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True about Penicillin G | Ans. c. Used for treatment of rat bite fever Penicillin G MOA: It inhibits cell wall synthesis b.y interfering with the transpeptidation reactiondeg. b-lactam antibiotics and are used in the treatment of bacterial infections caused by susceptible, usually Gram-positive, organisms. Acid-labile, destroyed by gastric acid, so not given by oral route. Probenecid is given along with Penicillin G, increase its action because it has high affinity for the tubular OATP, so it blocks the transpo of penicillin and increase its efficacy. Probenecid also decreases volume of distribution of penicillin G. DOC for: Anthrax Actinomycosis Trench mouth Rat bite fever | 5,600 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about pulp space infection except - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., It is a painless condition Felon/Whitlowo Fingertip pulp is divided into numerous small compartments by vertical septa that stabilize the pad. Infection occurring within these compartments can lead to abscess formation, edema, and rapid development of increased pressure in a closed space. This increased pressure may compromise blood flow and lead to necrosis of the skin and pulp | 5,601 | medmcqa_train |
All are true except: | Ans. The infantile nucleus is completely formed by one year of age | 5,602 | medmcqa_train |
Type of graft, best suited for renal transplantation: | Answer is D (Isograft) : "Although the best graft is an Autograft, a renal graft can obviously not he an Autograft...silly." So the best renal graft is an Isoqraft from an individual twin. IsOgrall: Is a graft from a different individual genetically identical with recipient e.g. identical twin. Aulograft: Is to self. Allograft: Graft from different species. Xenograft: Graft from different species. | 5,603 | medmcqa_train |
Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen is increased due to ? | ANSWER: D A decrease in 2,3 DPG | 5,604 | medmcqa_train |
In the cross section of brain in the below pic, the tracts have been labeled, which of them are concerned with pain and temperature. | Pain and temperature are carried by the spinothalamic tract (STT) towards the VPL (ventro-postero-lateral) nucleus of thalamus.
Pain is carried by the lateral STT whereas anterior STT carries the crude touch sensations.
Spinothalamic tracts carry sensations contra-laterally hence the area of sensation loss is to the opposite side of the lesion (Brown-Séquard syndrome).
Spinocerebellar tracts carry the unconscious proprioception, mainly from the lower limbs, towards the cerebellum and from the mossy fibers. They contribute archi-cerebellar fibers to the cerebellum.
Dorsal spinocerebellar fibers carry the information ipsilaterally and enter the inferior cerebellar peduncle to reach the cerebellum.
Ventral spinocerebellar tract carries the information contra-laterally and enters the cerebellum via superior cerebellar peducle.
Unconscious proprioception of upper limb is carried by the cuneocerebellar tract.
Conscious proprioception is carried by the dorsal columns (Fasciculus gracilis and cuneatus).
Pyramidal tract is a motor tract and is concerned with control of fine and skilled voluntary motor activity. | 5,605 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following diuretics acts at the nephron's distal tubule? | The thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, chlorothiazide, benzthiazide) promote diuresis by inhibiting reabsorption of NaCl, primarily in the early distal tubule. Ethacrynic acid and furosemide are both loop diuretics. They act by inhibiting electrolyte reabsorption in the thick ascending loop of Henle. Note that even if you didn't know where these agents act, if you knew that they both belonged to the same class of diuretics, you could have eliminated them both as possibilities since there can't be more than one correct answer choice. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic. It is freely filtered at the glomerulus and is not reabsorbed. Its primary action occurs at the proximal tubule. Ref: Michel T., Hoffman B.B. (2011). Chapter 27. Treatment of Myocardial Ischemia and Hypeension. In B.C. Knollmann (Ed), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | 5,606 | medmcqa_train |
What is choledocholithotomy | Choledocholithotomy is a procedure in which we are draining the CBD and removing the stones by a longitudinal incision in the duct. Reference:Bailey & Love's sho practise of surgery,25 th edition ,page no:1126 | 5,607 | medmcqa_train |
All the following are criteria for diagnosing severe aplastic anemia except: | D i.e. ANC <1500Ref: WHO, Hematopoietic System, page 221Explanation:Criteria for Aplastic Anemia (ASH)ClassificationCriteriaSevereBM cellularity <25% (or<50%if <30% of BM is hematopoietic cells) AND >2 of the following:* Peripheral blood neutrophil count <0.5x109/L* Peripheral blood platelet count <20x109/L* Peripheral blood reticulocyte count <20x109/LVery severeAs above, but peripheral blood neutrophil count must be <0.2x109/LNon-severeHypocellullar BM with peripheral blood values not meeting criteria for severe aplastic anemia | 5,608 | medmcqa_train |
Ferruginous bodies are commonly seen in: | Inorganic paicles may become coated with iron containing proteinaceous material, these bodies are called ferruginous bodies. They mimic asbestos bodies and can be seen in patient with asbestosis but is not specific hence asbestosis is the best answer. Ferruginous bodies are most commonly seen in Asbestosis. Ref: Robbin's Illustrated Pathology, 7th Edition, Page 736 ; Concise Pathology By Chandrasoma P, Taylor C, 3rd Edition, Page 541 | 5,609 | medmcqa_train |
Cerebral perfusion pressure in children is: | - Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated as the difference between the systemic mean aerial pressure (MAP) and the intracranial pressure (ICP) - The normal range of CPP is thought to be approximately 50 to 150 mm Hg in healthy adults, and 40 to 60 mm Hg, in children. Normal CPP (mm Hg) 2-6 yrs - 50 mm of Hg 7-10 yrs - 55 mm of Hg 11-16 yrs - 65 mm of Hg | 5,610 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following statements is true about the epidemiological determinants of measles - | SAR of some important infectious diseases
Measles → 80%
Rubella → 90 - 95%
Chickenpox → 90%
Pertussis → 90%
Mumps → 86% | 5,611 | medmcqa_train |
