id
int64 173M
173M
| flagged
bool 1
class | index
int64 1
98
| questionChoiceId
null | marksheetId
int64 6.49M
6.5M
| timeTaken
null | isAnswered
bool 1
class | striked
sequencelengths 0
0
| mark
null | questionId
int64 264
22.8k
| question
dict | __typename
stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
173,465,946 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,663 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as GTN is broken down to release nitric oxide, not endothelins. Furthermore, since angina is caused by a reduction in blood flow to the heart, GTN must cause smooth muscle relaxation and hence vasodilation.",
"id": "10026328",
"label": "d",
"name": "GTN is broken down to release endothelins. This causes activation of Ca2+ channels and hence contraction of smooth muscle cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as GTN is broken down to release nitric oxide, not prostaglandins. Furthermore, since angina is caused by a reduction in blood flow to the heart, GTN must cause smooth muscle relaxation and hence vasodilation.",
"id": "10026329",
"label": "e",
"name": "GTN is broken down to release prostaglandins. This causes activation of Ca2+ channels and hence contraction of smooth muscle cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Once inside the body, GTN is broken down to release nitric oxide, a potent vasodilator. Via increasing levels of intracellular cGMP, nitric oxide results in inhibition of Ca2+ channels, reducing intracellular Ca2+ and hence lowering smooth muscle contractility. This causes vasodilation and hence improves the symptoms of angina.",
"id": "10026325",
"label": "a",
"name": "GTN is broken down to release nitric oxide which increases cGMP levels. This causes inhibition of Ca2+ channels and hence relaxation of smooth muscle cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as nitric oxide increases, not decreases, the levels of cGMP. Via increasing levels of intracellular cGMP, nitric oxide results in inhibition of Ca2+ channels, reducing intracellular Ca2+ and hence lowering smooth muscle contractility. This causes vasodilation and hence improves the symptoms of angina.",
"id": "10026326",
"label": "b",
"name": "GTN is broken down to release nitric oxide which decreases cGMP levels. This causes inhibition of Ca2+ channels and hence relaxation of smooth muscle cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as GTN is broken down to release nitric oxide, not prostaglandins.",
"id": "10026327",
"label": "c",
"name": "GTN is broken down to release prostaglandins. This causes inhibition of Ca2+ channels and hence relaxation of smooth muscle cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3721",
"name": "Stable angina",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3721,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17663",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following correctly describes the mechanism through which Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray treats angina symptoms?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 34,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,947 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,664 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Minoxidil works by opening K+ channels. This results in hyperpolarisation of smooth muscle cells, inhibiting calcium channel opening which causes relaxation and hence vasodilation. This increases blood flow to the hair follicles.",
"id": "10026334",
"label": "e",
"name": "Activates Ca2+ channels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Minoxidil works by opening K+ channels. This results in hyperpolarisation of smooth muscle cells, inhibiting calcium channel opening which causes relaxation and hence vasodilation. This increases blood flow to the hair follicles.",
"id": "10026332",
"label": "c",
"name": "Activates Na+ channels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Minoxidil works by opening K+ channels. This results in hyperpolarisation of smooth muscle cells, inhibiting calcium channel opening which causes relaxation and hence vasodilation. This increases blood flow to the hair follicles.",
"id": "10026333",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inhibits Na+ channels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Minoxidil is a drug used to treat hair loss which works via opening K+ channels. This results in hyperpolarisation of smooth muscle cells, inhibiting calcium channel opening which causes relaxation and hence vasodilation. This increases blood flow to the hair follicles.",
"id": "10026330",
"label": "a",
"name": "Activates K+ channels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Minoxidil works by opening K+ channels. This results in hyperpolarisation of smooth muscle cells, inhibiting calcium channel opening which causes relaxation and hence vasodilation. This increases blood flow to the hair follicles.",
"id": "10026331",
"label": "b",
"name": "Inhibits K+ channels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4605",
"name": "Alopecia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "144",
"name": "Dermatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 144,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4605,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17664",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is the correct mechanism of action of minoxidil?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 27,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,948 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,665 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. It is diltiazem which inhibits cytochrome P3A4, not simvastatin. This results in a rise in simvastatin levels which can result in pathological muscle breakdown and eventually rhabdomyolysis.",
"id": "10026336",
"label": "b",
"name": "Simvastatin inhibits cytochrome P3A4 which causes a rise in diltiazem",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Diltiazem inhibits cytochrome P3A4, the enzyme responsible for breaking down simvastatin. This results in a rise in simvastatin levels which can result in pathological muscle breakdown and eventually rhabdomyolysis.",
"id": "10026337",
"label": "c",
"name": "Diltiazem activates cytochrome P3A4 which causes a rise in simvastatin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Diltiazem inhibits cytochrome P3A4, the enzyme responsible for breaking down simvastatin. This results in a rise in simvastatin levels which can result in pathological muscle breakdown and eventually rhabdomyolysis.",
"id": "10026339",
"label": "e",
"name": "Both drugs are broken down by the same enzyme and hence concurrent use causes elevation in levels of both",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Diltiazem inhibits cytochrome P3A4, the enzyme responsible for breaking down simvastatin. This results in a rise in simvastatin levels which can result in pathological muscle breakdown and eventually rhabdomyolysis.",
"id": "10026335",
"label": "a",
"name": "Diltiazem inhibits cytochrome P3A4 which causes a rise in simvastatin levels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Diltiazem inhibits cytochrome P3A4, the enzyme responsible for breaking down simvastatin. This results in a rise in simvastatin levels which can result in pathological muscle breakdown and eventually rhabdomyolysis.",
"id": "10026338",
"label": "d",
"name": "Simvastain activates cytochrome P3A4 which causes a rise in diltiazem",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5888",
"name": "Rhabdomyolysis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "133",
"name": "Endocrinology",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 133,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5888,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17665",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Why does the concurrent use of simvastatin and diltiazem increase the risk of rhabdomyolysis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 27,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,949 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,666 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst the caudal ventrolateral medulla is involved in the baroreceptor reflex pathway, it is not the site where afferent fibres from the carotid sinus first arrive as that is the nucleus tractus solitatius. Instead, it receives electrical activity from the nucleus tractus solitarius to, along with the rostral ventrolateral medulla, increase sympathetic activity to the heart and blood vessels.",
"id": "10026343",
"label": "d",
"name": "Caudal ventrolateral medulla",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst the nucleus ambiguus is involved in the baroreceptor reflex pathway, it is not the site where afferent fibres from the carotid sinus first arrive as that is the nucleus tractus solitatius. Instead, it receives electrical activity from the nucleus tractus solitarius to raise the heart rate.",
"id": "10026341",
"label": "b",
"name": "Nucleus ambiguus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Baroreceptor afferent fibres are sent to the nucleus tractus solitarius. This then sends further impulses to other areas of the brain, such as the nucleus ambiguus, rostral ventrolateral medulla, caudal ventrolateral medulla, and paraventricular nucleus which bring about the reflex actions.",
"id": "10026340",
"label": "a",
"name": "Nucleus tractus solitarius",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst the rostral ventrolateral medulla is involved in the baroreceptor reflex pathway, it is not the site where afferent fibres from the carotid sinus first arrive as that is the nucleus tractus solitatius. Instead, it receives electrical activity from the nucleus tractus solitarius to, along with the caudal ventrolateral medulla, increase sympathetic activity to the heart and blood vessels.",
"id": "10026342",
"label": "c",
"name": "Rostral ventrolateral medulla",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst the paraventricular nucleus is involved in the baroreceptor reflex pathway, it is not the site where afferent fibres from the carotid sinus first arrive as that is the nucleus tractus solitatius. Instead, it receives electrical activity from the nucleus tractus solitarius to increase ADH release from the hypothalamus.",
"id": "10026344",
"label": "e",
"name": "Paraventricular nucleus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4219",
"name": "Baroreceptor reflex",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "159",
"name": "Cardiovascular physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 159,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4219,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17666",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "As part of the baroreceptor reflex, once a drop in blood pressure has been detected at the carotid sinus, which area of the brain is an impulse sent to?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 32,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,950 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,667 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes complete heart block. Sinus arrhythmia refers to the normal fluctuations in heart rate associated with breathing.",
"id": "10026348",
"label": "d",
"name": "A desynchronization of atrial and ventricular contraction due to damage to the AV node",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. It is normal in young, healthy individuals to see fluctuations in the heart rate associated with breathing. There is a drop in heart rate during expiration and a rise during inspiration. This is called sinus arrhythmia.",
"id": "10026345",
"label": "a",
"name": "Normal fluctuations in heart rate are associated with breathing",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes ventricular tachycardia. Sinus arrhythmia refers to the normal fluctuations in heart rate associated with breathing.",
"id": "10026347",
"label": "c",
"name": "A rapid, irregular heartbeat originating from the ventricles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Sinus arrhythmia refers to the normal fluctuations in heart rate associated with breathing.",
"id": "10026349",
"label": "e",
"name": "An abnormal accessory pathway from the atrium to the ventricle resulting in periods of tachycardia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes atrial fibrillation. Sinus arrhythmia refers to the normal fluctuations in heart rate associated with breathing.",
"id": "10026346",
"label": "b",
"name": "An irregularly irregular heartbeat originates from the atria",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5884",
"name": "Autonomic Nervous System",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "159",
"name": "Cardiovascular physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 159,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5884,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17667",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is the correct explanation of sinus arrhythmia?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 31,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,951 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,668 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. In eccentric hypertrophy, new sarcomeres are added in series to the existing ones, resulting in an increase in chamber size without an increase in wall thickness. Concentric hypertrophy, on the other hand, does result in wall thickening.",
"id": "10026351",
"label": "b",
"name": "Eccentric hypertrophy causes an enlargement in chamber size in proportion to an increase in wall thickness",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes concentric hypertrophy. Eccentric hypertrophy occurs as a result of endurance training, not pressure overload.",
"id": "10026352",
"label": "c",
"name": "Eccentric hypertrophy occurs when the heart adapts to pressure overload (e.g. in hypertension)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Eccentric hypertrophy is a form of physiological remodelling whereby the myocytes increase in length but not width. This results in an increase in chamber size without an increase in wall thickness. Concentric hypertrophy, on the other hand, occurs secondary to pressure overload (e.g. in hypertension) and involves significant wall thickening.",
"id": "10026353",
"label": "d",
"name": "Eccentric and concentric hypertrophy are synonymous terms referring to the same process of cardiac remodelling",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Concentric hypertrophy occurs when sarcomeres are added in parallel to the existing ones, resulting in the thickening of the chamber walls and hence an increase in myocardial mass.",
"id": "10026354",
"label": "e",
"name": "Eccentric hypertrophy results in a reduction in myocardial mass",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Eccentric hypertrophy is a form of physiological remodelling whereby the myocytes increase in length but not width. This results in an increase in chamber size without an increase in wall thickness.",
"id": "10026350",
"label": "a",
"name": "Eccentric hypertrophy does not result in an increased myocardial wall thickness",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4534",
"name": "Myocytes",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "159",
"name": "Cardiovascular physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 159,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4534,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17668",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following correctly distinguishes concentric from eccentric hypertrophy?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 28,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,952 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,669 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. There are 3 sites of constriction along the course of the ureter where stones may lodge. These are the ureteropelvic junction (where the ureter emerges from the renal pelvis), the crossing of the ureter over the common iliac artery, and the uretorovesicular junction (where the ureter enters the bladder wall).",
"id": "10026359",
"label": "e",
"name": "The ureteropelvic junction, crossing over the abdominal aorta, ureteral sphincter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. There are 3 sites of constriction along the course of the ureter where stones may lodge. These are the ureteropelvic junction (where the ureter emerges from the renal pelvis), the crossing of the ureter over the common iliac artery, and the uretorovesicular junction (where the ureter enters the bladder wall).",
"id": "10026357",
"label": "c",
"name": "The bladder neck, crossing over the femoral artery, uretorovesicular junction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. There are 3 sites of constriction along the course of the ureter where stones may lodge. These are the ureteropelvic junction (where the ureter emerges from the renal pelvis), the crossing of the ureter over the common iliac artery, and the uretorovesicular junction (where the ureter enters the bladder wall).",
"id": "10026358",
"label": "d",
"name": "The bladder neck, crossing over the common iliac artery, ureteral sphincter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. There are 3 sites of constriction along the course of the ureter where stones may lodge. These are the ureteropelvic junction (where the ureter emerges from the renal pelvis), the crossing of the ureter over the common iliac artery, and the uretorovesicular junction (where the ureter enters the bladder wall).",
"id": "10026356",
"label": "b",
"name": "Ureteropelvic junction, crossing over the femoral artery, uretorovesicular junction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. There are 3 sites of constriction along the course of the ureter where stones may lodge. These are the ureteropelvic junction (where the ureter emerges from the renal pelvis), the crossing of the ureter over the common iliac artery, and the uretorovesicular junction (where the ureter enters the bladder wall).",
"id": "10026355",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ureteropelvic junction, crossing over the common iliac artery, uretorovesicular junction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4413",
"name": "Renal Stones",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4413,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17669",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following correctly lists the 3 points of constriction seen in the ureter?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 31,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,953 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,670 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes the intracellular space. Transcellular spaces are special compartments within the human body whereby fluid volumes are very tightly controlled. These include cerebrospinal fluid, pleural fluid, and synovial fluid. These are separate spaces from the intracellular, intravascular and interstitial spaces.",
"id": "10026362",
"label": "c",
"name": "A cardiac myocyte",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The interstitial space is its own fluid compartment existing outside of the blood vessels and outside of the cells. Transcellular spaces are special compartments within the human body whereby fluid volumes are very tightly controlled. These include cerebrospinal fluid, pleural fluid, and synovial fluid. These are separate spaces from the intracellular, intravascular and interstitial spaces.",
"id": "10026361",
"label": "b",
"name": "The interstitial space",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes the intravascular space. Transcellular spaces are special compartments within the human body whereby fluid volumes are very tightly controlled. These include cerebrospinal fluid, pleural fluid, and synovial fluid. These are separate spaces from the intracellular, intravascular and interstitial spaces.",
"id": "10026363",
"label": "d",
"name": "The plasma in the blood",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Transcellular spaces are special compartments within the human body whereby fluid volumes are very tightly controlled. These include cerebrospinal fluid, pleural fluid, and synovial fluid. These are separate spaces from the intracellular, intravascular and interstitial spaces.",
"id": "10026364",
"label": "e",
"name": "None of the above",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Transcellular spaces are special compartments within the human body whereby fluid volumes are very tightly controlled. These include cerebrospinal fluid, pleural fluid, and synovial fluid. These are separate spaces from the intracellular, intravascular and interstitial spaces.",
"id": "10026360",
"label": "a",
"name": "Cerebrospinal fluid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4518",
"name": "Total body water",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4518,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17670",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is an example of a transcellular space?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 26,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,954 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,671 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst mannitol does increase the plasma osmolality, this draws fluid out of the intracellular space and into the interstitium and plasma.",
"id": "10026367",
"label": "c",
"name": "It increases the plasma osmolality to draw fluid out of the interstitial space",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Mannitol is a sugar alcohol which sits in the extracellular space and increases the osmolality. This pulls fluid out of the intracellular space down a water potential gradient and hence helps reduce cerebral oedema.",
"id": "10026365",
"label": "a",
"name": "It increases the plasma osmolality to draw fluid out of the intracellular space",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes the mechanism of action of how dexamethasone reduces cerebral oedema. Mannitol is a sugar alcohol which sits in the extracellular space and increases the osmolality. This pulls fluid out of the intracellular space down a water potential gradient and hence helps reduce cerebral oedema.",
"id": "10026369",
"label": "e",
"name": "It reduces the permeability of capillaries in the brain to prevent fluid leaking out",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst mannitol does draw fluid out of the intracellular space, it does this by increasing the plasma osmolality, not osmolarity.",
"id": "10026366",
"label": "b",
"name": "It increases the plasma osmolarity to draw fluid out of the intracellular space",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Mannitol is a sugar alcohol which sits in the extracellular space and increases the osmolality. This pulls fluid out of the intracellular space down a water potential gradient and hence helps reduce cerebral oedema.",
"id": "10026368",
"label": "d",
"name": "It increases the plasma osmolarity to draw fluid out of the interstitial space",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5889",
"name": "Osmolality vs Osmolarity",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "181",
"name": "Structure and Function of Cells",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 181,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5889,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17671",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "What is the mechanism through which mannitol is used to treat cerebral oedema?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 31,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,955 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,672 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. This is the third layer of the glomerular filtration barrier and is characterised by podocytes wrapping around the glomerular capillaries. Podocytes are specialised epithelial cells with foot processes known as pedicels which help to filter out any larger molecules from entering the nephron.",
"id": "10026370",
"label": "a",
"name": "Epithelial layer of the Bowman's capsule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst this is a layer of the glomerular filtration barrier, it is not made up of podocytes.",
"id": "10026371",
"label": "b",
"name": "Glomerular basement membrane",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The proximal tubule epithelium is not a component of the glomerular filtration barrier. It is made up of the capillary endothelium, the glomerular basement membrane, and the epithelial layer of the Bowman's capsule. It is this third layer which is composed of podocytes.",
"id": "10026373",
"label": "d",
"name": "Proximal tubule epithelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The collecting duct is not a component of the glomerular filtration barrier. It is made up of the capillary endothelium, the glomerular basement membrane, and the epithelial layer of the Bowman's capsule. It is this third layer which is composed of podocytes.",
"id": "10026374",
"label": "e",
"name": "Collecting duct",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst this is a layer of the glomerular filtration barrier, it is not made up of podocytes.",
"id": "10026372",
"label": "c",
"name": "Capillary endothelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3814",
"name": "Nephron Structure",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3814,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17672",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which layer of the glomerular filtration barrier is made up of podocytes with filtration slits between them?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 31,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,956 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,673 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The GFR is calculated by multiplying the urine:plasma creatinine ratio by the rate of urine output in 24 hours. In this case, it is 6000/60 x 1.9/24 = 7.9 L/hour.",
"id": "10026378",
"label": "d",
"name": "0.019 L/hour",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The GFR is calculated by multiplying the urine:plasma creatinine ratio by the rate of urine output in 24 hours. In this case, it is 6000/60 x 1.9/24 = 7.9 L/hour.",
"id": "10026379",
"label": "e",
"name": "190 L/hour",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The GFR is calculated by multiplying the urine:plasma creatinine ratio by the rate of urine output in 24 hours. In this case, it is 6000/60 x 1.9/24 = 7.9 L/hour.",
"id": "10026377",
"label": "c",
"name": "90 L/hour",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The GFR can be calculated by multiplying the urine:plasma creatinine ratio by the rate of urine output in 24 hours. In this case, it is 6000/60 x 1.9/24 = 7.9 L/hour.",
"id": "10026375",
"label": "a",
"name": "7.9 L/hour",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The GFR is calculated by multiplying the urine:plasma creatinine ratio by the rate of urine output in 24 hours. In this case, it is 6000/60 x 1.9/24 = 7.9 L/hour.",
"id": "10026376",
"label": "b",
"name": "0.00079 L/hour",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3954",
"name": "Glomerular filtration rate",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3954,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17673",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A man with a plasma creatinine concentration of 60 μmol/L (normal range 60-120μmol/L) undergoes a 24-hour urine collection. During the 24 hours, 1.9L of urine is collected with a urinary creatinine concentration of 6000 micromoles/L (normal ranges: (F) 6 - 13 (M) 9 - 19).\n\nWhat is the man's GFR in L/hour?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 25,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,957 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,674 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The aquaporin 1 channel (AQP1) is involved in water reabsorption, not glucose reabsorption. The Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter 2 (SGLT2) is the primary transporter involved in the reabsorption of glucose in the nephron.",
"id": "10026382",
"label": "c",
"name": "AQP1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst the SGLT1 transporter is involved in glucose reabsorption, it is considerably less important than the SGLT2 transporter in the nephron. SGLT1 accounts for the majority of dietary glucose uptake in the gastrointestinal tract.",
"id": "10026381",
"label": "b",
"name": "SGLT1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The Glucose/Hydrogen exchanger is not a component of the nephron. The Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter 2 (SGLT2) is the primary transporter involved in the reabsorption of glucose in the nephron.",
"id": "10026384",
"label": "e",
"name": "Glucose/Hydrogen exchanger",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC2) is involved in Na+, K+, and Cl- reabsorption, not glucose reabsorption. The Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter 2 (SGLT2) is the primary transporter involved in the reabsorption of glucose in the nephron.",
"id": "10026383",
"label": "d",
"name": "NKCC2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The Sodium-Glucose Linked Transporter 2 (SGLT2) is the primary transporter involved in the reabsorption of glucose in the nephron. It sits in the proximal convoluted tubule and takes up a glucose molecule and Na+ ion together. It is responsible for the reabsorption of around 90% of the glucose.",
"id": "10026380",
"label": "a",
"name": "SGLT2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5890",
