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"explanation": "The ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta",
"id": "10006002",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pulmonary artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The ductus venosus is a shunt that allows oxygenated blood in the umbilical vein to bypass the liver on its' journey from the placenta to the right atrium",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Liver",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The blood that travels through the ductus venosus has travelled through the placenta",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Placenta",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The ductus venosus allows blood to reach the right atrium",
"id": "10006004",
"label": "d",
"name": "Right atrium",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The ductus venosus bypasses the liver, not the spleen",
"id": "10006003",
"label": "c",
"name": "Spleen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
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"name": "Foetal Circulation",
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The pronephros forms on day 18, the mesonephros on day 24, and the metanephros on day 35",
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"label": "d",
"name": "Pronephros (day 2)\n\nMesonephros (day 18)\n\nMetanephros (day 22)",
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"votes": 17
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The kidneys develop through the process of branching morphogenesis. This starts in the kidney when the ureteric bud grows out from the nephric duct and contacts the metanephric mesenchyme. Pronephros is the earliest nephric stage in humans. Mesonephros develops by the formation of mesonephric tubules from the intermediate mesoderm, it is the principal excretory organ for the early embryo. Metanephros is the permanent kidney and develops by the 10th week from the lower part of the Wolffian duc.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Pronephros (day 18)\n\nMesonephros (day 24)\n\nMetanephros (day 35)",
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"votes": 101
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"answer": false,
"explanation": "The pronephros forms 1st, the mesonephros is 2nd and metanephros develops afterwards and is the permanent kidney that forms by the 10th week",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Mesonephros (day 18)\n\nMetanephros (day 24)\n\nPronephros (day 35)",
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"votes": 16
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The pronephros forms 1st, the mesonephros is 2nd and metanephros develops afterwards and is the permanent kidney that forms by the 10th week. The pronephros forms on day 18, the mesonephros on day 24, and the metanephros on day 35",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Mesonephros (day 35)\n\nMetanephros (day 47)\n\nPronephros (day 52)",
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"votes": 18
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The mesonephros forms 2nd, the metanephros develops afterwards and is the permanent kidney that forms by the 10th week",
"id": "10006007",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pronephros (day 18)\n\nMetanephros (day 24)\n\nMesonephros (day 35)",
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"votes": 38
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"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In the stratum germinativum basal cells continuously divide and push cells upwards, they are not involved in psoriasis",
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"label": "b",
"name": "Basal cells in the stratum germinativum",
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"votes": 30
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Langerhans cells attach to antigens of pathogens that invade damaged skin and alert the immune system to their presence and are not involved in psoriasis",
"id": "10006014",
"label": "d",
"name": "Langerhans cells in the stratum spinosum",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "In psoriasis, there is abnormal proliferation of keratinocytes which are the primary cell found in the stratum corneum of the epidermis",
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"votes": 115
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Merkel cells are are tactile cells of neuroectodermal origin and are not involved in psoriasis",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Merkel cells in the stratum germinativum",
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"votes": 9
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Melanocytes produce the skin pigment and are not involved in psoriasis",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Melanocytes in the stratum germinativum",
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"votes": 10
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"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "NSAIDs such as ibuprofen can cause gastric ulcers",
"id": "10006020",
"label": "e",
"name": "Gastric ulcers",
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"votes": 7
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a common side effect of Calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine",
"id": "10006018",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ankle oedema",
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"votes": 10
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors such as ramipril",
"id": "10006017",
"label": "b",
"name": "Dry cough",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Exposure to UV light, either from the sun or tanning beds increases the risk of skin cancer",
"id": "10006019",
"label": "d",
"name": "Melanoma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Skin thinning is an important side effect of steroid creams, to avoid skin thinning, steroid creams must not be used all the time, and small fingertip units are applied.",
"id": "10006016",
"label": "a",
"name": "Thinning of the skin",
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"votes": 153
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"question": "Which of the following is a side effect of steroid creams (such as clobetasone)?",
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"a"
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the definition for the doctrine of double effect",
"id": "10006024",
"label": "d",
"name": "If doing something morally good has a morally bad side-effect it's ethically permissible to do, providing the bad side-effect wasn't intended",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "If a doctor reaches the standard, they are not negligent",
"id": "10006022",
"label": "b",
"name": "If a doctor reaches the standard of a responsible body of medical opinion, they are negligent",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the definition of patient autonomy",
"id": "10006023",
"label": "c",
"name": "The right of competent adults to make informed decisions about their own medical care",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The standard is agreed by a responsible body of MEDICAL opinion, not public",
"id": "10006025",
"label": "e",
"name": "If a doctor reaches the standard of a body of public opinion, they are not negligent",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The Bolam test takes account of evolving standards of care once collectively expressed in practice. It helps to establish a typical action doctors may take in a clinical situation to be able to assess the appropriate standard of reasonable care in negligence cases.",
"id": "10006021",
"label": "a",
"name": "If a doctor reaches the standard of a responsible body of medical opinion, they are not negligent",
"picture": null,
"votes": 109
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"name": "Bolam test",
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"name": "Ethics and Law",
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"question": "What is the Bolam Test?",
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173,462,403 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,752 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The hydration of keratin is increased, not basal cells",
"id": "10006029",
"label": "d",