Right Gastric Aery is a branch of : | Right gastric aery originates from the hepatic aery just distal to the origin of gastroduodenal aery. It turns to the left and runs upwards along the the lesser curvature of the stomach and ends by anastomosing with the left gastric aery which is a branch of the coeliac trunk. Coeliac trunk: Arises at the level of interveebral disc between T12 and L1 veebrae. It is an unpaired branch of the abdominal aoa that arises from its ventral/anterior aspect (front) just below the aoic opening of diagphragm. Branches: Left Gastric aery (Smallest branch) Common Hepatic aery Splenic Aery (Largest branch of trunk) Ends by anastomosing with right gastric aery (Right Gastric aery is a branch of the hepatic aery) Common hepatic aery is a direct branch of the celiac trunk till the origin of gastroduodenal aery. The pa distal to this origin is termed proper hepatic aery Sho gastric aeries (5-7) Left gastroepiploic aery Numerous pancreatic branches Aeria pancreaticamagna Aeria cauda pancreatic Splenic hila branches Common Hepatic aery gives off a branch called Gastroduodenal aery and continues as the Hepatic aery proper. Right gastric aery originates from the hepatic aery just distal to the origin of gastroduodenal aery. Thus the right gastric aery may be termed as a branch of the hepatic aery proper rather than the common hepatic aery. Hepatic aery Branches: Gastro-duodenal aery Right gastric Aery Hepatic Aery proper Right gastroepiploic aery Superior pancreaticoduodenal aery Right gastric aery (ends by anastomosing with the left gastric aery) Hepatic aery proper ends by dividing into left and right hepatic aeries Right hepatic aery Left hepatic aery (cystic aery) is a branch of the right hepatic aery Ref: Vishram Singh 2nd edition Pgno: 120 | 5,612 | medmcqa_train |
The most common side effect of neuraxial opioid is: | Pruritus is the most common side effect with neuraxial opioids. It may be generalized but is more likely to be localized to the face, neck or upper thorax. Treatment 1. naloxone 2. antihistaminic. 3. propofol | 5,613 | medmcqa_train |
What is the best method for confirming amyloidosis :- | Answer is C (Rectal biopsy): Rectal biopsy is single best answer amongst the options provided. The systemic amyloidosis offer a choice of biopsy sites. Abdominal fat aspirates or renal or rectal biopsies are often preferred'. - Harrison | 5,614 | medmcqa_train |
Alkaptonuria is caused by defect in which of the following enzymes? | Alkaptonuria was first recognized and described in the 16th century. Characterized in 1859, it provided the basis for Garrod's classic ideas concerning heritable metabolic disorders. The defect is lack of homogentisate oxidase. The urine darkens on exposure to air due to oxidation of excreted homogentisate. Late in the disease, there is ahritis and connective tissue pigmentation (ochronosis) due to oxidation of homogentisate to benzoquinone acetate, which polymerizes and binds to connective tissue. Ref: Harper 28th edition, chapter 29. | 5,615 | medmcqa_train |
The right coronary aery arises from ? | Right coronary aery is smaller than the left coronary aery. It arises from the anterior aoic sinus. Left coronary aery is larger than the right coronary aery. It arises from the left posterior aoic sinus. REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. FIG REF : B D Chaurasia's Human Anatomy , seventh edition , volume 2 , pg.no., 278, 279. ( fig 18.22a and b ). | 5,616 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following marker is used to diagnose rhabdomyosarcoma - | . Desmin | 5,617 | medmcqa_train |
Hashimoto's thyroiditis,all are TRUE except- | In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, there is a marked lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid with germinal center formation, atrophy of the thyroid follicles accompanied by oxyphil metaplasia, absence of colloid, and mild to moderate fibrosis. Its incidence increases with age (mean age at diagnosis is 60 yrs). Patients with Hashimoto's thyroiditis may present because of goiter rather than symptoms of hypothyroidism. The goiter may not be large, but it is usually irregular and firm in consistency. Reference : page 2290-91 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | 5,618 | medmcqa_train |
Post mortem staining gets fixed after - | Postmortem staining get fixed in 6-12 hours. | 5,619 | medmcqa_train |
The following muscle is an opener of the glottis | 1. Muscles which abduct the vocal cords: only posterior cricoarytenoids( safety muscles of larynx) 2. Muscles which adduct the vocal cords: * lateral cricoarytenoids * transverse aenoid * cricothyroid *thyroarytenoids 3. Muscles which tense the vocal cords: cricothyroid 4.muscles which relax the vocal cords: * thyroarytenoids * vocalis 4. Muscles which close the inlet of the larynx * oblique arytenoids * aryepiglottic 5.muscles which open the inlet of larynx : Thyroepiglotticus Ref BDC volume 3; 6th edition pg 258 | 5,620 | medmcqa_train |
Malonate competetively inhibits- | D i.e. Succinate dehydrogenase | 5,621 | medmcqa_train |
The operative procedure is known as "microfracture" is done for the | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Osteochondral defect of the femurRef. Various internet sites (www.orthopedics.hss.edu, www.kneeguru.co.uk)Microfracture is an arthroscopic procedure used to treat osteochondral defects (damaged areas of articular cartilage of the knee) | 5,622 | medmcqa_train |
Antibiotic structurally resembling Aminoacyl t-RNA and inhibiting protein synthesis in both prokaryotes as well as eukaryotes is? | 1. Puromycin is an Aminonucleoside antibiotic derived from the Streptomyces alboniger bacterium. 2. It can causes premature chain termination during translation and the pa of it resembles the 3' end of the Aminoacyl tRNA. 3. It can inhibit protein synthesis in both bacteria as well as humans | 5,623 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a prokinetic? | Prokinetic drugs. - These are drugs which promote gastrointestinal transit and speed gastric emptying by propulsive motility.D2blocker example Domperidone. 5HT4 agonistexample cisapride. Metoclopramide. Macrolidesacts on motilin receptor. Hence, Diphenoxymethane is the answer. | 5,624 | medmcqa_train |
DIC is common in which AML - | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Promyelocytic Tumor cells in acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3) release procoagulant and fibrinolytic factors that cause disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). | 5,625 | medmcqa_train |
All are used for cervical ripening, except : | Ergometrine | 5,626 | medmcqa_train |
Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift of Oxygen - Hemoglobin dissociation curve? | Bohr effect is closely related to the fact that deoxygenated hemoglobin (deoxyhemoglobin) binds H+ more actively than does oxygenated hemoglobin (oxyhemoglobin). The pH of blood falls as its CO2 content increases, so that when the PCO2 rises, the curve shifts to the righ A rise in temperature or a fall in pH shifts the curve to the right HbO2 + 2,3-BPG - - Hb - 2,3-BPG + O2 In this equilibrium, an increase in the concentration of 2,3BPG shifts the reaction to the rightRef: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology Twenty-Third Edition Page No:611 | 5,627 | medmcqa_train |
