentation is a male child with ambiguous genitalia and severe salt wasting. Sometimes it may also occur in females | Medicine | null | A female child with virilization, hypertension with low plasma renin diagnosis is :
A. 21α hydroxylase deficiency
B. 11 β hydroxylase deficiency
C. 3β hydroxylase deficiency
D. Conn’s syndrome
| 11 β hydroxylase deficiency |
0b9a50a8-7210-4ff5-81f6-b49dee01c09b | Ans. is 'b' ie pressure abrasion (Ref: Parikh; 6/e, p4.3).An abrasion is a superficial injury involving only the superficial layers of the skin (epidermis only), caused by friction and / or pressure between the skin and some rough object or surface. It bleeds very slightly, heals rapidly in a few days and leaves no scar.They can be classified into 3 types, depending on the manner they are created.ScratchIs a linear injury produced by a sharp object, such as pin, thorn or finger nail.Graze (Sliding, scraping or grinding abrasion).Is produced when a broad surface of skin slides against a rough surface.It is also known as brush or friction burn because it is caused by the frictional force and resembles a burn after dryingIt is commonly found in road traffic accidents.Imprint, Pressure or contact abrasion.Is produced as a result of direct impact or pressure of or contact with some object at right angles to the skin surface.The cuticle is crushed, and the object marks a reproduction of its shape and pattern on the to the skin, therefore it is known as patterned abrasion.Example are ligature marks in hanging and strangulation, nail and thumbs marks in throttling, teeth marks in biting, radiator, grill or tyre mask in vehicular accidents. | Forensic Medicine | Sexual Offenses | 'Patterned' abrasion is variety of:
A. Linear abrasion
B. Pressure abrasion
C. Sliding abrasion
D. Superficial bruise
| Pressure abrasion |
2d7752b3-6526-4bba-90a1-b7862767573b | Blaschko&;s lines, are lines of normal cell development in the skin. These lines are invisible under normal conditions. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Lines of Blaschko&;s are along
A. Lymphatics
B. Nervs
C. Developmental
D. Blood vessels
| Developmental |
4ad3b836-706a-47a9-9ccc-68d9feb2f5e7 | The sella turcica is a saddle shaped depression of the sphenoid bone.
It forms the caudal border of the pituitary gland. Sella turcica is an anatomically complex area with a number of different potential pathologies especially neoplastic process.
Pathologies of sella turcica can lead to important clinical presentations such as hormonal imbalances from pathologies affecting the pituitary gland and neurological symptoms from the mass effect.
Sella turcica is critically located as several structures pass close to it due to compression of the adjacent structures.
Important anatomical structures related to sella
Optic chiasm
Pituiatry gland
Internal carotids
Gavernous sinus and cranial nerves
Sphenoid sinuses | Medicine | null | Middle aged female with mass in sella turcica hormone increased is -
A. Prolactin
B. Thyroxine
C. Extrogen
D. ADH
| Prolactin |
3d26c59a-23b7-4f94-bd3a-46c52e94717f | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation As manual strangulation (throttling) is among the most violent form of asphyxia, hyoid fracture and other injury to neck structures is more common. | Forensic Medicine | null | Hyoid bone fracture most common occurs in ?
A. Manual strangulation
B. Hanging
C. Smothering
D. Traumatic asphyxia
| Manual strangulation |
041f5188-7539-4b9a-8784-b7ebf0f10021 | Ans. A: Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors Metoprolol is cardioselective beta blocker, more potent in blocking beta-1 than beta-2 adrenergic receptors. | Pharmacology | null | Metoprolol is preferred over Propranolol as it: September 2010
A. Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors
B. Is more potent in blocking beta-2 receptors
C. Is more effective in suppressing essential tremors
D. Impairs exercise capacity
| Is more potent in blocking beta-1 receptors |
c4dbe11c-2ef0-4043-adcb-5a068e9afe0e | Ans. C: Sympathetic ophthalmia Sympathetic ophthalmia (SO) is a condition in which serious inflammation attacks the sound eye after injury (including intraocular surgeries) to the other. It is the most dreaded complication of unilateral severe eye injury, as it can leave the patient completely blind. Symptoms may develop from days to several years after a penetrating eye injury. Sympathetic ophthalmia is thought to be an autoimmune inflammatory response toward ocular antigens, specifically a delayed hypersensitivity to melanin-containing structures from the outer segments of the photoreceptor layer of the retina. It is thought that Louis Braille, who injured his left eye as a child, lost vision in his right eye due to SO Floating spots and loss of accommodation are among the earliest symptoms. The disease may progress to severe iridocyclitis with pain and photophobia. Commonly the eye remains relatively painless while the inflammatory disease spreads through the uvea. The retina, however, usually remains uninvolved. Papilledema, secondary glaucoma, vitiligo and poliosis of the eyelashes may accompany SO. Diagnosis is clinical, seeking a history of eye injury. An impoant differential diagnosis is Vogt-Koyanagi-Harada syndrome (VKH), which is thought to have the same pathogenesis, without a history of surgery or penetrating eye injury. Definitive prevention of SO requires prompt (within the first 7 to 10 days following injury) enucleation of the injured eye. Evisceration--the removal of the contents of the globe while leaving the sclera and extraocular muscles intact--is easier to perform, offers long-term orbital stability, and is more aesthetically pleasing. But evisceration may lead to a higher incidence of SO compared to enucleation. Immunosuppressive therapy is the mainstay of treatment for SO. When initiated promptly following injury, it is effective in controlling the inflammation and improving the prognosis. | Ophthalmology | null | Most serious complication seen in other eye after traumatic injury to one eye: March 2005, September 2008
A. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
B. Corneal edema
C. Sympathetic ophthalmia
D. Sudden loss of vision
| Sympathetic ophthalmia |
