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11,600
NDQ_010654
fermentation
what is the main goal of fermentation?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. to produce two ATP, b. to allow glycolysis to occur, c. to make alcohol, d. to produce lactic acid
b
11,601
NDQ_010655
fermentation
what organisms perform lactic acid fermentation under anaerobic conditions?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. plants, b. animals, c. fungi, d. both (b
d
11,602
NDQ_010656
fermentation
lactic acid fermentation is used to make which of the following products?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. drinking alcohol, b. bread, c. yogurt, d. all of the above
c
11,603
NDQ_010657
fermentation
what process allows bread to rise?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. aerobic respiration, b. lactic acid fermentation, c. alcoholic fermentation, d. photosynthesis
c
11,604
NDQ_010678
fish
whales are the biggest fish.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,605
NDQ_010679
fish
some fish can live on land for short periods.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,606
NDQ_010683
fish
ectothermy is a characteristic of fish? what is ectothermy?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Being cold-blooded., b. Not being able to raise body temperature without help., c. Being dependent on the environment to maintain body temperature., d. all of the above
d
11,607
NDQ_010684
fish
what is a unique characteristic of some cartilaginous fish?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. They are not endothermic., b. They have very flexible pectoral fins., c. They reproduce asexually., d. all of the above
b
11,608
NDQ_010685
fish
what is a unique characteristic of tuna and swordfish?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. They are not covered with scales., b. They are able to raise their body temperature above that of the surrounding, c. They breathe using either gills or lungs., d. all of the above
b
11,609
NDQ_010686
fish
what do the two biggest fish have in common?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Both are fierce rulers of their habitat., b. Both are filter feeders., c. Both are ferocious carnivores., d. all of the above
b
11,610
NDQ_010687
fish
what is significant about the smallest vertebrate?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. It does not have a cranium., b. It is not a true fish., c. It does not use gills to breathe., d. It does not have fins.
a
11,611
NDQ_010688
flatworms
the flatworms are the first significant phylum with bilateral symmetry.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,612
NDQ_010689
flatworms
most flatworms are parasites.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,613
NDQ_010693
flatworms
how does respiration occur in flatworms?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Respiration occurs by the movement of oxygen over the gills., b. Respiration occurs by the diffusion of oxygen into the lungs., c. Respiration occurs by the diffusion of oxygen into the worm body., d. All of the above methods are used by worms to respire.
c
11,614
NDQ_010694
flatworms
what is cephalization?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Cephalization is the development of a head region., b. Cephalization refers to the flatworms head region., c. Cephalization includes the two eye spots., d. Cephalization is the development of the nerve net running the length of the flatworm body.
a
11,615
NDQ_010695
flatworms
how are nutrients distributed throughout the flatworm?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Nutrients are carried by the blood through the flatworm., b. Nutrients are distributed by diffusion., c. Nutrients are distributed by the digestive tract., d. Nutrients are distributed by the gastrovascular cavity.
d
11,616
NDQ_010696
flatworms
which best describes the flatworm digestive system?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Flatworms have a complete digestive system, with two openings, a mouth and an anus., b. Flatworms have an incomplete digestive system, with two openings, a mouth and an anus., c. Flatworms have an incomplete digestive system, with just one opening., d. Flatworms do not have a digestive system.
c
11,617
NDQ_010697
flatworms
a body cavity usually refers to the space located between an animals outer covering and the outer lining of the gut cavity. coelomates have a complete body cavity where organs attach and develop. pseudocoelomates have a body cavity that loosely holds organs in place. acoelomates do not have a body cavity. what type of animals are flatworms?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. coelomates, b. pseudocoelomates, c. acoelomates, d. none of the above
a
11,618
NDQ_010698
food and nutrients
there are more carbohydrates in a salad than in a steak.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,619
NDQ_010699
food and nutrients
the four types of nutrients are carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,620
NDQ_010703
food and nutrients
what is the main source of energy for your body?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. lipids, b. proteins, c. carbohydrates, d. nucleic acids
c
11,621
NDQ_010704
food and nutrients
which of the following are proteins built from amino acids?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. enzymes, antibodies, and muscle fibers, b. DNA and RNA, c. glucose and starch, d. olive oil
a
11,622
NDQ_010705
food and nutrients
what type of food provides lipids?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. pizza, b. broccoli, c. peanut oil, d. hot dog
c
11,623
NDQ_010706
food and nutrients
what process turns glucose into usable energy?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. cellular respiration, b. photosynthesis, c. digestion, d. metabolism
a
11,624
NDQ_010707
food and nutrients
why does your body need food?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Food provides building materials for your body., b. Food contains substances that help control body processes., c. Food gives your body energy., d. all of the above
d
11,625
NDQ_010718
fossils
fossils are the preserved remains of animals, plants, and other organisms from the distant past.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,626
NDQ_010719
fossils
fossiltologists are scientists who study fossils to learn about life in the past.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,627
NDQ_010723
fossils
which best describes radiometric dating?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Measures the accumulation of radiometric materials in a sample., b. Measures the breakdown of radioactive materials in a sample., c. Dates material by measuring radiometric samples., d. Dates material by measuring the breakdown of radioactive samples.
