query
stringlengths 1
1.57k
| pos
stringlengths 1
22.5k
| idx
int64 0
161k
| task_name
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|
A patient died during surgery. The relatives allege that death was due to negligence. According to a recent Supreme Cou judgment, doctor can be charged for Medical Negligence under section 304-A, only if: | Ans. c. There is gross negligence A physician can be charged with criminal negligence in Section 304 A, when a patient dies from the effects of anesthesia during, an operation or other kind of treatment, if it can be proved that the death was the result if malicious intention, or gross negligence. "Section 304-A deals with criminal negligence. Criminal negligence occurs when the doctor shows gross lack of competence or inaction, gross recklessness or wanton indifference to the patient's safety, or gross negligence in the selection and application of remedies. It involves an extreme depaure from the ordinary standard of care." Inadveent Negligence (Accidental negligencel: Inadveent negligence can be called simple negligence. In this case, the harm done is neither foreseen nor willed Corporate Negligence: It occurs when a health care corporation failed to perform those duties, it owes directly to a patient or anyone else to whom it may extend. If such a duty is breached and patient is injured due to result of the breach, the organization can be held under the theory of corporate negligence. Res Ipsa Loquitur: Latin meaning of phrase is-the things or facts speaks for itself. This rule is applied when the following conditions are satisfied: That in the absence of negligence the injury would not have occurred ordinarily. That doctor had exclusive control over injury producing instrument or treatment That the patient was not guilty of contributory negligence. | 5,000 | medmcqa_train |
Localization in insulinoma is best with - | The insulinoma might be localized by noninvasive means, using ultrasound, CT scan, or MRI techniques. An indium-111 pentetreotide scan is more sensitive than ultrasound, CT, or MRI for detection of somatostatin receptor positive tumors, but not a good diagnostic tool for insulinomas. An endoscopic ultrasound has a sensitivity of 40-93% (depending on the location of the tumor) for detecting insulinomas. Sometimes, angiography with percutaneous transhepatic pancreatic vein catheterization to sample the blood for insulin levels is required. Calcium can be injected into selected aeries to stimulate insulin release from various pas of the pancreas, which can be measured by sampling blood from their respective veins. The use of calcium stimulation improves the specificity of this test. During surgery to remove an insulinoma, an intraoperative ultrasound can sometimes localize the tumor, which helps guide the surgeon in the operation and has a higher sensitivity than noninvasive imaging tests. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg840 | 5,001 | medmcqa_train |
The nerve mediating pain of External hemorrhoids is: | -External hemorrhoids --> present below pectinate line , painful bleeding is present --> pain carried by Inferior Rectal Nerve (branch of pudendal nerve). -Internal haemorrhoids --> present above pectinate line --> painless bleeding is its feature. | 5,002 | medmcqa_train |
Myelin sheath in the central nervous system is formed by | Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelination in the CNS. In the PNS, Schwann cells form the myelin sheath. The process of myelination begins before bih and is not complete until a year or more after bih. (Ref: Vishram Singh textbook of neuroanatomy, second edition, pg- 19) | 5,003 | medmcqa_train |
Female presents with history of color change from pallor to cyanosis on exposure to cold in fingers. This condition is mostly associated with? | A. i.e. Scleroderma Raynaud's phenomenon (i.e. cold/vibration/emotional stress-exposure Vt pallor --> cynosis & finally erythemaQ of digits, ear & tip of nose) is almost always present (along with skin sclerosis) and is often earliest featureQ of Systemic sclerosis (Scleroderm). It may precede extensive skin & internal organ involvement by week-months (in diffuse SS) to years (in limited cutaneous SS). | 5,004 | medmcqa_train |
True statements are all except: | 1.) The gene encoding for MHC molecules are clustered on small segment of chromosome 6. 2.) MHC II molecules are present on all the APC's (Antigen Presenting Cells), and Monocyte are type of Antigen Presenting cell. 3.) Class III is present adjacent to Class I and Class II. 4.) Class III encodes for complement protein. | 5,005 | medmcqa_train |
Hypothyroidism is caused by which of the following anti-tubercular drug - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., PAS Adverse effects of para-amino salicylic acid (PAS) --> Anorexia, nausea, epigastric pain, rashes, goiter (hypothyroidism), fever, malaise, liver dysfunction, and blood dyscrasias. Adverse effects of ethionamide :Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, hepatitis, optic or peripheral neuritis, metal disturbances and blood dyscrasias. | 5,006 | medmcqa_train |
During growth cycle of a child, usually at what age childhood ends and adolescence stas? | WHO/UN definitions: Adolescent - 10-19 years Youth - 15-24 years Young people - 10-24 years Ref: Ghai essential pediatrics, 6th edition, Page 66. | 5,007 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following can lead to infiltration of ear lobules, loss of nails and resorption of distal phalanges? | Ans. B. Lepromatous leprosy. (Ref. Harrison's 18th/pg. 1362)LEPROSYSpecific symptoms vary depending on the type of leprosy.# Tuberculoid leprosy: A rash appears, consisting of one or a few flat, whitish areas. Areas affected by this rash are numb because the bacteria damage the underlying nerves.# Lepromatous leprosy: Many small bumps or larger raised rashes of variable size and shape appear on the skin. There are more areas of numbness than in tuberculoid leprosy, and certain muscle groups may be weak. Much of the skin and many areas of the body, including the kidneys, nose, and testes, may be affected due to heavy bacillary infiltration.# Borderline leprosy: Features of both tuberculoid and lepromatous leprosy are present. Without treatment, borderline leprosy may become less severe and more like the tuberculoid form, or it may worsen and become more like the lepromatous form.Lepromatous leprosy# There are countless disseminated macules and/or skin nodules, with blurred outlines and sometimes joining to form larger plaques.# No tendency to central healing is seen and there is no hypopigmentation, although sometimes a "copper colour" is present. The infiltrated skin nodules do exhibit less or no anaesthesia, but numbness develops in the hands and feet.# The skin infiltration may lead to diffuse skin thickening, chiefly of the ears, lips and forehead.# Infiltration of the mucosa leads to chronic rhinitis with epistaxis, septum perforation and destruction of the nasal cartilages. The tongue is thickened and there may be hoarseness.# The upper incisors become loose and often drop out. There is often loss of the eyebrows (madarosis) and eyelashes. The central portion of the forehead (frontalis muscle) is more affected than the lateral portions. The sensory loss on the forehead can be quite marked (since the skin is relatively cool) but at the hairline, there tends to be an abrupt increase in the sensitivity to pinprick.# Testicular atrophy leads to gynaecomastia. The nerves are not severely thickened, but involvement of the nerves is extensive, generalised, gradual and symmetrical.# The consequences of this loss are evident later in the disease and sensory dysfunction, rather than motor defects, are foremost. Deep tendon reflexes are preserved for a long time, which distinguishes this diseases from many other neuropathies (except amyloidosis).# Vibration sense and position sense remain intact for a long time. With progression of the disease, the motor branches of small nerves are invaded, so that there is distal atrophy, especially in the hands.Clinical Features of TestTT FormLL FormSkin lesionsNumberOne or fewNumerousSensationAbsentNot affectedSurfaceDry or scalyShinyHair growth in lesionsAbsentNot affectedNerve enlargementCutaneous nervesommonNot enlargedLarger peripheral nervesVery rareSymmetrilcally enlargedENL reactionDoes not occurCommonLepromin testStrongly positiveNegativeBacillary index05 or 6Skin histology Granuloma cellEpithelioidFoamy histiocyteLymphocytes++++/-Dermal nervesDestroyedEasily visiblePrognosisGoodPoor | 5,008 | medmcqa_train |
One of the following molecules acts as a mobile electron carrier in the respiratory chain | Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 13; The Respiratory Chain & Oxidative Phosphorylation | 5,009 | medmcqa_train |