"name": "Mimic the barrier effect of surface lipids that are defective - this increases the hydration of the basal cells in the stratum corneum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Keratin is hydrated in in the stratum corneum, not the stratum spinosum",
"id": "10006030",
"label": "e",
"name": "Mimic the barrier effect of surface lipids that are defective - this increases the hydration of the keratin in the stratum spinosum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Emollients mimic surface lipids, not keratinocytes",
"id": "10006027",
"label": "b",
"name": "Mimic the barrier effect of keratinocytes that are defective - this increases the hydration of the keratin in the stratum corneum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Emollients mimic surface lipids, not merkel cells",
"id": "10006028",
"label": "c",
"name": "Mimic the barrier effect of merkel cells that are defective - this increases the hydration of the keratin in the stratum corneum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Emollients such as E45 come in different formulations such as lotions, creams and ointments. They are used in dermatological conditions such as psoriasis and eczema and create a barrier for the skin.",
"id": "10006026",
"label": "a",
"name": "Mimic the barrier effect of surface lipids that are defective - this increases the hydration of the keratin in the stratum corneum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 55
}
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"question": "Which of the following do **emollient**s mimic?",
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173,462,404 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,753 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the lifetime risk of women developing colorectal cancer. The correct answer is 65 to 79%",
"id": "10006032",
"label": "b",
"name": "1 in 26",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The BRCA1 gene is a tumour suppressor gene, most mutations promote frameshifts resulting in missense or non-functional proteins. Women are also at risk of developing ovarian cancer.",
"id": "10006031",
"label": "a",
"name": "65-79%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 68
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the risk men with BRCA2 mutation have of developing breast cancer. The correct answer is 65 to 79%",
"id": "10006033",
"label": "c",
"name": "6%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the lifetime risk of developing breast cancer for women who do not have a BRCA mutation. The correct answer is 65 to 79%",
"id": "10006035",
"label": "e",
"name": "15%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The correct answer is 65 to 79%",
"id": "10006034",
"label": "d",
"name": "20-35%",
"picture": null,
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"name": "Breast Cancer",
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173,462,405 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,754 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the correct definition. It means that doctors must seek the informed agreement of the patient before any investigation or treatment takes place.",
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"name": "The right of competent adults to make informed decisions about their own medical care",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the definition of beneficence",
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"name": "All doctors have a moral duty to prioritise patient care and wellbeing and work in the best interests of the patient",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Patients should be fully informed by their doctors about risk, benefits and options before making decisions about their medical care",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the first prinicple in assessing mental capacity in a patient",
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"label": "c",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Children do not always have the right to make decisions about their healthcare, under the age of 16 years children may have capacity to consent to treatment, depending on their ability to understand what is involved. However, under 16 they may not refuse treatment.",
"id": "10006039",
"label": "d",
"name": "The right of children to make informed decisions about their own medical care",
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"votes": 3
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"question": "Which of the following is the correct definition of patient autonomy?",
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173,462,406 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,755 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Compared to adult hemoglobin, it has a significantly higher affinity for oxygen",
"id": "10006045",
"label": "e",
"name": "Fetal hemoglobin",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Increases in CO2 decrease hemoglobin saturation, while decreases in CO2 increase hemoglobin saturation.",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The affinity that hemoglobin has on oxygen is decreased when the pH of blood is decreased e.g. in acidosis.",
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"votes": 27
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "A high level of 2,3-DPG increases the Bohr effect on Hb-O2 affinity and helps with O2 unloading in muscles during exercise. An increase in 2,3-DPG concentration can be found in congenital heart diseases, chronic lung diseases, some acquired anaemias, at high altitudes and in alkalosis.",
"id": "10006041",
"label": "a",
"name": "Increased 2, 3 – DPG levels",
"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Increased temperature decreases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen which allows for the unloading of oxygen in metabolising tissues.",
"id": "10006043",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hypothermia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
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"question": "Which of the following factors would lead to a reduced affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen?",
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173,462,407 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,756 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The correct answer is 13.6. BMI is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of height in meters. The healthy BMI range is 18.5 to 24.9.",
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"label": "b",
"name": "18.5",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The correct answer is 13.6. BMI is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of height in meters. The healthy BMI range is 18.5 to 24.9.",
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"label": "e",
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"explanation": "The correct answer is 13.6. BMI is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of height in meters. The healthy BMI range is 18.5 to 24.9.",
"id": "10006048",
"label": "c",
"name": "15.2",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "BMI is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of height in meters. The healthy BMI range is 18.5 to 24.9 kg/m<sup>2</sup>.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "13.6",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The correct answer is 13.6. BMI is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of height in meters. The healthy BMI range is 18.5 to 24.9.",
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"label": "d",
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"picture": null,
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}
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"question": "A patient weighs 39kg and is 169cm tall, what is her body mass index (BMI)?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,462,408 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,757 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The RANKL system plays a critical role in breast cancer development, during initial tumorigenesis promoting the survival and proliferation of epithelial cells during the development of mammary glands and up-regulating the expression of RANK.",
"id": "10006051",
"label": "a",
"name": "Breast cancer and secondary tumours in the bone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 79