"name": "Glucose reabsorption",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5890,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17674",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Through which transporter is the majority of glucose reabsorbed in the nephron?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 34,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,958 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,675 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and so reduces the reabsorption of bicarbonate. This leads to increased urinary bicarbonate loss and lower serum bicarbonate levels. This means there is less buffering of H+ ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.",
"id": "10026389",
"label": "e",
"name": "It does not affect acid-base homeostasis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and so reduces the reabsorption of bicarbonate. This leads to increased urinary bicarbonate loss and lower serum bicarbonate levels. This means there is less buffering of H+ ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.",
"id": "10026388",
"label": "d",
"name": "Respiratory alkalosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and so reduces the reabsorption of bicarbonate. This leads to increased urinary bicarbonate loss and lower serum bicarbonate levels. This means there is less buffering of H+ ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.",
"id": "10026385",
"label": "a",
"name": "Metabolic acidosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and so reduces the reabsorption of bicarbonate. This leads to increased urinary bicarbonate loss and lower serum bicarbonate levels. This means there is less buffering of H+ ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.",
"id": "10026387",
"label": "c",
"name": "Respiratory acidosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and so reduces the reabsorption of bicarbonate. This leads to increased urinary bicarbonate loss and lower serum bicarbonate levels. This means there is less buffering of H+ ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.",
"id": "10026386",
"label": "b",
"name": "Metabolic alkalosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5891",
"name": "Acetazolamide",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "188",
"name": "Renal Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 188,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5891,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17675",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which acid-base disturbance can be seen with acetazolamide use?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 30,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,959 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,676 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor which works by preventing the reabsorption of bicarbonate, Na+ and hence water.",
"id": "10026394",
"label": "e",
"name": "Acetazolamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic which works by inhibiting aldosterone and hence preventing Na+ reabsorption.",
"id": "10026393",
"label": "d",
"name": "Spironolactone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic which works by inhibiting the Na+/Cl- cotransporter and hence reducing Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule.",
"id": "10026392",
"label": "c",
"name": "Indapamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Caffeine acts as a diuretic primarily by increasing the GFR and hence increasing urine output. It does this by preventing afferent arteriole vasoconstriction and so keeping the pressure across the glomerulus high. It also has a secondary mechanism by inhibiting Na+ reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule",
"id": "10026390",
"label": "a",
"name": "Caffeine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Furosemide is a loop diuretic which works by inhibiting the NKCC2 transporter in the loop of Henle.",
"id": "10026391",
"label": "b",
"name": "Furosemide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3954",
"name": "Glomerular filtration rate",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3954,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17676",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which drug from the list below induces diuresis via opposing afferent arteriole vasoconstriction leading to a raised GFR?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 30,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,960 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,677 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and so blocks the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC2) in the loop of Henle. This can lead to excess K+ loss in the urine, causing hypokalaemia. Hypokalaemia can disrupt the cardiac membrane potential resulting in arrhythmias.",
"id": "10026398",
"label": "d",
"name": "Blocks Na+/Cl- cotransporter leading to hypernatraemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and so blocks the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC2) in the loop of Henle. This can lead to excess K+ loss in the urine, causing hypokalaemia. Hypokalaemia can disrupt the cardiac membrane potential resulting in arrhythmias.",
"id": "10026397",
"label": "c",
"name": "Blocks Na+/Cl- cotransporter leading to hyponatraemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and so blocks the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC2) in the loop of Henle. This can lead to excess K+ loss in the urine, causing hypokalaemia. Hypokalaemia can disrupt the cardiac membrane potential resulting in arrhythmias.",
"id": "10026395",
"label": "a",
"name": "Blocks NKCC2 leading to hypokalaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst furosemide does block NKCC2, this causes hypokalaemia, not hyperkalaemia. Blocking NKCC2 means less K+ is reabsorbed so more is lost in the urine, reducing serum K+ levels.",
"id": "10026396",
"label": "b",
"name": "Blocks NKCC2 leading to hyperkalaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes the mechanism of action of spironolactone. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and so blocks the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC2) in the loop of Henle. This can lead to excess K+ loss in the urine, causing hypokalaemia. Hypokalaemia can disrupt the cardiac membrane potential resulting in arrhythmias.",
"id": "10026399",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inhibits aldosterone leading to hyperkalaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4018",
"name": "Furosemide",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "188",
"name": "Renal Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 188,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4018,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17677",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "What is the mechanism through which furosemide can cause cardiac arrhythmias?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 34,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,961 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,678 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. AQP1 is not targeted by indapamide. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic which works by inhibiting the Na+/Cl+ cotransporter, preventing Na+ reabsorption and hence increasing Na+ and water excretion.",
"id": "10026403",
"label": "d",
"name": "AQP1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. NKCC2 is the transporter targeted by loop diuretics such as furosemide. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic which works by inhibiting the Na+/Cl+ cotransporter, preventing Na+ reabsorption and hence increasing Na+ and water excretion.",
"id": "10026401",
"label": "b",
"name": "NKCC2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic which works by inhibiting the Na+/Cl+ cotransporter, preventing Na+ reabsorption and hence increasing Na+ and water excretion.",
"id": "10026400",
"label": "a",
"name": "Na+/Cl- cotransporter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. SGLT2 is the transporter targeted by drugs such as canagliflozin. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic which works by inhibiting the Na+/Cl+ cotransporter, preventing Na+ reabsorption and hence increasing Na+ and water excretion.",
"id": "10026402",
"label": "c",
"name": "SGLT2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "his is incorrect. The Na+/H+ exchanger is not targeted by indapamide. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic which works by inhibiting the Na+/Cl+ cotransporter, preventing Na+ reabsorption and hence increasing Na+ and water excretion.",
"id": "10026404",
"label": "e",
"name": "Na+/H+ exchanger",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5764",
"name": "Thiazide diuretics",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "188",
"name": "Renal Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 188,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5764,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17678",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which ion transporter in the nephron is inhibited by indapamide?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 29,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,962 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,679 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is synthesised in the hypothalamus but secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. It travels to the kidney where it acts at the collecting duct of the nephron. Here, it increases the insertion of AQP2 channels to promote water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate.",
"id": "10026407",
"label": "c",
"name": "Posterior pituitary gland, hypothalamus, collecting duct of the nephron",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is synthesised in the hypothalamus but secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. It travels to the kidney where it acts at the collecting duct of the nephron. Here, it increases the insertion of AQP2 channels to promote water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate.",
"id": "10026408",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, distal convoluted tubule of the nephron",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is synthesised in the hypothalamus but secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. It travels to the kidney where it acts at the collecting duct of the nephron. Here, it increases the insertion of AQP2 channels to promote water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate.",
"id": "10026405",
"label": "a",
"name": "Hypothalamus, posterior pituitary gland, collecting duct of the nephron",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is synthesised in the hypothalamus but secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. It travels to the kidney where it acts at the collecting duct of the nephron. Here, it increases the insertion of AQP2 channels to promote water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate.",
"id": "10026409",
"label": "e",
"name": "Posterior pituitary gland, hypothalamus, distal convoluted tubule of the nephron",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is synthesised in the hypothalamus but secreted from the posterior pituitary gland. It travels to the kidney where it acts at the collecting duct of the nephron. Here, it increases the insertion of AQP2 channels to promote water reabsorption from the urinary filtrate.",
"id": "10026406",
"label": "b",
"name": "Hypothalamus, anterior pituitary gland, collecting duct of the nephron",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4084",
"name": "Antidiuretic hormone",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4084,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17679",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 1,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following correctly identifies the site of synthesis, release, and action of ADH?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 34,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,963 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,680 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes Conn's syndrome whereby a loss of aldosterone release suppression leads to abnormally high levels of aldosterone and hence increased sodium (and water) reabsorption. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes insipidus whereby the kidney loses its sensitivity to ADH. This means ADH no longer exerts its function to reabsorb water leading to inappropriately high levels of water loss in the urine.",
"id": "10026413",
"label": "d",
"name": "An inability to suppress aldosterone release",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This incorrect. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus does not affect aldosterone. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes insipidus whereby the kidney loses its sensitivity to ADH. This means ADH no longer exerts its function to reabsorb water leading to inappropriately high levels of water loss in the urine.",
"id": "10026414",
"label": "e",
"name": "A loss of aldosterone release",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes the pathophysiology of SIADH whereby the loss of ADH release suppression leads to inappropriately high levels of ADH causing excess water reabsorption. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes insipidus whereby the kidney loses its sensitivity to ADH. This means ADH no longer exerts its function to reabsorb water leading to inappropriately high levels of water loss in the urine.",
"id": "10026412",
"label": "c",
"name": "An inability to suppress ADH release",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes insipidus whereby the kidney loses its sensitivity to ADH. This means ADH no longer exerts its function to reabsorb water leading to inappropriately high levels of water loss in the urine.",
"id": "10026410",
"label": "a",
"name": "Loss of sensitivity of the kidneys to ADH",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes central diabetes insipidus whereby there is defective ADH secretion from the posterior pituitary. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is a form of diabetes insipidus whereby the kidney loses its sensitivity to ADH. This means ADH no longer exerts its function to reabsorb water leading to inappropriately high levels of water loss in the urine.",
"id": "10026411",
"label": "b",
"name": "Loss of ADH secretion from the posterior pituitary",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5892",
"name": "Diabetes Insipidus",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "167",
"name": "Endocrine physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 167,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5892,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17680",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following correctly describes the pathophysiology of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 33,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,964 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,681 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Tubuloglomerular feedback is the mechanism by which the nephron alters the GFR according to changing Na+ concentration. A high Na+ concentration is detected by the macula densa in the distal convoluted tubule which stimulates the release of adenosine. This results in afferent arterial constriction to drop the GFR.",
"id": "10026419",
"label": "e",
"name": "Bowman's capsule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Tubuloglomerular feedback is the mechanism by which the nephron alters the GFR according to changing Na+ concentration. A high Na+ concentration is detected by the macula densa in the distal convoluted tubule which stimulates the release of adenosine. This results in afferent arterial constriction to drop the GFR.",
"id": "10026417",
"label": "c",
"name": "Collecting duct",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Tubuloglomerular feedback is the mechanism by which the nephron alters the GFR according to changing Na+ concentration. A high Na+ concentration is detected by the macula densa in the distal convoluted tubule which stimulates the release of adenosine. This results in afferent arterial constriction to drop the GFR.",
"id": "10026415",
"label": "a",
"name": "Distal convoluted tubule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Tubuloglomerular feedback is the mechanism by which the nephron alters the GFR according to changing Na+ concentration. A high Na+ concentration is detected by the macula densa in the distal convoluted tubule which stimulates the release of adenosine. This results in afferent arterial constriction to drop the GFR.",
"id": "10026418",
"label": "d",
"name": "Glomerulus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Tubuloglomerular feedback is the mechanism by which the nephron alters the GFR according to changing Na+ concentration. A high Na+ concentration is detected by the macula densa in the distal convoluted tubule which stimulates the release of adenosine. This results in afferent arterial constriction to drop the GFR.",
"id": "10026416",
"label": "b",
"name": "Proximal convoluted tubule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5771",
"name": "Tubuloglomerular feedback",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5771,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17681",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for detecting changes in Na+ concentration as part of tubuloglomerular feedback?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 32,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,965 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,682 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. AKI causes can be split into pre-renal, renal (or intrinsic), and post-renal. A pre-renal AKI is caused by reduced blood flow to the kidney. A renal/intrinsic AKI is caused by direct damage to the nephron. A post-renal AKI is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract distal to the kidney. Dehydration is therefore an example of a pre-renal AKI cause as it results in reduced blood flow to the kidney. The only renal cause on the list was glomerulonephritis.",
"id": "10026422",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dehydration",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. AKI causes can be split into pre-renal, renal (or intrinsic), and post-renal. A pre-renal AKI is caused by reduced blood flow to the kidney. A renal/intrinsic AKI is caused by direct damage to the nephron. A post-renal AKI is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract distal to the kidney. Renal artery stenosis is therefore an example of a pre-renal AKI cause as it results in reduced blood flow to the kidney. The only renal cause on the list was glomerulonephritis.",
"id": "10026421",
"label": "b",
"name": "Renal artery stenosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. AKI causes can be split into pre-renal, renal (or intrinsic), and post-renal. A pre-renal AKI is caused by reduced blood flow to the kidney. A renal/intrinsic AKI is caused by direct damage to the nephron. A post-renal AKI is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract distal to the kidney. The only renal cause on the list was glomerulonephritis.",
"id": "10026420",
"label": "a",
"name": "Glomerulonephritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. AKI causes can be split into pre-renal, renal (or intrinsic), and post-renal. A pre-renal AKI is caused by reduced blood flow to the kidney. A renal/intrinsic AKI is caused by direct damage to the nephron. A post-renal AKI is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract distal to the kidney. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is therefore an example of a post-renal AKI cause as it obstructs the urinary tract such that fluid backs up to the kidney, causing damage. The only renal cause on the list was glomerulonephritis.",
"id": "10026424",
"label": "e",
"name": "Benign prostatic hypertrophy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. AKI causes can be split into pre-renal, renal (or intrinsic), and post-renal. A pre-renal AKI is caused by reduced blood flow to the kidney. A renal/intrinsic AKI is caused by direct damage to the nephron. A post-renal AKI is caused by an obstruction in the urinary tract distal to the kidney. A renal calculus is therefore an example of a post-renal AKI cause as it obstructs the urinary tract such that fluid backs up to the kidney, causing damage. The only renal cause on the list was glomerulonephritis.",
"id": "10026423",
"label": "d",
"name": "Renal calculus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3752",
"name": "Acute Kidney Injury",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3752,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17682",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is an intrinsic cause of an acute kidney injury (AKI)?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 34,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,966 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,683 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The eGFR is used to classify patients with CKD according to their severity. Stage 4 CKD is defined as an eGFR of between 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m² and hence James would belong to this category.",
"id": "10026429",
"label": "e",
"name": "5",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The eGFR is used to classify patients with CKD according to their severity. Stage 4 CKD is defined as an eGFR of between 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m² and hence James would belong to this category.",
"id": "10026425",
"label": "a",
"name": "4",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The eGFR is used to classify patients with CKD according to their severity. Stage 4 CKD is defined as an eGFR of between 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m² and hence James would belong to this category.",
"id": "10026426",
"label": "b",
"name": "1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The eGFR is used to classify patients with CKD according to their severity. Stage 4 CKD is defined as an eGFR of between 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m² and hence James would belong to this category.",
"id": "10026427",
"label": "c",
"name": "2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The eGFR is used to classify patients with CKD according to their severity. Stage 4 CKD is defined as an eGFR of between 15-29 mL/min/1.73 m² and hence James would belong to this category.",
"id": "10026428",
"label": "d",
"name": "3",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4243",
"name": "Chronic Kidney Disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4243,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17683",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "James, a 76-year-old gentleman, is seen at the GP surgery for a routine blood test to monitor the progression of his CKD. His eGFR was found to be 27 mL/min/1.73 m².\n\nWhat stage of CKD does James have?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 31,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,967 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,684 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hyperventilation typically results in respiratory alkalosis due to blowing off excess CO2. To compensate, the kidney will reduce the reabsorption of bicarbonate so that there is a lower plasma bicarbonate to buffer the H+ ions, bringing the pH back down. Bicarbonate is primarily reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule.",
"id": "10026434",
"label": "e",
"name": "There will be no effect on bicarbonate reabsorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst bicarbonate is primarily reabsorbed through the proximal convoluted tubule, in this case, bicarbonate reabsorption will decrease. Hyperventilation typically results in respiratory alkalosis due to blowing off excess CO2. To compensate, the kidney will reduce the reabsorption of bicarbonate so that there is a lower plasma bicarbonate to buffer the H+ ions, bringing the pH back down.",
"id": "10026431",
"label": "b",
"name": "Bicarbonate reabsorption, primarily through the proximal convoluted tubule, will increase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Hyperventilation typically results in respiratory alkalosis due to blowing off excess CO2. To compensate, the kidney will reduce the reabsorption of bicarbonate so that there is a lower plasma bicarbonate to buffer the H+ ions, bringing the pH back down. Bicarbonate is primarily reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule.",
"id": "10026430",
"label": "a",
"name": "Bicarbonate reabsorption, primarily through the proximal convoluted tubule, will decrease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hyperventilation typically results in respiratory alkalosis due to blowing off excess CO2. To compensate, the kidney will reduce the reabsorption of bicarbonate so that there is a lower plasma bicarbonate to buffer the H+ ions, bringing the pH back down. Bicarbonate is primarily reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule.",
"id": "10026433",
"label": "d",
"name": "Bicarbonate reabsorption, primarily through the distal convoluted tubule, will increase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst bicarbonate reabsorption will decrease to bring the pH down, bicarbonate is primarily reabsorbed at the proximal convoluted tubule, not the distal convoluted tubule.",
"id": "10026432",
"label": "c",
"name": "Bicarbonate reabsorption, primarily through the distal convoluted tubule, will decrease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5893",
"name": "Bicarbonate reabsorption",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5893,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17684",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A patient suffering from an anxiety attack begins hyperventilating.\n\nGiven the likely acid-base disturbance caused by this hyperventilation, how will the kidney respond with respect to bicarbonate reabsorption in the nephron?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 32,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,968 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,685 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Candesartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) and works by inhibiting the interaction of angiotensin with its receptor. It therefore has a direct effect on RAAS.",
"id": "10026437",
"label": "c",
"name": "Candesartan",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. It therefore has a direct effect on RAAS.",
"id": "10026438",
"label": "d",
"name": "Spironolactone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ramipril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and works by reducing angiotensin II production. It therefore has a direct effect on RAAS.",
"id": "10026436",
"label": "b",
"name": "Ramipril",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic and so inhibits the Na+/Cl- cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule. This does not involve RAAS.",
"id": "10026435",
"label": "a",
"name": "Indapamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Aliskiren is a drug used for hypertension that works by inhibiting renin and hence reducing the production of angiotensin and aldosterone. It therefore has a direct effect on RAAS.",
"id": "10026439",
"label": "e",
"name": "Aliskiren",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4531",
"name": "The effect of the renin-angiotensin system on electrolytes",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4531,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17685",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following medications is the only one which does not target the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 34,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,969 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,686 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst the actions of ANP were correctly described, ANP is released from the atria, not the ventricles.",
"id": "10026444",
"label": "e",
"name": "Increased venous return stimulates ANP release from the ventricles. This travels to the kidney to increase the GFR and reduce Na+ reabsorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. ANP is released to increase Na+ excretion from the kidney. This is done by increasing the GFR, not decreasing it.",
"id": "10026441",
"label": "b",
"name": "Increased venous return stimulates ANP release from the atria. This travels to the kidney to decrease the GFR and reduce Na+ reabsorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. ANP is released to increase Na+ excretion from the kidney. This is done via decreasing Na+ reabsorption, not increasing it.",
"id": "10026442",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increased venous return stimulates ANP release from the atria. This travels to the kidney to increase the GFR and increase Na+ reabsorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. When the circulating volume is high, the elevated venous return results in increased atrial filling which stimulates ANP release. ANP then acts on the kidney to increase Na+ excretion. This is done by increasing the GFR and reducing Na+ reabsorption.",
"id": "10026440",
"label": "a",
"name": "Increased venous return stimulates ANP release from the atria. This travels to the kidney to increase the GFR and reduce Na+ reabsorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. ANP is released to increase Na+ excretion from the kidney. This is done by increasing the GFR and decreasing Na+ reabsorption.",
"id": "10026443",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increased venous return stimulates ANP release from the atria. This travels to the kidney to decrease the GFR and increase Na+ reabsorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5785",