Symptom of hypoglyemia is - | Ref - Davidsons 23e p739 | 5,010 | medmcqa_train |
True about DNA structure | Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) stores information for the synthesis of specific proteins. DNA has deoxyribose as its sugar. DNA consists of a phosphate group, a sugar, and a nitrogenous base. The structure of DNA is a helical, double-stranded macromolecule with bases projecting into the interior of the molecule. These two strands are always complementary in sequence. One strand serves as a template for the formation of the other during DNA replication, a major source of inheritance. This unique feature of DNA provides a mechanism for the continuity of life. The structure of DNA was found by Rosalind Franklin when she used x-ray crystallography to study the genetic material. The x-ray photo she obtained revealed the physical structure of DNA as a helix. DNA has a double helix structure. The outer edges are formed by alternating deoxyribose sugar molecules and phosphate groups, which make up the sugar-phosphate backbone. The two strands run in opposite directions, one going in a 3' to 5' direction and the other going in a 5' to 3' direction. The nitrogenous bases are positioned inside the helix structure like "rungs on a ladder," due to the hydrophobic effect, and stabilized by hydrogen bonding. | 5,011 | medmcqa_train |
A 36-year-old female presents with heavy menstrual bleeding. She has one child of 7 years. USG shows a single 3x3 cm submucosal fibroid. Hemoglobin is 10.5 gm/dl. What is the best treatment option for her? | Ans. is c, i.e. Hysteroscopic myomectomyThis patient is having heavy menstrual bleeding due to fibroid, i.e. she is symptomatic and hence management has to be done. Best management in fibroid is surgery. Since she is only 36 years and has one child We will go for myomectomy.Submucous fibroid <5cm, should be removed hysteroscopically. [?] Best management is hysteroscopic myomectomy. | 5,012 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are true about dermatitis herpetiformis except: | IgA antibodies are seen against TTG. | 5,013 | medmcqa_train |
Delta bilirubin is ______ bilirubin _____ bound to albumin. | Delta bilirubin or biliprotein is the fraction of conjugated bilirubin that is covalently bound to albumin. This is responsible for the lab finding of persistent hyperbilirubinemia even after the disappearance of jaundice in cases of obstructive jaundice. -Chromatographic fractionation of serum bilirubin: a bilirubin unconjugated bilirubin b bilirubin bilirubin monoglucuronide g bilirubin bilirubin diglucuronide d bilirubin albumin bound conjugated bilirubin | 5,014 | medmcqa_train |
Cushing syndrome as paraneoplastic syndrome is seen with all malignancies, EXCEPT: | Paraneoplastic Syndrome Ectopic Hormone Typical Tumor Hypercalcemia of malignancy Parathyroid hormone-related protein Squamous cell (head and neck, lung, skin), breast, genitourinary, gastrointestinal 1,25 dihydroxyvitamin D Lymphomas Parathyroid hormone Lung, ovary Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2) Renal, lung Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion Vasopressin Lung, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, ovary Cushing's syndrome Adrenocoicotropic hormone (ACTH) Lung (small cell, bronchial carcinoid, adenocarcinoma, squamous), thymus, pancreatic islet, medullary thyroid carcinoma Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-827 | 5,015 | medmcqa_train |
Prevention of emergence of risk factor is - | It is the prevention of the emergence or development of risk factors in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared. | 5,016 | medmcqa_train |
Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between - | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aoa to Pulmonary Aery Blalock Taussig shunt consists of subclan aery (br. of aoa) and pulmonary aery anastamosis. This inturn actually establishes a shunt between the aoa (Via the subclan aery) and the pulmonary aery. Management of T.O.F. Medical Management Limited to management of complications and correction of anemia. Surgical Management o Consists of anastomosing a systemic aery with pulmonary aery to increase the pulmonary blood flow. These shunts are : Blalock - Taussig shunt Subclan aery - Pulmonary Aery anastomosis. Pott's shunt Descending Aoa to Pulmonary Aery Waterston's shunt Ascending Aoa to right pulmonary Aery | 5,017 | medmcqa_train |
Accessory meningeal artery enters cranial cavity through: | Accessory meningeal artery is a branch of 1st part of Maxillary artery.
It enters the cranium by passing through foramen ovale.
It supplies meninges and infratemporal fossa. | 5,018 | medmcqa_train |
The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except | Thyroglossal cysts are the most common cause of midline neck masses. Can occur anywhere along the path of the thyroglossal duct, from the base of the tongue to the suprasternal notch (in the midline) Treatment must include excision of the whole thyroglossal tract, which involves removal of the body of the hyoid bone and the suprahyoid tract through the tongue base to the vallecula at the site of the primitive foramen caecum, (not incision and drainage) This operation is known as Sistrunk's operation and prevents recurrence Source : Bailet and Love Pg: 702 | 5,019 | medmcqa_train |
Serum does not contain | Serum has essentially the same composition as plasma, except that its fibrinogen and clotting factors II, V, and VIII (Table 32-5). (Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology 23rd Edition page no.530) | 5,020 | medmcqa_train |
Forbe&;s disease is due to deficiency of | Glycogen storage disease type III is an autosomal recessive metabolic disorder and inborn error of metabolism characterized by a deficiency in glycogen debranching enzymes. It is also known as Cori&;s disease in honor of the 1947 Nobel laureates Carl Cori and Gey Cori. Other names include Forbes disease in honor of clinician Gilbe Burnett Forbes (1915-2003), an American Physician who fuher described the features of the disorder, or limit dextrinosis, due to the limit dextrin-like structures in cytosol. Limit dextrin is the remaining polymer produced after hydrolysis of glycogen. Without glycogen debranching enzymes to fuher conve these branched glycogen polymers to glucose, limit dextrinosis abnormally accumulates in the cytoplasm.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 129 | 5,021 | medmcqa_train |
Adult worm of Echinococcus is found in: | Ref. Textbook of Microbiology and Immunology BY Parija. – Compiled from Various chapters | 5,022 | medmcqa_train |
All of the following are except- advantages of LMA | LMA is also called Brain mask .It is a supraglottic airway device.It is intermediate between face mask and ETT. Used in difficult airway,in minor and day care surgeries,no muscle relaxant is necessary Disadvantage is it doesn&;t prevent aspiration of gastric contents. | 5,023 | medmcqa_train |
In herpes simplex encephalitis, drugs used are, EXCEPT: | The most effective drug for herpes simplex encephalitis is acyclovir, given intravenously at a dosage of 10 to 15 mg/kg every 8 hours, with each dose given over 1 hour. Ganciclovir is an analogue of acyclovir which is active against all herpes viruses including Herpes simplex. Vidarabine is a purine nucleoside analogue with activity against HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, and EBV. Vidarabine inhibits viral DNA synthesis through its 5'-triphosphorylated metabolite Amantadine is an antiviral agent whose dopaminergic propeies make it effective in the treatment of Parkinson's disease and for prophylaxis against the parkinsonian side effects of neuroleptic agents. It is not used in herpes simplex encephalitis. Ref: Baden L.R., Dolin R. (2012). Chapter 178. Antiviral Chemotherapy, Excluding Antiretroviral Drugs. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | 5,024 | medmcqa_train |
NOT a hypolipidemic drug: | Ans. (c) SomatostatinRef. KDT 6th ed. / 235SOMATOSTATIN* Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of GH, TSH and prolactin by pituitary, insulin and glucagon by pancreas and most importantly. It inhibits most of G.I secretions gastrin and HC1.* It can be used in controlling esophageal varices and bleeding peptic ulcer.* Drugs like simvastatin, atorvastatin, fluvastatin, lovastatin and rosuvastatin are statins, which are hypolipidemic drugs. They act by inhibiting HMG-CoA Reductase.* Fenofibrate are from fibrates category, which has maximum triglyceride lowering activity.Also know* Statins end with "vastatin"* Maximum LDL lowering activity is by: STATINS* Longest acting statin: ROSUVASTATIN | 5,025 | medmcqa_train |