What is the ratio of placental weight to fetal weight at term ? | Placenta weighs 500 gm, the propoion to the weight of the baby being roughly 1:6 at term and occupies about 30% of the uterine wall. | 5,628 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for anaphylactic shock ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adrenaline o First adrenaline should be given im to raise the blood pressure and to dilate the bronchi. o If the treatment is delayed and shock has developed, adrenaline should be given i.v. by slow injection. | 5,629 | medmcqa_train |
Turner's Syndrome is associated with : | 45 chromosomes Turners syndrome has karyotype 45X0. (Option "a" is correct) No. of Barr Bodies= Total No of X Chromosomes -- 1 No. of Barr Bodies in Turners = 1 -- 1 = 0 (Option "b- ruled out) In Turner's syndrome ovaries are replaced by Streak Gonads --> Decreased Estrogen levels -- Decrease in negative inhibition over FSH and therefore FSH levels raised. (Option "c- ruled out) | 5,630 | medmcqa_train |
Which drug is used in intracavernous injection for erectile dysfunction? | AlprostadilQ contains naturally occurring prostaglandin E and, hence has vasodilator action. It can be injected into corpora cavernosa or administered intraurethrally. The firm erection is produced within 2 to 3 minutes and may last for 1 hour. Other injectable medications for erectile dysfunction include: Papaverine Phentolamine | 5,631 | medmcqa_train |
A nursing mother presented with fever and breast tenderness after two weeks postpaum. Which oral antibiotics is ideal for her condition? | Dicloxacillin:- Anti - staphylococcal penicillin :- B lactamase resistant penicillin. Their use is restricted to the treatment of infection cause by penicillinase producing staphylococci including MSSA. Other drug of this class:- Methicillin Oxacillin Methicillin because of its toxicity (interstitial Nephritis), Methicillin is not used. Ampicillin/Amoxicillin:-Extended- Spectrum penicillin. More effective against gram -ve bacilli. Ampicillin is a drug of choice for gram positive bacilli : listeria monocytogenes Ceftazidime:-3rd gen cephalosporin, has activity against P. aeruginosa Ciprofloxacin: of the fluoroquinolone it has best activity against P. Aeruginosa and is commonly used in cystic fibrosis patient. | 5,632 | medmcqa_train |
Drug of choice for prevention of NSAID induced peptic ulcer disease is | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Proton pump inhibitors * PPI are the DOC for peptic ulcer (gastric or duodenal), GERD, ZE syndrome, prevention of aspiratory pneumonia and NSAID induced gastric / duodenal ulcers. Note - PGE1 analogue (Misoprostol) is specific drug for prevention and treatment of NSAID induced ulcer, but DOC is PPL | 5,633 | medmcqa_train |
The most common organism causing acute tonsillitis is: | Group A beta hemolytic streptococci is the M/C bacteria causing acute tonsillitis. other causes are: staph aureus pnuemococci H. Influenza Ref Dhingra 5/e,p 341,6/e,p 288. | 5,634 | medmcqa_train |
Dead-born fetus does not show: Kerala 11 | Ans. Adipocere formation | 5,635 | medmcqa_train |
A metastatic carcinoma in the brain of an adult, most often comes from primary in the | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Lung | 5,636 | medmcqa_train |
Commonly used long bone for identification - | The best long bone for identification is femur. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology 29 th edition Chapter 4 page,43,45. | 5,637 | medmcqa_train |
Prokaryotes doesn't have | Ans: b) MitochondriaKingdom protista is divided into Prokaryotes and EukaryotesProkaryotes Bacteria & blue green algaeEukaryotesFungi, slime moulds, other algae & protozoaAlmost all organelle and cell components are absent in prokaryotes which are found in EukaryotesMuramic acid and Diaminopimelic acid (cell wall precursors) are present in prokaryotes & not in EukaryotesChromosome is circular in prokaryotes (single) & more than one (linear) in eukaryotes. | 5,638 | medmcqa_train |
Death of a patient due to an unintentional act by a doctor, staff or hospital is: | Ans. (A). Therapeutic misadventure(Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 33rd edition 2010. Pg: 38)Civil negligenceSimple absence of skill & careCriminal negligenceGross absence of skill & careContributory NegligenceBoth doctor and patient are negligentCorporate NegligenceFailure in part of hospital management to provide adequate facilitiesDoctrine of Res Ipsa LoquitarThe things or facts speaks for itself. E.g. Amputation of a wrong limbDoctrine of calculated riskEvery medical procedure had Inherent riskNovus Actus InterveniensUnrelated Action InterveningTherapeutic misadventureMischance or disaster.A person dies due to some unintentional act of doctor or hospitalDoctrine of Respondent Superior(Vicarious Liability)Let the master answerProduct's liabilityManufacturer is responsible for quality of drug & medical equipment. | 5,639 | medmcqa_train |
Ammonia for the urea cycle is supplied by the action of the following enzymes? | Glutamate dehydrogenase breaks down glutamate to form ammonia and ct-ketoglutarate. Aspaate aminotransferase transfers the amino group from glutamate to oxaloacetate to form aspaate. Ammonia and aspaate both feed into the urea cycle to supply the nitrogen used to synthesize urea. Argininosuceinate synthase, argininosuccinate lyase, and arginase are enzymes that catalyze other steps of the urea cycle. | 5,640 | medmcqa_train |
A hirsuite lady with PCOD treatment is: | Ans. is b, i.e. Ethinyl estradiol + DesogestrelRef: Novak 14th/ed, p 1083, 15th/ed, p 1086 KDT Pharma 6th/ed, p 307OCPs decrease adrenal and ovarian androgen production and reduce hair growth in nearly two thirds of hirsute patients. When an OCP is used to treat hirsutism, a balance must be maintained between the decrease in free testosterone levels and the intrinsic androgenicity of the progestin.Progesterones with:High androgenic bioactivityNewer progestins with low androgenic bioactivity* Norgestrel* Desogestrel i.e. class III* Norethindrone* Gestodene* Norethindrone acetate* Norgestimate* Drospirenone Thus, newer progestins with minimal androgenic activity are preferred for management of hirsutism in a patient of PCOD/PCOS (i.e. option b is correct). | 5,641 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following cells do not act as antigen presenting cells. ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., T-cellsNote - Osteoclast is a type of macrophage. | 5,642 | medmcqa_train |
Phyllodes tumor most commonly presents in ? | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 6th decade Phyllodes tumors, like fibroadenomas, arise from intralobular stroma of breast, but are much less common. Although they can occur at any age, most present in the sixth decade, 10 to 20 years later than the peak age for fibroadenomas. | 5,643 | medmcqa_train |
Caseous necrosis in granuloma not found in | Caseous necrosis is found in the centre of foci of tuberculous infections.(Ref: Textbook of Pathology HARSH MOHAN 6th Edition page no.45) | 5,644 | medmcqa_train |
SA node is located in ? | In crista terminalis | 5,645 | medmcqa_train |