"name": "Effect of ANP on the kidney",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5785,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17686",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is correct regarding the action of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 33,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,970 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,687 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The correct order is urothelium, lamina propria, detrusor muscle and serosa. The urothelium, the most superficial layer, is a specialised epithelium that protects the bladder from the toxic effects of the urine. The lamina propria lies deep in the urothelium and is a connective tissue layer containing blood vessels and nerves. The next layer is the detrusor muscle, a smooth muscle layer responsible for contracting and relaxing the bladder. The final layer is the serosa, a thin connective tissue layer covering the outside of the bladder.",
"id": "10026447",
"label": "c",
"name": "Urothelium, lamina propria, serosa, detrusor muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The urothelium, the most superficial layer, is a specialised epithelium that protects the bladder from the toxic effects of the urine. The lamina propria lies deep in the urothelium and is a connective tissue layer containing blood vessels and nerves. The next layer is the detrusor muscle, a smooth muscle layer responsible for contracting and relaxing the bladder. The final layer is the serosa, a thin connective tissue layer covering the outside of the bladder.",
"id": "10026445",
"label": "a",
"name": "Urothelium, lamina propria, detrusor muscle, serosa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The correct order is urothelium, lamina propria, detrusor muscle and serosa. The urothelium, the most superficial layer, is a specialised epithelium that protects the bladder from the toxic effects of the urine. The lamina propria lies deep in the urothelium and is a connective tissue layer containing blood vessels and nerves. The next layer is the detrusor muscle, a smooth muscle layer responsible for contracting and relaxing the bladder. The final layer is the serosa, a thin connective tissue layer covering the outside of the bladder.",
"id": "10026448",
"label": "d",
"name": "Lamina propria, urothelium, serosa, detrusor muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The correct order is urothelium, lamina propria, detrusor muscle and serosa. The urothelium, the most superficial layer, is a specialised epithelium that protects the bladder from the toxic effects of the urine. The lamina propria lies deep in the urothelium and is a connective tissue layer containing blood vessels and nerves. The next layer is the detrusor muscle, a smooth muscle layer responsible for contracting and relaxing the bladder. The final layer is the serosa, a thin connective tissue layer covering the outside of the bladder.",
"id": "10026449",
"label": "e",
"name": "Lamina propria, serosa, detrusor muscle, urothelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The correct order is urothelium, lamina propria, detrusor muscle and serosa. The urothelium, the most superficial layer, is a specialised epithelium that protects the bladder from the toxic effects of the urine. The lamina propria lies deep in the urothelium and is a connective tissue layer containing blood vessels and nerves. The next layer is the detrusor muscle, a smooth muscle layer responsible for contracting and relaxing the bladder. The final layer is the serosa, a thin connective tissue layer covering the outside of the bladder.",
"id": "10026446",
"label": "b",
"name": "Urothelium, detrusor muscle, lamina propria, serosa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4615",
"name": "Bladder cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "143",
"name": "Urology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 143,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4615,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17687",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following lists the 4 layers of the bladder wall in the correct order from superficial to deep?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 31,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,971 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,688 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst oxybutinin is used in overactive bladder by reducing the parasympathetic activity on the bladder wall, this is achieved via its anti-muscarinic properties, not muscarinic agonism. Since parasympathetic innervation stimulates bladder wall contractility, oxybutynin aims to antagonise this process to treat an overactive bladder.",
"id": "10026454",
"label": "e",
"name": "It is a muscarinic agonist used to treat overactive bladder by reducing the parasympathetic activity on the bladder wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Oxybutinin is an anti-muscarinic medication that works by reducing the parasympathetic activation of the bladder wall. This reduces bladder wall contractility and hence helps to treat an overactive bladder.",
"id": "10026450",
"label": "a",
"name": "It is an anti-muscarinic used to treat overactive bladder by reducing the parasympathetic activity on the bladder wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst oxybutinin does work by reducing parasympathetic activity on the bladder wall, it is used to treat overactive bladder, not overflow incontinence. Reducing parasympathetic activity helps to reduce the bladder wall contractility and hence helps in urge incontinence (a.k.a. an overactive bladder)",
"id": "10026453",
"label": "d",
"name": "It is an anti-muscarinic used to treat overflow incontinence by reducing the parasympathetic activity on the bladder wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Oxybutinin is an anti-muscarinic medication that works by reducing the parasympathetic activation of the bladder wall. This reduces bladder wall contractility and hence helps to treat an overactive bladder.",
"id": "10026452",
"label": "c",
"name": "It is an anti-muscarinic used to treat overflow incontinence by reducing the sympathetic activity on the bladder wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst oxybutinin is an anti-muscarinic used in overactive bladder, it does this via reducing parasympathetic, not sympathetic activity. Parasympathetic innervation is responsible for bladder wall contraction and hence this needs to be targeted in overactive bladder.",
"id": "10026451",
"label": "b",
"name": "It is an anti-muscarinic used to treat overactive bladder by reducing the sympathetic activity on the bladder wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4059",
"name": "Types of urinary incontinence",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "143",
"name": "Urology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 143,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4059,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17688",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is correct regarding oxybutinin?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 29,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,972 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,689 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase on the surface of cells to uptake more K+. Insulin deficiency therefore results in a loss of this stimulation, reducing cellular K+ uptake and increasing serum K+ levels.",
"id": "10026458",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increased activation of Na+/K+ ATPase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase on the surface of cells to uptake more K+. Insulin deficiency therefore results in a loss of this stimulation, reducing cellular K+ uptake and increasing serum K+ levels.",
"id": "10026459",
"label": "e",
"name": "None of the above",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Insulin affects K+ levels via the Na+/K+ ATPase rather than through the effects of aldosterone. Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase on the surface of cells to uptake more K+. Insulin deficiency therefore results in a loss of this stimulation, reducing cellular K+ uptake and increasing serum K+ levels.",
"id": "10026457",
"label": "c",
"name": "Reduced aldosterone levels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Insulin affects K+ levels via the Na+/K+ ATPase rather than through the effects of aldosterone. Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase on the surface of cells to uptake more K+. Insulin deficiency therefore results in a loss of this stimulation, reducing cellular K+ uptake and increasing serum K+ levels.",
"id": "10026456",
"label": "b",
"name": "Increased aldosterone levels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase on the surface of cells to uptake more K+. Insulin deficiency therefore results in a loss of this stimulation, reducing cellular K+ uptake and increasing serum K+ levels.",
"id": "10026455",
"label": "a",
"name": "Reduced activation of Na+/K+ ATPase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3934",
"name": "hyperkalaemia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "170",
"name": "Clinical Chemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 170,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3934,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17689",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is correct regarding the mechanism by which insulin deficiency causes hyperkalaemia?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 33,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,973 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,690 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. PPAR is a transcription factor involved in carbohydrate metabolism. The correct answer was HIF-2. In response to hypoxia, mesangial cells in the kidney are stimulated to release erythropoietin. This is regulated primarily by the transcription factor hypoxia-induced factor 2 (HIF-2). HIF-2 is degraded by iron and hence during hypoxia, when iron levels are low, the raised HIF-2 levels stimulate more erythropoietin release.",
"id": "10026464",
"label": "e",
"name": "PPAR",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. CREB is a transcription factor involved in cell proliferation and differentiation. The correct answer was HIF-2. In response to hypoxia, mesangial cells in the kidney are stimulated to release erythropoietin. This is regulated primarily by the transcription factor hypoxia-induced factor 2 (HIF-2). HIF-2 is degraded by iron and hence during hypoxia, when iron levels are low, the raised HIF-2 levels stimulate more erythropoietin release.",
"id": "10026462",
"label": "c",
"name": "CREB",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. PDX-1 is a transcription factor involved in glucose homeostasis. The correct answer was HIF-2. In response to hypoxia, mesangial cells in the kidney are stimulated to release erythropoietin. This is regulated primarily by the transcription factor hypoxia-induced factor 2 (HIF-2). HIF-2 is degraded by iron and hence during hypoxia, when iron levels are low, the raised HIF-2 levels stimulate more erythropoietin release.",
"id": "10026461",
"label": "b",
"name": "PDX-1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. In response to hypoxia, mesangial cells in the kidney are stimulated to release erythropoietin. This is regulated primarily by the transcription factor hypoxia-induced factor 2 (HIF-2). HIF-2 is degraded by iron and hence during hypoxia, when iron levels are low, the raised HIF-2 levels stimulate more erythropoietin release.",
"id": "10026460",
"label": "a",
"name": "HIF-2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. STAT3 is a transcription factor involved in cell proliferation and differentiation. The correct answer was HIF-2. In response to hypoxia, mesangial cells in the kidney are stimulated to release erythropoietin. This is regulated primarily by the transcription factor hypoxia-induced factor 2 (HIF-2). HIF-2 is degraded by iron and hence during hypoxia, when iron levels are low, the raised HIF-2 levels stimulate more erythropoietin release.",
"id": "10026463",
"label": "d",
"name": "STAT3",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3952",
"name": "Endocrine function of the kidney",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3952,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17690",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is the correct transcription factor that regulates the release of erythropoietin?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 29,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,974 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,691 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor which works by increasing Na+ excretion and hence causing diuresis. Potassium-sparing diuretics, on the other hand, work by inhibiting aldosterone. One of the functions of aldosterone is to stimulate the Na+/K+ exchanger which pumps Na+ into the filtrate and pumps K+ out of the filtrate. Spironolactone therefore reduces the activity of the Na+/K+ exchanger, reducing Na+ reabsorption and hence causing diuresis. It also reduces K+ excretion and hence is called potassium-sparing.",
"id": "10026468",
"label": "d",
"name": "Acetazolamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic which inhibits the Na+/Cl- transporter in the distal convoluted tubule. Potassium-sparing diuretics, on the other hand, work by inhibiting aldosterone. One of the functions of aldosterone is to stimulate the Na+/K+ exchanger which pumps Na+ into the filtrate and pumps K+ out of the filtrate. Spironolactone therefore reduces the activity of the Na+/K+ exchanger, reducing Na+ reabsorption and hence causing diuresis. It also reduces K+ excretion and hence is called potassium-sparing.",
"id": "10026467",
"label": "c",
"name": "Indapamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic which inhibits the Na+/Cl- transporter in the distal convoluted tubule. Potassium-sparing diuretics, on the other hand, work by inhibiting aldosterone. One of the functions of aldosterone is to stimulate the Na+/K+ exchanger which pumps Na+ into the filtrate and pumps K+ out of the filtrate. Spironolactone therefore reduces the activity of the Na+/K+ exchanger, reducing Na+ reabsorption and hence causing diuresis. It also reduces K+ excretion and hence is called potassium-sparing.",
"id": "10026469",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hydrochlorothiazide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by inhibiting aldosterone. One of the functions of aldosterone is to stimulate the Na+/K+ exchanger which pumps Na+ into the filtrate and pumps K+ out of the filtrate. Spironolactone therefore reduces the activity of the Na+/K+ exchanger, reducing Na+ reabsorption and hence causing diuresis. It also reduces K+ excretion and hence is called potassium-sparing.",
"id": "10026465",
"label": "a",
"name": "Spironolactone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Furosemide is a loop diuretic which inhibits the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC2). This transporter causes reabsorption of Na+, K+, and Cl- and hence inhibition of it results in more K+ loss. Therefore, furosemide is not a potassium-sparing diuretic.",
"id": "10026466",
"label": "b",
"name": "Furosemide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5894",
"name": "Aldosterone antagonists",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "188",
"name": "Renal Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 188,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5894,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17691",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 37,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,975 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,692 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. H+ ions are primarily secreted at the distal convoluted tubule via active transport. This is done through apical H+/K+ ATPase and H+ ATPase.",
"id": "10026471",
"label": "b",
"name": "Proximal convoluted tubule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. H+ ions are primarily secreted at the distal convoluted tubule via active transport. This is done through apical H+/K+ ATPase and H+ ATPase.",
"id": "10026470",
"label": "a",
"name": "Distal convoluted tubule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. H+ ions are primarily secreted at the distal convoluted tubule via active transport. This is done through apical H+/K+ ATPase and H+ ATPase.",
"id": "10026474",
"label": "e",
"name": "Glomerulus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. H+ ions are primarily secreted at the distal convoluted tubule via active transport. This is done through apical H+/K+ ATPase and H+ ATPase.",
"id": "10026473",
"label": "d",
"name": "Bowman's capsule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. H+ ions are primarily secreted at the distal convoluted tubule via active transport. This is done through apical H+/K+ ATPase and H+ ATPase.",
"id": "10026472",
"label": "c",
"name": "Collecting duct",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5876",
"name": "Hydrogen ion secretion at the distal tubule",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5876,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17692",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is the primary site of H+ secretion in the nephron?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 35,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,465,976 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,197 | null | false | [] | null | 17,693 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The external urethral sphincter (the skeletal muscle sphincter) is under somatic control. To cause the sphincter to relax, somatic activity must be decreased, not increased. For bladder voiding to take place, several changes occur: Sympathetic activity to the internal urethral sphincter (a smooth muscle sphincter) is reduced, causing it to relax. Somatic activity to the external urethra sphincter (a skeletal muscle sphincter under voluntary control) is also reduced, again causing it to relax. Finally, parasympathetic activation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder wall is increased, causing bladder contraction.",
"id": "10026479",
"label": "e",
"name": "Somatic activity in the bladder is increased causing relaxation of the skeletal muscle sphincter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The parasympathetic nervous system does not innervate the internal urethral sphincter (the smooth muscle sphincter), it controls detrusor contraction. For bladder voiding to take place, several changes occur: Sympathetic activity to the internal urethral sphincter (a smooth muscle sphincter) is reduced, causing it to relax. Somatic activity to the external urethra sphincter (a skeletal muscle sphincter under voluntary control) is also reduced, again causing it to relax. Finally, parasympathetic activation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder wall is increased, causing bladder contraction.",
"id": "10026477",
"label": "c",
"name": "Parasympathetic activity to the bladder is reduced causing relaxation of the smooth muscle sphincter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Sympathetic innervation of the internal urethral sphincter (the smooth muscle sphincter) acts to maintain contraction. To relax the sphincter, sympathetic activity must reduce. Alongside this, somatic activity to the external urethra sphincter (a skeletal muscle sphincter under voluntary control) is also reduced, again causing it to relax. Finally, parasympathetic activation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder wall is increased, causing bladder contraction.",
"id": "10026476",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sympathetic activity to the bladder is increased causing relaxation of the smooth muscle sphincter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. To initiate detrusor contraction, parasympathetic activity must increase, not decrease. For bladder voiding to take place, several changes occur: Sympathetic activity to the internal urethral sphincter (a smooth muscle sphincter) is reduced, causing it to relax. Somatic activity to the external urethra sphincter (a skeletal muscle sphincter under voluntary control) is also reduced, again causing it to relax. Finally, parasympathetic activation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder wall is increased, causing bladder contraction.",
"id": "10026478",
"label": "d",
"name": "Parasympathetic activity to the bladder is reduced causing contraction of the detrusor muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. For bladder voiding to take place, several changes occur: Sympathetic activity to the internal urethral sphincter (a smooth muscle sphincter) is reduced, causing it to relax. Somatic activity to the external urethra sphincter (a skeletal muscle sphincter under voluntary control) is also reduced, again causing it to relax. Finally, parasympathetic activation of the detrusor muscle in the bladder wall is increased, causing bladder contraction.",
"id": "10026475",
"label": "a",
"name": "Sympathetic activity to the bladder is reduced causing relaxation of the smooth muscle sphincter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4538",
"name": "Micturition reflex",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4538,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17693",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is correct regarding the neural mechanism underlying bladder voiding?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 35,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,233 | false | 1 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,694 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the normal dose used for the prevention of neural tube defects in those at low risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect.",
"id": "10026481",
"label": "b",
"name": "400 micrograms daily until week 12 of pregnancy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the dose used for the prevention of neural tube defects in those who are at high risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect. Indications for a higher dose of folic acid in pregnancy are diabetes, sickle cell disease, those taking anti-epileptic medication, those on antiretrovirals for HIV, women with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or above, a familial history of neural tube defects or a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect.",
"id": "10026480",
"label": "a",
"name": "5 milligrams daily until week 12 of pregnancy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the dose required to treat a pregnant patient with folate-deficient megaloblastic anaemia in malabsorption states.",
"id": "10026484",
"label": "e",
"name": "15 milligrams daily until term",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the dose required to treat a pregnant patient with folate-deficient megaloblastic anaemia. Our patient's folate levels are normal.",
"id": "10026482",
"label": "c",
"name": "5 milligrams daily until term",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the dose required to prevent methotrexate-induced side-effects in rheumatic disease.",
"id": "10026483",
"label": "d",
"name": "5 milligrams once weekly",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4635",
"name": "Spina bifida",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "174",
"name": "Obstetrics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 174,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4635,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17694",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 35-year-old female presents to the GP wishing to become pregnant. She has one child with spina bifida. She has no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medications. Her blood tests show normal levels of haemoglobin and folate.\n\nWhat dose of folic acid should be prescribed?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 89,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,234 | false | 2 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,695 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The obstetrician is concerned about the possibility of a neural tube defect. AFP is mainly produced by the foetal liver. Rises in AFP may indicate leakage through an open neural tube defect. The lemon sign can be detected on the scan due to the decrease in the intraspinal pressure which in turn decreases the intracranial pressure resulting in the flattening or scalloping inwards of the frontal bones giving us the lemon sign. The lemon sign is only present until 24 weeks.",
"id": "10026485",
"label": "a",
"name": "Lemon sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The double bleb sign is the earliest sign of an embryo on ultrasound. The two blebs represent the amniotic sac adjacent to the yolk sac. It would not explain the increased AFP.",
"id": "10026487",
"label": "c",
"name": "Double bleb sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would be found on abdominal x-ray in those with a diagnosis of sigmoid volvulus. It would not be a cause for isolated AFP increase and has no relevance to pregnancy/ultrasound.",
"id": "10026486",
"label": "b",
"name": "Coffee bean sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Nuchal translucency is the collection of fluid behind the foetal neck. It forms part of the down syndrome screening programme. In Down Syndrome. AFP is reduced as opposed to elevated.",
"id": "10026488",
"label": "d",
"name": "Nuchal translucency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The crown-rump length is useful in estimating the gestational age. It has no relevance to the isolated AFP increase.",
"id": "10026489",
"label": "e",
"name": "Crown-rump length",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5895",
"name": "Development of the spinal cord",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5895,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17695",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 24-year-old pregnant female attends an appointment with her obstetrician following an isolated elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level detected on a blood test. The obstetrician is concerned about foetal development and would like to perform an ultrasound.\n\nWhat sign is the obstetrician most likely looking for?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 80,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,235 | false | 3 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,696 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Spina bifida occulta is the mildest and most common form of spina bifida, where one or more of the vertebrae are malformed. A layer of skin covers the opening in the bones of the spine.",
"id": "10026491",
"label": "b",
"name": "Spina bifida occulta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This malformation is characterized by downward displacement of the medulla, fourth ventricle and cerebellum into the cervical spinal canal, as well as elongation of the pons and fourth ventricle. This type occurs almost exclusively in patients with myelomeningocele. Myelomeningocele is a congenital condition in which the spinal cord and column do not close properly during fetal development, resulting in an open spinal cord defect at birth.",
"id": "10026490",
"label": "a",
"name": "Myelomeningocele",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Closed neural tube defects are a diverse group of disorders in which the spine may have malformations of fat, bone, or the meninges that cover the spinal cord.",
"id": "10026493",
"label": "d",
"name": "Closed neural tube defect",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Meningocele occurs when the meninges protrude through the spine and cause a sac of spinal fluid on the back. This fluid is typically only around the brain and spine, but a problem with the bony covering over the spine allows it to poke out. The malformation contains no nerves and may or may not be covered by a layer of skin. Individuals with meningocele may have minor symptoms.",
"id": "10026492",
"label": "c",
"name": "Meningocele",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Anencephaly results in a baby being born without the forebrain and cerebrum. It is a type of neural tube defect. There is no known cure or standard treatment for anencephaly. Almost all babies born with anencephaly will die shortly after birth.",
"id": "10026494",
"label": "e",
"name": "Anencephaly",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3840",
"name": "Spina Bifida",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3840,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17696",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A mother has just given birth to her newborn son. On observation, the newborn is noted to have noisy breathing, trouble swallowing and periods of apnoea. The doctor is concerned about an Arnold-Chiari malformation.\n\nWhich of the following conditions is most closely associated with an Arnold-Chiari malformation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 71,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,236 | false | 4 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,697 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The trigeminal nerve serves both sensory (facial sensation) and motor innervation to several muscles, including the muscles of mastication (masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid and lateral pterygoid) as well as the anterior belly of digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani & tensor veli palatini. It does not affect pupillary constriction or dilation.",
"id": "10026499",
"label": "e",
"name": "Trigeminal nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The oculomotor nerve innervates the levator palpebrae superioris, inferior oblique and superior, medial and inferior recti muscles. It is responsible for pupillary constriction and contains parasympathetic fibres which innervate the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles. If the oculomotor nerve was affected on the left side, the right eye would still constrict.",