Factors that produce acute pancreatitis include all of the following except | The two leading causes associated with acute pancreatitis are alcoholism and cholelithiasis, both of which are implicated in more than 80% of cases. Less common causes of acute pancreatitis include trauma, ischaemia, shock, extension of inflammation from the adjacent tissues, bloodborne bacterial infection, viral infections, ceain drugs (e.g. thiazides, sulfonamides, oral contraceptives), hypothermia, hyperlipoproteinaemia and hypercalcaemia from hyperparathyroidism. Rarely, familial pancreatitis is encountered. In a propoion of cases of acute pancreatitis, the etiology remains unknown (idiopathic pancreatitis). TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6TH EDITION HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:646 | 5,026 | medmcqa_train |
Carbenicillin: | Ans. (A) Is effective in pseudomonas infection(Ref: KDT 8/e p773)Carbenicillin is a penicillin congener effective against pseudomonas and indole positive proteus which are not inhibited by penicillin G or ampicillin/amoxicillin.It is inactive orally and excreted rapidly in urine. It is sensitive to penicillinase and acid, so administered parenterally as sodium salt. | 5,027 | medmcqa_train |
Topical immunomodulator used for the treatment of genital was is: | Genital wa treatments that can be applied directly to your skin include: Imiquimod (Aldara, Zyclara). This cream appears to boost the immune system's ability to fight genital was. Avoid sexual contact while the cream is on your skin. It may weaken condoms and diaphragms and may irritate. One possible side effect is redness of the skin. Other side effects may include blisters, body aches or pain, cough, rashes, and fatigue. Podophyllin and podofilox (Condylox). Podophyllin is a plant-based resin that destroys genital wa tissue. Podofilox contains the same active compound but can be safely applied. Trichloroacetic acid (TCA). This chemical treatment burns off genital was. TCA must always be applied by a doctor. Side effects can include mild skin irritation, sores or pain. REF KD Tripathi 8th ed | 5,028 | medmcqa_train |
All are true regarding staphylococcal toxin except ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mainly endotoxin Impoant facts about virulence factors . Clumping factor is bound coagulase which is responsible for the slide coagulase test. . Coagulase (free coagulase) - Acts along with a coagulase reacting factor (CRF) in plasma. - Eight type of coagulase have been identified, most human strains form coagulase A. - Most constant association of virulence is production of enzyme coagulase and to lesser extent with mannitol fermentation. . Heat stable nuclease (DNAase) is a characteristic feature of staph aureus. . Staphylococcus produces five cytolytic toxins, consisting of four hemolysins (alpha, beta, gamma and delta) and a leucocidin. . a - hemolysin is the most impoant hemolysin. . Beta - hemolysin is a sphingomyelinase. It exhibits a hot-cold phenomenon, the hemolysis being initiated at 37degC, but becoming evident only after chilling. . Leucocidin is also called the Panton-valentine toxin. . Staphylococcal leucocidin and gamma lysin have been grouped as synergohymenotropic toxins. . Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST) and enterotoxins are superantigens which are potent activators of T lymphocytes and lead to an excessive and dysregulated immune response with release of cytokines IL-1, IL-2, TNF-a and IFN - y. . Enterotoxin is responsible for food poisoning. . Exfoliative (epidermolytic toxin) - Responsible for staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (S.S.S.S.). - Severe form of SSSS is known as Ritter disease in newborn and toxic epidermal necrolysis in older patients. Milder forms are pemphigus neonatorum and bullous impetigo. . Staphylococcus does not produce endotoxin. Endotoxin is produced by gram (-) ye organisms, the only gram (+) ye organism secreting endotoxin is listeria. | 5,029 | medmcqa_train |
Staph. aureus causes vomiting in 2 hours after eating contaminated milk product . The mechanism of action is - | Option 1, 3 Increase in cyclic AMP/GMP-accumulation of sodium chloride in the intestinal lumen- Diarrhea. Option 2 Toxin Stimulates the vagus nerve and vomiting center of brain. Acts directly on the autonomic nervous system rather than on gastrointestinal mucosa. Option 4 Cholera toxin: binds to GM1 ganglioside receptors present on the intestinal epithelium | 5,030 | medmcqa_train |
A patient presents with Hb of 8 gm% , WBC count of 2000/mm3 and platlet count of 60000/mm3. What is your likely diagnosis? | ANSWER: (C) Aplastic anemiaREF: Harrison's 18th ed Ch: 107It's a straight forward diagnosis of Aplastic anemia since all the three cell lines of blood are reduced. The very basic question tests your knowledge of normal blood counts | 5,031 | medmcqa_train |
Holt-Oram syndrome is characterized by? | Holt-Oram syndrome: - Autosomal dominant disorder - Characterized by - skeletal abnormalities of hands and arms like: Hypoplastic/ absent thumbs, radii Triphalangism Phocomelia - Cardiac anomalies ASD 1st degree hea block TRIPHALANGISM phacomelia | 5,032 | medmcqa_train |
Branch of facial nerve in facial canal | A. i.e. Greater petrosal nerve; C. i.e. Chorda tympani; B . i.e. N. to stapedius | 5,033 | medmcqa_train |
Ca Vulvaof the anterior pa will spread primarily to which of the following lymph nodes? | Vulval Lymphatics: Superficial component - drains the anterior two-thirdvulva, to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes Deep drainage system - draining the posterior one-third vulva is to deep inguinal nodes, external iliac, and femoral nodes In Ca Vulva the lymphatic spread is usually to the inguinal lymph nodes, which are located between Camper's fascia and the fascia lata. From these superficial groin nodes, the disease spreads to the deep femoral nodes, which are located medial to the femoral vessels Cloquet's or Rosenmuller's node, situated beneath the inguinal ligament, is the most cephalad of the femoral node group. | 5,034 | medmcqa_train |
Protein di sulphide isomerase is involved in | Disulfide bonds between and within polypeptides stabilize teiary and quaternary structures. However, disulfide bond formation is nonspecific. Under oxidizing conditions, a given cysteine can form a disulfide bond with the --SH of any accessible cysteinyl residue. By catalyzing disulfide exchange, the rupture of an S--S bond and its reformation with a different paner cysteine, protein disulfide isomerase facilitates the formation of disulfide bonds that stabilize a protein&;s native conformationPeptidyl cis-trans isomerase, protein disulphide isomerase and chaperones are involved in protein folding | 5,035 | medmcqa_train |
Facial nerve palsy can be caused by - | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ail of the above Causes of facial paralysis1. Central :-Brain abscess, pontine glioma, Polio, multiple sclerosis2. Intracranial part (cerebellopontine angle) :- Acoustic neuroma, meningioma, congenital cholesteatoma, metastatic carcinoma, meningitis3. Intratemporal part:-Idiopathic :- Bell's palsy, Melkersson's syndromeInfections:- ASOM, CSOM, Herpes zoster oticus, malignant otitis externaTrauma:- Surgical (mastoidectomy, stapedectomy), accidental (fractures of temporal bone)Neoplasms :- Malignancies of external and middle ear, glomus jugular, facial nerve neuroma, metastasis (from breast, lung etc).4. Extracranial part :- Malignancies or surgery or injury to parotid gland5. Systemic diseases :- Diabetes, hypothyroidism, uremia, PAN, Sarcoidosis (Heerfordt's syndrome), leprosy, leukaemia, demyelinating disease | 5,036 | medmcqa_train |
Which is the thinnest pa of the lens of eye? | The lens is thinnest at the posterior pole. The crystalline lens is surrounded by a lens capsule. Lens capsule is a thin transparent elastic membrane secreted by the lens epithelial cells largely composed of type IV collagen. The capsule is 11- 15microm thick at the anterior pole. The posterior capsule thickness decreases to a minimum at the posterior pole to about 4microm. Ref: Adler's Physiology of the Eye: Expe Consult by Leonard A Levin, Page 47 | 5,037 | medmcqa_train |
A 60 year old man presented with watering from his left eye since 1 year. Syringing revealed a patent drainage system. Rest of the ocular examination was normal. A provisional diagnosis of lacrimal pump failure was made. Confirmations of the diagnosis would be by: | Ans. Dacryoscintigraphy | 5,038 | medmcqa_train |
The type of mammary ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) most likely to result in a palpable abnormality in the breast is - | Carcinoma of the breast is divided into :
Carcinoma in situ → neoplastic cells is limited to ducts and lobules by the basement membrane.