Step in HMP pathway requiring TPP | Transketolase requires thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP). | 5,646 | medmcqa_train |
An elderly man presents with features of dementia, ataxia, difficulty in downward gaze and a history of frequent falls. Likely diagnosis is: | Answer is B (Supranuclear gaze palsy): Progressive supranuclear palsy should always be considered when a middle aged/elderly persons presents with a history of repeated falls, & difficulty in downward or horizontal gaze. Steel Richardson syndrome Nature of disorder Is a degenerative disorder where in there occurs loss of neurons in pas of our CNS which are involved with maintenance of posture & equilibrium, namely the Mid brain, Pons, Basal ganglion and cerebellum. The clinical features are characteristic "Progressive supranuclear palsy should be considered whenever a middle aged or elderly person person presents with history of repeated falls and has an extrapyramidal syndrome accompanied by nuchal dystonia and paralysis of voluntary down gaze" Factors which distinguish this from Parkinson's marked impairment of voluntary downward gaze and horizontal gaze. extended rather than flexed dystonic posturing absence of tremor poor response to antiparkinsonian medication | 5,647 | medmcqa_train |
The pathogenecity of Entamoeba histolytica is indicated by ? | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Isoenzyme pattern Zymodene There are distinct invasive and noninvasive strains of E. histolytica. These strains vary according to their isoenzyme patterns (zymodemes). E. histolytica strains have 22 zymodemes of these 10 zymodemes are invasive and 12 are noninvasive. Zymodemes of E. histolytica are identified according to the electrophoretic mobility of 4 enzymes. L-malate : NADP+ Oxidoreductase Phosphoglucomutase (PGM)-------- most impoant Glucose-phosphate isomerase Hexokinase Electrophoresis of PGM can show one or more of the 4 bands : a, 13, y and 5. Strains of E. histolytica showing, an absence of a-band together with the presence of 13 band are virulent i.e., invasive. | 5,648 | medmcqa_train |
Function of Health worker female - | Functions maternal and child health Family planning Medical termination of pregnancy Nutrition Dai training Communicable diseases Vital events Record keeping Treatment of minor ailments Team activities (refer pgno:910 park 23rd edition) | 5,649 | medmcqa_train |
Most common site of mandibular fracture is | Mandibular fractures are typically the result of trauma. This can include a fall onto the chin or a hit from the side. Rarely they may be due to osteonecrosis or tumors in the bone. The most common area of fracture is at the condyle (36%), body (21%), angle (20%) and symphysis (14%). | 5,650 | medmcqa_train |
Not gluconeogenic- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acetyl CoA o Substrates for gluconeogenesis are lactate (lactic acid), pyruvate, glycerol, glucogenic amino acids (alt amino acids except leucine and lycine), propionate and intermediates of citric acid cycle.. | 5,651 | medmcqa_train |
The dominant histologic feature of infarction is: | Pathognomonic cytologic change in all infarcts is coagulative (ischaemic) necrosis of the affected area of tissue or organ.
In cerebral infarcts, however, there is characteristic liquefactive necrosis.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 112 | 5,652 | medmcqa_train |
Triad of normal-pressure hydrocephalus includes : | Answer is C (Gait disorder, Urinary incontinence & Dementia): Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH) is a communicating hydrocephalus with a patent aqueduct of sylvius, caused by obstruction to normal flow of CSF over the cerebral convexities and delayed absorption into the venous system. Clinical triad Abnormal gait Q Dementia Q Urinary incontinence Q Neuroimaging Enlarged lateral ventricles Q (Hydrocephalus) Q with little or No Coical-Atrophy Q CSF picture Pressure : High normal range (Hence called NPH) Q Protein : Normal Q Sugar : Normal Q Cell count : Normal Q | 5,653 | medmcqa_train |
In case of IVC obstruction the collaterals which open up are all except ? | Superficial epigastric pain drains into great saphenous vein. Iliolumbar vein drains into internal iliac vein,so these two do not form collateral between SVC & IVC as both of them will be ultimately drained into IVC.All other choices form collaterals between SVC & IVC. | 5,654 | medmcqa_train |
A patient is having random plasma glucose levels of 110 mg/ dl and 113 mg/ dl on two separate occasions. What you will advise him: March 2012 | Ans: C i.e. Declare patient as normal Diagnosis of DM Random plasma glucose levels of more than 200 mg/dl along with symptoms suggesting diabetes, confirms the diagnosis Random plasma glucose ranging between 140-198 mg/dl is an indication to perform oral glucose tolerance test The use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes is unceain. HbAlc is used to monitor glycemic control. The recommended target HbA1c is 7% or less, to minimise the risk of vascular complications So analyzing the options given, RBS values of 110 mg/dl and 113 mg/dl falls in normal range | 5,655 | medmcqa_train |
A 20yr old patient with swelling in waist joint Histopathology shows spindle cells and verrocay bodies Most likely diagnosis | Histopathology of Schwannoma shows Antoni A pattern Antoni B pattern and verrocay bodies/ ref : robbins 10th ed | 5,656 | medmcqa_train |
A solution contains 2x10-3 mol/L of a weak acid (pK=3.5) and 2x10-3 mol/L of its conjugate base. Its pH is best approximated by which one of the following? | Buffers consist of solutions of acid-base conjugate pairs, such as acetic acid and acetate.a. Near its pK, a buffer maintains the pH of a solution, resisting changes due to addition of acids or bases. For a weak acid, the pK is often designated as pKa .b. At the pKa , and are equal, and the buffer has its maximal capacity.The pH and pK are related as follows: pH=pK+log(/). Thus, when the concentrations of a weak acid and its conjugate base are equal, the pH equals the pK. The pK is defined as the pH at which = | 5,657 | medmcqa_train |
In new drug designing. problern arises in | Ans. b. Increasing drug interaction with non-target proteins | 5,658 | medmcqa_train |
Common salt can be used as a chemical antidote for washing the stomach in case of oral poisoning by | . | 5,659 | medmcqa_train |
In asymmetrical IUGR which organ is not affected? | In asymmetric IUGR, brain growth (head circumference) - spared | 5,660 | medmcqa_train |
Pain in hypogatric region may arise from | Refer to diagram above Pain in Hypogastrium Urine infections Appendicitis Diveicular disease Inflammatory bowel Pelvic pain (Gynae) | 5,661 | medmcqa_train |
Organism commonly associated with wearing of soft lens: | refer : AK KHURANA COMPREHENSIVE OPHTHALMOLOGY 6TH EDITION pg 100
Mode of infection of Acanthamoeba
Contact lens wearers using home-made saline (from contaminated tap water and saline tablets)
is the commonest situation recognised for acanthamoeba infection in western countries.