"id": "10026497",
"label": "c",
"name": "Oculomotor nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The trochlear nerve provides motor innervation to the superior oblique muscle. It does not affect pupillary constriction or dilation.",
"id": "10026496",
"label": "b",
"name": "Trochlear nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The patient has presented with a relative afferent pupil defect (RAPD), common in conditions such as optic neuritis. It is caused by injury to the optic nerve. Normal optic function causes bilateral pupil constriction when light is shone, and bilateral pupil dilation when light is removed.",
"id": "10026495",
"label": "a",
"name": "Optic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 50
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The Abducens nerve provides motor innervation to the lateral rectus muscle. It does not affect pupillary constriction or dilation.",
"id": "10026498",
"label": "d",
"name": "Abducens nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3745",
"name": "Multiple Sclerosis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3745,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17697",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 27-year-old female presents to the hospital with worsening visual acuity over the last few days and the sensation of colours seeming duller. She is very concerned that she is losing her vision.\n\nOn examination, when shining the light into the right eye. both pupils constrict, however, when shining it in the left eye, both eyes remained dilated.\n\nWhich cranial nerve is affected?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 79,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,237 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,698 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A lesion of the left optic radiation results in a contralateral homonymous quadrantanopia.",
"id": "10026504",
"label": "e",
"name": "Left optic radiation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A lesion of the right optic nerve would result in ipsilateral vision loss in the right eye.",
"id": "10026501",
"label": "b",
"name": "Right optic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A lesion of the right optic tract results in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia.",
"id": "10026503",
"label": "d",
"name": "Right optic tract",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Lesions in the central optic chiasm would result in bitemporal hemianopia as the fibres from the nasal retina cross in the optic chiasm.",
"id": "10026502",
"label": "c",
"name": "Optic chiasm",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The patient has presented with a right-sided homonymous hemianopia, secondary to a likely brain tumour. A lesion of the left optic tract that carries axons from the ganglion cells of the temporal retina of the left eye and the nasal retina of the right eye (both see objects in the left visual hemifield) results in blindness in the right field of vision. The most common causes of homonymous hemianopias are vascular events, such as intracranial haemorrhages, followed by brain tumours, trauma, surgical intervention and central nervous system infections.",
"id": "10026500",
"label": "a",
"name": "Left optic tract",
"picture": null,
"votes": 39
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4304",
"name": "Visual Field Loss",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4304,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17698",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 65-year-old male presents to the GP with worsening visual acuity over months. He is a solicitor and is now struggling to read documents for his clients. He complains of vision loss in the right halves of his visual fields bilaterally. On wider questioning, he notes that he has been losing weight and has a daily headache, which is worse when coughing and sneezing.\n\nWhere is the lesion?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 75,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,238 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,699 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Colour blindness is an x-linked recessive condition. As the father does not have colour blindness, this means that the boy has inherited the defective X-chromosome from the mother. A female inherits one X-chromosome from the mother and the father. The father has a normal X-chromosome, therefore she is unable to inherit the phenotype (she will be a carrier).",
"id": "10026505",
"label": "a",
"name": "0%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 50
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "As the father is not affected, the mother carries the defective X-chromosome for colour blindness. There would only be a 100% chance that future daughters will be affected if both mother and father are colour-blind.",
"id": "10026508",
"label": "d",
"name": "100%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would be true for an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. However, colour blindness is an X-linked recessive condition requiring both X-chromosomes to be defective in a girl.",
"id": "10026506",
"label": "b",
"name": "25%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is a 50% chance that the daughter will be a carrier of the condition. This is because there is a 50% chance she would inherit the defective X chromosome from the mother.",
"id": "10026507",
"label": "c",
"name": "50%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "75% chance is not possible with an X-linked condition.",
"id": "10026509",
"label": "e",
"name": "75%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4475",
"name": "X-linked recessive conditions",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "156",
"name": "Medical Genetics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 156,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4475,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17699",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 4-year-old male patient is seen by an ophthalmologist and diagnosed with colour blindness, an X-linked recessive condition. His parents are unaffected. His parents would like his sister to be tested.\n\nWhat is the likelihood that his little sister is colour-blind?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 69,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,239 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,700 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Infarcts affecting the anterior cerebral artery (ACA) result in contralateral leg weakness and sensory loss. The patient’s leg is largely spared, making an ACA infarct unlikely.",
"id": "10026512",
"label": "c",
"name": "Left anterior cerebral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would cause symptoms on the left side of the body.",
"id": "10026511",
"label": "b",
"name": "Right middle cerebral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would cause symptoms on the left side of the body.",
"id": "10026514",
"label": "e",
"name": "Left anterior cerebral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Infarcts affecting the middle cerebral artery (MCA) result in weakness and sensory loss on the contralateral side of the face and the body. MCA strokes affect the face and arm more severely than the leg.",
"id": "10026510",
"label": "a",
"name": "Left middle cerebral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 45
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) infarcts commonly cause visual defects, specifically contralateral homonymous hemianopia. This patient has no visual abnormalities.",
"id": "10026513",
"label": "d",
"name": "Right posterior cerebral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3743",
"name": "Ischaemic Stroke",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3743,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17700",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 65-year-old male patient presents to the hospital with right-sided weakness affecting the lower part of his face, arm and hand. His leg is largely spared. There is associated sensory loss in the same area. He has no visual abnormalities.\n\nGiven the likely diagnosis, which artery is most likely infarcted?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 73,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,240 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,701 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The rhombencephalon (hindbrain) is the third primary vesicle. It later forms the metencephalon and the myelencephalon (secondary vesicles), which develop into the pons and cerebellum as well as the medulla, respectively. It additionally forms the 4th ventricle and central canal.",
"id": "10026517",
"label": "c",
"name": "Rhombencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The notochord is the precursor of the neural plate. It secretes growth factors which stimulate the differentiation of the overlying ectoderm into neuroectoderm. This happens before the development of the primary vesicles.",
"id": "10026519",
"label": "e",
"name": "Notochord",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The mesencephalon (midbrain) is the second primary vesicle. It has no secondary vesicles and forms the midbrain as well as the cerebral aqueduct.",
"id": "10026516",
"label": "b",
"name": "Mesencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Prosencephalon (forebrain) is a primary vesicle that gives rise to the telencephalon and diencephalon (secondary vesicles). The diencephalon then goes on to form the thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus as well as the third ventricle.",
"id": "10026515",
"label": "a",
"name": "Prosencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The caudal end of the neural tube forms the spinal cord. The thalamus develops from the cranial end of the neural tube, specifically the forebrain.",
"id": "10026518",
"label": "d",
"name": "Spinal cord",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4502",
"name": "Neuralation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4502,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17701",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "During embryonic development, which primary vesicle does the thalamus form from?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 68,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,241 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,702 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hox genes are involved in the process of segmentation which establishes regional identity in the body by dividing into repeating, similar segments or units, which eventually give rise to specific body parts and structures. It does not extend into the midbrain and forebrain.",
"id": "10026523",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hox gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Retinoic acid is a secreted into the anterior axis (cephalic end) of the neural tube.",
"id": "10026522",
"label": "c",
"name": "Retinoic acid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Transforming growth factor-beta family (TGF-b) is a group of morphogens responsible for the patterning of the dorsal-ventral axis and contributes to the differentiation of sensory neurones.",
"id": "10026521",
"label": "b",
"name": "Transforming growth factor-beta family",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Sonic hedgehog (SHH) is the morphogen responsible for the patterning of the dorsal-ventral axis and contributes to the differentiation of motor neurones. it is secreted by the notochord and floor plate.",
"id": "10026520",
"label": "a",
"name": "Sonic hedgehog",
"picture": null,
"votes": 48
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Otx genes are responsible for the segmentation process that involves the prosencephalon. Emx genes are also involved.",
"id": "10026524",
"label": "e",
"name": "Otx gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4502",
"name": "Neuralation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4502,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17702",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which morphogen is responsible for the differentiation of motor neurones along the dorsoventral axis of neural tube development?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 65,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,242 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,703 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ptosis is another cause of amblyopia which comes under deprivation amblyopia. It causes an obstruction of the visual axis interfering with the formation of a retinal image in the affected eye. Two different retinal images are sent to the brain, specifically the visual cortex. The visual cortex suppresses the image from the affected eye. If left untreated this can result in permanent blindness in the affected eye.",
"id": "10026528",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ptosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "When two different retinal images are sent to the brain, specifically the visual cortex, the visual cortex suppresses the image from the affected eye. When this happens during visual development (this takes place mainly during the first 3 years of life but carries on until about 8 years), a reduction in the visual acuity of the affected eye results. The persistence of disuse of the affected eye during visual development can result in permanent blindness in the affected eye if left untreated.",
"id": "10026525",
"label": "a",
"name": "Permanent vision loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Strabismus (when the eyes point in different directions) is a cause of amblyopia. It results in two different retinal images being sent to the brain, specifically the visual cortex. The visual cortex suppresses the image from the affected eye. If left untreated this can result in permanent blindness in the affected eye.",
"id": "10026526",
"label": "b",
"name": "Strabismus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Astigmatism is another cause of amblyopia (comes under anisometropia as a cause of amblyopia). The cornea or lens may have an oblong shape instead of a curved one, causing light to focus unevenly on the retina. It results in two different retinal images being sent to the brain, specifically the visual cortex. The visual cortex suppresses the image from the affected eye. If left untreated this can result in permanent blindness in the affected eye.",
"id": "10026527",
"label": "c",
"name": "Astigmatism",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Myopia is another cause of amblyopia (comes under anisometropia as a cause of amblyopia). Due to the short-sightedness, it results in different focus of the retinal images. the higher the refractive error the less focused the image is. Two different retinal images are sent to the brain, specifically the visual cortex. The visual cortex suppresses the image from the affected eye. If left untreated this can result in permanent blindness in the affected eye.",
"id": "10026529",
"label": "e",
"name": "Myopia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5896",
"name": "Amblyopia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "140",
"name": "Ophthalmology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 140,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5896,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17703",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A mother brings her three-year-old child to the GP concerned that he is squinting when looking at objects and is falling over more than other children. She reports that the optometrist has diagnosed the child with amblyopia.\n\nWhat is the consequence of amblyopia if left untreated?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 64,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,243 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,704 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Conditioned play audiometry is used for children who are more than 24 months old.",
"id": "10026531",
"label": "b",
"name": "Conditioned play audiometry",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Auditory brainstem responses are an objective measure to test a child's hearing when they are under 6 months old. However, it can be used in adults too.",
"id": "10026534",
"label": "e",
"name": "Auditory brainstem responses",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Conventional audiometry is used in children who are more than 3 years old.",
"id": "10026532",
"label": "c",
"name": "Conventional audiometry",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Otoacoustic emissions are used in the newborn hearing screening program.",
"id": "10026533",
"label": "d",
"name": "Otoacoustic emissions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Visual reinforcement audiometry is used for infants between the age of 6-24 months. It utilises a combination of auditory stimuli with visually engaging rewards to evaluate their hearing abilities when they are unable to provide verbal responses thereby, facilitating early intervention and treatment.",
"id": "10026530",
"label": "a",
"name": "Visual reinforcement audiometry",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5897",
"name": "Developmental milestones - hearing, communication and language",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "153",
"name": "Paediatrics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 153,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5897,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17704",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A mother comes in with her 15-month-old infant concerned about his hearing. She informs you that when she speaks to her baby, he doesn’t look or respond to this. She is concerned that he is unable to hear. There is no familial history of hearing difficulties.\n\nWhat hearing test would be appropriate to do?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 58,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,244 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,705 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In left-sided conductive hearing loss, Rinne’s test would be negative in the left ear (bone conduction > air conduction) and Weber’s test would lateralise to the left ear also.",
"id": "10026538",
"label": "d",
"name": "Conductive hearing loss of the left ear",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In normal hearing, Weber’s test is heard in the centre of the forehead.",
"id": "10026539",
"label": "e",
"name": "Normal hearing in both ears",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "In sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne’s test is positive (indicating air conduction is better than bone conduction) and Weber’s is heard in the unaffected ear.",
"id": "10026535",
"label": "a",
"name": "Sensorineural hearing loss of the right ear",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In right-sided conductive hearing loss, Rinne’s test would be negative in the right ear (bone conduction > air conduction) and Weber’s test would lateralise to the right ear also.",
"id": "10026537",
"label": "c",
"name": "Conductive hearing loss of the right ear",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In left-sided sensorineural hearing loss, Weber’s test would lateralise to the right (unaffected) ear.",
"id": "10026536",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sensorineural hearing loss of the left ear",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4109",
"name": "Rinne's and Weber's test",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4109,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17705",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 35-year-old male patient presents to the outpatient ENT clinic with hearing loss. The doctor performs a basic hearing assessment with a tuning fork. On placing the tuning fork in the centre of his head, the patient hears the sound most in his left ear. In both his left and right ears, the sound from the tuning fork was heard loudest when placed in front of the ear rather than on the bone.\n\nWhat type of hearing loss is this patient experiencing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 57,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,245 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,706 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The tensor tympani decreases sound transmission through the middle ear. It is innervated by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve.",
"id": "10026541",
"label": "b",
"name": "Tensor tympani",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Frontalis muscle is one of the facial muscles producing facial expressions. It is innervated by the facial nerve and would be paralysed in facial nerve palsy. However, it has no role in hyperacusis.",
"id": "10026544",
"label": "e",
"name": "Frontalis muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The transverse muscle of the auricle modifies the auricular shape, it has no function in dampening noises to protect the middle and inner ear.",
"id": "10026543",
"label": "d",
"name": "Transverse muscle of the auricle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The temporalis muscle is one of the muscles of mastication. It is innervated by the trigeminal nerve.",
"id": "10026542",
"label": "c",
"name": "Temporalis muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The stapedius is a small muscle in the middle ear, innervated by the facial nerve. Its primary function is to stabilize the stapes bone and regulate sound, protecting your inner ear from damage due to loud noises. Its function can be lost with facial nerve palsy, producing hyperacusis due to loss of dampening.",
"id": "10026540",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stapedius muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4303",
"name": "Facial nerve palsy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4303,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17706",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 45-year-old female patient with a current diagnosis of facial nerve palsy is troubled by hyperacusis.\n\nWhich muscle is responsible for her symptoms?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 61,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,246 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,707 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In conduction aphasia, the lesion is in the arcuate fasciculus. This is the white matter found between Wernicke's and Broca's area. Comprehension is preserved but fluency is slightly reduced. However, repetition is severely impaired.",
"id": "10026548",
"label": "d",
"name": "Conduction aphasia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Receptive aphasia, otherwise known as Wernicke’s aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. It is characterised by impaired comprehension with preserved fluency. The content of their speech is often incoherent, filled with neologisms, and may lack proper grammar and syntax. In some cases, people with Wernicke's aphasia may produce what appears to be a \"word salad.\" To remember it **W**ernicke's is **W**ordy but makes no sense or **W**ernicke's= \"**W**hat?\".",
"id": "10026545",
"label": "a",
"name": "Receptive aphasia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In global aphasia fluency and comprehension are both lost and loss of both language production and understanding. Both Broca's and Wernicke's areas are affected.",
"id": "10026547",
"label": "c",
"name": "Global aphasia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder that results from impaired or weakened control over the muscles involved in speech production. This can affect speech, including articulation, pronunciation, voice quality, and speech fluency.",
"id": "10026549",
"label": "e",
"name": "Dysarthria",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Expressive aphasia occurs from a lesion in Broca's area which is located in the inferior frontal gyrus in the dominant hemisphere. Comprehension is persevered but fluency is impaired. Patients would know what they want to say but cannot articulate it. To remember it **B**rocas's **B**roken **B**oca.",
"id": "10026546",
"label": "b",
"name": "Expressive aphasia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4107",
"name": "Aphasia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4107,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17707",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 74-year-old male presents to A&E with his wife complaining of speech difficulties. His wife informs you that when he is speaking, he no longer makes sense. The patient can speak fluently but answers inappropriately to questions and is easily frustrated due to no one understanding him.\n\nWhat type of aphasia is the patient experiencing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 60,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,247 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,708 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This patient has presented within a 4.5-hour time frame so both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be used. Thrombectomy only is indicated if the patient presents between 4-6 hours.",
"id": "10026552",
"label": "c",
"name": "Thrombectomy only",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Patients with an ischaemic stroke presenting within 4.5 hours should be treated with thrombectomy and thrombolysis.",
"id": "10026550",
"label": "a",
"name": "Thrombectomy and thrombolysis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Clopidogrel is used in the secondary prevention of stroke and not used initially.",
"id": "10026554",
"label": "e",
"name": "Clopidogrel",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This patient has presented within a 4.5-hour time frame so both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be used.",
"id": "10026553",
"label": "d",
"name": "Thrombolysis only",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Warfarin should not be given in the acute phase of an ischaemic stroke.",
"id": "10026551",
"label": "b",
"name": "Warfarin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3743",
"name": "Ischaemic Stroke",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3743,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17708",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 72-year-old man presents to A&E with left-sided weakness and speech difficulties. His symptoms started two hours ago. He has a past medical history of peripheral vascular disease and is a smoker. A CT head showed a hyper-dense right middle cerebral artery.\n\nGiven the likely diagnosis, what is the initial management?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 62,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,248 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,709 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a rare form of the condition which is characterised by a steady progression of disability from the beginning, with acute relapses. The patient describes no acute relapses.",
"id": "10026558",
"label": "d",
"name": "Progressive relapsing multiple sclerosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Primary progressive multiple sclerosis is characterised by a steady progression of disability from the onset of the disease, with no relapses.",
"id": "10026555",
"label": "a",
"name": "Primary progressive multiple sclerosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 48
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Individuals with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis eventually transition into secondary-progressive multiple sclerosis. The disease becomes more steadily progressive and relapses become less frequent. There is a gradual accumulation of disability. The patient describes no remission periods and is more likely to have primary progressive multiple sclerosis.",
"id": "10026556",
"label": "b",
"name": "Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient does not describe any remission periods.",
"id": "10026557",
"label": "c",
"name": "Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a **single** episode of neurological symptoms resulting from inflammation and demyelination in the central nervous system.",
"id": "10026559",
"label": "e",
"name": "Clinically isolated syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3745",
"name": "Multiple Sclerosis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3745,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17709",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 54-year-old female patient with known multiple sclerosis presents to her neurologist. She has been gradually deteriorating and is now unable to walk due to pain, muscle weakness and balance problems. She becomes upset during the consultation and informs you that she hasn’t ever had a remission period and is deteriorating much quicker than she had imagined. She has had no acute relapses.\n\nWhich type of multiple sclerosis fits her presentation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 57,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,249 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,710 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A turbid appearance would indicate infection.",
"id": "10026562",
"label": "c",
"name": "Turbid appearance",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although white cell count may be elevated in MS up to seven times the normal limit, a level over >100/µL would indicate a bacterial central nervous system infection.",
"id": "10026561",
"label": "b",
"name": "Elevated neutrophil count, >100/µL",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "An elevated protein level in the absence of leukocytosis is more suggestive of Guillain‐Barré syndrome, rather than MS.",