Invasive carcinoma (infiltrating carcinoma) → cells invade beyond the basement membrane.
Caricnoma in situ :
It is of two types
A. Ductal carcinoma insitu (DCIS, intraductal carinoma )
Most frequently present as manzmographic calcification.
Rarely palpable mass may also occur in comedocarcinoma.
DCTS is of two types -
i. Comedocarcinoma
ii. Noncomedo DCTS → Solid, cribriform, papillary or micropapillary
B. Lubular carcinoma in Situ (LCIS)
Always an incidental finding in a biopsy performed for another reason.
LCIS is not associated with calcification → Therefore, it remains infrequent with or without mammography (in contrast to DCIS)
Frequently multicentric and bilateral
Signet ring cells are common. | 5,039 | medmcqa_train |
Not a complication of gallstone | Effects and complications of Gallstones In gallbladder In Bile duct In Intestine Silent stones Acute cholecystitis Chronic cholecystitis Mucocele Empyema Perforation Gangrene Carcinoma Obstructive jaundice Cholangitis Acute pancreatitis Gallstone ileus Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1492-1493 | 5,040 | medmcqa_train |
Ujjwala is for - | Ujjawala ,a comprehensive scheme to combact trafficking was launched in infia by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-542 | 5,041 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following drug is useful in the prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis? | Minocycline is used in acne and for prophylaxis of meningococcal meningitis.Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed Pg: | 5,042 | medmcqa_train |
A 40 year old female patient presents with excessive bleeding. Patient gives a history of road traffic accident 5 hours ago and had a lacerated wound on lower back region. Blood grouping test reveals presence of Anti A antibody, Anti B antibody, Anti H antibody and Anti Rh D antibody in the serum. The blood group of this patient is? | → Apart from A< B and O RBC of type O contains large amount of another antigen called H substance.
→ H substance is genetically different from ABO but is a precursor of A and B antigens.
→ An O group individual who inherits A or B genes but fails to inherit H gene from either parent is called Oh phenotype or Bombay blood group. | 5,043 | medmcqa_train |
IOC for Bronchiectasis - | The best test to evaluate the destruction and dilatation of large airways which are filled with pus in Bronchiectasis is HRCT.
Spiral CT is preferred for pulmonary embolism.
Pulmonary angiography is done for lung sequestration and is gold standard for pulmonary embolism. | 5,044 | medmcqa_train |
M/C ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis: | Ans. is b, i.e. Clear cell tumorM/C ovarian cancer associated with endometrial cancer: Endometrioid tumorM/C ovarian cancer associated with endometriosis: Clear cell carcinoma | 5,045 | medmcqa_train |
The only Sugar normaly absorbed in the intestine against a concentration gradient is : | C i.e. GlucoseFinal products of carbohydrate digestion in intestinal chyme are glucose & fructoseQ.The glucose transpo in intestine is an example of secondary active transpo i.e., the energy of glucose transpo is provided indirectly by active transpo of Na+ out of cell. Because glucose & Na+ share the same cotranspoer (sympo) the sodium dependent glucose transpoer (SGLT, Na+ - glucose cotranspoer, cross cell membrane 12 times), the high concentration of Na+ on mucosal surface of cells facillitate & low concentration inhibit hexose sugar influx into epithelial cells. | 5,046 | medmcqa_train |
A young patient with a headache, epiphora, bilateral nasal obstruction but no fever. Diagnosis is | CLINICAL FEATURES 1. Age and sex. Tumour is seen almost exclusively in males in the age group of 10-20 years. Rarely, it may be seen in older people and females. 2. Profuse, recurrent and spontaneous epistaxis. This is the most common presentation. The patient may be markedly anaemic due to repeated blood loss. 3. Progressive nasal obstruction and denasal speech. It is due to the mass in the postnasal space. 4. Conductive hearing loss and otitis media with effusion. It occurs due to obstruction of the eustachian tube. 5. Mass in the nasopharynx. Tumour is sessile, lobulated or smooth and obstructs one or both choanae. It is pink or purplish in colour. Consistency is firm but digital palpation should never be done until at the time of operation. 6. Other clinical features like broadening of the nasal bridge, proptosis, swelling of the cheek, infratemporal fossa or involvement of IInd, IIIrd, IVth and VIth cranial nerves will depend on the extent of the tumour (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat, P.L Dhingra, 7th edition, page 279 ) | 5,047 | medmcqa_train |
What is the recommended illumination for general office work? | The recommended illumination for casual reading is 100 lux, 400 lux for office work, 900 lux for fine assembly and for watch making 2000 - 3000 lux is recommended. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 519. | 5,048 | medmcqa_train |
Lucio phenomenon is treated with: | Lucio phenomenon seen in leprosy- recurrent crops of large, sharply marginated, ulcerative lesions paicularly on the lower extremities. These are frequently fatal as a result of secondary infection and consequent septic bacteremia. Neither glucocoicoids nor thalidomide is effective against this syndrome. Optimal wound care and therapy for bacteremia are indicated. Ulcers tend to be chronic and heal poorly. In severe cases exchange transfusion is indicated. Extra edge : Lenalidomide (thalidomide derivative) is the drug of choice in MDS patients with 5q deletion, MDS with 5q deletion is lenalidomide responsive. | 5,049 | medmcqa_train |
Complications of prematurity are all except | Retinopathy of prematurity is complication of prematurity. | 5,050 | medmcqa_train |
WHO definition of normal sperm count: | Normal sperm count/ml i.e. sperm concentration is 20 million/ml. | 5,051 | medmcqa_train |
Center of rotation for tipping is present at: | Uncontrolled tipping:
A single force is applied at the crown, whereby the tooth rotates around a point just apical to the CRes. The crown moves in the direction of the force and the apex of the root moves in the opposite direction. The CRes of the tooth also moves in the direction of the force.
Controlled tipping:
Example of a healthy maxillary
The force but the root apex does not move forward in the opposite direction. The CRes also moves in the direction of the force. This kind of movement may be indicated when retracting excessively proclined maxillary incisors.