efdbc8fc-57c6-4154-b35f-0907d23ad414 | Conduct disorder - Persistent pattern of antisocial behavior in which the individual repeatedly breaks social rules and carries out aggressive acts.in conduct disorder they do it deliberately usually characterized by aggression and violation of the rights of others boys with conduct disorder show physical & relationship aggression but In girls relationship aggression is more predominant than physical aggression children with conduct disorder usually have behaviors characterized by aggression to persons or animals, destruction of propey, deceitfulness or theft, and multiple violations of rules, such as truancy from school. | Psychiatry | JIPMER 2018 | Least commonly seen in conduct disorder seen in girls:-
A. Run away from home
B. High risk sexual behavior
C. Physical aggression
D. Emotional bullying
| Physical aggression |
7e269e71-d868-4733-a3d5-26ab218f1880 | Sulhasalazine is not used for treatment of sarcoidosis As a treatment for sarcoidosis, these drugs are most likely to be effective in people who have skin symptoms or a high level of calcium in their blood. Hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) and chloroquine (Aralen) are antimalarial drugs that are used to treat sarcoidosis Ref Davidson 23rd edtion pg 981 | Medicine | Miscellaneous | . Sulphasalazine is NOT used for the treatment of-
A. Crohn's disease
B. Rheumatoid ahritis
C. Sarcoidosis
D. Ulcerative colitis
| Sarcoidosis |
fa1ba371-3b43-4adc-8c74-f121d9323965 | This question is not about the diagnostic features of PTSD. This is about the differential diagnosis. PTSD is an anxiety disorder and it shares symptoms with other disorders. Impoant features in distinguishing the condition are given below. Differential diagnosis: Point 1: Etiologically significant trauma should be present for a diagnosis of PTSD. E.g. A traumatic event in the past. Point 2: 'Intentionality' or 'aboutness' is an impoant factor for PTSD. Nightmares, flashbacks or reliving experiences should be related to the past event. PTSD concerns memory - Intrusion of past stressors into the present. Point 3: Avoid a 'stimulus' or 'activity' that provokes the memory of the past event. In the above question, only reliving experience is mentioned as connected to the past experiences. Hence, that is the answer for this question. All other symptoms can be see in other anxiety disorders. Ref: Kaplan & Sadock's, Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, 9th Edition, Page 2659 | Psychiatry | null | Post traumatic stress disorder is differentiated from other anxiety disorders by which of the following symptoms?
A. Nightmares
B. Re-living of past adverse event
C. Hypervigilance
D. Avoidance
| Re-living of past adverse event |
88396977-bf8d-4ece-a0fc-575f404283d8 | Ans. A PopliteusRef: BDC, vol II pg. 155* Quadriceps femoris is the main and only extensor of knee.* It produces locking action as a result of medial rotation of the femur during the last stage of extension.* To reverse this lock popliteus muscle comes into action and does so by the lateral rotation of femurRemember: Lock is: Quadriceps femoris muscle and, Key is popliteus muscle.Muscles producing movements at the knee jointMovementPrincipal musclesA. Flexion * Biceps femoris* Semitendinosus* SemimembranosusB. ExtensionQuadriceps femorisC. Medial rotation of flexed leg* Popliteus* Semimembranosus* SemitendinosusD. Lateral rotation of flexed leg * Biceps femorisExtra Mile* Quadriceps femoris incudes: Rectus femoris, Vastus Lateralis, Vastis Medialis, Vastus Intermedius.* Rectus femoris is also known as "kicking muscle" | Anatomy | Lower Extremity | Which muscle is responsible for unlocking of knee?
A. Popliteus
B. Quadriceps femoris
C. Semitendinosus
D. Semimembranosus
| Popliteus |
1815507f-a0d9-4c6a-a954-8e44adbac33e | Torsades de pointes (polymorphic ventricular tachycardia) occurs when terfenadine is taken in higher doses or when hepatic metabolism is impaired by disease or by drugs which inhibit the cytochrome P450 responsible for metabolism of terfenadine. Drugs include erythromycin, clarithromycin, ketoconazole and itraconazole. Azithromycin and fluconazole that are excreted unchanged in the urine have not been associated with impaired metabolism of terfenadine. Terfenadine blocks the delayed rectifier potassium channels and prolongs cardiac repolarization and the QT interval. | Pharmacology | null | Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia can occur when terfenadine(antihistaminic):
A. Is coadministrator with azithromycin
B. Is coadministrator with fluconazole
C. Is given in higher doses
D. Reduces QT interval
| Is given in higher doses |
186ba321-f9f4-4bd3-9680-24c873078dda | A i.e. NADH-Q Oxidoreductase; C i.e. Cytochrome C-Q oxidoreductase | Biochemistry | null | Which component transfers four protons:
A. NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
B. Cytochrome -C oxidase
C. Cytochrome C - Q oxidoredictase
D. Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
| NADH-Q Oxidoreductase |
f2531634-72e7-48a7-81f6-177d58425bfd | Syndrome (Gustatory Sweating) aka auriculotemporal syndrome: Frey's syndrome arises as a complication of parotid surgery usually manifesting several months after the operation. lt is characterised by sweating and flushing of the preauricular skin during mastication causing nuisance to the person or social embarrassment. It is the result of damage to auriculotemporal nerve and aberrant innervation of sweat glands by parasympathetic secretomotor fibres which were destined for the parotid. Now instead of causing salivary secretion from the parotid, they cause secretion from the sweat glands. The condition can be treated by tympanic neurectomy which intercepts these parasympathetic fibres at the level of middle ear. Some people like to place a sheet of fascia lata between the skin and the underlying fat to prevent secretomotor fibres reaching the sweat glands. Generally, no treatment other than reassurance is required in most of these patients. Also known as Crocodile tears (gustatory lacrimation): There is unilateral lacrimation with mastication. This is due to faulty regeneration of parasympathetic fibres which now supply lacrimal gland instead of the salivary glands. It can be treated by section of greater superficial petrosal nerve or tympanic neurectomy. | Surgery | null | Which of the following nerve is involved in Frey's syndrome?
