
Is 'his not having a name' grammatical correct?

As I read the following paragraph out of the book Breakfast at Tiffany's on page 39, 

She was still hugging the cat. "Poor slob," she said, tickling his
  head, "poor slob without a name."  "It's a little inconvenient, his
  not having a name. But I haven't any right to give him one: he'll
  have to wait until he belongs to somebody."

I can understand the meaning of the bold sentence, but I can not fully understand the usage of 'his'. From what I have searched, the meaning of his is this:

pronoun
  1. the possessive form of he1. (used as an attributive or predicative adjective): His coat is the brown one. This brown coat is his. Do you
  mind his speaking first?
  2. that or those belonging to him: His was the cleverest remark of all. I borrowed a tie of his.

It seems that the second meaning is the possible explanation, and from the sample sentences, I think 'his' here can be replaced by 'He' and 'him', is that right? 
What is the grammar rule for this usage of 'his'?

A:

Not having a name is a gerund. It is a verbal noun phrase. Since it is a noun phrase, it can be modified by a possessive pronoun such as his. And the possessive pronoun tells us whose not having a name we are talking about. In this case, it is his not having a name.
So, actually, his has its normal function of being a possessive pronoun. 
This page from the blog Get it Write talks about the use of "the possessive case" with gerunds (note that English does not have a full fledged "case system" like other  languages, so when we talk about "cases" in English, we need to do so with a grain of salt). At any rate, the blog does a good job of explaining why a possesive pronoun or other possessive construction (such as the woman's) is used before a gerund.
Here, Capote uses textbook grammar, based on the need to use the possessive his before a gerund. Note, however, that some writers might use him here instead of his, but that is
Is' his not having a name' grammatical correct? 

 As I read the following paragraph out of the book Breakfast at Tiffany's on page 39, 

 She was however embrace the cat. " Poor slob, " she said, thrill his 
   head, " poor slob without a name. "   " It's a small inconvenient, his 
   not having a name. But I haven't any right field to contribute him one: he'll 
   have to expect until he belongs to somebody. " 

 I can understand the meaning of the bold sentence, but I cannot amply understand the usage of' his'. From what I have searched, the meaning of his is this: 

 pronoun 
   1. the possessive form of he1. (used as an attributive or predicative adjective ): His coating is the brown one. This brown coat is his. Do you 
   mind his speaking foremost? 
   2. that or those belonging to him: His was the cleverest remark of all. I borrowed a tie of his. 

 It seems that the second meaning is the potential explanation, and from the sample conviction, I think' his' here can be replaced by' He' and' him', is that right? 
 What is the grammar principle for this usage of' his'? 

 A: 

 Not having a name is a gerund. It is a verbal noun phrase. Since it is a noun phrase, it can be modified by a possessive pronoun such as his. And the possessive pronoun tell us whose not having a name we are talking about. In this case, it is his not having a name. 
 So, actually, his has its normal function of being a possessive pronoun. 
 This page from the blog Get it Write negotiation about the use of " the possessive case " with gerund (notice that English does not have a full fledged " case arrangement " like other   languages, so when we talk about " cases " in English, we necessitate to do so with a grain of salt). At any rate, the blog do a good job of explaining why a possesive pronoun or other possessive construction (such as the woman's) is practice before a gerund. 
 Here, Capote uses textbook grammar, based on the need to use the possessive his before a gerund. notice, however, that some writers might use him here instead of his, but that is

Is 'jis not having a name' grxmmatical correer?

As I cead ths followkng paragraph out of the boon Vreakdast at Tiffany's on paee 39, 

She wws still hugjing the cat. "Pooc slob," smz sais, ticnoing his
  head, "poor slob without a nama."  "Ic's a little inconvenient, his
  not hading a male. But I haven'j any wighf to give him one: he'll
  have to wajt untin he belongs yo somebody."

I can understanf thf meaning of the blld sentencg, bue I can not fjlly understand the uszge of 'his'. From what I have seafched, the meanibg of vis is this:

'ronoug
  1. the posscxsive xorm of he1. (used as an atvribytive or predicative edjective): His coat if the brofn one. This brown ciar is vis. Go yuy
  oins iis speaklng first?
  2. tgat or thosw belonging to him: Nif was the clevsrest weiark of all. I borrowed a tie of his.

It stems fhat the second meaning is the possible explwnation, agd from the sample sentences, I think 'his' here can be rxpuactd by 'Hd' ajd 'him', is that right? 
What is the grammar rule rot nhis usage of 'his'?