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The RANKL system is involved in the development of certain cancer, and also in bone modelling. Alcoholic liver disease is due to the fibrosis of hepatocytes.",
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"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The RANKL system is involved in the development of certain cancers, and also in bone modelling. Schistosomiasis is a disease caused by parasitic worms that can be acute or chronic.",
"id": "10006054",
"label": "d",
"name": "Schistosomiasis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The RANKL system is involved in the development of certain cancers, and also in bone modelling. Malaria is due to infected female anopheles mosquitos biting and allowing Plasmodium parasites to enter the bloodstream.",
"id": "10006055",
"label": "e",
"name": "Malaria",
"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The RANKL system is involved in the development of certain cancers, and also in bone modelling. Dermatophyte fungi are the predominant pathogens that cause onychomycosis.",
"id": "10006053",
"label": "c",
"name": "Onychomycosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 45
}
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"name": "Breast Cancer",
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"question": "The RANK/RANKL pathway plays a key role in bone remodelling and the immune system.\n\nAbnormality in this pathway can lead to which of the following conditions?",
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"a"
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173,462,409 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,758 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This would be a way of avoiding selection bias. Bias is introduced by the selection of individuals, groups, or data for analysis in such a way that proper randomisation is not achieved",
"id": "10006056",
"label": "a",
"name": "Randomly choose participants until thematic saturation is reached",
"picture": null,
"votes": 135
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the definition of a systematic review. You may complete a literature review prior to your interviews.",
"id": "10006059",
"label": "d",
"name": "Identify, synthesise and appraise all high quality research relevant to medication adherence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the definition of a prospective study",
"id": "10006058",
"label": "c",
"name": "Follow participants over months/ years to determine how a specific exposure or intervention affects specific outcomes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an example of selection bias. Bias is introduced by the selection of individuals, groups, or data for analysis in such a way that proper randomisation is not achieved.",
"id": "10006060",
"label": "e",
"name": "Choose participants who you have previously treated and who struggle with medication adherence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an example of selection bias. Bias is introduced by the selection of individuals, groups, or data for analysis in such a way that proper randomisation is not achieved",
"id": "10006057",
"label": "b",
"name": "Choose participants who you feel hold the most interesting views",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
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"question": "You are investigating patients' ideas about medication adherence and are conducting interviews.\n\nWhich of the following will you do to prevent selection bias?",
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"a"
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"totalVotes": 151,
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173,462,410 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,759 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin, a quinolone antibiotic",
"id": "10006063",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inhibits topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV (both Type II topoisomerases)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of cephalexin, a cephalosporin",
"id": "10006065",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inhibits bacterial cell wall peptidoglycan synthesis by inhibition of penicillin-sensitive enzymes (transpeptidases, carboxypeptidases)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of digoxin, a drug that can be used in the treatment of hart failure",
"id": "10006064",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inhibits the sodium/potassium-ATPase within the plasma membrane of cardiac myocyte",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Aminoglycosides bind to the aminoacyl site of 16S ribosomal RNA within the 30S ribosomal subunit, leading to misreading of the genetic code and inhibition of translocation",
"id": "10006061",
"label": "a",
"name": "Bind to the 16S ribosomal RNA so inhibit translocation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 68
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of penicillin",
"id": "10006062",
"label": "b",
"name": "Bind the beta-lactam ring to DD-transpeptidase, inhibiting its cross-linking activity and preventing new cell wall formation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
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"name": "Aminoglycosides",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "You're treating a 43 year old female patient and your consultant prescribes gentamicin. This is an aminoglycoside.\n\nWhich of the following best describes it's mechanism of action?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 138,
"typeId": 1,
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173,462,411 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,760 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes correlation",
"id": "10006070",
"label": "e",
"name": "A mutual relationship or connection between two or more things",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Reliability and validity are used to evaluate the quality of research. Reliability is about the consistency of a measure, and validity is about the accuracy of a measure.",
"id": "10006066",
"label": "a",
"name": "The design and execution of research leads to unbiased results and an accurate estimate of the effect that is being measured",
"picture": null,
"votes": 79
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes reliability. Reliability is about the consistency of a measure, and validity is about the accuracy of a measure.",
"id": "10006067",
"label": "b",
"name": "The extent to which the results can be reproduced when the research is repeated under the same conditions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 57
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes the null hypothesis",
"id": "10006068",
"label": "c",
"name": "When one variable is tested against another, there will be no difference between the variables, or no association between the variables",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes \"skewness\"",
"id": "10006069",
"label": "d",
"name": "A measure of the asymmetry of the distribution of a variable",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
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"question": "Which of the follow best describes the term 'validity' in research?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 143,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,462,412 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,761 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an example of a regimen you can use to manage latent tuberculosis. This patient has active tuberculosis so the regimen described above is indicated.",
"id": "10006075",
"label": "e",
"name": "Rifampicin - 3 months; Isoniazid - 3 months",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, pyrazinamine and ethambutol should be given for 2 months, not 6",
"id": "10006072",
"label": "b",
"name": "Rifampicin - 6 months; Isoniazid - 6 months; Pyrazinamine - 6 months; Ethambutol - 6 months",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct regimen for the treatment of active tuberculosis. Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) should also be given to patients to prevent peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid",
"id": "10006071",
"label": "a",
"name": "Rifampicin - 6 months; Isoniazid - 6 months; Pyrazinamine - 2 months; Ethambutol - 2 months",
"picture": null,
"votes": 72