A. Trigeminal
B. Mandibular
C. Ariculo temporal
D. Lingual
| Ariculo temporal |
485df1f3-140b-460d-89e2-d35cda7239d8 | Ans. A Lateral pterygoidRef: Grays, 41st ed. pg. 507-508* The primary function of the lateral pterygoid muscle is to pull the head of the condyle out of the mandibular fossa along the articular eminence to protrude the mandible.* The effort of the lateral pterygoid muscles acts in helping lower the mandible and open the jaw whereas unilteral action of a lateral pterygoid produces contralateral excursion (a form of mastication), usually performed in concert with the medial pterygoids.* Unlike the other three muscles of mastication, the lateral pterygoid is the only muscle of mastication that assists in depressing the mandible i.e. opening the jaw. At the beginning of this action it is assisted by the digastric, mylohyoid and geniohyoid muscles. | Anatomy | Neuroanatomy | Opening of mouth is caused by:
A. Lateral pterygoid
B. Medial pterygoid
C. Temporalis
D. Masseter
| Lateral pterygoid |
b83ec510-9c3f-4f3c-ae71-6cad16b917ea | Ans-D i.e., Impaired liver function Repeat Q No 173 (Nov. 2004)Absolute contraindications include:A personal h/O thromboembolic venous, arterial or cardiac disease or severe or multiple risk factor for these. Transient cerebral ischaemic attacks without a headache.Infective hepatitis, until 3 months after liver function tests has become normal, and another liver disease including disturbances of hepatic excretion e.g. cholestatic jaundice, Dubin Johnson and Rotor syndromes.A migraine, if there is a typical aura, focal features or if it is severe and lasts > 72 hours despite t/t or is treated with an ergot derivative.Carcinoma of the breast or the genital tractOther conditions including SLE, porphyria, following the evacuation of a hydatidiform mole (until urine and plasma gonadotropin concentrations are normal), undiagnosed vaginal bleeding.Relative contraindications of OCP'sThe family history of venous thromboembolism, arterial disease or a known prethrombotic condition e.g. Factor V Leiden (pretreatment coagulation investigation is advised).Diabetes mellitus which may be precipitated or become more difficult to control (avoid if there are diabetic complications).Hypertension (avoid if B.P. exceeds 160/100)Smoking > 40 Cigarettes per day (15 Cigarettes/day enhances the risk of circulatory disease and constitutes an absolute contraindication for women over 35 years.Long-term immobility (e.g. due to Leg plaster, confinement to bed.Breastfeeding (until weaning or for 6 months after birth).Obesity | Unknown | null | In a young female of reproductive age an absolute contraindication for prescribing oral contraceptive pills is:
A. Diabetes
B. Hypertension
C. Obesity
D. Impaired liver function
| Impaired liver function |
0fcd762f-fc59-486b-b27d-3295dbaf0e2c | BSS plus a balanced salt solution enhanced with bicarbonate, dextrose and glutathione. It is specially used for surgeries requiring prolonged irrigation such as phacoemulsification, pars plana vitrectomy and automated extracapsular cataract extraction. Balanced sterile solution is a sterile physiologically balanced irrigating fluid. It is the most frequently used solution during ophthalmic surgery to keep the cornea from drying out. BSS plus solution causes less corneal edema and endothelial cell damage following vitrectomy. The glutathione protects against depletion of endothelial ATP levels and maintains the integrity of the cell membrane by counteracting endogenous and exogenous oxidative agents. Ref: Surgical Technology for the Surgical Technologist: A Positive Care Approach By Association of Surgical Technologists page 223. Ocular Toxicity of Intraoperatively Used Drugs and Solutions By Rudolph Marie Matheus Antonius Nuijts page 16. Clinical Ophthalmology: Contemporary Perspectives, 9/e By Gupta page 43. | Ophthalmology | null | Which among the following is the BEST irrigating fluid during ECCE?
A. Ringer lactate
B. Normal saline
C. Balanced salt solution
D. Balanced salt solution + glutathione
| Balanced salt solution + glutathione |
a5f415f4-c085-46c1-936b-4550065920f9 | Ans. B: Hook worm Morbidity and moality from hookworm infection depend much on the worm load. Chandler worked out an index on the basis of an average number of hookworm eggs per gram of feces for the entire community, Chandler's index is still used in epidemiological studies of hookworm disease. By this index, worm loads in different population groups can be compared and also the degree of reduction of egg output after mass treatment. | Social & Preventive Medicine | null | Chandler's index is associated with: September 2006
A. Round worm
B. Hook worm
C. Pin worm
D. Tape worm
| Hook worm |
bafc8c3c-4119-4aa0-a7e5-0f48ed28ccd4 | Ref - Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine and toxicology 5e pg - 202 | Forensic Medicine | Mechanical injuries | One of the following is the first enzyme to be released at the site of wound?