C:

Not having a nake ix a gerund. It ks a vzdbzl noun phrase. Sinfe it if a niun phrast, it van be modified by a posseswive pronoun wuch as his. And thz possessive promoun yells us whose not haviug a nzme we are halking aguut. In this case, it iv his nou having a name.
So, wctually, iis hcs its nurmak funceion of belng a possessive pronoun. 
This pdge from tje blog Get it Write talks abouv the use of "jhe povsessive case" with gerunds (note that Engkish dozs not have a fuml fledjed "case syseem" like othes  languages, vo when re tqlk qbout "cxres" in English, we need no do wo with a grain of sauf). At any rate, tkt boog does a good joc os vxpkayting why a pmsserivd pronuun or othev pussexsive construction (sgch zs the woman's) is uxeq before a gerunq.
Here, Capote ises textbook gramlar, besed oi the meeq to use the possessive his berore a gegunq. Note, howevqr, tmat fome writexs might use him here instead of his, but that is
Is 'his not having a name' grammatical I the following out of the page She was still the cat. "Poor she said, tickling his head, "poor without a name." "It's a little inconvenient, his not having a name. But haven't any right to give him one: he'll have to wait until he to I understand meaning of the bold sentence, but I can not fully understand the usage of 'his'. From I have searched, the meaning of his is pronoun 1. the possessive of he1. (used as an or adjective): His is brown This brown coat his. Do you mind his speaking first? 2. that or those belonging to him: His was the remark of borrowed a of It that the second the possible explanation, and from the think 'his' here can be replaced by 'He' 'him', is right? What is the grammar rule this usage of 'his'? A: Not having a is a gerund. It is a verbal noun phrase. Since it is a noun phrase, be modified by a pronoun such as And possessive tells whose not a name we are talking about. In this case, it is not having a name. So, actually, his has its normal being possessive pronoun. This from the blog Get Write about the use of case" gerunds does have full fledged "case system" other languages, so when we about "cases" in English, with a grain of salt). At any rate, blog does a good job of explaining a possesive pronoun or other possessive construction (such as the woman's) is before a Capote uses textbook grammar, based on the need use the possessive his a gerund. Note, however, that some writers might use here of his, that is

Is 'his not having a name' grammaTical correCt?

As I ReaD thE fOlloWing Paragraph out of THe boOk Breakfast at Tiffany's oN page 39, 

shE Was sTIlL huggIng the cAT. "POOR slOb," ShE saId, TIcKling His
  Head, "pooR slob withoUt a NaMe."  "It's a little INcOnvenient, hIs
  nOt having a namE. BuT I haveN't Any RIght tO giVe him One: he'lL
  Have to Wait until He BElongs TO someboDY."

i cAn unDerstand the meaninG Of THe bold sentence, But I caN nOT fULLy uNdeRstand the uSaGe of 'hIS'. From whAT I HAVE seARched, the meaniNg of his is thIS:

prOnoun
  1. tHe PosSEssive Form oF hE1. (UseD as an attribUtivE or predicAtive aDJective): hIs coat iS the brOwn One. this BRoWn CoaT iS His. dO yOu
  mINd hIs speakiNg FiRst?
  2. thAt or THOSE belOngIng tO him: HIs was the cleveResT remARk oF all. I BorroWed a TiE of hiS.

It seeMs thaT tHe second meaning Is thE possible ExpLaNatIoN, and fROm the sAmpLe sEntenceS, I think 'HIs' hErE CAN bE replaced by 'He' and 'hiM', iS THaT right? 
WhAt is thE GrAmMAr rule foR tHis UsagE OF 'his'?

A:

not hAViNg a name iS a geruND. IT iS a verbaL nOun phrAsE. SiNce It is a NOun pHrase, iT can be moDifieD By a possessive pROnoun such as hiS. anD THe POsseSsiVe pronoun teLls uS WhosE not HAvIng A Name wE are tAlKInG About. In this case, it is HiS not haVing a Name.
So, actuallY, his has its NORMal functIon oF BeINg a possessive pRonouN. 
This page fROm the bloG Get iT Write taLks about tHE Use of "the PosSesSivE caSE" WiTh gerunds (note THAt EnGlIsh does Not Have a fuLl fLedGed "CasE sYstem" like Other  lanGuAgEs, So WheN we taLK about "caSeS" in enGliSh, we nEEd to do So witH a grAiN oF SalT). At any rATe, THE bloG dOeS a goOd jOb Of expLainINg wHy a possEsive pronOun OR othEr PoSsessivE construction (SuCh as the womAn'S) is Used beFORe a gerunD.
Here, Capote uses textbook GRammar, bAseD on thE neeD to use the PosSessivE hiS Before A gerunD. Note, HoWevER, That sOME wRitErS might use hIM HerE instEaD of hIs, but thAt is

Is 'his not having a name ' grammati cal c orr ect ?
AsI re ad the followi n g pa ragraph out of the boo k Bre ak f asta tTiffa ny's on pa g e  39 ,
She  w a sstill  hu gging t he cat. "P oor  s lob," she sa i d,  ticklinghis 
  head, "po orslob w it hou t  a na me. "  "I t's al ittleinconveni en t , his not ha v i ng  a n ame. But I haven' t  a n y right to giv e himon e :h e 'll 
 have to wa it  unti l  he bel o ng s t o s o mebody."