b
11,628
NDQ_010724
fossils
which statement describes the order of materials in the fossil record?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Newer layers form on top of the older layers., b. Newer fossils form on top of the older fossils., c. Older fossils form on top of the newer fossils., d. Older layers form on top of the newer layers.
b
11,629
NDQ_010725
fossils
the oldest rocks on earth are
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. 1 billion years old., b. 5 billion years old., c. between 3 and 4 billion years old., d. between 4 and 5 billion years old.
b
11,630
NDQ_010726
fossils
the fossil record provides evidence for
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. when organisms lived on Earth., b. how some species have gone extinct., c. how species evolved., d. all of the above
d
11,631
NDQ_010727
fossils
the oldest fossils on earth are
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. 1 million years old., b. 1 billion years old, c. between 3 and 4 billion years old., d. between 4 and 5 billion years old.
c
11,632
NDQ_010798
genetic disorders
a genetic disorder is due to a mutation in your dna.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,633
NDQ_010799
genetic disorders
genetic disorders are contagious.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,634
NDQ_010803
genetic disorders
for a child to have cystic fibrosis, the child had to
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. inherit two dominant alleles., b. inherit two recessive alleles., c. inherit one dominant and one recessive allele., d. none of the above
b
11,635
NDQ_010804
genetic disorders
for a child to have huntingtons disease, the child had to
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. inherit two dominant alleles., b. inherit two recessive alleles., c. inherit one dominant and one recessive allele., d. none of the above
c
11,636
NDQ_010805
genetic disorders
tay sachs is an autosomal recessive disorder in which affected individuals die in their childhood. for a child to have tay sachs,
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. both parents must be carriers., b. both parents must have the disease., c. only one parent must have the disease., d. the child must inherit at least one disease allele.
a
11,637
NDQ_010806
genetic disorders
a man with cystic fibrosis marries a normal woman. what is the chance that they will have an affected child?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. 0, b. 25%, c. 50%, d. 100%
a
11,638
NDQ_010807
genetic disorders
what is the chance that two carriers of the cystic fibrosis allele will have a carrier child?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. 0, b. 25%, c. 50%, d. 100%
a
11,639
NDQ_010838
hardy weinberg theorem
at genetic equilibrium, there is no evolution.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,640
NDQ_010839
hardy weinberg theorem
genetic equilibrium rarely occurs in nature.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,641
NDQ_010843
hardy weinberg theorem
which of the following are conditions for hardy-weinberg equilibrium?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. no mutations, b. no natural selection, c. random mating, d. all of the above
d
11,642
NDQ_010844
hardy weinberg theorem
which of the following processes selects for specific alleles?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. natural selection, b. random mating, c. large population, d. migration
a
11,643
NDQ_010845
hardy weinberg theorem
the movement of 100 individuals into an area each winter, and the movement of 50 out of the area each spring is an example of
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. natural selection., b. random mating., c. migration., d. mutation.