"id": "10026564",
"label": "e",
"name": "Elevated protein level",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "IgG oligoclonal bands (OCBs) are present in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of more than 95% of patients with multiple sclerosis (MS), and are considered to be the immunological hallmark of disease.",
"id": "10026560",
"label": "a",
"name": "Oligoclonal bands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 45
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although white cell count may be elevated in MS up to seven times the normal limit, a level over >100/µL would indicate a viral central nervous system infection.",
"id": "10026563",
"label": "d",
"name": "Elevated lymphocyte count, >100/µL",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3745",
"name": "Multiple Sclerosis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3745,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17710",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 29-year-old man has been admitted to the neurology ward with lower limb weakness. He has an ataxic gait. His past medical history includes a single episode of optic neuritis. The neurologist would like to perform a lumbar puncture to look for evidence of multiple sclerosis.\n\nWhat is the characteristic sign of multiple sclerosis on a lumbar puncture?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 55,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,250 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,711 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), such as venlafaxine.",
"id": "10026569",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inhibits the presynaptic neuronal uptake of serotonin and norepinephrine and prolongs the effects of the monoamines in the synaptic cleft",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, such as sertraline.",
"id": "10026566",
"label": "b",
"name": "Inhibits serotonin re-uptake in the synaptic cleft",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Benzodiazepines produce their effects by enhancing the binding of GABA to its receptor. GABA activates the chloride ion channel, allowing chloride ions to enter the neuron. The flow of chloride ions into the neuron hyperpolarizes and inhibits the neuron.",
"id": "10026565",
"label": "a",
"name": "Enhance the binding of GABA to its receptor",
"picture": null,
"votes": 47
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Monoamine oxidase is an enzyme that breaks down neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine.",
"id": "10026567",
"label": "c",
"name": "Blocks oxidative deamination to cause the accumulation of endogenous catecholamines",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of mirtazapine. It acts as an antagonist at the noradrenergic alpha-2 heteroceptor on the serotonin terminal increasing the serotonin release.",
"id": "10026568",
"label": "d",
"name": "Enhances the release of serotonin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5898",
"name": "Benzodiazepines",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "172",
"name": "Pharmacology of the Nervous System",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 172,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5898,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17711",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 35-year-old female patient has presented with persistent symptoms of severe anxiety associated with poor concentration, fatigue and muscle tension. The doctor has prescribed a short-term course of benzodiazepines.\n\nWhat is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepines?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 62,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,251 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,712 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Auditory hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur in the absence of external stimuli. It is a positive symptom. Positive symptoms include any changes in behaviours, not usually seen in individuals without the disorder.",
"id": "10026572",
"label": "c",
"name": "Auditory hallucinations",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Knight's move thinking describes disorganised thinking. This is characterised by incoherent or illogical thought processes. This is a positive symptom that comes under thought disorder. Positive symptoms include any changes in behaviours, not usually seen in individuals without the disorder.",
"id": "10026574",
"label": "e",
"name": "Knight's move thinking",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Delusions are false beliefs that are resistant to reason or contrary to reality. It is a positive symptoms. Positive symptoms include any changes in behaviours, not usually seen in individuals without the disorder.",
"id": "10026571",
"label": "b",
"name": "Delusions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Negative symptoms describe the absence of capacities present normally. Symptoms include flat affect, alogia, anhedonia, asociality and avolition.",
"id": "10026570",
"label": "a",
"name": "Anhedonia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 51
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the production of incoherent, jumbled speech that lacks meaning. The words are not associated with each other. This is a positive symptom that comes under thought disorder. Positive symptoms include any changes in behaviours, not usually seen in individuals without the disorder.",
"id": "10026573",
"label": "d",
"name": "Word salad",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3972",
"name": "Schizophrenia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3972,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17712",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 22-year-old male accompanied by his friend presents to the GP with delusions, auditory hallucinations and paranoia. His speech has been incoherent and often, there is no association between his words. He describes that he is unable to feel pleasure and no longer experiences joy in his work, hobbies or life in general.\n\nWhich one of his symptoms is an example of a negative symptom?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 57,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,252 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,713 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Persecutory delusions are the belief that one is being spied on and conspired against. They are often seen in schizophrenia.",
"id": "10026577",
"label": "c",
"name": "Persecutory delusions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Grandiose delusions are when one believes that they have special powers, importance or connections. It is commonly seen in manic patients.",
"id": "10026576",
"label": "b",
"name": "Grandiose delusions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These delusions involve the belief that one's thoughts, feelings, or actions are being controlled or manipulated by an external force, often experienced as an outside agency or technology. They are often seen in schizophrenia.",
"id": "10026579",
"label": "e",
"name": "Delusions of control",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Nihilistic delusions centre around the belief that something significant is missing or that the world no longer exists. The patient can also sometimes believe they no longer exist. They are usually seen in psychotic depression.",
"id": "10026578",
"label": "d",
"name": "Nihilistic delusions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Delusions of reference happen when a person interprets unrelated events or stimuli as having personal significance.",
"id": "10026575",
"label": "a",
"name": "Delusions of reference",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5899",
"name": "Delusions",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5899,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17713",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 33-year-old male inpatient is being reviewed by his psychiatrist. During their conversation, he explains how news presenters on the television talk about him.\n\nWhat type of delusion is this?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 55,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,253 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,714 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Acetylcholine plays a critical role in cognitive functions, memory, and learning. It is implicated in processes related to attention, memory encoding, and consolidation. Dysfunction of the cholinergic system is associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease.",
"id": "10026583",
"label": "d",
"name": "Acetylcholine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Noradrenaline is one of the main neurotransmitters implicated in depression.",
"id": "10026582",
"label": "c",
"name": "Noradrenaline",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Serotonin is one of the main neurotransmitters implicated in depression. The serotonin system is involved in the regulation of mood and cognition.",
"id": "10026581",
"label": "b",
"name": "Serotonin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Gamma-aminobutyric Acid is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. Low GABA levels are linked to anxiety disorders, including generalized anxiety disorder and social anxiety disorder.",
"id": "10026584",
"label": "e",
"name": "Gamma-aminobutyric Acid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Studies have shown that there is excessive dopamine release in the striatum during acute psychotic episodes observed in schizophrenia.",
"id": "10026580",
"label": "a",
"name": "Dopamine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3972",
"name": "Schizophrenia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3972,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17714",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 34-year-old male patient with a known diagnosis of schizophrenia has relapsed. He presents to A&E with auditory hallucinations which are causing significant distress. He normally takes aripiprazole but has recently run out of the medication.\n\nWhich neurotransmitter is implicated during acute psychotic episodes in schizophrenia?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 57,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,254 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,715 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This pathway connects the substantia nigra to the mid-striatum. It is involved in associative functions, for example, learning, habituation, memory, attention, motivation, emotion, and volition. D2 receptor antagonism in the associative striatum reduces the positive symptoms that occur during psychosis.",
"id": "10026589",
"label": "e",
"name": "Nigrostriatal associative pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The tuberoinfundibular pathway connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland (tuberal region to the infundibular region at the top of the pituitary stalk). It plays a role in regulating the release of hormones from the pituitary gland, particularly prolactin. Dopamine acts as an inhibitory signal, inhibiting the release of prolactin. D2 receptor antagonism results in hyperprolactinaemia, as the inhibitory effect of dopamine is lost.",
"id": "10026588",
"label": "d",
"name": "Tuberoinfundibular pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This pathway also originates in the VTA but projects to the prefrontal cortex. It is involved in higher-order cognitive functions, including executive function, decision-making, and emotional regulation. D2 receptor antagonism may exacerbate low dopamine in this region, leading to deterioration in cognitive function.",
"id": "10026587",
"label": "c",
"name": "Mesocortical pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The nigrostriatal pathway connects the substantia nigra to the dorsal striatum. It is primarily involved in motor control. Dysfunction of this pathway leads to motor symptoms such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. Anti-psychotics reduce the amount of dopamine by acting as D2 receptor antagonists. It blocks the receptors in the nigrostriatal motor pathway causing Parkinsonism and extrapyramidal side effects.",
"id": "10026585",
"label": "a",
"name": "Nigrostriatal motor pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 39
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The mesolimbic pathway originates in the ventral tegmental area (VTA) and projects to various regions in the limbic system, including the nucleus accumbens, amygdala, and hippocampus. It is associated with reward, pleasure, and reinforcement. Excessive D2 receptor antagonism results in worsening of the negative symptoms.",
"id": "10026586",
"label": "b",
"name": "Mesolimbic pathway",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5900",
"name": "Side-effects of antipsychotics",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5900,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17715",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 33-year-old male patient presents with symmetrical rigidity of his limbs, slowness of movement and lack of facial expression. He has a past medical history of schizophrenia and has recently been initiated on a new anti-psychotic medication.\n\nWhat pathway in the dopamine system is implicated?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 58,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,255 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,716 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Parkinson's disease (PD) is a chronic progressive neurodegenerative disease that is clinically manifested by a triad of cardinal motor symptoms - rigidity, bradykinesia and tremor - due to loss of dopaminergic neurons.",
"id": "10026590",
"label": "a",
"name": "Rigidity, bradykinesia and tremor",
"picture": null,
"votes": 55
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The motor triad of Parkinson’s disease is rigidity, bradykinesia and tremor.",
"id": "10026593",
"label": "d",
"name": "Dyskinesia, bradykinesia and tremor",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The motor triad of Parkinson’s disease is rigidity, bradykinesia and tremor.",
"id": "10026591",
"label": "b",
"name": "Rigidity, bradykinesia and cognitive dysfunction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The motor triad of Parkinson’s disease is rigidity, bradykinesia and tremor.",
"id": "10026594",
"label": "e",
"name": "Dystonia, postural instability and tremor",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The motor triad of Parkinson’s disease is rigidity, bradykinesia and tremor.",
"id": "10026592",
"label": "c",
"name": "Freezing, bradykinesia and dystonia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3747",
"name": "Parkinson's Disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3747,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17716",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 67-year-old male patient is referred to the neurology clinic. He is concerned that he may have Parkinson’s disease.\n\nWhat is the characteristic triad of cardinal motor symptoms seen in Parkinson’s disease?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 59,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,256 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,717 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Benserazide is a peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor. It is often given in combination with levodopa. It is not known to cause impulse control disorders.",
"id": "10026597",
"label": "c",
"name": "Benserazide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase-B inhibitor. It does not commonly cause impulse control disorders.",
"id": "10026599",
"label": "e",
"name": "Selegiline",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Impulse control disorders are less commonly a side effect of levodopa. Dyskinesia, an on-off phenomenon and wearing-off effect are long-term side effects.",
"id": "10026596",
"label": "b",
"name": "Levodopa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Entacapone is a catechol-O-Methyl Transferase (COMT) inhibitor. It is used in conjunction with levodopa. It is not commonly known to cause impulse control disorders.",
"id": "10026598",
"label": "d",
"name": "Entacapone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Ropinirole is a dopamine agonist. A notable side effect of dopamine agonists is the development of impulse control disorders.",
"id": "10026595",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ropinirole",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5901",
"name": "Ropinirole",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "172",
"name": "Pharmacology of the Nervous System",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 172,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5901,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17717",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 39-year-old male patient has recently been diagnosed with young-onset Parkinson's disease. He has depression. He is recently unemployed, smokes 20 cigarettes a day and is struggling financially as a result of a gambling addiction. He currently lives with his mother in his family home.\n\nWhich medication should be avoided?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 58,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,257 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,718 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Problem-focused coping involves taking concrete steps to change or eliminate the stressor. Examples include seeking information, making a plan, problem-solving, and seeking social support to find solutions.",
"id": "10026602",
"label": "c",
"name": "Problem-focused Coping",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Approach coping refers to actively engaging with a stressor, problem, or challenging situation. It involves taking proactive steps to confront and address the issue, rather than avoiding it or simply enduring it.",
"id": "10026603",
"label": "d",
"name": "Approach coping",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Emotion-focused coping strategies are designed to manage the emotional responses to a stressor. Instead of directly addressing the problem, these strategies aim to regulate the emotional impact. Examples include seeking emotional support, relaxation techniques, meditation, and expressive writing.",
"id": "10026601",
"label": "b",
"name": "Emotion-focused Coping",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Maladaptive coping strategies involve actions that may provide short-term relief but are ultimately detrimental in the long run. Examples include substance abuse, denial, and aggressive behaviour.",
"id": "10026604",
"label": "e",
"name": "Maladaptive coping",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "In avoidance coping, individuals try to avoid or escape the stressor or their emotional response to it. This can involve denial, distraction, or turning to activities or substances to numb or avoid the emotions associated with the stressor.",
"id": "10026600",
"label": "a",
"name": "Avoidance coping",
"picture": null,
"votes": 54
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5902",
"name": "Descriptive psychopathology",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5902,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17718",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 34-year-old woman has been contacted by the Macmillan cancer nurse following a positive diagnosis of stage three colon cancer. She declines to take the call, does not turn up to appointments and returns letters from the hospital.\n\nWhich coping mechanism is the patient demonstrating in response to her new diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 57,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,258 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,719 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Physiotherapy might be needed postoperatively to regain strength and mobility. However, it is not an option for the definitive management of caudal equina syndrome.",
"id": "10026608",
"label": "d",
"name": "Physiotherapy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Immunoglobulins may be given for neurological conditions affecting gait, such as Guillan-Barre syndrome and multiple sclerosis. There is no role for immunoglobulins in cauda equina syndrome.",
"id": "10026607",
"label": "c",
"name": "Immunoglobulins",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient has cauda equina syndrome. In the majority of cases, surgical decompression is the primary treatment. The goal of surgery is to relieve pressure on the cauda equina nerves. It is important to detect and treat it as soon as possible to prevent irreversible nerve injury.",
"id": "10026605",
"label": "a",
"name": "Surgical decompression",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is no role for antibiotics in the management of cauda equina syndrome.",
"id": "10026609",
"label": "e",
"name": "Antibiotics",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although patients with caudal equina syndrome may experience significant pain and analgesia should be given, it is not the definitive management.",
"id": "10026606",
"label": "b",
"name": "Analgesia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3772",
"name": "Cauda equina syndrome",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3772,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17719",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 45-year-old male patient presents to A&E with severe lower back pain, bilateral leg weakness and saddle anaesthesia. He is unable to walk. He informs you that he cannot control his bowels or bladder.\n\nGiven the likely diagnosis, what is the definitive management of this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 54,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,259 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,720 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Nociplastic pain is characterised by altered pain processing in the nervous system without clear evidence of ongoing tissue damage or nerve injury.",
"id": "10026613",
"label": "d",
"name": "Nociplastic pain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Referred pain occurs when the pain is felt in a location different from the actual source of the problem. It is often due to shared nerve pathways.",
"id": "10026614",
"label": "e",
"name": "Referred pain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Nociceptive pain is the most common type and is typically caused by the activation of pain receptors (nociceptors) in response to tissue damage or injury. Nociceptive pain feels sharp, aching, or throbbing. It's often caused by an external injury, like stubbing your toe, having a sports injury, or a dental procedure.",
"id": "10026611",
"label": "b",
"name": "Nociceptive pain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Neuropathic pain results from damage or dysfunction of the nervous system, particularly the nerves themselves. It is often described as a burning, shooting, or electric shock-like pain.",
"id": "10026612",
"label": "c",
"name": "Neuropathic pain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Inflammatory pain results from the body's inflammatory response to injury or infection. It is a protective form of pain during the healing process.",
"id": "10026610",
"label": "a",
"name": "Inflammatory pain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3825",
"name": "Pain sensation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3825,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17720",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 26-year-old male patient with arm pain. He informs you that he sustained a laceration on the medial aspect of his forearm last week that required stitches. The skin feels hot to the touch, he describes the pain as dull in quality. On palpation of the area, there is hypersensitivity and the patient limits the movement of his arm. He has no fever.\n\nWhat type of pain is the patient experiencing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,260 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,721 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient scores eye-opening: 2, verbal response: 4, motor response: 5. This equates to 11.",
"id": "10026617",
"label": "c",
"name": "12",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Eye-opening: 2, verbal response: 4, motor response: 5.",
"id": "10026615",
"label": "a",
"name": "11",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient scores eye-opening: 2, verbal response: 4, motor response: 5. This equates to 11.",
"id": "10026619",
"label": "e",
"name": "13",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient scores eye-opening: 2, verbal response: 4, motor response: 5. This equates to 11.",
"id": "10026616",
"label": "b",
"name": "10",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient scores eye-opening: 2, verbal response: 4, motor response: 5. This equates to 11.",
"id": "10026618",
"label": "d",
"name": "9",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
}
],
"comments": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionComment",
"comment": "Withdrawal from pain scores as M4, not 5. And inappropriate words score as V3",
"createdAt": 1716814430,
"dislikes": 0,
"id": "50953",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"likes": 1,
"parentId": null,
"questionId": 17721,
"replies": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionComment",
"comment": "I agree... Should be E2 M4 V3",
"createdAt": 1734128326,
"dislikes": 0,
"id": "58327",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"likes": 0,
"parentId": 50953,
"questionId": 17721,
"user": {
"__typename": "User",
"accessLevel": "subscriber",
"displayName": "Cameron",
"id": 59797
}
}
],
"user": {
"__typename": "User",
"accessLevel": "subscriber",
"displayName": "Acute Lateral",
"id": 28088
}
}
],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5903",
"name": "The Glasgow coma scale",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "177",
"name": "Anaesthetics and Intensive Care Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 177,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5903,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 1,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17721",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 22-year-old female in involved in a car accident. She opens her eyes to pain. She is unable to tell you her past medical history and makes inappropriate conversation to your questions. She pulls away from painful stimulus.\n\nWhat is her Glasgow coma scale score?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 57,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,261 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,722 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Methadone is a full-agonist of the mu receptor. It is long-acting and there is a risk of overdose, making this a less safe option.",
"id": "10026621",
"label": "b",
"name": "Methadone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Naltrexone is an antagonist of the mu receptor. It is used when a person overdoses on opiates.",
"id": "10026622",
"label": "c",
"name": "Naltrexone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Buprenorphine is a partial agonist of the mu receptor. It has a ceiling effect, which reduces the risk of overdose and limits the euphoria caused by opioid use.",
"id": "10026620",
"label": "a",
"name": "Buprenorphine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Acamprosate is used for alcohol use disorder. It helps reduce alcohol cravings and may alleviate some withdrawal symptoms. It is not used for opiate addiction.",
"id": "10026623",
"label": "d",
"name": "Acamprosate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Disulfiram is also used in alcohol use disorder. It causes unpleasant adverse reactions when alcohol is consumed, discouraging its use. It is not used for opiate addiction.",
"id": "10026624",
"label": "e",
"name": "Disulfiram",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5904",
"name": "Opioids",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "172",
"name": "Pharmacology of the Nervous System",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 172,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5904,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17722",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 35-year-old male presents with opiate dependence. He would like to quit but is fearful of withdrawing. He has had four previous overdoses caused by opioids.\n\nWhat is the safest medication we can give him to help with his withdrawal symptoms?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 57,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,262 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,723 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These fibres provide intermediate contraction speed. They display moderate fatigue resistance due to the reliance on both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism. They are recruited in activities requiring both endurance and strength, such as middle-distance running and swimming.",
"id": "10026626",
"label": "b",
"name": "Type IIa (intermediate muscle fibres)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is no type IV motor unit.",
"id": "10026629",
"label": "e",
"name": "Type IV (fast twitch muscle fibres)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is no type III motor unit.",
"id": "10026628",
"label": "d",
"name": "Type III (slow twitch muscle fibres)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "These fibres provide slow and sustained contractions and hence are well suited to maintain an upright posture. They display high fatigue resistance due to a rich blood supply and numerous mitochondria. They primarily rely on aerobic respiration (oxidative phosphorylation) for energy production.",