Key concept:
Center of rotation of single rooted teeth for tipping is present along the long axis of tooth. | 5,052 | medmcqa_train |
Relative polycythemia are caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: | High altitude is associated with physiological increase in erythropoietin levels resulting in secondary polycythemia and not relative polycythemia. Polycythemia refers to increase in RBCs, WBCs, and platelets, but in common practice is used to describe increased red cells or erythrocytosis. It can be primary, secondary or relative. In relative polycythemia, the red cell mass is normal, but the plasma volume is decreased resulting in elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit values. Ref: Current Diagnosis and Treatment Emergency Medicine, 7th Edition, Chapter 41; Essentials of Pathophysiology: Concepts of Altered Health States By Carol Mattson Poh Page 293 | 5,053 | medmcqa_train |
Physical quality of life index is measured by all, Except | (Refer: K. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 24th edition, pg no: no: 17, 18)Human Development Index (HDI) Vs Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI)HDIPQLIComponentsLongevity - Life expectancy at bih (LEdeg/LEdeg)Income (Real GDP per capita in PPP US$)Knowledge (Mean years of schooling - Gross enrolment ratio & Literacy rate)Life expectancy at 1 year age (LE)Infant moality rate (IMR)Literacy rateRange0 to +10 to 100Value of India0.547 (2011)Ranking - 131 in 2017130 as medium development category (2015) among 188 countries65 (old index, now not used) | 5,054 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following doesn't occur during the processing of RNA? | Precursor tRNA is processed to form mature tRNA. Alterations during processing are of three types: nucloelytic reactions, nucleoside modifications, terminal additions of nucleotides. Chemical hydrolysis is not a pa of RNA processing. Poly A tailing and 5'capping occurs in the processing of RNA. Methylation and deamination are known to occur. Introns will be removed after cleavage in the process. | 5,055 | medmcqa_train |
Which cranial nerve supplies lateral rectus muscle? | Ans. C Abducens* All the extraocular muscles are supplied by CN III except lateral rectus and superior oblique.* Lateral rectus supplied by--CN VI* Superior oblique supplied by--CN IVRemember- LR6;SO4 | 5,056 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of recently sputum positive case of pulmonary TB is | Ans. c (RMP + INH + PZM + ETM); (Ref. Park PSM 22nd/pg. 175)Treatment categories and sputum examination schedule in DOTS chemotherapy in IndiaTREATMENT REGIMENSPUTUM EXAMINATIONS FOR PULMONARY TBCategory of treatmentType of patientRegimenPret- reat- ment sputumTest at monthIF: result is-----THEN:New cases Category I Red BoxNew sputum smear-positiveNew sputum smear-negativeNew extra-pulmonary**New others2(HRZEE)3+4(HR)3+2-Start continuation phase, test sputum again at 4 and 6 months +Continue intensive phase for one more monthComplete the treatment in 7 monthsPreviouslyTreatedCategory IIBlue BoxSputum smear positiveRelapse***Sputum smear-positiveFailure***Sputum smear-positive treatment after default others2(HRZES)3+1(HRZE)3+5(HRE)3+3-Start continuation phase, test sputum again at 5 months 6 months, completion of treatment + + Continue intensive phase for one more month, test sputum again at 4 months if sputum is positive send sputum for culture and drug sensitivity as it might be a case of MDR-TB* The number before the laetters refers to the number of months of treatment. The subcript after the letters refers to the number of doses per week. H; Isoniazid (600 mg), R: Rifampi (450 mg), Z: pyrazinamide (1500 mg), E: Ethambutol (1200 mg), S: Streptomycin (750 mg).Patients who weigh more than 60 kg receilve additional Rifampicin 150 mg. Patients more than 50 years old receive streptomycin 500 mg.Patients in categories I and II, who have a positive sputum smear at the end of the initial intensive phase, receive an additional month of intensive phase treatment.** Examples of seriously ill extra-pulmonary TB cases are meningitis, disseminated TB, tuberculous pericarditis, peritonitis, bilateral or extensive pleurisy, spinal TB with neurological complications and intestinal and genito-urinary TB.*** In rare and exceptional cases, patients who are sputum smear-negative or who have extra-pulmonary disease can have relapse or failure. This diagnosis in all such cases should always be made by an MO and should be supported by culture or histological evidence of current, active tuberculosis. In these cases, the patient should be categorized as 'Other' and given Category II treatment. Any patient treated with Category I who has a positsive smear at 5 months of treatment should be considered a failure and started onCategory II treatment, afresh. If category I sputum smear-ve case fails to improve or if patient develops pulmonary signs and positive smear at the end of intensive phase, it is considered treatment failure. Start category II treatment and confirm failure by culture and perform DST. | 5,057 | medmcqa_train |
In a 27 yr old male most common cause of a colo-vesical fistula would be: | Diveicular disease is the most common cause of colovesical fistula, followed by colon cancer and Crohn disease. Diveicular disease and colon cancer are rare in people younger than 40 years. Here this patient is young; hence the most suitable answer is Crohn's disease. Ref: ACP Medicine: Volume 1, 2007, Page 816. | 5,058 | medmcqa_train |
Number of structural gene in Lac operon | Lactose operone or Lac operon The lac operon is a region of DNA in the genome of E. coli that contains following genetic elements ? i) Three structural genes :- These code for 3 proteins that are involved in catabolism of lactose. These genes are 'Z' gene (codes for P-galactosidase), 'Y' gene (codes for galactoside permease), and 'A' gene (codes for thiogalactoside transacetylase). ii) Regulatory gene (lac i) It produces repressor protein. iii) A promotor site (P) :- It is the binding site for RNA polymerase. It contains two specific regions ? a) CAP site (Catabolite activator protein binding site). b) RNA polymerase binding site iv) An operator site (0) :- Repressor binds to this site and blocks transcription. 3 Structural genes are expressed only when '0' site is empty (repressor is not bound) and the CAP site is bound by a complex of cAMP and CAP (catabolite gene activator protein). | 5,059 | medmcqa_train |
Chondroblastoma most commonly occurs in : | Ans. is 'c' ie Epiphysis Apley's orthopedics writes - "Chondroblastoma is one of the few lesion to appear primarily in the epiphysis" | 5,060 | medmcqa_train |
Laudanosine is metabolic end product of | Laudanosine is metabolic end product of atracurium. | 5,061 | medmcqa_train |
Cephalic index 75- 80 is seen in | Cephalic index 1.Dolicocephalic ( long headed) 70-75 2.Mesaticephalic(medium headed) 75- 80 3. Brachycephalic( sho headed) 80-85 Present study aimed at working outcephalic index in Indian students. 100 students were taken as subjects and head length, head breadth were measured. Indian males had meancephalic index of 77.92 and they were mesocephalic and females had mean cephalic index of 80.85 and they were brachycephalic. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS PAGE NO 67 | 5,062 | medmcqa_train |
Airway noise originating in the nose, nasopharynx and oropharynx is known as: | Stridor is a harsh noise produced by turbulent airflow through a paially obstructed airway. It may be inspiratory, expiratory, or both (biphasic). The term steor is used to describe airway noise originating in the nose, nasopharynx, and oropharynx; therefore, stridor is generally of laryngeal or tracheal origin. | 5,063 | medmcqa_train |
Hot flushes are experienced as a result of | Hot flushes are caused by noradrenaline, which disturbs the thermoregulatory system. Oestrogen deficiency reduces hypothalamic endorphins, which release more norepinephrine and serotonin. This leads to inappropriate heat loss mechanism. Other causes that can be associated with the symptom of hot flushes include: thyroid disease, epilepsy, pheochromocytoma, carcinoid syndromes, autoimmune disorders, mast cell disorders, insulinoma, pancreatic tumours and even leukemias. REF : Shaw book of gynecology | 5,064 | medmcqa_train |
In Alzheimer's disease (AD) which of the following is not seen: | B i.e. Acalculia | 5,065 | medmcqa_train |
Parietal cells in the stomach secrete a protein crucial for the absorp on of vitamin B12 by the ileum. What is this protein? | . | 5,066 | medmcqa_train |
How many parathyroid glands do humans have? | Parathyroid glands: The parathyroid glands are small, yellowish-brown, ovoid or lentiform structures, usually lies between the posterior lobar borders of the thyroid gland and its capsule.
They are commonly 6 mm long, 3-4 mm across, and 1-2 mm from back to front, each weighing about 50 mg.
Usually, there are two on each side, superior and inferior. Variations: There may be only three or many minute parathyroid islands scattered in connective tissue near the usual sites.