A. Aminopeptidase
B. ATPase
C. Acid phosphatase
D. Alkaline phosphatase
| ATPase |
ab838e4c-721e-490c-b721-f2eec9403c66 | Physical findings of diabetic ketoacidosis are tachycardia, dehydration/hypotension, hypothermia, tachypnea/Kussmaul respirations/ respiratory distress, abdominal tenderness (may resemble acute pancreatitis or surgical abdomen), lethargy/obtundation/cerebral edema/possibly coma. Reference : page 2418 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | Medicine | Endocrinology | Sign of diabetic ketoacidosis is-
A. Loss of sweating
B. Depression
C. Dehydration
D. Absent deep tendon reflexes
| Dehydration |
7d6f7593-99bd-4fa2-9722-2e813270f187 | Ans. C: Ivermectin Ivermectin is used as single oral dose of 200 microgram/ kg body weight It can be repeated after 2 weeks It is indicated in epidemics of scabies in orphanages and Norwegian scabies Scabies: Incubation period: 4 weeks Pathognomic lesion: Burrow, which lies in stratum corneum MC site in infants: Scalp, face Most severe form: Norwegian scabies Drug used orally: Ivermectin | Skin | null | Which of the following drug is used in scabies as single oral dose agent: March 2011
A. Permethrin
B. Retinoids
C. Ivermectin
D. Co-trimoxazole
| Ivermectin |
15285e5f-a482-4072-a123-0ebf1995c01b | Complication perforation(1.3%)/hemorrhage (1.4%),pancreatitis (4.3%) and sepsis (3-30%). Bailey & Love 26th, 208 | Surgery | G.I.T | Most common complication after ERCP is
A. Acute Pancreatitis
B. Acute cholangitis
C. Acute cholecystitis
D. Duodenal perforation
| Acute Pancreatitis |
68ce51d2-1478-4b0f-a475-66709c49f908 | Of the conditions listed, only pancreatic head tumors are associated with an increase in conjugated ("direct") bilirubin (obstructive jaundice). Increased levels of unconjugated ("direct") bilirubin result from hemolysis over liver defects that impair uptake or conjugation mechanism in liver cells (Gilbe's syndrome, Crigler- Najjar syndrome) positive. Unconjugated bilirubin may cross the immature blood brain Barrier of the newborn and cause Kernicterus. The physiologic jaundice of the newborn observed during the first week of bih is usually mild and due to relatively immature liver conjugation. Ref: Cothren C., Biffl W.L., Moore E.E. (2010). Chapter 7. Trauma. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | Surgery | null | Which of the following clinical situations is associated with an increase in predominantly conjugated ("direct") bilirubin?
A. Physiologic jaundice of the neonate
B. Kernicterus Following Rhesus Incompatibility
C. Gilbe's Syndrome
D. Pancreatic head tumor
| Pancreatic head tumor |
a544e2fd-3cd4-4d3d-9b0a-ec6848b70e9d | All inhalational anaesthetics directly act on cerebral blood vessels→vasodilatation→increase cerebral blood flow→ increase intracranial tension | Anaesthesia | null | Which anaesthetic agent increases intracranial tension among the following
A. Thiopentone
B. Propofol
C. Lignocaine
D. Sevoflurane
| Sevoflurane |
a3ceeb36-5207-4a64-b433-d608219c0967 | Stratum Lucidum - Also called clear cell layer. Present only in skin of palms and soles. Translucent due to presence of refractile Eleidin granules | Dental | Layers of epidermis, dermis | Granules of Eleidin are present in which of the following layer?
A. Stratum corneum
B. Stratum lucidum
C. Stratum spinosum
D. Stratum basale
| Stratum lucidum |
ccd164d1-984c-4b6f-a02e-fac406b5a4be | Sleep related enuresis- Treatment Bed alarms (behavioral therapy)- TOC Desmopressin (DOC) Imipramine (TCA Antidepressant) | Psychiatry | Sleep Disorders | Antidepressant drug used in nocturnal enuresis is:
A. Imipramine
B. Fluoxetine
C. Trazodone
D. Seraline
| Imipramine |
b5ec622b-1dc1-432e-8325-4cf29c72af46 | The initial, and often definitive, management of hyponatremia is free-water restriction. Symptomatic hyponatremia, which occurs at serum sodium levels less than or equal to 120 mEq/L, can result in headache, seizures, coma, and signs of increased intracranial pressure and may require infusion of hypeonic saline. Rapid correction should be avoided so as not to cause central pontine myelinolysis, manifested by neurologic symptoms ranging from seizures to brain damage and death. Additionally, a search for the underlying etiology of the hyponatremia should be undeaken. Acute severe hyponatremia sometimes occurs following elective surgical procedures due to a combination of appropriate stimulation of antidiuretic hormone and injudicious administration of excess free water in the first few postoperative days. Other potential etiologies include hyperosmolarity with free-water shifts from the intra- to the extracellular compament (eg, hyperglycemia), sodium depletion (eg, gastrointestinal or renal losses, insufficient intake), dilution (eg, drug-induced), and the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). | Anaesthesia | Preoperative assessment and monitoring in anaesthesia | Five days after an uneventful cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic middle-aged woman is found to have a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?