"id": "10026625",
"label": "a",
"name": "Type I (Slow twitch muscle fibres)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These fibres provide fast and powerful contractions. They display low fatigue resistance due to reliance on anaerobic metabolism. They are suited for high-intensity, short-duration activities, such as weightlifting and sprinting.",
"id": "10026627",
"label": "c",
"name": "Type IIb (fast twitch muscle fibres)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5905",
"name": "Types of muscle fibres",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "154",
"name": "Musculoskeletal physiology and disease",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 154,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5905,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17723",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 26-year-old female athlete who runs long-distance marathons presents to the clinic with back pain. You ask the patient to stand up to examine her.\n\nWhich muscle unit is recruited to maintain an upright posture?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,263 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,724 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient has a negative Rinne’s test in the right ear and Weber’s test lateralises to the right. In normal hearing, air conduction should be greater than bone conduction and Weber’s test should be heard equally in both ears.",
"id": "10026634",
"label": "e",
"name": "Normal hearing",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In left sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne’s test would be positive in both ears and Weber’s test would lateralise to the right (the unaffected ear).",
"id": "10026633",
"label": "d",
"name": "Left sensorineural hearing loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In left conductive hearing loss, Rinne’s test would be negative in the left ear and Weber’s test would lateralise to the left.",
"id": "10026631",
"label": "b",
"name": "Left conductive hearing loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient has right conductive hearing loss, characterised by a negative Rinne’s test in the affected ear and lateralisation of Weber’s test to the affected ear.",
"id": "10026630",
"label": "a",
"name": "Right conductive hearing loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In right sensorineural hearing loss, Rinne’s test would be positive in both ears and Weber’s test would lateralise to the left (the unaffected ear).",
"id": "10026632",
"label": "c",
"name": "Right sensorineural hearing loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5906",
"name": "Rinne and Weber’s test",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5906,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17724",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 38-year-old female patient presents to the ENT outpatient clinic with reduced hearing. In the left ear, Rinne’s test is positive. In the right ear, bone conduction is greater than air conduction. Weber’s test lateralises to the right ear.\n\nWhat is the likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,264 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,725 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The spinothalamic tract carries sensory information about pain, temperature, crude touch and pressure from the periphery to the brain.",
"id": "10026635",
"label": "a",
"name": "Spinothalamic tract",
"picture": null,
"votes": 54
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The dorsal columns carry discriminative touch, vibration and proprioception.",
"id": "10026637",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dorsal column",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The medial vestibulospinal tract performs the synchronization of the movement of the eyes with the movement of the head so that the eyes do not lag when the head moves to one side.",
"id": "10026636",
"label": "b",
"name": "Medial vestibulospinal tract",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This tract carries motor information from the brain to the spinal cord and then to the periphery. Lesions in the corticospinal tract cause paralysis or weakness in the muscles controlled by the affected part of the tract.",
"id": "10026639",
"label": "e",
"name": "Corticospinal tract",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The nerve cells of the corona radiata are afferent and efferent, meaning they carry messages to and from the body. They have no role in perception of pain or temperature.",
"id": "10026638",
"label": "d",
"name": "Corona radiata",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5828",
"name": "Spinothalamic tracts",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5828,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17725",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 35-year-old male has sustained a traumatic spinal cord injury. He tells you he has difficulties perceiving pain and temperature.\n\nWhich tract has been affected?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 58,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,265 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,726 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Aα fibre is a large diameter, myelinated afferent nerve fibre that carries information about proprioception from muscles. It is not involved in the pain gate theory.",
"id": "10026641",
"label": "b",
"name": "Aα fibres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Aβ is a large diameter, myelinated afferent nerve fibre that carries information about heavy pressure, light touch, deep touch and vibration. Rubbing the knee causes signals to travel down the Aβ fibres blocking pain signals traveling in the C-fibres. In the pain gate theory, this action closes the pain gate.",
"id": "10026640",
"label": "a",
"name": "Aβ fibres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Aδ fibre is a small-diameter, myelinated afferent nerve fibre that carries information about pain and temperature. It is not involved in the pain gate theory.",
"id": "10026642",
"label": "c",
"name": "Aδ fibres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Aγ fibre is a small-diameter, myelinated nerve fibre that innervates muscle spindles and is involved in regulating muscle spindle sensitivity and muscle tone. It is not involved in the pain gate theory.",
"id": "10026644",
"label": "e",
"name": "Aγ fibres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "C fibre is a small-diameter, unmyelinated nerve fibre that carries information about pain and temperature. The action of rubbing causes signals to travel down the Aβ fibres blocking pain signals traveling in the C-fibres. In the pain gate theory, this action closes the pain gate.",
"id": "10026643",
"label": "d",
"name": "C fibres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5907",
"name": "Classification of sensory afferent fibres",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5907,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17726",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 5-year-old boy tripped and hurt his knee. His mother started rubbing his knee to help ease the pain.\n\nWhich nerve fibre is being recruited to block the pain signals?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 54,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,266 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,727 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Mirtazapine blocks the alpha-2 adrenergic receptors. By doing so, it enhances the release of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain. Increased levels of these neurotransmitters are associated with improved mood.",
"id": "10026645",
"label": "a",
"name": "Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of monoamine oxidase inhibitors. Monoamine oxidase is an enzyme that breaks down neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. Inhibiting it increases the levels of these neurotransmitters.",
"id": "10026647",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inhibition of monoamine oxidase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is one of the mechanisms of action of serotonin-norepinephrine re-uptake inhibitors. This leads to the increase of catecholamines in the synaptic cleft.",
"id": "10026648",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inhibition of the noradrenaline re-uptake transporter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors. This leads to an increase in the serotonin in the synaptic cleft.",
"id": "10026646",
"label": "b",
"name": "Inhibition of the serotonin re-uptake",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of typical antipsychotics, such as haloperidol, typically used in acute episodes of psychosis. It blocks the activity of dopamine.",
"id": "10026649",
"label": "e",
"name": "Dopamine (D2) receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5908",
"name": "Mechanism of action of antidepressants",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5908,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 1,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17727",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 57-year-old female patient presented to the GP with symptoms of low mood. This is accompanied by loss of enjoyment in her daily activities and difficulties sleeping. She has poor concentration and cannot read more than 5 pages of her book. She is on the waiting list for cognitive behavioural therapy and would like medication to help with her symptoms. The GP decides to prescribe her mirtazapine.\n\nWhat is the mechanism of action of mirtazapine?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,267 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,728 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A subarachnoid haemorrhage occurs in the subarachnoid space, the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater. It is often caused by the rupture of an aneurysm. The hallmark symptom of SAH is a sudden, severe headache, often described as \"the worst headache of my life.\" It is characterised by the presence of blood in the subarachnoid space on a CT scan.",
"id": "10026652",
"label": "c",
"name": "Subarachnoid haemorrhage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Extradural haemorrhage occurs between the skill and the dura mater. It typically results from head trauma, which damages the middle meningeal artery. It shows as a biconvex/lens-shaped collection of blood on CT scan.",
"id": "10026651",
"label": "b",
"name": "Extradural haemorrhage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "A subdural haemorrhage occurs between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. It is often the result of head trauma. The trauma causes the bridging veins to rupture, leading to bleeding in the space between the dura and the arachnoid mater. Symptoms include headache, altered mental status, confusion, drowsiness, weakness, seizures, and focal neurological deficits. A crescent-shaped collection of blood is a characteristic sign on CT.",
"id": "10026650",
"label": "a",
"name": "Subdural haemorrhage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 44
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Intracerebral haemorrhage occurs within the brain tissue itself, leading to the accumulation of blood in the brain. Intracerebral haemorrhage is most commonly caused by the rupture of small blood vessels (typically small arteries) within the brain. Hypertension is a major risk factor. A CT scan will show a collection of blood within the brain parenchyma.",
"id": "10026653",
"label": "d",
"name": "Intracerebral haemorrhage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ischaemic strokes are the most common type of stroke and are typically caused by a blockage or clot in a blood vessel that supplies blood to the brain. It is not caused by head trauma. Ischaemic strokes typically present as areas of hypo-density on a CT scan.",
"id": "10026654",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ischaemic Stroke",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4017",
"name": "Subdural haemorrhage",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4017,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17728",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 72-year-old male patient is brought to A&E by his wife who is concerned that he has been unsteady, drowsy and confused. He has reduced consciousness. His wife notes that he fell over six weeks ago, but seemed fine. His CT head shows a crescent-shaped collection of blood in the right hemisphere.\n\nWhat is the diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,268 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,729 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The jugular foramen, located between the temporal and occipital bones, allows the internal jugular vein and several cranial nerves (IX, X, and XI) to pass.",
"id": "10026659",
"label": "e",
"name": "Jugular foramen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Located at the base of the skull, the foramen magnum is the largest foramen and allows the spinal cord to pass from the brain into the spinal canal.",
"id": "10026658",
"label": "d",
"name": "Foramen magnum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The foramen ovale allows the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (V3) to pass through.",
"id": "10026656",
"label": "b",
"name": "Foramen ovale",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient has an extradural haemorrhage, characterised by the lucid interval and haemorrhage from the middle meningeal artery. The foramen spinosum sits in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone and allows passage of the middle meningeal artery.",
"id": "10026655",
"label": "a",
"name": "Foramen spinosum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This foramen, located in the sphenoid bone, transmits the maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve (V2).",
"id": "10026657",
"label": "c",
"name": "Foramen rotundum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4648",
"name": "Extradural Haemorrhage",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4648,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17729",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 36-year-old male patient presents to A&E following a road traffic accident. The paramedic report notes that he did lose consciousness, but has since regained consciousness. The nurse is worried because he seems to be getting more drowsy again. A CT head shows a lens-shaped collection of blood from the middle meningeal artery.\n\nGiven the likely diagnosis, which foramen does the implicated artery pass through?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,269 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,730 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "It is unnecessary to inform the police in this situation as there are no safeguarding concerns.",
"id": "10026663",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inform the police",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The patient is deemed Gillick competent. She understood the GP's advice and was able to retain and weigh up the information and communicate it back.",
"id": "10026660",
"label": "a",
"name": "Prescribe the contraceptive pill",
"picture": null,
"votes": 47
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient is Gillick competent. Persuading her to tell her parents may endanger your rapport.",
"id": "10026662",
"label": "c",
"name": "Persuade her to tell her parents",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "As she is deemed to be Gillick competent, the GP should not inform her parents and should maintain confidentiality.",
"id": "10026661",
"label": "b",
"name": "Inform her parents",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The GP is not in a position to advise her against having sexual intercourse. She is Gillick competent and should be prescribed the contraceptive pill.",
"id": "10026664",
"label": "e",
"name": "Promote abstinence as she is underage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5909",
"name": "Fraser guidelines",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "153",
"name": "Paediatrics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 153,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5909,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17730",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 15-year-old female patient presents to her GP requesting contraception. She is sexually active with her 15-year-old boyfriend. She has been using the pull-out method and would like to be started on the pill to prevent pregnancy. The GP counsels her on contraceptives, she can understand, weigh up and communicate her decision. She would like to try the mini-pill. She does not want her parents to know.\n\nWhat should the GP do?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 54,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,270 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,731 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Living in rural areas or farming communities has been linked to a higher risk of Parkinson's disease, possibly due to pesticide exposure or other environmental factors.",
"id": "10026668",
"label": "d",
"name": "Living in rural areas",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "A history of significant head injuries, especially repeated head trauma (e.g., in professional athletes such as boxers), has been associated with an increased risk of Parkinson's disease.",
"id": "10026665",
"label": "a",
"name": "Repeated head trauma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Some studies have suggested that smoking may be associated with a reduced risk of Parkinson's disease, though the health risks of smoking far outweigh any potential benefits.",
"id": "10026667",
"label": "c",
"name": "Smoking",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Some studies have suggested that regular caffeine consumption may be associated with a reduced risk of Parkinson's disease",
"id": "10026666",
"label": "b",
"name": "Caffeine use",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Males are more likely to develop Parkinson's disease than women. The reasons for this gender difference are not yet fully understood.",
"id": "10026669",
"label": "e",
"name": "Female gender",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3747",
"name": "Parkinson's Disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3747,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17731",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 72-year-old male patient presents to the neurology clinic with unilateral resting tremor, bradykinesia and rigidity. He is diagnosed with Parkinson's disease.\n\nWhich one of the following is a risk factor for Parkinson's disease?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 55,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,271 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,732 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is not correct. For the specificity to be 50% the test only manages to identify half of the people who do not have the condition.",
"id": "10026673",
"label": "d",
"name": "50%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the sensitivity of the test. The sensitivity of a diagnostic test is a measure of how well the test correctly identifies individuals who have a particular condition or disease (true positives). Sensitivity = (True Positives) / (True Positives + False Negatives).Sensitivity = (40)/(40+20)= 0.67X100=67%",
"id": "10026671",
"label": "b",
"name": "67%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The specificity of a diagnostic test is a measure of how well the test correctly identifies individuals without a particular condition or disease (true negatives). It can be calculated by this formula: Specificity = (True Negatives) / (True Negatives + False Positives). Specificity = (80)/(80+10)=0.89 you then multiply by a 100 to give you a percentage.",
"id": "10026670",
"label": "a",
"name": "89%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is not correct. For the specificity to be 100% the test correctly manages to identify all individuals without the condition i.e., no false positives.",
"id": "10026674",
"label": "e",
"name": "100%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the positive predictive value (PPV). The Positive Predictive Value (PPV) is a statistical measure used to assess the proportion of individuals who test positive for a condition or disease and truly have the condition.The formula to calculate the Positive Predictive Value is as follows: PPV = (True Positives) / (True Positives + False Positives). PPV= (40)/(40+10)=0.8x100=80%",
"id": "10026672",
"label": "c",
"name": "80%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4325",
"name": "Evaluation of a diagnostic test",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "178",
"name": "Medical Statistics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 178,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4325,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17732",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A new urine dipstick is being trialled in diagnosing urinary tract infections in a group of 150 patients. The dipstick has diagnosed 50 patients with urinary tract infections. Ten of these patients did not have infections. The other 100 patients screened negative for infection. However, 20 patients did have infection on alternate testing.\n\nWhat is the specificity of the new urine dipstick?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,272 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,733 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The pretectum is a region of the midbrain located anterior to the superior colliculus and posterior to the thalamus. It serves several important functions related to visual processing and the pupillary light reflex.",
"id": "10026677",
"label": "c",
"name": "Pretectum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The superior colliculus is a paired structure located in the midbrain of the brainstem. The retina projects to the superior colliculus in one of the secondary visual pathways. It plays a crucial role in the control of visual processing and eye movements.",
"id": "10026675",
"label": "a",
"name": "Superior colliculus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) is a paired structure located in the thalamus. The LGN serves as a key part of the primary visual pathway and plays a central role in the processing and relay of visual information from the eyes to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe.",
"id": "10026678",
"label": "d",
"name": "Lateral geniculate nucleus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The inferior colliculus is a paired structure located in the midbrain, specifically within the tectum. It plays a crucial role in the processing of auditory information and is an integral part of the brain's auditory pathway.",
"id": "10026679",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inferior colliculus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The hypothalamus is a small region located at the base of the brain, just above the brainstem. It receives projections from the retina in one of the secondary visual pathways. It is involved in regulating the body's internal clock and circadian rhythms, which influence sleep-wake cycles, hormone secretion, and other daily patterns.",
"id": "10026676",
"label": "b",
"name": "Hypothalamus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5910",
"name": "Anatomy of the visual pathways",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5910,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17733",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 43-year-old female presents to the ophthalmology clinic. She has been finding it difficult to move her eyes, especially when redirecting her attention to new visual targets. She has also noticed she has been finding it difficult to maintain a steady gaze.\n\nWhich subcortical region in the brain is affected?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,273 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,734 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This branch arises from the proximal part of the femoral artery and supplies blood to the skin and muscles of the lower abdominal wall and inguinal region.",
"id": "10026684",
"label": "e",
"name": "Superficial epigastric arter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The medial circumflex femoral artery, a branch of the profunda femoris artery, supplies blood to the head and neck of the femur, as well as the hip joint.",
"id": "10026680",
"label": "a",
"name": "Medial femoral circumflex artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The femoral artery continues as the superficial femoral artery, which runs down the thigh and provides blood to the anterior thigh muscles.",
"id": "10026683",
"label": "d",
"name": "Superficial femoral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The profunda femoris artery is a major branch that arises from the femoral artery in the thigh. It provides a significant blood supply to the muscles of the thigh, including the quadriceps femoris muscle group. It gives off the perforating branches, lateral femoral circumflex artery, medial femoral circumflex artery and the descending genicular artery.",
"id": "10026682",
"label": "c",
"name": "Profunda femoris artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The lateral circumflex femoral artery is a branch of the profunda femoris artery. It supplies blood to the lateral and anterior aspects of the thigh.",
"id": "10026681",
"label": "b",
"name": "Lateral circumflex femoral artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4079",
"name": "Avascular Necrosis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4079,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17734",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 76-year-old female has recently been diagnosed with a right-sided neck of femur fracture following a fall. The orthopaedic surgeon informs you that she requires immediate surgery to prevent avascular necrosis.\n\nWhich branch of the femoral artery is implicated in avascular necrosis of the head of the femur?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,274 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,735 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism fo action of levodopa. Levodopa is converted into dopamine in the brain. Dopamine cannot cross the blood-brain barrier, but levodopa can. Once in the brain, it is converted to dopamine, increasing dopamine levels and improving motor symptoms.",
"id": "10026686",
"label": "b",
"name": "Crosses the blood-brain barrier where it is converted to dopamine by decarboxylation in the presynaptic terminals of dopaminergic neurons",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Selegiline is a selective and irreversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase type B (MAO-B). MAO is an enzyme that breaks down dopamine in the brain. By inhibiting MAO-B, selegiline prevents the breakdown of dopamine, thereby increasing dopamine levels in the brain. It is usually used as an adjunct to Levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's.",
"id": "10026685",
"label": "a",
"name": "Binds to MAO-B receptor within the nigrostriatal pathways and blocks the microsomal metabolism of dopamine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 39
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, such as sertraline.",
"id": "10026689",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inhibits serotonin re-uptake",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of entacapone and tolcapone. COMT is an enzyme that metabolises levodopa in the brain. COMT inhibitors prevent the breakdown of levodopa, extending its duration of action. It is typically used with levodopa.",
"id": "10026688",
"label": "d",
"name": "Prevents the peripheral degradation of levodopa, allowing a higher concentration to cross the blood-brain barrier",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action or ropinirole or pramipexole. They directly activate dopamine receptors in the brain, mimicking the effects of dopamine. They are usually used as an adjunct to Levodopa in the treatment of Parkinson's but can be used alone.",
"id": "10026687",
"label": "c",
"name": "Selectively stimulates dopamine (D2) receptors within the caudate putamen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5911",
"name": "MAO inhibitors",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "172",
"name": "Pharmacology of the Nervous System",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 172,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5911,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17735",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 73-year-old male patient presents to the neurology clinic for a follow-up appointment. He has been started on levodopa, however, he is still experiencing some symptoms including bradykinesia and a resting tremor. The consultant prescribes selegiline.\n\nWhat is the mechanism of action of selegiline?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 54,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,275 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,736 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Magnesium does not initiate the muscle contraction process, calcium ions do that. However, Magnesium ions are involved in various enzymatic reactions during muscle contraction, including the hydrolysis of ATP to release energy for the cross-bridge cycle.",
"id": "10026693",
"label": "d",