c
11,644
NDQ_010846
hardy weinberg theorem
if a population at genetic equilibrium consists of 75% a alleles one generation, how many a alleles will be in the population the next generation.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. 75%, b. 50%, c. 25%, d. 0%
c
11,645
NDQ_010847
hardy weinberg theorem
if a population consists of 10% recessive aa phenotype, what amount of the population has the dominant phenotype?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. 10% AA, b. 80% Aa, c. 90%, d. all of the above
c
11,646
NDQ_010848
harmful bacteria
bacteria can be used as a weapon.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,647
NDQ_010849
harmful bacteria
bacteria are so small, and there are so many, that they cannot be killed.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,648
NDQ_010853
harmful bacteria
which diseases are caused by bacteria?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. strep throat, b. pneumonia, c. leprosy, d. all of the above
d
11,649
NDQ_010854
harmful bacteria
lyme disease can be treated with
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. antibiotics, b. aspirin, c. advil, d. anti-lyme
a
11,650
NDQ_010855
harmful bacteria
what foods may cause food poisoning?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. scrambled eggs and raw meat, b. raw eggs and undercooked meat, c. raw meat and spoiled eggs, d. steak and eggs
b
11,651
NDQ_010856
harmful bacteria
which of the following is an example of a biological weapon?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. anthrax, b. anathrax, c. antibiothrax, d. anaphase
a
11,652
NDQ_010857
harmful bacteria
what part of a bacterium can be deadly?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. the cell wall, b. the cytoplasm, c. the spores, d. the nucleus
c
11,653
NDQ_010858
health hazards of air pollution
over two million people die each year from issues related to air pollution.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,654
NDQ_010859
health hazards of air pollution
by using some precautions, indoor air pollution can usually be controlled.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,655
NDQ_010863
health hazards of air pollution
air pollution related respiratory disorders include
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. asthma, bronchitis, and emphysema., b. asthma, bronchitis, and lung cancer., c. heart disease and lung cancer, d. all of the above
a
11,656
NDQ_010864
health hazards of air pollution
which of the following is a method to protect yourself from indoor air pollution?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Keep your home clean from mold., b. Never burn charcoal indoors., c. Place carbon monoxide detectors in the home., d. all of the above
d
11,657
NDQ_010865
health hazards of air pollution
which of the following is a method to protect yourself from outdoor air pollution?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. wear a mask indoors, b. don’t go outside, c. don’t use charcoal for cooking outdoors, d. all of the above
b
11,658
NDQ_010866
health hazards of air pollution
which of the following is characterized by wheezing, coughing, and a feeling of constriction in the chest?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. lung cancer, b. asthma, c. emphysema, d. the flu
b
11,659
NDQ_010867
health hazards of air pollution
worldwide, there are more deaths linked to air pollution each year than to __________.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. heart disease, b. cancer, c. car accidents, d. all of the above
c
11,660
NDQ_010868
health of the digestive system
lots of people are allergic to shellfish.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,661
NDQ_010869
health of the digestive system
well over 10% of the worlds population has problems digesting milk.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,662
NDQ_010873
health of the digestive system
which are common foods that cause food allergies?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. milk, nuts and apples, b. nuts, steak and eggs, c. milk, shellfish and bananas, d. grains, eggs and nuts
d
11,663
NDQ_010874
health of the digestive system
methods to prevent foodborne illnesses include
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. cooking meats, poultry, fish, and eggs thoroughly., b. keeping cold foods hot and hot foods cold., c. the refrigeration of uncooked foods soon after a meal., d. all of the above
a
11,664
NDQ_010875
health of the digestive system
which virus has caused foodborne illnesses on cruise ships?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. hepatitis A virus, b. norovirus, c. Listeria, d. Salmonella
b
11,665
NDQ_010876
health of the digestive system
symptoms of anaphylaxis include
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. a swollen throat., b. a rapid pulse., c. loss of consciousness., d. all of the above
d
11,666
NDQ_010877
health of the digestive system
common food allergies include
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. tingling or itching of the stomach., b. swelling of the lips, face, tongue and throat., c. a severe drop in blood pressure., d. all of the above
b
11,667
NDQ_010878
hearing and balance
hearing is the ability to sense sound.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,668
NDQ_010879
hearing and balance
our ears interpret the sounds that we hear.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,669
NDQ_010883
hearing and balance
what part of the ear is involved in maintaining balance?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. the tympanic cavity, b. the cochlear nerve, c. the semicircular canals, d. all of the above
c
11,670
NDQ_010884
hearing and balance
once sound waves enter the ear, vibrations pass from the eardrum to the
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. hammer., b. anvil., c. stirrup., d. oval window.
a
11,671
NDQ_010885
hearing and balance
what part of the ear is lined with tiny hairs and filled with fluid?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. the auditory canal, b. the Eustachian tube, c. the cochlea, d. the tympanic cavity
c
11,672
NDQ_010886
hearing and balance
what part of the ear passes vibrations to the cochlea of the inner ear?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. the oval window, b. the round window, c. the cochlear canal, d. the stapes
a
11,673
NDQ_010887
hearing and balance
how is the signal relayed to the brain to tell the body to maintain balance?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. The signal is sent through the cochlear nerve., b. The signal is sent through the vestibular nerve., c. The signal is sent through the Eustachian tube., d. The signal is sent through the semicircular canals.
b
11,674
NDQ_010888
heart
the ventricles are more muscular than the atria.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,675
NDQ_010889
heart
valves in the heart keep the blood flowing in one direction.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,676
NDQ_010893
heart
what is the role of the semilunar valves?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. To stop blood from moving from the arteries into the ventricles., b. To stop blood from moving from the ventricles to the atria., c. To stop blood from moving from the atria to the ventricles., d. To stop blood from moving from the artria to the veins.