Other situations include mild trauma associated with contaminated vegetable matter, salt water
diving, wind blown contaminant and hot tub use. Trauma with organic matter and exposure to muddy water are the major predisposing factors in developing countries.
Opportunistic infection. Acanthamoeba keratitis can also occur as opportunistic infection in patients with herpetic keratitis, bacterial keratitis, bullous keratopathy and neuroparalytic keratitis. | 5,662 | medmcqa_train |
For early diagnosis of ca stomach which method is used - | Endoscopy with multiple biopsies and brush cytology is the investigation of choice for gastric cancer. | 5,663 | medmcqa_train |
A 4-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia and respiratory distress. The nurses report that the child's bowel movements are greasy and have a pungent odor. A sweat-chloride test is positive. Which of the following mechanisms of disease is the most likely cause of steatorrhea in this child? | Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal recessive disorder affecting children, which is characterized by (1) chronic pulmonary disease, (2) deficient exocrine pancreatic function, and (3) other complications of inspissated mucus in a number of organs, including the small intestine, the liver, and the reproductive tract. The diagnosis of CF is most reliably made by the demonstration of increased concentrations of electrolytes in the sweat. The decreased chloride conductance characteristic of CF results in a failure of chloride reabsorption by the cells of the sweat gland ducts and, hence, to the accumulation of sodium chloride in the sweat. All of the pathologic consequences of CF can be attributed to the presence of abnormally thick mucus. Lack of pancreatic enzyme secretion in patients with CF causes malabsorption and foul-smelling fatty stools (steatorrhea). The other choices do not address the underlying cause of malabsorption in patients with CF.Diagnosis: Cystic fibrosis | 5,664 | medmcqa_train |
MRI is the investigation of choice in all of the following except: | Ans. (c) Skull bone tumors* MRI is best for soft tissue tumors* CT is best for Bone tumors* Imaging modality of choice to detect cerebral necrosis - PET scan.* IOC for Leptomeningeal Carcinomatosis-Gadolinium enhanced MRI | 5,665 | medmcqa_train |
A country has crude birth rate 25 per 1000 and crude death rate 10 per 1000. What is the growth rate of that country - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 1.5% * Growth rate = Crude birth rate - Crude death rate.* Thus, growth rate = 25-10=15 per 1000 or 1.5% | 5,666 | medmcqa_train |
Xanthurenic acid in the urine is suggestive of deficiency of which vitamin? | Xanthurenic acid is formed in the side reaction of kynurenine. Kynurenine which is a intermediate of tryptophan metabolism requires vitamin B6 dependent enzyme kynureinase for its normal metabolism. In pyridoxine(Vit B6) deficiency kynurenine is metabolized to xanthurenic acid which is excreted unchanged in urine. Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry DM Vasudevan, 5th Ed, page 208 | 5,667 | medmcqa_train |
A 56 year old diabetic man, Damu who regularly consumes nearly 120g alcohol per day, was referred by the PHC physician with history of fatigue, cough with putrid smelling sputum and fever. He has anemia, weight loss, pyorrhea and gingivitis. His chest X-Ray showed some findings which helped the doctor to diagnose his pathology. The true statement regarding treatment of this condition is: | This is a tricky question, here we have a patient with alcoholism with frequent aspirations. On the top of that the patient is diabetic too. He is complaining of fever, weight loss, cough with expectoration with foul smelling sputum, so the first d/d is lung abscess due to anaerobes. Let us see the explanations from harrison: Lung abscess: A common feature is periodontal infection with pyorrhea or gingivitis. The usual symptoms are fatigue, cough, sputum production, and fever. Chills are uncommon. Many patients have evidence of chronic disease, such as weight loss and anemia. Some patients have putrid-smelling sputum indicative of the presence of anaerobes. This is usually treated with clindamycin; the initial IV dose of 600 mg four times daily can be changed to an oral dosage of 300 mg four times daily once the patient becomes afebrile and improves clinically. The duration of therapy is until imaging shows that chest lesions have cleared or have left a small, stable scar. An alternative to clindamycin is any B-lactam/-lactamase inhibitor combination; parenteral treatment may be followed by orally administered amoxicillin/clavulanate. Penicillin was previously regarded as a preferred drug for these infections, but many oral anaerobes produce -lactamases, and clindamycin proved superior to penicillin G in a randomized clinical trial. Metronidazole is highly active against viually all anaerobes but not against aerobic microaerophilic streptococci, which play an impoant role in mixed infections. In therapeutic trials, metronidazole has done poorly unless combined with a -lactam or another agent active against aerobic and microaerophilic streptococci. Patients with fevers persisting for 7-14 days should undergo bronchoscopy. Ref: Harrisons Principles of Medicine, 18th Edition, Chapter 258, Pages 2145-2146 | 5,668 | medmcqa_train |
Destruction of fat in acute pancreatitis is due to | Pathophysiology AP is the final result of abnormal pancreatic enzyme activation inside acinar cells Colocalization hypothesis: Cathepsin B-mediated intra acinar cell activation of the digestive enzymes leads to acinar cell injury and triggers an Inflammatory response Digestive enzymes are released which consists of trypsin and lipase which is responsible for the digestion of fat in acute pancreatitis Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1524-1528 | 5,669 | medmcqa_train |
Which one of the following is not true for an α-helix | Right-handed (clockwise) α-helix is more stable and therefore is the usual α-helix pattern found in the natural secondary structure. Left-handed α-helix is not common.