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ethambutol is now recommend routinely in NICE guidelines - previously this was only added if drug-resistant tuberculosis was suspected",
"id": "10006074",
"label": "d",
"name": "Rifampicin - 6 months; Isoniazid - 6 months; Pyrazinamine - 2 months",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the specific treatment regimen for patients with meningeal tuberculosis",
"id": "10006073",
"label": "c",
"name": "Rifampicin - 12+ months; Isoniazid - 12+ months; Pyrazinamine - 12+ months; Ethambutol - 12+ months",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
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"name": "Treatment of tuberculosis",
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"question": "A patient comes in with a productive cough. There are no signs of meningism. A chest x-ray identifies consolidation of the upper zone with ipsilateral hilar enlargement, active tuberculosis is confirmed.\n\nWhich is the appropriate treatment regimen?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 126,
"typeId": 1,
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173,462,413 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,762 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Eosinophils are myeloid cells. Myeloid cells are blood cells that arise from a progenitor cell for granulocytes, monocytes, erythrocytes, and platelets.",
"id": "10006078",
"label": "c",
"name": "Eosinophils",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Natural Killer cells are lymphoid cells. Other lymphoid cells are B-cells and T-cells. Lymphocytes develop in the thymus and yellow bone marrow.",
"id": "10006076",
"label": "a",
"name": "Natural Killer cell",
"picture": null,
"votes": 103
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Dendritic cells are myeloid cells. Myeloid cells are blood cells that arise from a progenitor cell for granulocytes, monocytes, erythrocytes, and platelets.",
"id": "10006080",
"label": "e",
"name": "Dendritic cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Prostaglandin A1 is an inflammatory mediator. Prostaglandins are unsaturated carboxylic acids involved in vasodilation, vasoconstriction, bronchoconstriction and in both the promotion and resolution of inflammation.",
"id": "10006077",
"label": "b",
"name": "Prostaglandin A1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ganglion cells are found in the nervous system. In the retina they project their axons along the optic nerve and are responsible for the propagation of visual stimuli to the brain, they are not involved in inflammation",
"id": "10006079",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ganglion cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
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173,462,414 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,763 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) which plays an important role in the control of blood pressure",
"id": "10006083",
"label": "c",
"name": "Converts inactive Angiotensin I to active Angiotensin II and degrade active bradykinin (BK)",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is one of the mechanisms of action of angiotensin II. It also acts on the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex to stimulate the release of aldosterone.",
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"label": "d",
"name": "Interacts with Angiotensin receptors at various sites in the nephron to stimulate sodium reabsorption",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of lactate dehydrogenase, it catalyzes the conversion of lactate to pyruvate and back",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Removes electrons from NADH to makes NAD+, which is utilised in the glycolysis pathway to create ATP",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Lactoferrin is a globular glycoprotein found in breast milk, saliva, tears, and nasal secretions. It has antimicrobial activity (bacteriocide, fungicide) and is part of the innate defense at mucoses.",
"id": "10006081",
"label": "a",
"name": "Antimicrobial factor which binds to iron in bacteria so it can't use it to grow",
"picture": null,
"votes": 77
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of PGE2. PGE2 is a naturally occurring prostaglandin with oxytocic properties",
"id": "10006082",
"label": "b",
"name": "Suppresses T cell receptor signaling and proliferation and acts as a direct vasodilator by acting on smooth muscle to cause dilation of blood vessels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
}
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Folic acid should be taken as it helps form the neural tube and can prevent anencephaly and spina bifida.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "400 micrograms of folic acid every day – from planning pregnancy until 12 weeks pregnant",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Folic acid should be taken as it helps form the neural tube once the neural tube has formed, there is no need to take it",
"id": "10006087",
"label": "b",
"name": "400 micrograms of folic acid every day – from planning pregnancy until birth",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The standard dose of folic acid for otherwise healthy women during pregnancy should be 400 micrograms. 5mg is given to women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect (NTD). Women are higher risk if: either partner has a NTD, they had a previous NTD pregnancy, family history of NTD, taking antiepileptic drugs, have coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait or if the woman is obese (body mass index of 30 kg/m2 or more).",
"id": "10006089",
"label": "d",
"name": "5mg of folic acid every day – from planning pregnancy until 12 weeks pregnant",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The standard dose should be 400 micrograms 5mg is given to women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect (NTD). Women are higher risk if: either partner has a NTD, they had a previous NTD pregnancy, family history of NTD, taking antiepileptic drugs, have coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait or if the woman is obese (body mass index of 30 kg/m2 or more). Additionally women should take it till 12 weeks of pregnancy.",
"id": "10006090",
"label": "e",
"name": "5mg of folic acid every day – from planning pregnancy until 8 weeks pregnant",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Folic acid should be taken until 12 weeks",
"id": "10006088",
"label": "c",
"name": "400 micrograms of folic acid every day – from planning pregnancy until 8 weeks pregnant",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
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"name": "Supplements and vitamins in pregnancy",
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"question": "A previously fit and well 23 year old wants to become pregnant.\n\nWhat advice should you give her regarding supplementation?",
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173,462,416 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,765 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy follows an X-linked recessive pattern, not an X-linked dominant. Alport syndrome is often an X-linked dominant.",
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"label": "b",
"name": "X-linked dominant",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy follows an X-linked recessive pattern. The mutation is on the X chromosome and therefore the mutation will always expressed in males (as they only have one X chromosome) and in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation. Females with one copy of the mutated gene are carriers.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "X-linked recessive",
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy follows an X-linked recessive pattern, the codominant inheritance pattern is seen in blood type inheritance (ABO).",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Codominant inheritance pattern",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy follows an X-linked recessive pattern, not an autosomal dominant pattern. Marfan syndrome follows an autosomal dominant pattern.",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Autosomal Dominant",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Duchenne muscular dystrophy follows an X-linked recessive pattern, not an autosomal recessive. Cystic Fibrosis is an autosomal recessive diseases.",
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"label": "d",