A. Administration of hypeonic saline solution
B. Restriction of free water
C. Plasma ultrafiltration
D. Hemodialysis
| Restriction of free water |
b04ed4e3-15a4-452d-b6fb-7d0849520507 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypothyroidism Causes of dementiaReversible causesSurgically treatableMedically treatableo Normal pressure hydrocephaluso Brain tumors (frontal lobe tumor)o Meningiomao Subdural hematoma (Head injury)o Hydrocephaluso Hypothyroidismo Depressiono HIV infectiono Alcohol abuseo Vitamin B12, Folate, Niacin deficiencyo Any metabolic or endocrine disturbanceo Neurosyphiliso Hashimoto's encephalopathy o Wilson's diseaseo Celiac disease or Whipple's diseaseo Chronic meningoencephalitiso Drugs and toxin (toxic dementia)Irreversible causeso Alzheimer's diseaseo Huntington's choreao Lewy body dementiao Vascular (Multi-infarct) dementiao Parkinson's diseaseo Creutzfeld Jakob diseaseo Pick's diseaseo Overall Alzheimer's disease is the most common cause. Vascular dementia is the 2nd most common cause. | Psychiatry | Dementia Due to Metabolic Causes | Reversible cause of dementia is -
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Parkinsonism
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Vascular dementia
| Hypothyroidism |
29447292-3080-4f86-a058-16c7cd4c807e | Ans. is 'a' i.e., PCOS o The clinical and laboratory features of the patient described in the question match with those of PCOS as depicted in the table. So the most appropriate answer is PCOS.Clinical features of polycystic ovarian diseaseClinical featureHannonalSequelaeo Young womano | E2. levelo Diabaetes (15%)o Central obesityo | FSH | LH > 10 IU/mlo CVS disorder# SMI > 30kg/cm2o | FSK/LH ratioo Lipidaemia# Waist line > 35o | Androgenso Hypertensiono Gligomenorrhoea, amenorrhoeao Testosterone,epiandrostenedione. |dehydropepiandrosterone |o Endometrial cancero Infertility (20%)o Breast cancero Hirsutismo Premature ovariano Acanthosis nigra due to insulin resistance, Thick pigmented skin over the nape of neck, inner thigh and axillao 17-alpha-hvdroxy progesterone> 800 ng.'dLfailure following surgeryo Testosterone > 2 ng/mlo Most androgens from ovaryo | fasting insulin > l0mlu/Lo Protactin |o Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG)o | E2/oestrone (E1) ratioo F glucose,'insulin ratio <4-5 (normal 2-4-4-5) | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Disorders of Ovulation - Anovulation | A obese female having hirsutism on laboratory investigation has high level of LH and androgens. Likely cause is-
A. PCOS
B. Exogenous steroid ingestion
C. Turner syndrome
D. Kleinfelter syndrome
| PCOS |
ee5d7bf0-621a-4dd9-a662-dc6f7299773e | Ans. A: Retinitis pigmentosaGIT premalignant conditionsOf the four major primary small-bowel tumors (adenocarcinomas, lymphomas, carcinoid, and leiomyosarcomas), adenocarcinomas and lymphomas are associated with diseases that seem to increase the risk of developing these malignancies.Immunoproliferative small intestinal disease and celiac disease, are thought to predispose patients to the development of primary lymphoma.Increased risk is also associated with conditions, such as immunodeficiency syndromes, nodular lymphoid hyperplasia, Crohn's disease, the gastrointestinal polyposis syndromes, hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer, neurofibromatosis, long-standing ileostomy, and urinary diversion procedures.Patient with long standing ulcerative colitis are at risk of developing colonic epithelial dysplaia and carcinoma.Oral cavity premalignant conditionsMany oral SCCs develop from premalignant conditions of the oral cavity.A wide array of conditions have been implicated in the development of oral cancer, including leukoplakia, erythroplakia, palatal lesion of reverse cigar smoking, oral lichen planus, oral submucous fibrosis, discoid lupus erythematosus, and hereditary disorders such as dyskeratosis congenital and epidermolysis bullosaOther pre-malignant conditions include actinic keratosis, Barrett's esophagus and cervical dysplasia. | Medicine | null | Not a premalignant condition: March 2005
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Crohn's disease
C. Ulcerative colitis
D. Leukoplakia
| Retinitis pigmentosa |
5ecaa0ed-8d29-40b5-b01f-df7e1339e66e | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 150 microgram o The RDA of iodine for adults is 150 microgram.GroupRecommended daily intakePreschool children (0-59 months)School children (6 - 12 years)Adults (>12 years)Pregnancy and lactation90 meg120 meg150 meg250 meg | Social & Preventive Medicine | Nutrition and Health | Iodine RDA is -
A. 300 microgram
B. 500 microgram
C. 150 microgram
D. 50microgram
| 150 microgram |
e44640d5-48ed-4062-87c2-fc924592d230 | Garrotting Garrotting: One of the methods of hemicidal strangulation The victim is attacked from behind without warning and strangled by grasping throat or by throwing a ligature over the neck and tightening it quickly. In this way a single assailant can kill a healthy robust adult. Garrotting was practices as a mode of execution in Spain. Pougal and Turkey. In Spain it was known as `spanish windlass' in which an iron collar around the neck was tightened by a screw for strangling Other common methods of homicidal strangulation are: Throttling - by hand Bansdola - In this type of strangulation the neck is compressed between two sticks of bamboos one in front and other behind the neck. Both the ends are tied with a rope squeezing the victim to the death. Sometimes a single stick is placed across the .front of the neck with a foot on each end of the stick. Mugging - Strangulation is caused by holding the neck of the victim in the bend of the elbow. | Forensic Medicine | null | Spanish windlass was practices in Spain as a method of execution. It is a type of:
A. Bansdola
B. Mugging
C. Garrotting
D. Hanging
| Garrotting |
1cc342d1-07ab-444f-87fe-500db0036571 | D i.e. Acetylation Pantothenic acid is necessary for synthesis of coenzyme A (CoA)Q, which functions as a coenzyme for acetylation reactionsQ | Biochemistry | null | Panthothenic acid is coenzyme of which of the following reaction (s):
A. Dehydrogenation
B. Oxidation
C. Decarboxylation
D. Acetylation
| Acetylation |
9d1f476f-83c0-4020-9a21-eca236b4b831 | Answer is B (Endoscopy): Dysphagia for solids alone suggests a probable mechanical cause for dysphagia such as carcinoma, stricture or esophageal web. The investigation of choice for such cases is Endoscopy. | Medicine | null | Oesophageal motility disorder are best diagnosed by?
A. Barium studies
B. Endoscopy
C. 24 hour pH monitoring
D. Manometry
| Endoscopy |
7a834eac-011c-46e0-8580-ea4dde20b332 | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hypoglycemia o Sweating and palpitations suggest hypoglycemia; which can occur due to quinine. Cinchonism is characterized by ringing in ears, nausea, vomiting, veigo, headache, mental confusion, difficulty in hearing and vision. Hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias develop on rapid i.v. injection. | Pharmacology | null | Quinine given to a patient of falciparum malaria caused sweating and palpitation, the likely cause is?