α-helix is the most common secondary structure in proteins.
α-helix has an overall dipole moment: amino terminus of an alpha helix is positive and carboxy terminus is negative.
All hydrogen bonds in a-helix are parallel (i.e. in the same direction). | 5,670 | medmcqa_train |
Decidualization of endometrium is due to | Progesterone is responsible for decidualization of endometrium. | 5,671 | medmcqa_train |
A pateint with cervix cancer is mised by a screeing test and later diagnosed with advanced disease. This time interval is called | .lead time is actually the advantage gained by screening.the priod between the diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means.detection programmes should therfore concentrate on those conditions where the time lag between the disease&;s onset and its final critical point is sufficiently long to be suitable for population screening. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 128 | 5,672 | medmcqa_train |
Exclusive milk ingestion can manifest as? | Ans. is 'None' | 5,673 | medmcqa_train |
Enzyme alpha naphtyl esterase is present in ? | Ans. is d i.e., Monocyte | 5,674 | medmcqa_train |
Drug not causing enzyme inhibition is | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Phenobarbitone Drugs that induce microsomal enzymes* Phenobarbitone* Carbamezepine* Phenytoin* Omeprazole* Rifampin* Clofibrate* Glucocorticoids* Meprobamate* Isoniazid* Ritonavir* Chloral hydrate* Glutethimide* Phenylbutazone* Chronic alcohol intake* Griseofulvin* Cigarette smoking* DDT* Cyclophosphamide Drugs that inhibit drug metabolizing enzymes* Allopurinol* Diltiazem* Omeprazole* Amiodarone* Erythromycin* Propoxyphene* Clarithromycin* Isoniazid* Chloramphenicol* Cimetidine* Phenylbutazone* Quinidine* Ketoconazole* Metronidazole* Itraconazole* Disulfiram* Ciprofloxacin* Verapamil* Sulfonamides* MAO inhibitors | 5,675 | medmcqa_train |
Characteristic feature of basal cell carcinoma is | The characteristic finding is of ovoid cells in nests with a single 'palisading' layer. It is only the outer layer of cells that actively divide, explaining why tumour growth rates are slower than their cell cycle speed would suggest.Ref: Bailey and Love, 27e, page: 605 | 5,676 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about premature rupture of membrane (PROM) except: | Answer is option 1 Because amnioinfusion with warm saline can be performed in the presence of variable decelerations due to cord compression in oligohydraminos. TEXTBOOK OF OBSTETRICS, SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN, 2nd EDITION,pg:526 | 5,677 | medmcqa_train |
Paial claw hand is caused by lesion involving the:March 2010, March 2013 (a, b) | Ans. B: Ulnar Nerve | 5,678 | medmcqa_train |
The inferior hypogastric plexus is located - | Inferior Hypogastric plexus is located on the side of the rectum. | 5,679 | medmcqa_train |
Complete mole is - | Ans-B i.e., 46XX "In general, complete moles have a 46XX karyotype (85%), the molar chromosomes are derived entirely from father. Infrequently, the chromosomal pattern may be 46, XY or 45, Y". | 5,680 | medmcqa_train |
The major advantage of alternate day prednisone therapy for conditions such as asthma – | Measures that minimize hypothalamic - pituitary - adrenal axis suppression -
Use shorter acting steroids
Use lowest possible dose
Use for shortest period
Give entire daily dose at a time
Switch to alternate - day therapy | 5,681 | medmcqa_train |
Following is not true concerning amyloidosis (NOT RELATED) | Amyloidosis of the spleen characteristically is not associated with leukopenia & anaemia. all other options are true | 5,682 | medmcqa_train |
In a female,basi-occiput fuses with basi-sphenoid at the age of | Basal suture: the basiocciput fuses with basisphenoid by about 18- 22 years in females and 19- 24 years in males. Metopic suture: closes from 2-8 years. In some cases, the metopic suture will not close and may be associated with other congenital anomalies like hydrocephalus and meningocele with asymmetry of fingers which is called Metopic syndrome. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr. PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO: 86 | 5,683 | medmcqa_train |
Cervical cone biopsy in a case of carcinoma cervix causes all, except: | Ans. is d, i.e. Spread of malignancyRef: Shaw 15th/ed, p406; Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p421; Williams Gynae 1st/ed, p635Complications of Cone biopsy are:* HemorrhageQ* Sepsis (infection)Q* Cervical stenosisQ* Pregnancy complications which include:- Mid trimester abortionsQ- Preterm laborQ- Cervical dystociaQAlso Know* Cone biopsy should be done under general anesthesia.* The cone should include the entire outer margin and the endocervical lining but internal OS is spared.* A small cone is preferred in younger women to avoid pregnancy complications. | 5,684 | medmcqa_train |
Swine flu is ca used by ? | Swine infkuenza, a new H1N1 Virus causes swin flue<\p> REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.503 | 5,685 | medmcqa_train |