"name": "Magnesium (Mg2+)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "When a nerve impulse stimulates the muscle, it triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Calcium binds to troponin, a protein on the actin filament, exposing the myosin binding sites and allowing for cross-bridge formation.",
"id": "10026690",
"label": "a",
"name": "Calcium (Ca2+)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 54
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Muscle contraction begins with the generation of an action potential, which travels along the sarcolemma. Sodium ions are crucial for initiating this action potential however they do not initiate the muscle contraction process, calcium ions do that.",
"id": "10026691",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sodium (Na+)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Potassium ions do not initiate the muscle contraction process, calcium ions do that. However, after the depolarisation phase during the action potential, repolarisation is essential to reset the muscle cell's membrane potential for subsequent contractions. This involves the movement of potassium ions out of the cell, which helps restore the negative resting membrane potential. Repolarisation is crucial for muscle relaxation.",
"id": "10026692",
"label": "c",
"name": "Potassium (K+)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hydrogen ions do not initiate the muscle contraction process, calcium ions do that. Hydrogen ions can be produced during intense muscle contractions, such as during strenuous exercise leading to acidosis and muscle fatigue.",
"id": "10026694",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hydrogen ions (H+)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5912",
"name": "Sliding filament theory",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5912,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17736",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which ion is responsible for initiating muscle contraction?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 59,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,276 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,737 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The anterior cruciate ligament attaches at the anterior intercondylar region of the tibia where it blends with the medial meniscus. It ascends posteriorly to attach to the femur in the intercondylar fossa. It prevents anterior dislocation of the tibia onto the femur.",
"id": "10026695",
"label": "a",
"name": "Attaches to the anterior intercondylar region of the tibia where it blends with the medial meniscus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament. The ACL attaches to the anterior intercondylar region of the tibia.",
"id": "10026698",
"label": "d",
"name": "Attaches to the posterior intercondylar region of the tibia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the attachment for the medial collateral ligament.",
"id": "10026699",
"label": "e",
"name": "Attaches to the medial epicondyle of the femur",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the posterior attachment of the ACL.",
"id": "10026696",
"label": "b",
"name": "Attaches to the femur in the intercondylar fossa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the anterior attachment of the posterior cruciate ligament.",
"id": "10026697",
"label": "c",
"name": "Attaches to the anteromedial femoral condyle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3873",
"name": "Cruciate ligament injuries",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3873,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17737",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 22-year-old female athlete presents to A&E with pain and swelling in the left knee after landing from a jump incorrectly. She has a positive drawer test, indicating an anterior cruciate ligament injury.\n\nWhere does the anterior cruciate ligament attach anteriorly?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,277 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,738 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Lying the patient flat is incorrect. The head should be elevated to 30 degrees to avoid obstructing the jugular venous return.",
"id": "10026702",
"label": "c",
"name": "Lie the patient flat",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Mannitol is a type of osmotic diuretic, often used in the treatment of cerebral oedema. By osmotically drawing water out of brain tissue and into the bloodstream, it can help alleviate brain swelling and pressure.",
"id": "10026700",
"label": "a",
"name": "IV Mannitol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 44
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Corticosteroids are not used in situations of raised ICP due to traumatic brain injury.",
"id": "10026703",
"label": "d",
"name": "Corticosteroids",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hypoventilation is incorrect. Controlled hyperventilation (increased breathing rate) is typically used when there is raised ICP following head injuries. It can temporarily reduce arterial carbon dioxide levels, and cause vasoconstriction, which in turn can help lower ICP.",
"id": "10026701",
"label": "b",
"name": "Hypoventilation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hyperthermia is incorrect. Hypothermia can be used, however, not enough evidence shows improvement in outcomes.",
"id": "10026704",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hyperthermia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4387",
"name": "Raised intracranial pressure",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4387,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17738",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 42-year-old male is presenting with signs of raised Intracranial pressure including vomiting, drowsiness and diminished levels of consciousness following a traumatic head injury.\n\nWhich one of the following options is used to lower intracranial pressure and maintain cerebral blood flow?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,278 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,739 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Atracurium is a medication classified as a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking agent. It is used in anaesthesia to induce muscle relaxation. Atracurium works by blocking the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, preventing the transmission of nerve impulses to muscle cells.",
"id": "10026708",
"label": "d",
"name": "Atracurium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Suxamethonium is a medication classified as a neuromuscular blocking agent or a depolarising muscle relaxant. It acts by mimicking the neurotransmitter acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. It initially depolarises the muscle membrane, causing a brief muscle contraction, and then it prevents repolarisation due to constant depolarization that results in desensitisation, resulting in sustained muscle relaxation.",
"id": "10026705",
"label": "a",
"name": "Suxamethonium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Propofol is commonly used for the induction and maintenance of general anaesthesia during surgeries and other medical procedures. Propofol acts as a central nervous system depressant by enhancing the inhibitory effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmission.",
"id": "10026706",
"label": "b",
"name": "Propofol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Alfentanyl is primarily used in surgical and anaesthesia settings to provide pain relief during surgery. It is an opioid analgesic that acts on mu-opioid receptors in the central nervous system.",
"id": "10026707",
"label": "c",
"name": "Alfentanil",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Isoflurane is a volatile inhalation anaesthetic agent commonly used for the induction and maintenance of general anaesthesia during surgery and other medical procedures. Isoflurane works by depressing the central nervous system.",
"id": "10026709",
"label": "e",
"name": "Isoflurane",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5913",
"name": "Rapid sequence induction",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "177",
"name": "Anaesthetics and Intensive Care Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 177,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5913,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17739",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 55-year-old obese female patient presents with a life-threatening asthma attack and develops acute respiratory failure. She requires the insertion of an endotracheal tube. She is going to be given a muscle relaxant to aid with the insertion of the endotracheal tube.\n\nWhich muscle relaxant is a depolarising blocker?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 53,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,279 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,740 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These studies collect data from a population at a single point in time to assess the prevalence of a particular condition or characteristic.",
"id": "10026712",
"label": "c",
"name": "Cross-sectional studies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In cohort studies, a group of individuals (the cohort) is followed over time to determine the incidence of an outcome and identify risk factors.",
"id": "10026711",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cohort studies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are detailed descriptions of individual cases, often used to report rare or unique medical conditions or treatments.",
"id": "10026714",
"label": "e",
"name": "Case reports",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Case–control studies bring together two groups, a case study group and a control group. The case study group has a particular attribute while the control group does not. The two groups are then compared, to see if the case group exhibits a particular characteristic more than the control group.",
"id": "10026710",
"label": "a",
"name": "Case-control study",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are experimental studies where participants are randomly assigned to different groups (e.g., treatment and control) to assess the effects of an intervention or treatment.",
"id": "10026713",
"label": "d",
"name": "Randomised controlled trials",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4353",
"name": "Observational studies",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "178",
"name": "Medical Statistics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 178,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4353,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17740",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "In a study related to lung cancer, researchers investigate the effect of quitting smoking. They compare a group of smokers and ex-smokers and monitor the instances of lung carcinoma.\n\nWhat type of study is this?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,280 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,741 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Somatic delusions involve delusions of bodily functions and sensations, for example infestation of parasites on a well patient.",
"id": "10026719",
"label": "e",
"name": "Somatic delusions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Grandiose delusions often involve beliefs that you have more power, wealth, smarts, or other grand traits than is true.",
"id": "10026717",
"label": "c",
"name": "Grandiose delusions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Nihilistic delusions are characterized by the delusional belief of being dead, decomposed or annihilated, having lost one's own internal organs or even not existing entirely as a human being.",
"id": "10026715",
"label": "a",
"name": "Nihilistic delusion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A delusion that another person, more frequently someone of higher status is in love with the individual.",
"id": "10026718",
"label": "d",
"name": "Erotomanic delusions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "People with delusions of reference believe things refer to them, such as TV and radio shows.",
"id": "10026716",
"label": "b",
"name": "Delusions of reference",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5899",
"name": "Delusions",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5899,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17741",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 28-year-old previously well patient presents to the GP with her mother. She describes “rotting from the inside” and feels that her “organs are dead inside of her.”\n\nWhat type of delusion is this?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 52,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,281 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,742 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "In neuropathic pain conditions, there can be impairments in the descending inhibition system. The brain may not effectively send inhibitory signals to the spinal cord to modulate the pain signals coming from damaged or malfunctioning nerves. The neurotransmitters that are typically involved include serotonin, noradrenaline and opioids.",
"id": "10026720",
"label": "a",
"name": "Descending inhibition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is synaptic reorganisation within the spinal cord. This results in allodynia in neuropathic pain.",
"id": "10026723",
"label": "d",
"name": "Synaptic reorganisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is an increase in the Sodium channel gene expression resulting in increased excitability of the nociceptors in neuropathic pain.",
"id": "10026722",
"label": "c",
"name": "Sodium channel activity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is an increase in the inflammatory cells and mediators as opposed to a decrease in neuropathic pain. They result in direct receptor-mediated excitatory effects which have both short and long-term effects on neuronal excitability.",
"id": "10026721",
"label": "b",
"name": "Inflammatory cells and mediators",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Catastrophising personality can amplify the pain experience and this tends to happen more in patients with neuropathic pain.",
"id": "10026724",
"label": "e",
"name": "Catastrophising personality",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3825",
"name": "Pain sensation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3825,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17742",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 54-year-old male presents to the pain clinic. He has been experiencing neuropathic pain after having had a stroke. He would like to know more about his pain.\n\nWhich protective mechanism is reduced in neuropathic pain?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 55,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,282 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,202 | null | false | [] | null | 17,743 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is a higher prevalence of bipolar disorder in individuals who are separated or widowed. Traumatic or highly stressful life events, such as the loss of a loved one or relationship issues can trigger the onset of bipolar symptoms or episodes in vulnerable individuals.",
"id": "10026727",
"label": "c",
"name": "Being married",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Family history plays a significant role in bipolar disorder. Having a close relative, such as a parent or sibling, with bipolar disorder increases the risk of developing the condition.",
"id": "10026725",
"label": "a",
"name": "Family history",
"picture": null,
"votes": 50
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although abuse is associated with bipolar disorder. It has not been proven that smoking tobacco increases the risk.",
"id": "10026728",
"label": "d",
"name": "Smoking tobacco",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "While bipolar disorder affects both men and women, some research suggests that women may be more likely to experience rapid cycling and mixed episodes.",
"id": "10026729",
"label": "e",
"name": "Male",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Bipolar disorder is more prevalent in high-income countries as opposed to low-income countries",
"id": "10026726",
"label": "b",
"name": "Living in low-income countries",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5914",
"name": "Bipolar affective disorder",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5914,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17743",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 23-year-old female patient has been recently discharged from an inpatient stay at a psychiatric unit. She informs you that she has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder.\n\nWhat is a risk factor for this condition?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 56,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,357 | false | 1 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,744 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Respiratory alkalosis occurs as a result of hyperventilation, shown by a low pCO2 and a high pO2. His bicarbonate and base excess are normal and do not indicate metabolic compensation.\n\nRespiratory alkalosis can be caused by anything that makes you hyperventilate - e.g. an anxiety attack, pain, hypoxia (in the ascent to altitude), pulmonary embolisms, pneumothorax and excessive mechanical ventilation.",
"id": "10026730",
"label": "a",
"name": "Respiratory alkalosis with no metabolic compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 66
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "His pH is alkalotic and his ABG suggests that this is due to a respiratory cause. However, both his bicarbonate and his base excess are normal suggesting that there has not been any metabolic compensation.",
"id": "10026731",
"label": "b",
"name": "Respiratory alkalosis with partial metabolic alkalosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient is alkalotic",
"id": "10026734",
"label": "e",
"name": "Respiratory acidosis with no metabolic compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The patient is alkalotic",
"id": "10026733",
"label": "d",
"name": "Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Common causes of metabolic alkalosis include prolonged vomiting, hypovolaemia, diuretic use and hypokalaemia. This would result in a raised pH, bicarbonate and base excess.",
"id": "10026732",
"label": "c",
"name": "Metabolic alkalosis with no respiratory compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5915",
"name": "Acid-base balance",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5915,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17744",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "An 18-year-old male presents to A&E after collapsing whilst presenting a poster in front of his class. He is breathing fast and taking lots of deep breaths and is complaining of tingling in his fingers and around his mouth.\n\nAn ABG is taken which shows a pH of 7.5, pO2 of 14, pCO2 of 3.4, and an HCO3- of 22. His base excess is +2.\n\nWhich of the following is the most accurate description of his acid-base balance",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 83,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,358 | false | 2 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,745 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Enlargement of the liver and spleen occurs secondary to venous congestion caused by right-sided heart failure. In acute cases, it can be tender.",
"id": "10026735",
"label": "a",
"name": "Hepatosplenomegaly",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "\"Orthopnoea\" - this is usually indicative of **left**-sided heart failure and cardiogenic pulmonary oedema",
"id": "10026739",
"label": "e",
"name": "Shortness of breath when the patient lies down",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a feature of pulmonary oedema, a characteristic feature of **left**-sided heart failure.",
"id": "10026737",
"label": "c",
"name": "Cough producing of pink-tinged sputum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This indicates pulmonary oedema which is a characteristic feature of **left**-sided heart failure, not right.",
"id": "10026736",
"label": "b",
"name": "Crackles on auscultation of her lungs",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Due to her peripheral oedema, the patient is more likely to have an increase in weight since last visiting her GP. This is \"water weight\" from the accumulation of excess fluid in her tissues.",
"id": "10026738",
"label": "d",
"name": "Weight loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5916",
"name": "Right heart strain",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5916,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 1,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17745",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 67-year-old female with a history of COPD presents to her GP complaining of swollen legs. After a full examination, the GP is concerned that she may have developed right heart strain due to her history of chronic lung disease.\n\nWhich of the following examination signs would likely be seen in keeping with the diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 80,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,359 | false | 3 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,746 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This [[rw1\\]](#_msocom_1) describes a chylomicron - an ultra-low-density lipoprotein. They help transport lipids from the small intestine into the systemic circulation.",
"id": "10026740",
"label": "a",
"name": "Lipoprotein particles consisting of triglycerides, phospholipids and cholesterol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 60
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes a lysosome[[rw3\\]](#_msocom_3)",
"id": "10026742",
"label": "c",
"name": "Membrane-bound organelle that contains digestive enzymes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes a micelle[[rw4\\]](#_msocom_4)",
"id": "10026744",
"label": "e",
"name": "An aggregation of surfactant amphipathic lipid molecules dispersed in a liquid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes a vesicle[[rw2\\]](#_msocom_2) .",
"id": "10026741",
"label": "b",
"name": "A small fluid-filled sac enclosed by a lipid bilayer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, long chain fatty acids require transport via chylomicrons. Only short-chain fatty acids can diffuse across the intestinal villi",
"id": "10026743",
"label": "d",
"name": "They do not require specific transport molecules",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5917",
"name": "Digestion and absorption of fat",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "309",
"name": "Biochemistry, cell biology and clinical chemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 309,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5917,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17746",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following best describes a chylomicron?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 78,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,360 | false | 4 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,747 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The Henderson-Hasselbach equation describes the relationship between the pH of a buffered solution and its pKa. When [HA] is equal to [A-] then the log of [A-]/[HA] is 0 and pH is equal to pKA. When an acid is added to the solution [HA] increases and [A-]/[HA] is negative, thus, the pH decreases and is less than pKa",
"id": "10026745",
"label": "a",
"name": "pH and pKa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The concentration of acid and base in a buffered solution makes up part of the Henderson-Hasselbach equation, however, the equation describes the relationship between pH and pKa.",
"id": "10026748",
"label": "d",
"name": "[HA] and [A-]",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst both of these form part of the Henderson-Hasselbach equation, the equation describes the relationship between pH and pKa",
"id": "10026747",
"label": "c",
"name": "pKa and [HA]",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst both of these form part of the Henderson-Hasselbach equation, the equation describes the relationship between pH and pKa",
"id": "10026749",
"label": "e",
"name": "pH and [HA]",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The Henderson-Hasselbach equation describes the relationship between the pH of a buffered solution and its pKa.",
"id": "10026746",
"label": "b",
"name": "pOH and pKa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5918",
"name": "Henderson-Hasselbach equation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "309",
"name": "Biochemistry, cell biology and clinical chemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 309,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5918,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17747",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "The Henderson-Hasselbach equation is used by clinicians in the treatment of acid-base abnormalities.\n\nWhat does this equation describe the relationship between?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 77,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,361 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,748 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Flail chest describes 2 or more contiguous rib fracture that results in destabilisation of the chest wall and results in paradoxical movement of the ribcage during the breath cycle",
"id": "10026753",
"label": "d",
"name": "Flail chest",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A catastrophic haemorrhage may cause his fall in blood pressure but does not explain the asymmetrical chest expansion or tracheal deviation",
"id": "10026751",
"label": "b",
"name": "Catastrophic haemorrhage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cardiac tamponade describes the accumulation of fluid in the pericardiac sac and results in a decrease in cardiac output. It would not, however, lead to a mediastinal shift or absent breath sounds seen in this patient.",
"id": "10026754",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cardiac tamponade",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Tension pneumothorax describes the accumulation of air within the pleural cavity which causes a mediastinal shift. This has led to his trachea deviating to the left and reduced breath sounds on the right. The increase in intrathoracic pressure prevents the return of blood to the heart and leads to hypotension.",
"id": "10026750",
"label": "a",
"name": "Tension pneumothorax",
"picture": null,
"votes": 65
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Spontaneous pneumothorax also describes an accumulation of air within the pleural cavity but it occurs without any evidence of trauma/iatrogenic causes",
"id": "10026752",
"label": "c",
"name": "Spontaneous pneumothorax",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3899",
"name": "Pneumothorax",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3899,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17748",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 37-year-old man is brought into A&E after being in a traffic accident. On examination, he has a very fast respiratory rate. His trachea is deviated to the right. He has asymmetrical chest expansion and absent breath sounds on the left. His observations show RR 30 bpm, HR 118 bpm, BP 84/66 mmHg and O2 89% on air.\n\nWhat is the most likely cause of his condition?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 74,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,362 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,749 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Dilated cardiomyopathy is a disease which causes the stretching of heart muscles and results in the enlargement of ventricles and thinning of the heart muscle wall. This results in reduced contraction strength and, therefore, reduced cardiac output.",
"id": "10026755",
"label": "a",
"name": "Dilated cardiomyopathy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy describes the enlargement of the muscle wall of the heart. This leads to diastolic heart failure as the ventricles are not able to fill as much and, therefore, cardiac output is reduced.",
"id": "10026757",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy leads to diastolic heart failure as it reduces the capacity of the heart to fill with blood, therefore, reducing the cardiac output",
"id": "10026758",
"label": "d",
"name": "Restrictive cardiomyopathy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Aortic stenosis leads to diastolic heart failure. This is due to the valves blocking the outflow of blood from the left ventricle and, therefore, reducing cardiac output",
"id": "10026756",
"label": "b",
"name": "Aortic stenosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cor pulmonale describes abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart. This is due to hypoxia resulting in pulmonary arteriole constriction and hypertension.",
"id": "10026759",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cor pulmonale",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3798",
"name": "Heart Failure",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3798,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17749",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Heart failure describes a situation where the cardiac output fails to supply enough blood to organs to fulfil their demand.\n\nWhich of the following is an example of systolic left-sided heart failure?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 74,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,363 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,750 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "For the resting potential to be maintained three molecules of sodium are pumped out of the cell for every two molecules of potassium pumped into the cell. This results in a net deficit of positive ions within the cell and a negative potential across the cell membrane. Therefore the concentration of potassium ions inside the cell must be high compared to the outside",