Normally the inferior parathyroids migrate only to the inferior thyroid poles, but they may descend with the thymus into the thorax or not descend at all, remaining above their normal level near the carotid bifurcation.
To help identification, the anastomotic connection between the superior and inferior thyroid arteries along the posterior border of the thyroid gland usually passes very close to the parathyroids. The inferior pair are more variably situated, and may be within the fascial thyroid sheath, below the inferior thyroid arteries and near the inferior lobar poles; or outside the sheath, immediately above an inferior thyroid artery; or in the thyroid gland near its inferior pole. The superior parathyroids are usually dorsal, the inferior parathyroids ventral, to the recurrent laryngeal nerves. Vasculature:
The parathyroid glands have a rich blood supply from the inferior thyroid arteries or from anastomoses between the superior and inferior vessels.
Approximately one-third of human parathyroid glands have two or more parathyroid arteries.
Lymph vessels are numerous and associated with those of the thyroid and thymus glands.
Nerve supply:The nerve supply is sympathetic, either direct from the superior or middle cervical ganglia or via a plexus in the fascia on the posterior lobar aspects.
Parathyroid activity is controlled by variations in blood calcium level: it is inhibited by a rise and stimulated by a fall.
The nerves are believed to be vasomotor but not secretomotor Histology : Contains two types of cells Active cells or chief cells which produce parathormone.
Chief cells differ ultrastructurally according to their level of activity: active chief cells have large Golgi complexes with numerous vesicles and small membrane-bound granules.
Glycogen granules are most abundant in inactive cells, which appear histologically as ‘clear' cells.
In normal human parathyroid glands, inactive chief cells outnumber active cells in a ratio of 3-5:1 Second cell type, the oxyphil (eosinophil) cell, appears just before puberty and increases in number with age.
Oxyphil cells are larger than chief cells and contain more cytoplasm, which stains deeply with eosin.
Their nuclei are smaller and more darkly staining than those of chief cells, and their cytoplasm is unusually rich in mitochondria.
The functional significance of oxyphil cells and their relationship to chief cells are uncertain | 5,067 | medmcqa_train |
A 45-year-old man is worried about a dark pigmented skin lesion on his arm. The "mole" is 3 mm wide, symmetric with a regular border and even pigmentation. He reports no change in size or other symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? | (a) Source: (Kasper, pp. 500-502) Observation alone is adequate for this lesion. The "ABCD" rules are helpful in distinguishing benign skin lesions from malignant melanoma. (A) asymmetry, benign lesions are symmetric; (B) border irregular, most nevi have clear-cut borders; (C) color variation, benign lesions have uniform color; (D) diameter, >6 mm is more likely to be malignant. In addition, recent rapid change in size is also helpful in distinguish benign from malignant lesions. Thickness of the tumor is the most important prognostic factor in the majority of cases, and ulceration indicates a more aggressive cancer with a poorer prognosis. Although cumulative sun exposure is a major factor in melanoma (e.g., more frequent near the equator), it cannot explain such things as the more common occurrence of some types in relatively young people. It is possible that brief, intense exposure to sunlight may contribute to, or initiate, carcinogenic events. | 5,068 | medmcqa_train |
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia- | Normal adults contain less than 1mg/dL of total bilirubin out of which less than 0.25 mg/dL is conjugated bilirubin. Unconjugated bilirubin is estimated by substracting direct bilirubin value (Harsh mohan page 593) | 5,069 | medmcqa_train |
25 years old gentleman has repeated thoughts that he has not locked his car door properly and frequently checks it while driving. He also repeatedly checks locks in his house. Diagnosis is | Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) and obsessive compulsive personality disorders a(OCPD)two different types of disorders OCD is classified under anxiety disorders whereas OCPD is classified under personality disorder Patients with OCD have recurrent, irresistible, irrelevant and intrusive thoughts that are EGO DYSTONIC. They will present with repeated doubts wheather they have locked the door and vehicles, repeated contamination thoughts and does acts to counter this obsessions. These acts are called as compulsions. OCPD , a type of cluster C personality which is characterized by Preoccupied with rules Perfectionism that interferes with task completion Inflexibility Devoted to work Stubbornness EGO SYNTONICITY IS THE CHARACTERISTIC FEUTURE Key note. OCD= EGO DYSTONIC OCPD= EGO SYNTONIC Ref. Kaplan and sadock synopsis of psychiatry, 11e, Pg.756. | 5,070 | medmcqa_train |
Most common false neurological sign is: | Diplopia REF: Journal of Neurology, Neurosurgery Psychiatry 2003; 74:415-418 Doi:10.1136/ jnnp.74.4.415, Neurological signs have been described as "false localizing" if they reflect dysfunction distant or remote from the expected anatomical locus of pathology. False localizing signs occur in two major contexts: as a consequence of raised intracranial pressure, and with spinal cord lesions. Cranial nerve palsies (especially sixth nerve palsy), hemiparesis, sensory features (such as truncal sensory levels), and muscle atrophy, May all occur as false localizing signs. Sixth nerve palsies are the most common false-localizing sign of raised intracranial pressure. In one series of 101 cases of IIH, 14 cases were noted, 11 unilateral and 3 bilateral. Sixth nerve palsy, or abducens nerve palsy, is a disorder associated with dysfunction of cranial nerve VI (the abducens nerve), which is responsible for contracting the lateral rectus muscle to abduct (i.e., turn out) the eye. The inability of an eye to turn outward results in a convergent strabismus or esotropia of which the primary symptom is double vision or diplopia in which the two images appear side-by-side. The condition is commonly unilateral but can also occur bilaterally. | 5,071 | medmcqa_train |
Umami taste is evoked by | Glutamic acid is responsible for umami taste Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 713,714,715 | 5,072 | medmcqa_train |
The following anti T.B. drug should not be given to AIDS patient- | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rifampicin | 5,073 | medmcqa_train |
Banding technique most commonly employed for cytogenetic analysis | G-banding (most common) R-banding Q-banding C-banding T-banding G stands for Giemsa R stands for "reverse" Q stands for Quinacrine Fluoroescent dye C stands for Constitutive heterochromatin or Centromere T stands for telomeres to produce a visible karyotype Dark regions are heterochromatin (AT) Light regions are Euchromatin (GC) Dark regions are euchromatin Bright regions are heterochromatin | 5,074 | medmcqa_train |
In a CA lung patient is suffering from dyspnoea, the palliation of dyspnoea is achieved by | Morphine is used for dyspnea in terminally ill cancer patients by : Both endogenous (b-endorphin) and exogenous (morphine) opioids modulate the perception of dyspnea by binding to opioid receptors. Proposed mechanisms whereby opioids relieve refractory dyspnea include decreasing respiratory drive with an associated decrease in corollary discharge; altering central perception; altering the activity of peripheral opioid receptors located in the lung and decreasing anxiety. Ref KD Tripathi 8th ed | 5,075 | medmcqa_train |