A. Cinchonism
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypokalemia
| Hypoglycemia |
bed1db02-0efc-436d-912c-12b439b7bd88 | Glycogen is the reserve carbohydrate in animals. It is stored in liver and muscles.The phosphorylated enzyme is less sensitive to allosteric inhibitors. Thus even if cellular ATP and glucose-6-phosphate are high, Phosphorylase will be active. The glucose-1-phosphate produced from glycogen in the liver may be conveed to free glucose for release to the blood. | Biochemistry | Metabolism of carbohydrate | Main source of energy derived from
A. Fat
B. Glycogen
C. Lactate
D. Ketone
| Glycogen |
5782c8ae-0a5b-4b61-9c36-9f7cd6db1019 | Reverse Coarctation ;weak or absent pulse in upper limb + pulse present in lower limb. | Medicine | null | Reverse Coarctation is seen in
A. Giant cell arteritis
B. Takayasu arteritis
C. Polyarteritis nodosa
D. Microscopic polyangitis
| Takayasu arteritis |
c8025448-c143-4985-bc62-6f4497321667 | (Warfarin) (601-KDT6th)* WARFARIN - It crosses placenta and is secreted in milk however quantity of active form is generally insufficient to affect the suckling infants* HEPARIN - does not cross BBB or placenta**- It is the anticoagulant of choice during pregnancy*** Bleeding due to overdose is the most serious complication of heparin therapy** other side effects are thrombocytopenia, * alopecia, * osteoporosis*, hypersensitivity reactions. | Pharmacology | Hematology | Which of the following drug crosses placenta
A. Heparin
B. Warfarin
C. Dicumarol
D. Nicoumalone
| Warfarin |
20538003-bd04-47e0-bf66-be95c6645f2c | Ref Robbins 9/e p224 Thymic Hypoplasia: DiGeorge Syndrome DiGeorge syndrome results from a congenital defect in thymic development with deficient T cell maturation. T cells are absent in the lymph nodes, spleen, and peripheral blood, and infants with this defect are extremely vulnera- ble to viral, fungal, and protozoal infections. Patients are also susceptible to infection with intracellular bacteria, because of defective T cell-mediated immunity. B cells and serum immunoglobulins are generally unaffected. The disorder is a consequence of a developmental mal- formation affecting the third and fouh pharyngeal pouches, structures that give rise to the thymus, parathy- roid glands, and poions of the face and aoic arch. Thus, in addition to the thymic and T cell defects, there may be parathyroid gland hypoplasia, resulting in hypocalce- mic tetany, as well as additional midline developmental abnormalities. In 90% of cases of DiGeorge syndrome there is a deletion affecting chromosomal region 22q11, as discussed in Chapter 6. Transplantation of thymic tissue has successfully treated some affected infants. In patients with paial defects, immunity may improve spontane- ously with age. | Anatomy | General anatomy | Thymic hypoplsia is seen in which of the following
A. Wiskott Aldrich syndrome
B. Digeorge syndrome
C. IgA deficiency
D. Agammaglobulinamia
| Agammaglobulinamia |
0397f010-664b-4e76-90fc-8256260db0fe | Types of Osteochondritis and Nomenclature Traction apophysitis (chronic strain injuries) Tibial Tuberosity Osgood-Schlatter Calcaneum Sever The lower pole of patella Sinding-Larsen&;s | Microbiology | All India exam | Osgood Schlatter disease is associated with osteochondritis of
A. Patella
B. Femur medial condyle
C. Tibial tubercle
D. Femur lateral condyle
| Tibial tubercle |
e8879409-6038-41f0-85ed-c7aab99ad82b | Dactylography or fingerprint system or dermatoglyphics or Galton system was first used in India in 1858, by Sir William Herschel in Bengal. Sir Francis Galton systematised this in 1892. Finger print bureau was first established in Kolkata.Fingerprints are impressions of patterns formed by the papillary or epidermal ridges of the fingeips. Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology by Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 76. | Forensic Medicine | null | Finger print bureau was first established in the following country:
A. India
B. England
C. USA
D. France
| India |
ccedc14b-e67c-4001-ac2f-ba3d1c05fdf2 | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Piperacillin Drugs acting against Pseudomonas. o Penicillins- Piperacillin, Carbenicillin, Ticarcillin, Mezlocillin. o Cephalosporins - Ceftazidime, Cefoperazone, Cefepime. o Carbapenems- Imipenem, meropenem o Monobactams - Aztreonam. o Aminoglycosides - Tobramycin, Gentamycin, Amikacin. o Fluroquinolones - Ciprofloxacin, Levofloxacin, Norfloxacin.. o Other - Polymixin B, Colistin. | Pharmacology | null | Which of the following drug acts against Pseudomonas -
A. Piperacillin
B. Methicillin
C. Nafcillin
D. Cloxacillin
| Piperacillin |
14ad749d-17b1-4bea-9f35-41d5fb11c816 | Spetzler-Main AVM grading scale. Graded Feature Points Assigned Size of AVM < 3 cm 3-6 cm >6 cm 1 2 3 Eloquence1 of adjacent brain Noneloquent Eloquent 0 1 Venous drainage Superficial Deep 0 1 'Eloquent areas include: visual, language, and sensorimotor coex; the thalamus and hypothalamus; the internal capsule; the brainstem; the cerebellar peduncles; and the deep cerebellar nuclei. | Surgery | JIPMER 2018 | According to Spetzler-Main criteria, how much score is given for a 5 cm nidus with AV malformation?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 5
| 2 |
e828463d-f844-4e66-acb8-7b75e9733df4 | Macrosomia:- A condition where a baby is large before bihFactors causing macrosomia:Mother having diabetesMother having gestational diabetesObese mother(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 777, 897 - 899) | Pediatrics | All India exam | Macrosomia is a
A. Large size baby
B. Big mouth
C. Large head
D. Large tongue
| Large size baby |
0cf7ee02-2b75-4f5a-a94c-dc293653698e | Scintillation counter: It measures ionizing radiation. The sensor, called a scintillator, consists of a transparent crystal, usually phosphor, plastic, or organic liquid that fluoresces when struck by ionizing radiation. A sensitive photomultiplier tube (PMT) measures the light from the crystal. The PMT is attached to an electronic amplifier and other electronic equipment to count and possibly quantify the amplitude of the signals produced by the photomultiplier. Geiger counter: Is a type of paicle detector that measures ionizing radiation. They detect the emission of nuclear radiation: alpha paicles, beta paicles or gamma rays. It detects radiation by ionization produced in a low pressure gas in a Geiger Muller tube. | Radiology | Nuclear medicine | Which one of the following device conves radioactive emissions to light for detection?