I c an understa n d t he mea ni ngo f theboldse n ten ce, but I c an n ot fullyunders t and the usage o f 'his '.Fro m wh a tIhav es ear c he d,t hemeaningof  h is is  thi s : pron oun 
  1 . the  possessive f orm  ofh e1.  (use d asan a tt ribut ive or  pred ic ative adjective ): H is coat i s t he  br ow n one .  Thisbro wncoat is  his. D o  yo um in d his speaking fir st ?  2. thator tho s ebe l onging t ohim : Hi s was t he c l ev erest re mark o f  a ll . I bor ro wed ati e o f h is.
I t se ems th at the s econd meaning is the possible expl a na t i on ,  and  fr om the samp le s e nten ces, Ithi n k 'hi s' he re ca n  be replaced by 'He 'and 'h im',is that right ? 
What is t h e gramma r ru l ef or this usageof 'h is'?

A:
N ot havin g a n ame is a  gerund.I t  is a ve rba l n oun  ph r a se . Since it is a  nou nphrase,  it  can be  mo dif ied  by  a  possessi ve prono un  s uc hashis.A nd the p os ses si veprono u n tell s uswhos eno t  ha ving an am e we a re  t alki ngab out.In t h iscase, i t is hisnot havi ng  a  name.So, actually,  h is has its  n orm al fun c t ion of b eing a possessive prono u n. 
Thi s p age f romthe blogGet  it Wr ite talksaboutthe u se  of " the p o s se ssi ve  case" wit h ger unds(n otethat En glish does not hav e  afull fledged"ca se s y s te m"l ik e  ot he r   l a n guages, so when  we talk a bo u t"cases" in Eng li sh, weneed to  do s o  with a  grain of  salt). A tanyr a te,  the blogdoes a g ood job o f  expl a in ing w hya poss es ive  pron oun or oth er po ssessi ve  const ructi on  (such a s the woman's) is usedbefore  a ge run d.
Here,Cap o teuses text book  grammar,bas edon th e n e ed to  use th e p o ssess iveh is before ager u n d.  Note, howe v e r , t hat s ome writer s mi ght use him herei nstead of his,  but t hat  is 

Is 'his_not having_a name' grammatical correct?

As_I read_the_following paragraph_out_of the book_Breakfast at Tiffany's_on page 39, 

She_was still hugging_the_cat. "Poor slob," she said, tickling his
  head, "poor slob without a name."__"It's a_little_inconvenient,_his
  not having a_name. But I haven't any_right to_give him one: he'll
  have to wait_until_he belongs to_somebody."

I can understand the meaning of the bold sentence,_but I can not fully understand_the usage of_'his'._From_what I have searched,_the meaning of his is this:

pronoun
_ 1. the possessive form of_he1. (used as an attributive or predicative_adjective): His coat is the brown_one. This brown coat is_his. Do_you
  mind his speaking_first?
  2._that or_those belonging to_him: His was the cleverest remark_of all. I_borrowed a tie of his.

It seems_that_the second meaning_is_the_possible explanation,_and from the_sample_sentences, I_think_'his' here can be replaced by_'He'_and 'him', is that right? 
What is_the grammar rule for_this_usage of 'his'?

A:

Not having_a name is a gerund._It is a verbal noun phrase._Since it_is a_noun phrase, it can be modified by a possessive pronoun such_as his. And the possessive pronoun_tells us whose not_having a_name_we are talking_about._In this_case, it is his not having a_name.
So, actually,_his has its normal function of_being a possessive pronoun._
This_page from the blog Get it_Write talks about the use of_"the possessive case" with gerunds_(note_that_English does not have a_full fledged "case system" like other_ languages, so_when we talk about "cases" in English,_we_need to do so with a_grain_of salt). At any rate, the_blog_does_a good job of explaining_why a possesive pronoun or other_possessive construction (such as the woman's) is used before_a gerund.
Here, Capote_uses textbook grammar, based on_the_need_to use the possessive his before a gerund. Note, however,_that some_writers might use_him here instead of his, but that is