True about Moorens ulcer: March 2007, March 2013 | Ans. B: Affects cornea Mooren's ulcer is a rare, painful, inflammatory condition affecting one or both eyes that results in the destruction of corneal tissue. The cause of Mooren's ulcer is unknown. It is generally agreed that it is an autoimmune condition. Pain is almost always associated with the onset of Mooren's ulcer. One or both eyes may be involved at either the same time or one following the other. Approximately two thirds of cases affect one eye only. Mooren's ulcer is more common in men than women. Damage begins at the edge of the cornea and may progress to involve the central cornea. A serious complication of Mooren's ulcer is formation of a perforation or hole, in the cornea. Conditions that can cause similar eye problems are rheumatoid ahritis, systemic lupus erythematosus and Wegener's granulomatosis. | 5,076 | medmcqa_train |
Thanatology deals with | Ans) a (Death in all aspects) Ref.KNS Reddy 20th ed p 122Thanatology deals with death in all aspects.There is a progression from clinical death to brain death, biological death, biological death and then cellular death. Brain death follows immediately clinical death due to lack of oxygen. First the cerebral cortex, then cerebellum and then lower brain centres die. Ultimately the brain stem and vital centres die. There after the process of cellular death begins.Types of deatha) Somatic death- complete, irreversible stoppage of circulation breathing and brain functionb) Brain death-Characterized by deep unconsciousness with no response to external stimuli, no breathing, no cardiac function, no reflexes (except spinal), fixed dilated pupil and flat EEG for atleast 24 hrs with body temperate more than 32i c in the absence of metabolic and endocrine dysfunction.c) Molecular death- death of cells or tissues individually | 5,077 | medmcqa_train |
Spontaneous CSF leak associated with all except | spontaneous cerebrospinal fluid leak (SCSFL) is a medical condition in which the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) surrounding the human brain and spinal cord leaks out of the surrounding protective dural sac for no apparent reason. A spontaneous CSF leak, as opposed to traumatically caused CSF leaks, arises idiopathically Connective tissue theory Various scientists and physicians have suggested that SCSFLS may be the result of an underlying connective tissue disorder affecting the spinal dura It may also run in families and be associated with aoic aneurysms and joint hypermobility. Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease are the three most common connective tissue disorders associated with SCSFLS.] Roughly 20% of patients with SCSFLS exhibit features of Marfan syndrome, including tall stature, hollowed chest (pectus excavatum), joint hypermobility and arched palate. However, these patients do not exhibit any other Marfan syndrome presentations. Spinal drainage theory Some studies have proposed that issues with the spinal venous drainage system may cause a CSF leak. According to this theory, dural holes and intracranial hypotension are symptoms caused by low venous pressure in the epidural space. When inferior limb muscles pump blood towards the hea and pressure in the inferior vena cava vein becomes negative, the network of epidural veins is overdrained, causing CSF to be aspirated into the epidural space. True leaks can form at weak points in the spinal meninges. Therefore, the observed CSF hypotension is a result of CSF hypovolemia and reduced epidural venous pressure. Other causes Cranial CSF leaks result from intracranial hypeension in a vast majority of cases. The increased pressure causes a rupture of the cranial dura mater, leading to CSF leak and intracranial hypotension.] Patients with a nude nerve root, where the root sleeve is absent, are at increased risk for developing recurrent CSF leaks.] Lumbar disc herniation has been repoed to cause CSF leaks in at least one case.Degenerative spinal disc diseases cause a disc to pierce the dura mater, leading to a CSF leak Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 | 5,078 | medmcqa_train |
The enzyme which transcripts a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is: | Reverse transcriptase transcripts a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template. This enzyme is programmed to use a single-stranded RNA template, and to synthesize a complementary DNA (cDNA) strand. Ref: Measuring Gene Expression, Matthew B. Avison, 2007, Page 135 | 5,079 | medmcqa_train |
What is the rationale behind xenobiotic metabolism by CYP enzymes? | the aim of xenobiotics metabolism is to increase water solubility so that these compounds can be exceed through urine. (Ref-Goodman Gillman 12th/e p124/125) | 5,080 | medmcqa_train |
Treatment of C. difficile infection | Ans. d (All of the above) (Ref H-17th/820; KDT 6th!731; Table 123-2)Pseudomembranous enetrocolitis is associated with use of:Rx of Pseudomemb colitis:# Clindamycin# Metronidazole and vancomycin-drug of choice.# Aminoglycosides# Oral Rx for Cl. difficile-Asso Disease include:# Tetracyclines- Placebo or discontine offending antibiotics# Cotrimoxazole- Metronidazole# Ampicillin- Vancomycin# More common after colorectal surgery.- Teicoplanin- Nitazoxanide- Fusidic acid- Bacitracin.Drug reactions--GIDrug reactionCausal agentsAcute cholestatic hepatitis, jaundiceErythromycinDiarrheaMetformin, Erythromycin, Colchicine, Orlistat, AcarboseFocal to massive hepatic necrosisHalothane, Amanita phalloides (death cap mushroom), Valproic acid, AcetaminophenHepatitisINHPancreatitisDidanosine,Corticosteroids,Alcohol,Valproicacid, Azathioprine, Diuretics(furosemide, HCTZ)Pseudomembranous colitisClindamycin, ampicillin, cephalosporin's(predispose to superinfection by resistant C. difficile) | 5,081 | medmcqa_train |
All are true about SALK vaccine except - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., It is contraindicated in immunocompromised patients Advantages of IPV 1) Being an inactivated vaccine, it is safe to administer in - i) Persons with immunodeficiency ii) Persons undergoing coicosteroid or radiotherapy iii) During pregnancy 2) One or two doses of live vaccine (OPV) can be given safely as booster after an initial course of immunization with TV. 3) Does not require stringent conditions during storage and transpoation. Has a longer shelf life. 4) No risk of vaccine associated paralytic polio. | 5,082 | medmcqa_train |
All are associated with chronic osteomyelitis except- | Complications of chronic osteomyelitis
Following complications can occur : -
Acute exacerbation Growth abnormalities due to damage to adjacent growth plate: - Shortening, Deformities.
Pathological fracture
Joint stiffness
Sinus tract malignancy (very rare): - Squamous cell carcinoma
Amyloidosis | 5,083 | medmcqa_train |
Stapedius nerve is a branch of ? | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Facial nerve Branches of facial nerve In fallopian (facial canal) :- Greater petrosal (greater superficial petrosal) nerve, nerve to stapedius, chorda tympani.At its exit from stylomastoid foramen :- Posterior auricular, digastric nerve, stylohyoid nerve.Terminal branches :- Temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical. | 5,084 | medmcqa_train |
'Intermediate form' of Non Hodgkin's lymphoma is - | Working formulation of NHL for clinical use is as follows:
Low grade :
small lymphocytic
Follicular, predominantly small cleaved cell
Follicular mixed
Intermediate Grade :
1. Follicular predominantly large cell
2. Diffuse small, mixed, as well as large cell.
High grade :
Large cell immunoblastic
Lymphoblastic
Small non-cleaved cell.