Best test to detect iron deficiency in community is: | Evaluation of iron status in the body can be done by: Serum ferritin: 'Most sensitive tool for evaluation of iron status' , especially in populations with low prevalence of anemia. Hemoglobin concentration: A relatively insensitive index of nutrient depletion. Serum iron concentration: Normal range is 0.80 - 1.80 mg/L. Serum transferrin saturation: Normal value is 30%. | 5,686 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following fungi has not been cultured - | (B) (Rhinosporidium) (558- C.P. Baveja 4th)* Rhinosoridium seeberi fungus has not been cultured.* Diagnosis depends on the demonstration of sporangia.* Many fungi develop relatively slowly and cultures should be retained for at least 2-3 weeks (in some cases up to 6 weeks before discarded. Yeasts usually grown within 1-5 days.* Rhinosporidiosis is a chronic granulomatous disease characterised by formation of friable polyps, usually confined to the nose, mouth or eye.* Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of reticuloendothelial system. It is caused by Histoplasma - capsulatum mycelial growth containing thick, walled spherical spores with tubercles or finger like projections is a characteristic feature.* Cryptococcosis is caused by crypto neoformans a capsulated yeast. The fungus is a soil saprophyte and is particularly abundant in the faeces of pigeons. Cryptococcal meningitis is a important feature.Usually seen in immunocompromised host. C. neoformans has ability to grow at 37degC**, hydrolyse urea, produce brown colonies on nigar seed agar and produce disease in mice (Animal inoculation test positive)*** Mucor, Rhizopus and Absidia are associated with Zymomycosis.* Absence of rhizoids is a characteristic feature of MUCOR.* Examination of scales in 1% KOH, shows short hyphae and round spores (Sphagetti, and meat ball appearance) and Wood's lamp shows Aple green fluorescence (blue-green fluorescence) in Pityriasis versicolor**** Renauld-Braud phenomenon is seen in Candida albicans.* CandidsL-albicans is the most common cause of mucosal candidiasis.High Yeild Points1."Pseudo-buboes'VPseudolymphadenopathy is caused by Donovanosis (Calymmatobacterium- grcmulomatis)2.Darling's disease or Cave's disease or Caver's disease is caused by dimorphic fungus. Histoplasma capsulatum3.Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by corona virus type - 44.i.Tumbling motility - Listeria ii.Darting motility - V. cholera iii.Stately motility - Clostridium iv.Lashing motility - Borrelia V.Cork-screw motility - T. pallidium vi.Gliding motility - Mycoplasma vii.Swarming motility - Proteus mirabilis. P. vulgaris, B. cereus, Cl. tetani5.*Warthin - Finkldey bodies - Measles *Herpes, Yellow fever - Granular Cowdry type A *Guamieri bodies - Vaccinia *Adeno, Polio virus - Circumscribed Cowdry Type B *Sclerotic bodies - Chromoblastomycosis6.i.Polar flagella are seen in - Vibria, Pseudomonas, H. pylori, Campylobacter, Spirochetes, Legionella ii.Peritrichous flagella - E. coli, Proteus, L. monocytogenes, All Clostridia except Cl. perfringens and Cl. tetani. Bacillus except B. anthrax. Salmonella except S. gallinarum- pollorum.7.i.Hepatitis A - Enterovirus (Picoma virus) - non - enveloped RNA virus - Enterovirus 72 ii.Hepatitis B - Hepadana virus DNA virus iii.Hepatitis C - Flaviviris, enveloped RNA virus iv.Hepatitis D - Defective RNA virus resembling viroids8.Prozone phenomenon is seen with antibody excess to antigen 9."Fish tank granuloma" or "Swimming pool granuloma" is caused by M. marinum 10.A. Post splenectomy - susceptible to bacterial infectionsi. Strep to pneumoniaeii. H. influenzaeiii. Gram negative enteric organism, N. meningitidesB. Splenectomized patients are more susceptible to parasitic disease - Babesiosis, paludism11.Cryptococcus neoformans is best demonstrated in CSF by direct microscopy. The capsule is seen as a clear halo around the yeast cells in unstained wet preparations of CSF mixed with a drop of India - ink or nigrosine. Methamine silver stain would be the best choice for tissue sample.12.Reactive arthritis in tuberculosis is known as Poncets disease (Tubercular rheumatism)13.i. Largest protozoa is - Balantidium coliii. Fasciolopsis- buski - is the largest trematode parasitizing maniii. Largest Nematode- Ascaris, Smallest nematode - Trichinella14.Water house - friderichsen syndrome or Purpura fulminans caused by N. meningitides causes septic shock, prominence of hemorrhagic skin lesion (petechiae, purpura) and the consistent development of DIC15.Obligate intracellular organisms are - Rickettsiae, Chlamydiae, Viruses, M. leprae, pathogenic treponemes (syphilis) | 5,687 | medmcqa_train |
Which of following techniques tests is not used for detection of specific aneuploidy - | FISH (Fluorescent in situ hybridisation) and PCR (polymerase chain reaction) like RT-PCR and QF PCR tests can detect specific aneuploidy.
Whereas, microarray-based CGH (comparative genomic hybridization) test can be used as high-resolution whole-genome scan for the detection or screening of unknown (non-specific) abnormalities, mutation or genomic imbalance including deletions, duplication and aneuploidies. Microarray-based CGH cannot detect balanced translocations or inversions.