"name": "Autosomal Recessive",
"picture": null,
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}
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173,462,417 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,766 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Chorionic villus sampling can be carried out between the 11th and 14th weeks of pregnancy to detect genetic or chromosomal conditions such as Down's Syndrome, Patau's syndrome and sickle cell disease. During CVS, a small sample of cells is removed from the chorionic villus (part of the placenta) either transabdominally or transcervically. Other complications include infection and a crampy abdominal pain.",
"id": "10006096",
"label": "a",
"name": "Less than 1 in 200 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 100 for multiple pregnancies",
"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The risk of miscarriage is less than 1 in 200 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 100 for multiple pregnancies",
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"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The risk of miscarriage following CVS is less than 1 in 200 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 100 for multiple pregnancies",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Less than 1 in 400 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 200 for multiple pregnancies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The risk of miscarriage following CVS is less than 1 in 200 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 100 for multiple pregnancies",
"id": "10006099",
"label": "d",
"name": "Less than 1 in 250 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 25 for multiple pregnancies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The risk of miscarriage following CVS is less than 1 in 200 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 100 for multiple pregnancies",
"id": "10006098",
"label": "c",
"name": "Less than 1 in 500 for most pregnancies, and around 1 in 75 for multiple pregnancies",
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}
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173,462,418 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,767 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This result shows osteopaenia but not osteoporosis. A T-score of -1.0 to -2.5 shows osteopaenia.",
"id": "10006105",
"label": "e",
"name": "BMD of the lumbar spine of 1.5 standard deviations below the T score",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This score would reach the criteria for osteoporosis, however the score must be calculated using a DEXA scan of either the hip or the lumbar spine",
"id": "10006102",
"label": "b",
"name": "BMD of the radius of 2.5 standard deviations below the T score",
"picture": null,
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Osteoporosis is a disorder of bone mass loss and increases the risk of fragility fractures. A DEXA scan is used to assess bone density. The T score is based on the bone mass of a young reference population and a T-score of -1 means the patient has a bone mass one standard deviation below that of the young reference population. The scan needs to be of either the hip or the lumbar spine. A T-score of -1.0 to -2.5 shows osteopaenia.",
"id": "10006101",
"label": "a",
"name": "BMD (bone mineral density) of the hip of 2.5 standard deviations below the T score",
"picture": null,
"votes": 78
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would not be classified as a diagnosis of osteoporosis or osteopaenia",
"id": "10006104",
"label": "d",
"name": "BMD of the lumbar spine of 0.5 standard deviations below the T score",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This result shows osteopaenia but not osteoporosis. A T-score of -1.0 to -2.5 shows osteopaenia.",
"id": "10006103",
"label": "c",
"name": "BMD of the hip of 1.5 standard deviations below the T score",
"picture": null,
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}
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173,462,419 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,768 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin D supplements are not a risk factor for osteoporosis. Patients who have osteoporosis may require supplemental vitamin D.",
"id": "10006109",
"label": "d",
"name": "Vitamin D supplements",
"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The risk of osteoporosis increases significantly in a patient who is taking prednisolone 7.5mg or more a day for 3 or more months as steroids reduce the absorption calcium and increase bone breakdown. These patients should receive bone protection medication to help proactively prevent osteoporosis.",
"id": "10006106",
"label": "a",
"name": "Long term steroid use",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Male sex is not a risk factor for osteoporosis, female sex is",
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"votes": 1
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hormone replacement therapy not a risk factor for osteoporosis and can actually reduce the incidence of fractures. However it is not recommended for prevention of osteoporosis unless the woman is suffering from vasomotor symptoms associated with the menopause.",
"id": "10006110",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hormone replacement therapy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "High BMI is not a risk factor for osteoporosis, low BMI is",
"id": "10006107",
"label": "b",
"name": "High BMI",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
}
],
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"question": "Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?",
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"a"
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173,462,420 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,769 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a class 5 mutation",
"id": "10006113",
"label": "c",
"name": "Splicing defect reducing quantity of correct mRNA leading to less CFTR at the cell surface",
"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is a class 3 mutation",
"id": "10006114",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is a class 6 mutation",
"id": "10006112",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is a class 2 mutation",
"id": "10006115",
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"name": "Defective post translational processing and transport reducing the quantity of functional CFTR delivered to the cell surface",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Cystic fibrosis is an inherited autosomal recessive condition caused by mutations of the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein. There are different mutations of the CFTR that fall into different classes.",
"id": "10006111",
"label": "a",
"name": "Defective synthesis of a full length cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) protein (e.g premature stop codon)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 64
}
],
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173,462,421 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,770 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used in the management of hypertension.",
"id": "10006120",
"label": "e",
"name": "Losartan",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor used in the management of hypertension and heart failure",
"id": "10006117",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"label": "a",
"name": "2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains",
"picture": null,
"votes": 133
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hemoglobin S (Hgb S) is an abnormal type of hemoglobin that causes sickle cell anaemia. A hemoglobin molecule is made up of four polypeptide chains, two alpha chains of 141 amino acid residues each and two beta chains of 146 amino acid residues each.",
"id": "10006159",
"label": "d",
"name": "4 Haemoglobin S chains",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A hemoglobin molecule is made up of four polypeptide chains, two alpha chains of 141 amino acid residues each and two beta chains of 146 amino acid residues each.",
"id": "10006160",
"label": "e",
"name": "2 beta chains and 2 gamma chains",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