"id": "10026764",
"label": "e",
"name": "[Na+]: high, [K+]:high",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The concentrations of sodium and potassium are maintained by the sodium-potassium pump. This leads to 3 sodium ions being pumped out of the neuron for every 2 potassium ions being pumped in leading to the resting potential of the cell membrane being around -70mV. High concentrations of extracellular potassium would lead to an increased equilibrium potential of potassium and a less negative cell membrane potential",
"id": "10026761",
"label": "b",
"name": "[Na+]: high, [K+]:high",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "For the resting potential to be maintained three molecules of sodium are pumped out of the cell for every two molecules of potassium pumped into the cell. This results in a net deficit of positive ions within the cell and a negative potential across the cell membrane. Therefore the concentration of sodium ions outside of the cell must be high compared to the inside",
"id": "10026763",
"label": "d",
"name": "[Na+]: low, [K+]:low",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The concentrations of sodium and potassium are maintained by the sodium-potassium pump. This leads to 3 sodium ions being pumped out of the neuron for every 2 potassium ions being pumped in leading to the resting potential of the cell membrane being around -70mV. This results in a high concentration of sodium out of the cell and a low concentration of potassium in the cell",
"id": "10026762",
"label": "c",
"name": "[Na+]: low, [K+]:high",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The concentrations of sodium and potassium are maintained by the sodium-potassium pump. This leads to three sodium ions being pumped out of the neuron for every two potassium ions being pumped in leading to the resting potential of the cell membrane being around -70mV.",
"id": "10026760",
"label": "a",
"name": "[Na+]: high, [K+]:low, [Ca2+]: high",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5919",
"name": "Potassium gradient and the resting membrane potential",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "181",
"name": "Structure and Function of Cells",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 181,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5919,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17750",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "At rest, neurons have a resting potential that is maintained by the movement of ions across the membrane.\n\nWhich of the following describes the composition of ions in the extracellular space relative to the intracellular space when the neuron is **resting**?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 71,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,364 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,751 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would show ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF and would affect the inferior portion of the myocardium",
"id": "10026766",
"label": "b",
"name": "Right coronary artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This causes an anterior myocardial infarction and causes ST elevation in V2-5. You would also expect ST elevation in leads avL and I and reciprocal Q wave formation.",
"id": "10026765",
"label": "a",
"name": "Left anterior descending",
"picture": null,
"votes": 48
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would show ST elevation in leads I, and aVL and would affect the lateral side of the myocardium",
"id": "10026767",
"label": "c",
"name": "Left circumflex coronary artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is no right anterior descending artery.",
"id": "10026769",
"label": "e",
"name": "Right anterior descending",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would cause a posterolateral myocardial infarction. It would cause ST depression in V1-3 and ST elevation in V7-9 (posterior leads)",
"id": "10026768",
"label": "d",
"name": "Right coronary artery and left circumflex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3721",
"name": "Stable angina",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3721,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17751",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 55-year-old female with a history of coronary artery disease presents to A&E with crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm. She has a past medical history of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An ECG shows a raised ST segment in the chest leads V2-V5.\n\nWhich coronary artery is affected?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 71,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,365 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,752 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Inhalation of tobacco smoke activates **type II pneumocytes** and results in inflammation and the release of proteases",
"id": "10026774",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inhalation of tobacco smoke leads to the activation of type I pneumocytes and the release of collagenase and elastase leading to the breakdown of alveolar walls",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes chronic bronchitis.",
"id": "10026771",
"label": "b",
"name": "Tobacco smoke leads to the hypertrophy and hyperplasia of goblet cells and mucinous glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Alpha-1-anti-trypsin protects against the action of proteases. Deficiency results in panacinar emphysema",
"id": "10026773",
"label": "d",
"name": "Release of alpha-1-anti-trypsin, leukotriene B4 and elastase leads to the breakdown of alveolar walls",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes asthma.",
"id": "10026772",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inhalation of tobacco smoke leads to bronchial hyperresponsiveness and intermittent airway obstruction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Inhalation of tobacco smoke activates type II pneumocytes and leads to inflammation and the release of proteases which breakdown alveolar walls",
"id": "10026770",
"label": "a",
"name": "Release of leukotriene B4, collagenase and elastase leads to the breakdown of alveolar walls",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3902",
"name": "COPD",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3902,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 1,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17752",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 64-year-old long-term smoker is diagnosed with COPD after years of suffering from exertional shortness of breath and a productive cough with sticky mucus.\n\nWhich of the following describes a pathological process involved in chronic emphysema?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 70,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,366 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,753 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The tunica externa provides basic structural support to blood vessels but does not produce NO.",
"id": "10026778",
"label": "d",
"name": "Tunica externa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The internal elastic lamina is a fenestrated sheet that forms a barrier between the tunica intima and tunica media.",
"id": "10026776",
"label": "b",
"name": "Internal elastic lamina",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Smooth muscle provides the tone of blood vessels. Whilst NO is an important vasodilator which acts on vascular smooth muscle, it is not produced in vascular smooth muscle",
"id": "10026777",
"label": "c",
"name": "Smooth muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The external elastic lamina helps to maintain the elasticity of the arterial wall but does not produce NO",
"id": "10026779",
"label": "e",
"name": "External elastic lamina",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Endothelial cells regulate the exchange of substances between the circulating blood and surrounding tissue. NO is continuously produced by the endothelium and acts on the smooth muscle to cause smooth muscle relaxation. Production can be increased by increased sheer stress (e.g. increased blood pressure)",
"id": "10026775",
"label": "a",
"name": "Endothelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5920",
"name": "Structure and function of blood vessels",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "159",
"name": "Cardiovascular physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 159,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5920,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17753",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Nitric oxide is a potent vasodilator that is used to regulate blood vessel tone. It is produced in the walls of blood vessels and stimulates the production of cGMP.\n\nIn which layer of the blood vessel wall is it produced?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 69,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,367 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,754 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Used for volatile/gaseous anaesthetics and aerosols. This route can produce rapid adjustments in the plasma concentration of the drug. Drugs delivered via aerosol will often produce high local concentrations of drug without systemic effects",
"id": "10026783",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inhalation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Subcutaneous injection will usually produce effects faster than oral administration but must be absorbed into circulation from the injection site. This can be limited by diffusion through tissue and removal by local blood flow.",
"id": "10026784",
"label": "e",
"name": "Subcutaneous injection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Very little absorption of most drugs takes place until it reaches the small intestine. Around 75% of the drug will be absorbed in 1-3 hours. Factors affecting absorption include gut content, gut motility, blood flow and formulation.",
"id": "10026781",
"label": "b",
"name": "Oral",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This allows 100% of the active drug to be delivered into the systemic circulation and is not limited by diffusion or first-pass metabolism",
"id": "10026780",
"label": "a",
"name": "Intravenous injection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 63
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Absorption following administration can be unreliable but can be more complete than oral/buccal administration as less of the capillary drainage returns to circulation via the portal vein",
"id": "10026782",
"label": "c",
"name": "Rectal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5921",
"name": "Bioavailability",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "195",
"name": "Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 195,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5921,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17754",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following routes of administration has a bioavailability of 100%?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 66,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,368 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,755 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin K donates electrons to gamma-glutamyl carboxylase",
"id": "10026786",
"label": "b",
"name": "Vitamin K receives electrons from gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, converting non-functional forms of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X into functional forms",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin K is involved in the maturation of II, VII, IX and X",
"id": "10026787",
"label": "c",
"name": "Vitamin K donates electrons to gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, converting non-functional forms of clotting factors III, V, VI and VIII into functional forms",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin K donates electrons to gamma-glutamyl carboxylase and is involved in the maturation of II, VII, IX and X",
"id": "10026788",
"label": "d",
"name": "Vitamin K receives electrons from gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, converting non-functional forms of clotting factors III, V, VI and VIII into functional forms",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin K is required for the conversion of II, VII, IX and X into functional forms",
"id": "10026789",
"label": "e",
"name": "Vitamin K donates electrons to gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, converting functional forms of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X into non-functional forms",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Vitamin K regulates the clotting cascade by converting coagulation factors to mature clotting factors. Dietary Vitamin K is converted to vitamin K hydroquinone which allows it to donate electrons to gamma-glutamyl carboxylase.",
"id": "10026785",
"label": "a",
"name": "Vitamin K donates electrons to gamma-glutamyl carboxylase, converting non-functional forms of clotting factors II, VII, IX and X into functional forms",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5922",
"name": "Fat-soluble vitamins/Warfarin",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "309",
"name": "Biochemistry, cell biology and clinical chemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 309,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5922,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17755",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 1,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Vitamin K is used as an antidote to warfarin.\n\nWhich option best describes its function in the clotting cascade?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 66,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,369 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,756 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cocaine, amphetamine and marijuana use are common precipitating factors in the development of vasospastic angina.",
"id": "10026793",
"label": "d",
"name": "Illicit drug use",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a common cause of unstable angina and myocardial infarction. A thrombus forms on top of an atherosclerotic plaque and ruptures resulting in an almost-complete blockage of a blood vessel and ischaemia.",
"id": "10026794",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ruptured atherosclerotic plaque",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Atherosclerosis involves the narrowing of the coronary arteries, causing a reduced blood flow to the cardiac muscle. It is the most common cause of stable angina.",
"id": "10026790",
"label": "a",
"name": "Atherosclerosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A thrombus may lead to stable angina, however, it is more commonly linked to unstable angina and sudden cardiac death when they rupture and lead to complete occlusion of a coronary vessel.",
"id": "10026792",
"label": "c",
"name": "Thrombosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Type 2 diabetes mellitus is a risk factor, not a cause.",
"id": "10026791",
"label": "b",
"name": "Uncontrolled blood sugar",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5923",
"name": "Atherosclerosis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5923,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17756",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 56-year-old gentleman presents to the GP with crushing central pain when walking uphill. He informs you that this resolves when he rests. He has a past medical history of peripheral vascular disease, type 2 diabetes and his BMI is 32.\n\nWhat is the most common cause of stable angina?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 66,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,370 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,757 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Salbutamol is a short acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) that acts on the beta-2 receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle to cause dilation. They have little effect on bronchial hyperreactivity and are used to mediate bronchospasm.",
"id": "10026795",
"label": "a",
"name": "Beta 2 receptor agonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 56
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Administration of a beta-2 receptor antagonist (or Beta blocker) would lead to increased pulmonary resistance and worsen the effects of an asthma attack.",
"id": "10026796",
"label": "b",
"name": "Beta 2 receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Alpha 1 receptors are predominantly located in vascular smooth muscle. They are commonly prescribed to treat hypertension as they cause smooth muscle relaxation.",
"id": "10026799",
"label": "e",
"name": "Alpha 1 receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The leukotriene receptor antagonists block the activity of cysteinyl leukotrienes at their receptors (CysLT1) on bronchial smooth muscle.",
"id": "10026797",
"label": "c",
"name": "Leukotriene receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Beta 1 receptors are predominantly found in the heart, kidneys and adipose tissue. Beta 1 antagonists are commonly used in the treatment of hypertension due to their negative chronotropic and ionotropic effects on the heart.",
"id": "10026798",
"label": "d",
"name": "Beta 1 receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3725",
"name": "Asthma",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3725,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17757",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 19-year-old male has recently had his asthma medications re-evaluated and has been told to continue his blue inhaler and the doctor has added in a twice-daily steroid inhaler. He is interested in the pharmacology behind the medications.\n\nWhich of the following describes the mechanism of action of salbutamol?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 67,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,371 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,758 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow. It causes shooting pains, numbness and weakness along the medial side of the forearm and 4th and 5th digits.",
"id": "10026803",
"label": "d",
"name": "Cubital tunnel syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes inflammation of the bursa of the Olecranon. When bursa become inflamed they accumulate fluid and can swell. This can be due to trauma or prolonged pressure.",
"id": "10026804",
"label": "e",
"name": "Olecranon bursitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) is a chronic overuse injury caused by repeat wrist flexion. Pain can be reproduced by wrist flexion against resistance.",
"id": "10026801",
"label": "b",
"name": "Medial epicondylitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is a chronic overuse injury caused by repeated wrist extension. It is commonly seen in tennis players and pain can be reproduced when patients extend their wrists against resistance.",
"id": "10026800",
"label": "a",
"name": "Lateral epicondylitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Carpal tunnel syndrome describes compression of the median nerve at the wrists. Patients will often experience pain and weakness when they try to grip objects.",
"id": "10026802",
"label": "c",
"name": "Carpal tunnel syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5688",
"name": "Lateral epicondylitis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5688,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17758",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A busy carpenter presents to his GP with elbow pain, it is worse when he is gripping and rotating objects. He sometimes takes ibuprofen to ease the pain.\n\nOn examination, there is tenderness when the GP palpates along the lateral side of the distal humerus and tenderness when the wrist is extended against resistance.\n\nHe has no history of injury to his elbow and this is the first time that he is presenting to his GP.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 64,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,372 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,759 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Carpal tunnel syndrome describes compression of the median nerve at the wrists. Patients will often experience pain and weakness when they try to grip objects.",
"id": "10026807",
"label": "c",
"name": "Carpal tunnel syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Medial epicondylitis (golfer's elbow) is a chronic overuse injury caused by repeat wrist flexion. Pain can be reproduced by wrist flexion against resistance.",
"id": "10026806",
"label": "b",
"name": "Medial epicondylitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes inflammation of the bursa of the Olecranon. When bursa become inflamed they accumulate fluid and can swell. This can be due to trauma or prolonged pressure.",
"id": "10026809",
"label": "e",
"name": "Olecranon bursitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) is a chronic overuse injury caused by repeated wrist extension. It is commonly seen in tennis players and pain can be reproduced when patients extend their wrists against resistance.",
"id": "10026805",
"label": "a",
"name": "Lateral epicondylitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 37
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cubital tunnel syndrome is due to compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow. It causes shooting pains, numbness and weakness along the medial side of the forearm and 4th and 5th digits.",
"id": "10026808",
"label": "d",
"name": "Cubital tunnel syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5688",
"name": "Lateral epicondylitis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5688,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17759",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A keen woodworker presents to his GP with elbow pain, it is worse when he is gripping and rotating objects. He sometimes takes ibuprofen to ease the pain.\n\nOn examination, there is tenderness when the GP palpates along the lateral side of the distal humerus and tenderness when the wrist is extended against resistance.\n\nHe has no history of injury to his elbow and this is the first time that he is presenting to his GP.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 62,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,373 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,760 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Cholera toxin is an exotoxin and leads to the activation of cAMP-mediated anion secretion and inhibition of NaCl absorption. This promotes massive chloride ion secretion and water loss into the gut causing secretory, \"rice water\" diarrhoea.",
"id": "10026810",
"label": "a",
"name": "Cholera subunit B binds to enterocytes and facilitates the entry of cholera subunit A which promotes massive chloride ion secretion and water loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cholera toxin is an exotoxin**,** not an endotoxin. it does not react with lipopolysaccharide-sensitive cells",
"id": "10026812",
"label": "c",
"name": "Cholera endotoxins react with lipopolysaccharide-sensitive cells resulting in the production of inflammatory mediators. This leads to the mass secretion of chloride ions and water loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cholera toxin is an exotoxin. Subunit B facilitates the entry of subunit A into enterocytes and promotes the mass secretion of chloride ions into the gut. Water follows the movement of chloride ions leading to secretory diarrhoea",
"id": "10026813",
"label": "d",
"name": "Cholera subunit B binds to lipopolysaccharide-sensitive cells resulting in the production of inflammatory mediators leading to mass absorption of chloride ions and water loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Secretory diarrhoea from cholera is due to the massive secretion of **chloride** ions, not sodium ions.",
"id": "10026811",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cholera subunit B binds to enterocytes and facilitates the entry of cholera subunit A which promotes massive sodium ion secretion and water loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cholera toxin is an exotoxin and leads to the activation of cAMP-mediated anion secretion and inhibition of NaCl absorption. This promotes massive chloride ion secretion and leads to the movement of water into the gut lumen resulting in secretory, \"rice water\" diarrhoea",
"id": "10026814",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cholera subunit B binds to enterocytes and facilitates the entry of cholera subunit A which promotes massive chloride ion absorption and water loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "5924",
"name": "Exotoxins",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "148",
"name": "Microbiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 148,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 5924,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17760",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 28-year-old male who has returned from travelling Africa presents to the emergency department with profuse painless diarrhoea, abdominal discomfort, borborygmi and vomiting in the absence of fever. The doctor suspects cholera.\n\nWhich of the following best describes the pathogenic mechanism of *Vibrio cholera*?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 63,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,374 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,761 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Advancing age is a non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension.",
"id": "10026816",
"label": "b",
"name": "Age",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Sex is a non-modifiable risk factor for hypertension. Typically, men are at a higher risk of hypertension compared to women.",
"id": "10026817",
"label": "c",
"name": "Sex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for hypertension. Research indicates that nicotine — the main active ingredient in cigarette smoke — stimulates the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, which are hormones that increase blood pressure.",
"id": "10026815",
"label": "a",
"name": "Smoking",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Heroin lowers blood pressure. It is not a modifiable risk factor for hypertension.",
"id": "10026820",
"label": "f",
"name": "Heroin use",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ethnicity is a non-modifiable risk factor. Patients of an African, Caribbean or South Asian background are at a higher risk of developing hypertension.",
"id": "10026819",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ethnicity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3701",
"name": "Hypertension",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3701,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17761",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for hypertension?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 66,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,466,375 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,207 | null | false | [] | null | 17,762 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Myasthenia gravis is a type II hypersensitivity reaction that causes an immune response to acetylcholine receptors Weakness worsens after repeated movements. It is associated with thymoma and bronchial carcinoma.",
"id": "10026823",
"label": "c",
"name": "Myasthenia gravis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Weakness caused by cord compression would not improve with repeated movements.",
"id": "10026825",
"label": "e",
"name": "Spinal metastases resulting in cord compression",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer. It is a type II hypersensitivity reaction that causes an immune response to voltage-dependent calcium channels. Weakness improves after repeated movement due to sufficient accumulation of calcium.",
"id": "10026821",
"label": "a",
"name": "Lambert-Eaton Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Chemotherapy can lead to general weakness and energy depletion, however, this is unlikely to improve with repeated movements.",
"id": "10026824",
"label": "d",
"name": "General weakness following chemotherapy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Chemotherapy can cause \"glove and stocking\" neuropathy that affects both the sensory and motor neurons. However, weakness produced by neuropathy is unlikely to improve with repeated movements.",
"id": "10026822",
"label": "b",
"name": "Peripheral neuropathy due to chemotherapy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3702",
"name": "Lung Cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3702,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "17762",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 64-year-old woman presents to the GP complaining of weakness. She says that she struggles to stand up from her chair but that this weakness improves the more she repeats a movement. She is currently undergoing chemotherapy for a recent diagnosis of small-cell lung cancer.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely cause of her weakness?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 64,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.