A. Geiger counter
B. Photographic film
C. Scintillation counter
D. Radiotracer
| Scintillation counter |
f0f4d63e-5f4d-4994-bca1-ae5af65f0433 | Ans. D: Caecum Adult Enterobius vermicularis worms inhabit the caecum, appendix and adjacent poions of the ascending colon, lying closely applied to the mucosal surface. Pinworm (genus En terobius)/Threadworm/Seatworm, It is a nematode (roundworm) and a common human intestinal parasite, especially in children. It inhabits the caecum, appendix and adjacent poion of the ascending colon, lying closely applied to the mucosal surface It causes enterobiasis, or less precisely as oxyuriasis in reference to the family Oxyuridae. The pinworm appears as a white, small and delicate nematode. The adult female has a sharply pointed posterior end, is 8 to 13 millimeters long, and 0.5 millimeter thick. The adult male is considerably smaller, measuring 2 to 5 millimeters long and 0.2 millimeter thick, and has a curved posterior end. The eggs are translucent and have a surface that adheres to environmental objects. The eggs measure 50 to 60 micrometers by 20 to 30 micrometers, and have a thick shell that is flattened on one side. The small size and colorlessness of the eggs make them invisible to the naked eye, except in barely visible clumps of thousands of eggs. Eggs may contain a developing embryo or a fully developed pinworm larva.Inside the host, the larvae grow to 140-150 micrometers in length Pinworms spread through human-to-human transmission, by ingesting (i.e., swallowing) infectious pinworm eggs and/or by anal sex. The eggs are hardy and can remain ble (i.e., infectious) in a moist environment for up to three weeks.They do not tolerate heat well, but can survive in low temperatures: two-thirds of the eggs are still ble after 18 hours at -8 degrees Celsius (18 degF). After the eggs have been initially deposited near the anus, they are readily transmitted to other surfaces through contamination. The surface of the eggs is sticky when laid, and the eggs are readily transmitted from their initial deposit near the anus to fingernails, hands, night-clothing and bed linen.From here, eggs are fuher transmitted to food, water, furniture, toys, bathroom fixtures and other objects.Household pets often carry the eggs in their fur, while not actually being infected. Dust containing eggs can become airborne and widely dispersed when dislodged from surfaces, for instance when shaking out bed clothes and linen.Consequently the eggs can enter the mouth and nose through inhalation, and be swallowed later. Although pinworms do not strictly multiply inside the body of their human host, some of the pinworm larvae may hatch on the anal mucosa, and migrate up the bowel and back into the gastrointestinal tract of the original host. This process is called retroinfection. Despite the limited, 13 week lifespan of individual pinworms, autoinfection (i.e., infection from the original host to itself), either through the anus-to-mouth route or through retroinfection, causes the pinworms to inhabit the same host indefinitely | Microbiology | null | Enterobius commonly inhabit the: September 2011
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Caecum
| Caecum |
bd88d061-0cde-4bad-aaaf-1147a1018f51 | Ans: C HypovolemiaRef: Guyton 12th/e p. 9051Hypovolemia (Decreased ECF) stimulates the release of ADH.Vasopressin secretion is increased by: - i) Increased osmolarity (osmotic pressure) of plasma; ii) Decreased ECF volume; iii) Pain, emotion, stress, exercise; iv) Nausea and vomiting; v) Standing; vi) Clofibrate, Carbamazapine; vii) Angiotensin II. | Physiology | null | Which of the following results in increase in secretion of ADH?
A. Hypervolemia
B. Hypeension
C. Hypovolemia
D. Decrease osmolarity
| Hypovolemia |
c51ac107-3607-4bb8-8ed2-f6b8984f2cd1 | Diabetes insipidus is condition characterised by excessive thirst excretion of large amounts of severely diluted urine Those with diabetes insipidus continue to uinate large amount of urine in spite of water deprivation.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 373 | Biochemistry | Endocrinology | Urine osmolality in Diabetes insipidus is
A. <150 mmol/L
B. <300 mmol/L
C. <600 mmol/L
D. <900 mmol/L
| <150 mmol/L |
88613448-175a-4979-835b-9fc73ab95aad | Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin molecule found in fish liver oils, and also produced in the skin when subjected to ultraviolet rays from sunlight. The main function of the vitamin is to increase the utilization of calcium and phosphorus in bones and teeth. A mixture of several forms of vitamin D: Vitamin D3 is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to ultraviolet light; in contrast, vitamin D2 is obtained only from the diet. Both vitamins D2 and D3 are metabolized to 25-hydroxyvitamin D in the liver, and then to the active 1,25 dihydroxy form in the kidney. Vitamin D has a major role in the intestinal absorption of calcium, bone calcium balance and renal excretion of calcium.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology;24th edition; page no-379 | Physiology | Endocrinology | 1-a hydroxylation in Vitamin-D metabolism takes place in
A. Skin
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Blood
| Kidney |
7450511e-382a-4dcf-8432-99316daafe96 | Ans. is `c' i.e., Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide Magaldrate: Magaldrateis a common antaciddrug that is used for the treatment of duodenal and gastric ulcers, esophagitis from gastroesophageal reflux. Magaldrate is a hydroxymagnesium aluminate complex that is conveed rapidly in gastric acid to Mg(OH), and Al(OH)3, which are absorbed poorly and thus provide a sustained antacid effect. | Pharmacology | null | Magaldrate is conveed by gastric acid to ?