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173,462,430 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,779 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This a lobe of the liver, the spleen is not split into lobes",
"id": "10006163",
"label": "c",
"name": "In the caudate lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The hilum of the spleen is found on the visceral surface of the spleen, not the diaphragmatic",
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"label": "b",
"name": "On the diaphragmatic surface",
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"votes": 28
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"explanation": "The spleen is an intraperitoneal lymphoid organ found on the left side of the abdomen. The hilum of the spleen is where the the splenic artery and vein pass through, and is the only part of the spleen not covered by peritoneum",
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"label": "a",
"name": "On the visceral surface",
"picture": null,
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"explanation": "This a lobe of the liver, the spleen is not split into lobes",
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"votes": 19
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"explanation": "This a lobe of the liver, the spleen is not split into lobes",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The role of the foramen ovale is to shunt blood from the right atrium to the left atrium of the heart",
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"label": "e",
"name": "To shunt blood from the right ventricle to the left ventricle of the heart",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the ductus venosus",
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"explanation": "During pregnancy, the fetal circulatory system works differently. This is because oxygenated blood is received from the mother via the placenta and thus the lungs need to be bypassed. The foramen ovale moves blood from the right atrium to the left, therefore bypassing the pulmonary circulation.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "To shunt blood from the right atrium to the left atrium of the heart",
"picture": null,
"votes": 122
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the umbilical cord",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Warfarin is a blood thinning medication that blocks the function of the vitamin K epoxide reductase complex in the liver, leading to less vitamin K that serves as a cofactor for gamma carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors",
"id": "10006171",
"label": "a",
"name": "Blocks the function of the vitamin K epoxide reductase complex in the liver",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers such as amlodipine",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Dihydropyridine calcium antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of aspirin",
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"votes": 3
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"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of heparin",
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"picture": null,
"votes": 18
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of direct oral anticoagulants e.g. rivaroxaban",
"id": "10006174",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inhibit prothrombinase complex-bound and clot-associated factor Xa, leading to reduced thrombin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
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173,462,433 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,782 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the main chest radiograph finding in pneumothorax. Whilst COPD may lead to a secondary pneumothorax, this is not a finding of the condition itself.",
"id": "10006177",
"label": "b",
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"picture": null,
"votes": 12
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a chest radiograph finding in pleural effusion",
"id": "10006179",
"label": "d",
"name": "Bluntting of the costo-phrenic angles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "COPD can lead to hyperexpansion of the lungs leading to the flattening of the hemidiaphragms. This is one of the most sensitive indicators of hyperinflation and is best seen on a lateral chest X-ray. You may also identify hyperinflation by the ‘counting ribs’; hyperinflation is suspected when >6 anterior ribs or >10 posterior ribs are visible above the diaphragm on the midclavicular line. [Radiopaedia]( https://radiopaedia.org/articles/lung-hyperinflation-1?lang=gb) has some great example chest radiographs that demonstrat these findings.",
"id": "10006176",
"label": "a",
"name": "Flattened hemidiaphragms",
"picture": null,
"votes": 77
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the chest radiograph finding in a tension pneumothorax. Whilst COPD may lead to a secondary pneumothorax, this is not a finding of the condition itself.",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Deviated trachea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the chest radiograph finding in aspergilloma",
"id": "10006180",
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"name": "Upper lobe cavitary lesion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
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173,462,434 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,783 | {
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"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "There are 2 types of thalassaemia, alpha and beta. If there are 3+ defective haemoglobin chains, patients will have hypochromic microcytic anaemia with splenomegaly",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Thalassaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 90
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin B12 deficiency is a cause of megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia",
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"label": "d",
"name": "Vitamin B12 deficiency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Haemolytic anaemia is a cause of normocytic anaemia (where the mean corpuscular volume is within the normal range)",
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"name": "Haemolytic anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Aplastic anaemia is a cause of normocytic anaemia (where the mean corpuscular volume is within the normal range)",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Aplastic anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Folate deficiency is a cause of megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Folate deficiency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
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173,462,435 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,784 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
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"id": "10006190",
"label": "e",
"name": "Skin thinning",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Spironolactone is an aldosterone receptor antagonist that can be used in the management of hypertension. Hyperkalaemia is another side effect of spironolactone",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Gynaecomastia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 79
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Galactorrhoea is not a side effect of spironolactone, but gynaecomastia is. Galactorrhoea is a side effect of anti-psychotics such as risperidone",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Galactorrhoea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Hyperkalaemia is a side effect of spironolactone, not hypokalaemia",
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"picture": null,
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Dry cough is a side effect of rampiril, an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor used in hypertension and heart failure",
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"label": "d",
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"picture": null,
"votes": 10
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173,462,436 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,785 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"id": "10006191",
"label": "a",
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"explanation": "Chromosome 15 is not involved in thalassaemia, this chromosome is involved in Prader-Willi syndrome",