Note that all varieties of diffuse fall in the intermediate grade category only. | 5,085 | medmcqa_train |
When a person stands suddenly from lying down posture, there is | (A) Increased tone of capacitance vessels. > It occurs due to noradrenergic impulses causing venoconstriction via their action on a1 and a2 - adrenergic receptors on systo veins. | 5,086 | medmcqa_train |
True about Trendelenburg operation is | Tredelenburg Operation Consists of saphenofemoral junction flush ligation & Greater saphenous vein (GSV) stripping All four tributaries (superficial Inferior epigastric, superficial circumflex iliac, deep & superficial external pudendal veins) is divided Ligate the GSV deep to all tributaries flush with the common femoral vein Greater saphenous vein should only be stripped to just below the knee to avoid damage to the accompanying saphenous nerve Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1832 | 5,087 | medmcqa_train |
Sub-valvular Aoic Stenosis is known to be associated with all of the following, except: | Answer is C (Tricuspid valve atresia) Tricuspid Valve Atresia is not associated with Subvalvular Aoic Stenosis. Subvalvular Aoic Stenosis (Subaoic Stenosis) Subaoic stenosis is defined as obstruction to left ventricular outflow below the aoic valve. It is the second most common form of fixed aoic stenosis. The most common form of subaoic stenosis is 'Discrete' Subaoic Stenosis is fuher classified into 'Discrete' type and 'Diffuse Tunnel-Type' narrowing Types of Subaoic Stenosis `Discrete' (85 to 90 percent) : Most common form of subaoic stenosis `Diffuse' or 'Long Segment Tunnel-Type'(10%to 15% ) Some have attempted to subdivide the discrete form into membranous and fibromuscular but such distinction is difficult Boys are more frequently affected than girls at a ratio of approximately 2:1. Subaoic stenosis is associated with other cardiac abnormalities in 50% to 70% of patients The two most_ frequently associated defects with subaoic stenosis are Ventricular Septal Defect and Coarctation of Aoa. Aoic regurgitation is the most common complication of subaoic stenosis occurring in as many as 50 percent of patients Cardiac Anomalies Associated with subaoic stenosis Aoic regurgitation Aoic valve stenosis Patent ductus aeriosus Coarctation of the aoa Interrupted aoic arch Mitral valve abnormalities Ventricular septal defect Repaired a trioventricular septal defects Double-chambered right ventricle | 5,088 | medmcqa_train |
Incubation period of Nipah virus | Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed Pg.310 | 5,089 | medmcqa_train |
Drug indicated in case of subarachnoid hemorrhage: | Ans. A. NimodipineNimodipine is cerebro selective calcium channel blocker. Given in patients with hemorrhagic stroke. Nicardipine also have similar effects. This drugs reverse the cerebral vasospasm. | 5,090 | medmcqa_train |
Ayushman Bharat is | Ayushman Bharat is National Health Protection Scheme, which will cover over 10 crore poor and vulnerable families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) providing coverage up to 5 lakh rupees per family per year for secondary and teiary care hospitalization. Ayushman Bharat - National Health Protection Mission will subsume the on-going centrally sponsored schemes - Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) and the Senior Citizen Health Insurance Scheme (SCHIS). | 5,091 | medmcqa_train |
Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is seen in: | About 15% of patients develop autoantibodies ( IgG )against their own red cells or platelets which leads to autoimmune hemolytic anemia. | 5,092 | medmcqa_train |
A 56-year old man presented with bony pain. X-ray skull lateral view shows: | Ref. Grainger and Allison's Diagnostic Radiology. Page. 483
Pagets disease of bone affects each person differently . It includes :
1 Bones : Pain in the affected bones is the most common symptom of pagets disease of bone.
Skull in Pagets disease
osteoporosis circumscripta: large, well-defined lytic lesion
cotton wool appearance: mixed lytic and sclerotic lesions of the skull
diploic widening: both inner and outer calvarial tables are involved, with the former usually more extensively affected
Tam o'Shanter sign: frontal bone enlargement, with the appearance of the skull falling over the facial bones, like a Tam o' Shanter hat | 5,093 | medmcqa_train |
Agoraphobia is -a) Fear of open spacesb) Fear of closed specesc) Fear of heightsd) Fear of crowded places | Formerly the term agoraphobia was used to denote phobias of open spaces alone but it is now used in a wider sence, i.e. irrational fear of places and situations from where escape might be difficult. Such places are public places, stores, crowd, travelling alone in bus, train or plane or in lift. | 5,094 | medmcqa_train |
Trapping parasites using NETs is assisted by | NEUTROPHILS AND EOSINOPHILS EMPLOY NETS TO ENTRAP PARASITESIn addition to ingesting small microorganisms such as bacteria by phagocytosis, neutrophils and eosinophils can assist in the elimination of larger invaders by trapping them within webs called neutrophil extracellular traps or NETsRef: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 54 White Blood Cells | 5,095 | medmcqa_train |
a-helix of protein is | a-Helix: A peptide chain forms regular helical coils called a-helix. Type of secondary protein structure. These coils are stabilized by hydrogen bonds between carbonyl O of 1st amino and amide N of 4th amino acid residues. Thus in a aa aa-helix intrachain hydrogen bonding is present. The a aa aa-helices can be either right handed or left handed. Left-handed a-helix is less stable than right-handed a helix because of the steric interference between the C = O and the side chains. Only the right-handed a-helix has been found in protein structure. Each amino acid residue advances by 0.15 nm along the helix, and 3.6 amino acid residues are present in one complete turn. The distance between two equivalent points on turn is 0.54 nm and is called a pitch. Small or uncharged amino acid residues such as alanine, leucine, and phenylalanine are often found in a-helix. More polar residues such as arginine, glutamate, and serine may repel and destabilize a-helix. Proline is never found in a-helix. The proteins of hair, nail, skin contain a group of proteins called keratins rich in a -helical structureRef: Textbook of medical biochemistry, MN Chatterji, 8th edition, page no: 89 | 5,096 | medmcqa_train |
Common sites for mongolian spot are - | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lumbosacral area Mongolian spots are blue or slate - gray macular lesions which occur most commonly in pre-sacral area (mainly in lower back & buttocks) but may be found over the posterior thighs, legs, and shoulders. | 5,097 | medmcqa_train |
Threshold level for neuronal action potential- | Ans. is 'c' i.e., -55 mv * The action potential, which is recorded using an intracellular electrode, has following phases : -1) Resting stage:# This is the resting membrane potential before the action potential. At rest, membrane is said to be "polarized" because - 70 mV negative membrane potential (RMP) that is present. Strictly speaking, it is not a part of the action potential.2) Depolarization phase:# The potential shoots up to + 35 mV in less than a millisecond. It is due to opening of "voltage gated" Na+ channels which causes influx of sodium, so inside negative charge becomes positive.# From -70 mV to -55 mV (firing Ivel or threshold point) the voltage gated sodium channles open partially. This portion of AP (-70 mV to -55 mV) is called "prepotential" or "foot ofAP".# Once the threshold level (-55 mV) is reached voltage gated Na+ channels open completely and the potential shoots up suddenly. It is called depolarization, since it represents loss of the original polarity of cell membrane.3) Repolarization phase:# The potential drops to near resting level, i.e., reversal to original polarity (repolarization). At the start of repolarization (end of depolarization), Voltage - gated Na+ channels close and Voltage - gated K+ channels open which cause efflux of K+ out of the cell. So, inside positive charge once again becomes negative due to efflux of positive charge (K+).4) After depolarization:# The repolarization is very fast till 70% of repolarization has been acheived. After that it is slows down. This slower phase of repolarization is called 'after depolarization\5) After-hyperpolarization:# During repolarization phase K+ channels open and there is K+ efflux. The membrane voltage falls back (repolarizes) to resting potential, i.e., -70 mV. At this voltage, K+ channels close, but quite slowly.# Therefore, more K+ ions leak out, causing a brief period in which the voltage falls below -70 mV, i.e. hyperplorization. Then, K+/Na+ pump works to re-establish resting potential by pumping Na+ ions back out and K+ ions back into the cells. | 5,098 | medmcqa_train |
Which of the following includes the classical triad of ' enlarged upper part of uterus, soft lower part of body and firm cervix 'during early pregnancy? | Ans. a (Hegar's sign). (Ref Dutta, Obstetrics, 6th ed., p 65)SIGNS OF EARLY PREGNANCY1Jacquemier's or Chadwick's sign (eighth week)Dusky hue of vestibule and anterior vaginal wall.2Osiander's sign (eighth week)Increased pulsations felt through lateral fornices.3Goodell's sign (sixth week)Softening of cervix.4Piskacek's signasymmetrical enlargement of uterus if there is lateral implantation.5Hegar's sign (6--10th week)Variation in uterine consistency due to the enlargement of upper part of the body of uterus and soft and empty lower part of the body with cervix being firm.6Palmer's sign (4--8th week)Regular and rhythmic uterine contractions elicited during bimanual examination.7Palpation of fetal parts can be distinctly made by 20th week of gestation.8Fetal heart may not be audible in cases of maternal obesity, polyhydramnios, IUD and OPP.9Placental signCyclic bleeding up to 12th week of pregnancy until decidual space obliterated. | 5,099 | medmcqa_train |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.