A. Magnesium hydroxide
B. Magnesium hydroxide and calcium carbonate
C. Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide
D. Calcium carbonate and aluminium hydroxide
| Magnesium hydroxide and Aluminium hydroxide |
52208617-c3a7-4e5d-97f5-e0e47cd31a5d | Local anesthetics block generation and conduction of nerve impulse at all part of neuron where they come in contact, without causing structural damage. Thus not only sensory but motor impulses and autonomic control is also interrupted. | Anaesthesia | null | Which of the following nerves are affected after spinal anaesthetic block –
A. Motor and sensory only
B. Sensory and autonomic nerve only
C. Sensory nerves only
D. Sensory, autonomic and motor nerves
| Sensory, autonomic and motor nerves |
1254a5a8-b91d-488a-be86-31996f0fa084 | Ans. b. Acne4 steps in pathogenesis of Acne are:Sebum productionHyperkeratosis of pilosebaceous unitPropionibacterium acnes colonization of pilosebaceous unit Inflammation | Skin | General | In sebaceous glands, accumulation of sebum leads to:
A. Milia
B. Acne
C. Epidermoid cyst
D. Miliaria
| Acne |
4aaa1979-d835-4536-9c75-19b54a255241 | Childhood Chronic ill health in childhood or adolescent IBD may result in growth failure, metabolic bone disease and delayed pubey. Loss of schooling and social contact, as well as frequent hospitalisation, can have impoant psychosocial consequences.Treatment is similar to that described for adults and may require glucocoicoids, immunosuppressive drugs, biological agents and surgery. Monitoring of height, weight and sexual development is crucial. Children with IBD should be managed by specialised paediatric gastroenterologists and transitioned to adult care in dedicated clinics . Pregnancy A women's ability to become pregnant is adversely affected by active IBD. Pre-conceptual counselling should focus on optimising disease control. During pregnancy, the rule of thirds applies: roughly one-third of women improve, one-third get worse and one-third remain stable with active disease. In the post-paum period, these changes sometimes reverse spontaneously. Drug therapy, including aminosalicylates, glucocoicoids Delayed growth and pubeal development: chronic active inflammation, malabsorption, malnutrition and long-term glucocoicoids contribute to sho stature and delayed development, with physical and psychological consequences. * Metabolic bone disease: more common with chronic disease beginning in childhood, resulting from chronic inflammation, dietary deficiency and malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D. * Drug side-effects and adherence issues: young people are more likely to require azathioprine or biological therapy than adults. Poor adherence to therapy is more common than with adults, as younger patients may feel well, lack self-motivation to adhere and believe that drugs are ineffective or cause side-effects. * Loss of time from education: physical illness, surgery, fatigue in chronic inflammatory bowel disease, privacy and dignity issues, and social isolation may all contribute. * Emotional difficulties: may result from challenges in coping with illness, problems with forming interpersonal relationships, and issues relating to body image or sexual function. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg823 | Medicine | G.I.T | A young girl presents with abdominal pain and a recent change in bowel habit, with passage of mucus in stool. There is no associated blood in stool and symptoms are increased with stress. The most likely diagnosis is-
A. Irritable bowel syndrome
B. Ulcerative colitis
C. Crohn's disease
D. Amebiasis
| Irritable bowel syndrome |
4f2b500c-9ed9-4f6f-9eeb-c8091d9ab862 | ANSWER: (C) 30-100 cmsREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 40The normal length of umblical cord is around 50cms with usual variation between 30-100 cms | Gynaecology & Obstetrics | The Amnion and Umbilical Cord | Length of umbilical cord is?
A. 40-50 cms
B. 60- 120 cms
C. 30-100 cms
D. 25-40 cms
| 30-100 cms |
da0009e4-46b1-421f-aa47-86d95139e8da | Most of the vitamins are absorbed in the upper small intestine, but vitamin B12 is absorbed in the ileum.Vitamin B12 binds to intrinsic factor and the complex is absorbed across the ileal mucosa.Vitamin B12 and folate absorption are Na+ independent.Other vitamins are absorbed by carriers that are Na+ cotranspoers.(Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology, 23 rd edition, page 458) | Physiology | G.I.T | Vitamin B12 intrinsic factor absorption occurs in
A. Duodenum
B. Ileum
C. Jejunum
D. Colon
| Ileum |
43e26e31-67d1-41b7-9def-5abfe2104297 | A. (Hilum of spleen) (1103-B & L 25th)ACCESSORY SPLEEN (Splenunculi) - probably results from a failure of infusion of splenic embryonic tissues* They are located near the hilum of the spleen in 50% of cases and related to the splenic vessels or behind the tail of pancreas in 30%. The remainder are located in the mesocolon or the splenic ligaments* These are functionally similar to the spleen and while performing splenectomy for blood dyscrasias removal of these accessory spleens are obligatory, otherwise there always remains a chance of recurrence* Axis of spleen enlargement projects into- Greater sac** | Surgery | Spleen | Splenunculi are commonly seen in
A. Hilum of spleen
B. Tail of spleen
C. Mesocolon
D. Splenic ligaments
| Hilum of spleen |
Subsets and Splits
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