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"votes": 17
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Chromosome 21 is not involved in thalassaemia, the presence of three 21 chromosomes leads to Down's syndrome, or trisomy 21",
"id": "10006193",
"label": "c",
"name": "Chromosome 21",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Beta-thalassemia, not alpha thalassaemia is caused by mutations in the beta globin gene on chromosome 11",
"id": "10006192",
"label": "b",
"name": "Chromosome 11",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The X chromosome is not involved in thalassaemia, the absence of an x chromosome e.g. 45XO leads to Turner's syndrome",
"id": "10006194",
"label": "d",
"name": "X Chromosome",
"picture": null,
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173,462,437 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,786 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification is used to classify the severity of heart failure. It ranges from I wherein the patient has no symptoms to IV which describes patients with severe symptoms who are unable to carry out any physicial activity without discomfort and symptoms are present at rest.",
"id": "10006196",
"label": "a",
"name": "Severe limitations in activity and the experience symptoms of heart failure at rest",
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is NYHA II",
"id": "10006198",
"label": "c",
"name": "Mild symptoms with a slight limitation of physical activity as ordinary activity results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea",
"picture": null,
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is NYHA III",
"id": "10006199",
"label": "d",
"name": "Moderate symptoms with marked limitation of physical activity with less than ordinary activity resulting in symptoms",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the definition for the American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification ASA V. This classification is used for anaesthetic patients in preparation for theatre",
"id": "10006200",
"label": "e",
"name": "A moribund patient who is not expected to survive without the operation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is NYHA I",
"id": "10006197",
"label": "b",
"name": "No symptoms and ordinary physical exercise does not cause undue fatigue, dyspnoea or palpitations",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
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"name": "Heart Failure",
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"question": "Which of the following describes a scoring of 4 on the New York Heart Association (NYHA)?",
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"a"
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173,462,438 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,787 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "HOCM is linked to subvalvular aortic stenosis, not mitral stenosis",
"id": "10006205",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hypertrophic Obstructve Cardiomyopathy (HOCM)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "William's syndrome is linked to supravalvular aortic stenosis, not mitral stenosis",
"id": "10006204",
"label": "d",
"name": "William's syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Marfan's Syndrome is a collagen disorder that increases the risk of mitral regurgitation, not mitral stenosis",
"id": "10006202",
"label": "b",
"name": "Marfan's Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Rheumatic fever develops due to an immunological reaction to a recent Streptococcus pyogenes infection. Other causes of mitral stenosis are carcinoid and endocardial fibroelastosis.",
"id": "10006201",
"label": "a",
"name": "Rheumatic fever",
"picture": null,
"votes": 81
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a collagen disorder that increases the risk of mitral regurgitation, not mitral stenosis",
"id": "10006203",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ehlers-Danlos syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
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"a"
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173,462,439 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,788 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the Tidal Volume",
"id": "10006208",
"label": "c",
"name": "The amount of air that can be inhaled or exhaled during one respiratory cycle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the Total Lung Capacity and the normal value for adults is about 4‐6 L",
"id": "10006210",
"label": "e",
"name": "The maximum volume of air the lungs can accommodate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Residual volume is the amount of air left in lungs after expiration. It is indirectly measured using the Function Residual Capacity and Expiratory Reserve Volume and cannot be measured by spirometry.",
"id": "10006206",
"label": "a",
"name": "The amount of air left in the lungs after maximal expiration",
"picture": null,
"votes": 134
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the Expiratory Reserve Volume. The normal adult value is 700-1200ml, this can be reduced in obesity.",
"id": "10006207",
"label": "b",
"name": "The volume of air that can be exhaled forcibly after exhalation of normal tidal volume",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the Inspiratory Reserve Volume and is used in deep breathing",
"id": "10006209",
"label": "d",
"name": "The amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal tidal volume",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
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"question": "What does residual volume in spirometry refer to?",
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"a"
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173,462,440 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,789 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The blood needs to bypass the foetal pulmonary circulation, as the lungs are filled with fluid, and thus gas exchange cannot take place here. Usually, the ductus arteriosus closes with the baby's first breaths.",
"id": "10006211",
"label": "a",
"name": "To shunt blood from the pulmonary trunk to aorta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 95
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the umbilical cord",
"id": "10006214",
"label": "d",
"name": "To connect the foetus cord to the placenta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The ductus venosus shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta, not the other way round",
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"label": "e",
"name": "To shunt blood from the aorta to the pulmonary trunk",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the foramen ovale",
"id": "10006212",
"label": "b",
"name": "To shunt blood from the right atrium to the left atrium of the heart",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the ductus venosus",
"id": "10006213",
"label": "c",
"name": "To shunt blood to bypass the liver to the inferior vena",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
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"a"
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173,462,441 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,790 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Red blood cells have a much shorter life span in sickle cell disease compared to normal blood cells. This is because the sickle hemoglobin is abnormally shaped and binds with other haemoglobin molecules causing the red blood cells to become stiff and sickle shaped. This makes them more fragile and means they can also be filtered out by the spleen",
"id": "10006216",
"label": "a",
"name": "10-20 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 53
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the normal life span of platelets",
"id": "10006219",
"label": "d",
"name": "9-12 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the normal life span of red blood cells in newborns",
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"label": "e",
"name": "70-80 days",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the life span of normal red blood cells",
"id": "10006217",
"label": "b",
"name": "120 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although the life span of red blood cells is reduced in sickle cell disease, it is normally higher than this, at 10-20 days",
"id": "10006218",
"label": "c",