a
11,677
NDQ_010894
heart
what happens to the blood in the lungs?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Oxygen-poor blood releases oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide., b. Oxygen-poor blood releases carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen., c. Oxygen-rich blood releases oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide., d. Oxygen-rich blood releases carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen.
b
11,678
NDQ_010895
heart
what part of the heart receives oxygen-poor blood from the body?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. The left ventricle receives oxygen-poor blood from the body., b. The left atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body., c. The right atrium receives oxygen-poor blood from the body., d. The right ventricle receives oxygen-poor blood from the body.
c
11,679
NDQ_010896
heart
what do you think would happen if a heart had a leaky av valve?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Blood would flow back from the ventricles to the atria., b. Blood would flow back from the atria to the ventricles, c. Blood would flow back from the veins to the atria., d. Blood would flow back from the arteries to the ventricles.
a
11,680
NDQ_010897
heart
what do you think would happen if muscle cells contracted independently?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. Only some of the blood would be pushed out., b. Blood would flow backwards into the heart., c. There would not be enough force to push the blood out., d. All of the above would be consequences.
c
11,681
NDQ_010898
helpful bacteria
we need bacteria to survive.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,682
NDQ_010899
helpful bacteria
in your gut, bacteria cells outnumber your own cells.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,683
NDQ_010903
helpful bacteria
during fermentation, bacteria turn milk sugars into
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. carbon dioxide., b. oxygen., c. lactic acid., d. glucose.
c
11,684
NDQ_010904
helpful bacteria
bacteria have been used to produce human versions of
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. lactic acid., b. insulin., c. nitrogen., d. yogurt.
b
11,685
NDQ_010905
helpful bacteria
fermentation occurs in the absence of oxygen. fermentation allows glycolysis, the first step of cellular respiration, to continue, producing 2 atp in the process. lactic acid is produced in certain types of fermentation. what is the waste product in this process?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. glucose, b. lactic acid, c. oxygen, d. ATP
b
11,686
NDQ_010906
helpful bacteria
what process is used when placing a foreign gene into bacteria?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. transformation, b. transduction, c. transcription, d. translation
a
11,687
NDQ_010907
helpful bacteria
decomposers help recycle nutrients so organisms can use them. decomposers include scavengers like vultures, as well as many types of worms, fungi and bacteria. what nutrient does bacteria recycle?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. vitamin C, b. vitamin D, c. magnesium, d. nitrogen
d
11,688
NDQ_010908
hiv and aids
the development of aids can be delayed by well over 20 years with proper medicines.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,689
NDQ_010909
hiv and aids
hiv spreads through kissing.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,690
NDQ_010913
hiv and aids
why is donated blood safe from hiv?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. People with HIV are prevented from donating blood., b. Donated blood is also tested to make sure it is does not contain HIV., c. HIV is removed from all donated blood., d. all of the above
b
11,691
NDQ_010914
hiv and aids
without proper medicines, aids usually develops __________ years after a person is first infected with hiv.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. 1 to 5, b. 5 to 10, c. 10 to 15, d. more than 20
c
11,692
NDQ_010915
hiv and aids
what continent is the hardest hit by hiv?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. North America, b. Asia, c. Africa, d. Australia
c
11,693
NDQ_010916
hiv and aids
what body fluid can spread hiv?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. breast milk, b. sweat, c. saliva, d. All body fluids can spread HIV.
a
11,694
NDQ_010917
hiv and aids
when does aids develop?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. AIDS develops when a person with HIV catches a cold., b. AIDS develops when helper T cells fall to a very low level., c. AIDS develops when a person with HIV produces more virus., d. AIDS develops when the vaccine no longer works in that person.
b
11,695
NDQ_010918
homeostasis
your body temperature drops on a cold day.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
b
11,696
NDQ_010919
homeostasis
your body temperature always tries to be around 98.6 degrees fahrenheit, even if it is very hot outside.
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. true, b. false
a
11,697
NDQ_010923
homeostasis
your bodys internal thermostat is regulated by
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. negative feedback., b. positive feedback., c. homeostasis., d. receptors in the skin and the brain.
a
11,698
NDQ_010924
homeostasis
which is an example of positive feedback?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. maintaining stable blood glucose levels, b. the production of milk in a nursing mother, c. maintaining a stable body temperature, d. all of the above
b
11,699
NDQ_010925
homeostasis
which hormone stimulates the removal of sugar from the blood?
null
null
Multiple Choice
a. glucose, b. glucagon, c. insulin, d. glycogen
c