So FISH and PCR can detect specific (known) chromosomal abnormalities whereas microarray-based CGH is better suited for screening unknown (non-specific) chromosomal abnormalities. | 5,688 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following occurs along with glucose transport into a cell | Na+- Glucose co-transport. Glucose is reabsorbed 100% in Proximal Tubule | 5,689 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a 'heterophile reaction': | Frei's test is not a heterophile reaction Frie's test is used in the diagnosis of LGV. Antigen made from sterile pus aspirated from previously unruptured LGV abscesses, produces a reaction in patients with lymphogranuloma inguinale when injected intradermally. Heterophile reactiion Similar antigens on dissimilar organisms are called heterophile antigens Antibodies reacting with such antigens are called heterophile antibodies. Serologic tests employing such antigens are called heterophile tests. Heterophile agglutination tests include- Sheep RBCs agglutinate in the presence of heterophile antibodies and are the basis for the Paul-Bunnell test in Infectious mononucleosus. Agglutination of horse RBCs on exposure to heterophile antibodies is the basis of the Monospot test in Infectious mononucleosus. Patients suffering from some rickettsial diseases develop agglutinins against ceain nonmotile strains of Proteus. This is the basis of Weil Felix test. Patients suffering from some Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection develop agglutinins against human blood group O RBC's. This is the basis of cold agglutination test. Patients suffering from some Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection develop agglutinins against Group F Streptococcus. This is the basis of Streptococcus MG test | 5,690 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the commonest ocular manifestation of Tuberculosis? | Phlyctenular conjunctivitis used to be most common manifestation of tuberculosis, but now it is causes by staphylococcus Eales' disease (periphlebitis retinae ) occur in tuberculosis but it is not very common. Acute retinal necrosis occurs in Herpes simplex and varicella infection not in tuberculosis. Choroiditis is by far the most common manifestation of tuberculosis. | 5,691 | medmcqa_train |
Carbon di oxide is transpoed in plasma as:September 2005 | Ans. D: All of the aboveCO2 is carried in blood in three different waysMost of it (about 70% - 80%) is conveed to bicarbonate ions by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the red blood cells5% - 10% is dissolved in the plasma5% - 10% is bound to hemoglobin as carbamino compounds | 5,692 | medmcqa_train |
All are true statements regarding use of sodium fluoride in the treatment of otosclerosis except: | Ans. is a i.e. It inhibits osteoblastic activity The most useful medication which prevents rapid progression of cochlear otoscierosis is sodium fluoride Mechanism of Action It reduces osteoclastic bone resorption and increases osteoblastic bone formation, which promote recalcification and reduce bone remodelling in actively expanding osteolytic lesion. It also inhibits proteolytic enzymes that are cytotoxic to cochlea and lead to SNHL (Hence specially useful in cochlear otosclerosis). Current Otolaryngology 2nd/ed pg 678 | 5,693 | medmcqa_train |
In Kluver-Bucy animals, lesion is in: | Kluver-Bucy syndrome refers to the changes in behavior due to bilateral destruction of anterior poions of temporal lobes & amygdala on both sides. It is characterised by: The animal is not afraid of anything, It has extreme curiosity about everything, It has a tendency to place everything in its mouth, The animal has an extreme sex drive. | 5,694 | medmcqa_train |
Cryoglobulins are present in blood in which of the following clinical scenarios | Cryoglobulins if present in blood, form precipitates in patients serum when it is cooled down. They are a type of abnormal immunoglobulin disorder Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 102 | 5,695 | medmcqa_train |
Serum sickness occurs after - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Injection with foreign serum o Serum sickness is a type III hypersensitivity (immune complex mediated) reaction that results from the injection of heterologous or foreign protein or serum.o Certain medications (eg, penicillin, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ) have also been associated with serum sickness-like disease.o When an antiserum is given, the human immune system can mistake the proteins present for harmful antigens. The body produces antibodies, which combine with these proteins to form immune complexes. These complexes precipitate, enter the walls of blood vessels, and activate the complement cascade, initiating an inflammatory response and consuming much of the available complement component 3 (C3). The result is a leukocytoclastic vasculitis. This results in hypocomplementemia, a low C3 level in serum. o Serum sickness is typically self-limited and resolves within days. | 5,696 | medmcqa_train |
Chancroid is caused by: | Ans. c (Haemophilus ducreyi). (Ref. Textbook of microbiology by Ananthanarayan 6th/ 311.)VulvovaginitisAdherent yellowish discharge, pH >5, fishy amine odor in KOH, clue cells, gram - cell dominateBacterial vaginosisOvergrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, anaerobesClue cells, gram - rodsMetronidazoleVulvovaginitis, pruritus, erythema, discharge with consistency of cottage cheeseCandida spp.Antibiotic use-* overgrowth, immunocom promisedGerm tube test, gram + yeasts in vaginal fluidsNystatin, miconazole"Strawberry cervix" foamy purulent discharge; many PMNs and motile trophozoites microscopically (corkscrew motility)Trichomonas vaginalisVaginitis with dischargePear-shaped trophozoites with corkscrew motilityMetronidazoleEducational points: STDCAUSATIVE AGENTDIAGNOSISTREATMENT1.Chancroid (Soft sore)H. ducreyi"School of fish"/Rail road trackErythromycin/Cotrimazole2.L6VChlamydiae trachomatis (L1< L2, and L3)Culture of LGV strain from node or rectum, occa-sionally from urethra or cervix; NAAT for C. trachomatis from these sites; LGV CF titer, 1:64; micro-IF titer, 1:512.Tetracycline3.Syphilis (Hard chancre)T. pallidumDark ground microscopyPenicillin4.Genital herpesH. simplex2HSV infection is best confirmed in the laboratory by detection of virus, viral antigen, or viral DNA in scrapings from lesions.Acyclovir5.Donovaniasis(Granuloma inguinale)Calymmto- bacterium granulomatisSmears can be examined in a clinical setting by direct microscopy with a rapid Giemsa or Wright's stain. Donovan bodies can be seen in large, mononuclear (Pund) cells as gram-negative intracytoplasmic cysts filled with deeply staining bodies that may have a safety-pin appearance.Erythromycin6.GonorrhoeaN. gonorrheaA rapid diagnosis of gonococcal infection in men may be obtained by Gram's staining of urethral exudates.PenicillinCeftriaxone (For disseminated gonorrhoea)7.TrichomoniasisT. vaginalis"Strawberry vagina & Cx"metro/tinidazole8.Bacterial vaginosisGarnerellaVaginalis"Clue cells"LeucocytopeniaReduced lactobacilliMetronidazole/ Clindamycin | 5,697 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following is not a poor prognostic factor in neuroblastoma? | Unourable prognostic factors in neuroblastoma: Stage 3, 4 Age >18 months Absence of evidence of schwannian stroma and gangliocytic differentiation High Mitosis-karyorrhexis index (>200/5000 cells) Near-diploid (segmental chromosome losses; chromothripsis) MYCN Amplified Chromosome 1p loss Chromosome 11q loss Absent TRKA expression Presence of TRKB expression Mutations of neuritogenesis genes | 5,698 | medmcqa_train |
Overall most common trisomy is | Most common Trisomy overall is Trisomy 16. Most common Trisomy in live birth is Trisomy 21. | 5,699 | medmcqa_train |
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