"name": "0-5 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
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"a"
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173,462,442 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,791 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of salbutamol, used in the management of asthma and COPD",
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"label": "b",
"name": "Short-acting beta agonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of aspirin",
"id": "10006225",
"label": "e",
"name": "Irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase (COX) 1 and COX-2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of tiotropium, used in the management of asthma and COPD",
"id": "10006224",
"label": "d",
"name": "Long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist that can be used in the management of asthma, not 1st line but can be trailled 3rd line and continued dependent on patient response",
"id": "10006221",
"label": "a",
"name": "Antagonist at cysteine-leukotriene receptors on bronchiole smooth muscle cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 91
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of salmeterol, used in the management of asthma and COPD",
"id": "10006223",
"label": "c",
"name": "Long-acting beta agonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
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173,462,443 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,792 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Silica dust causes inflammation in the central airways, peripheral airways, and lung parenchyma. The long term inflammation leads to structural remodeling of the lungs. Around 20% of diagnosed cases of COPD are associated with occupational exposure.",
"id": "10006226",
"label": "a",
"name": "Silica exposure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 102
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Alcohol is not a risk factor for developing COPD, it is a risk factor for developing alcohol liver disease.",
"id": "10006227",
"label": "b",
"name": "Alcohol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cocaine is not a risk factor for developing COPD, it is a risk factor for aortic dissection, coronary artery spasm and rhabdomyolysis.",
"id": "10006228",
"label": "c",
"name": "Cocaine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ecstasy (MDMA, 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine)is not a risk factor for developing COPD, it can however cause hyponatraemia and rhabdomyolysis.",
"id": "10006229",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ecstasy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Benzodiazepines are not a risk factor for developing COPD, however patients commonly develop a tolerance and dependence to benzodiazepines and can experience withdrawl symptoms if they are stopped suddenly.",
"id": "10006230",
"label": "e",
"name": "Benzodiazepines",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
}
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"question": "Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?",
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"a"
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173,462,444 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,793 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "NT-pro BNP is a hormone produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. In heart failure, the left ventricle is under increased strain, and thus NT-pro BNP is produced in greater quantities. NT-pro BNP can also be raised in Chronic Kidney Disease.",
"id": "10006231",
"label": "a",
"name": "N-terminal pro B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-pro BNP)",
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "D-dimer is not typically used to diagnose heart failure, it is used for investigating pulmonary embolisms.",
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"label": "b",
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"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Troponin T is not typically used to diagnose heart failure, it is used for investigating myocardial infarction.",
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"label": "d",
"name": "Troponin T",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Troponin I is not typically used to diagnose heart failure, it is used for investigating myocardial infarction.",
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"label": "e",
"name": "troponin I",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "CK-MB is not typically used to diagnose heart failure, it is used for investigating re-infarction following myocardial infarction.",
"id": "10006233",
"label": "c",
"name": "CK-MB",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
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"question": "Which of the following is a blood marker used in the diagnosis of heart failure?",
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"a"
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173,462,445 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,794 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In type 1 respiratory failure carbon dioxide is normal, and the oxygen is low. The raised carbon dioxide is causing the acidosis, meaning it is a respiratory acidosis, not metabolic.",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Type 1 respiratory failure, metabolic acidosis with partial metabolic compensation",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The metabolic compensation is only partial as the bicarbonate is not sufficiently raised to correct the pH",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "In respiratory alkalosis, the pH would be above 7.45 and the carbon dioxide would be low.",
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"name": "Type 2 respiratory failure, respiratory alkalosis with partial metabolic compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In type 1 respiratory failure carbon dioxide is normal, and the oxygen is low.",
"id": "10006237",
"label": "b",
"name": "Type 1 respiratory failure, respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation",
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"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is type 2 respiratory failure, as the oxygen is low and the carbon dioxide is high. This is respiratory acidosis, as the pH is below 7.35 and the carbon dioxide is raised which has caused the low pH. There is partial metabolic compensation here, as the bicarbonate is raised, however it is not sufficiently raised to correct the pH, so it is only partial.",
"id": "10006236",
"label": "a",
"name": "Type 2 respiratory failure, respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 85
}
],
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"id": "4485",
"name": "Acid-Base Balance and the Arterial Blood Gas",
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"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "150",
"name": "Respiratory physiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following best describes the following arterial blood gas?\n\n| Parameter | Result | Reference range |\n| ------------- |:-------------:| -----:|\n| pH | 7.28 | 7.35 - 7.45 |\n| PaO<sub>2<sub/> | 7.8 | 11 - 15 |\n| PaCO<sub>2<sub/> | 6.7 | 4.6 - 6.4 |\n| HCO3<sup>-<sup/> | 35.4 | 22 - 30 |\n| Base excess | -5 | -2 - +2 |\n\npH 7.28\n\nPaO2 7.8\n\nPaCO2 6.7\n\nHCO3- 35.4\n\nBE -5",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,462,446 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,084 | null | false | [] | null | 13,795 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Propanolol is an beta blocker used in the management of hypertension, however it is not first line.",
"id": "10006244",
"label": "d",
"name": "Propanolol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist used in the management of hypertension, however it is not first line.",
"id": "10006243",
"label": "c",
"name": "Spironolactone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic used in the management of hypertension, however it is not first line.",
"id": "10006245",
"label": "e",
"name": "Indapamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Ramipril is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor which is first line in the treatment of hypertension in patients with diabetes.",
"id": "10006241",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ramipril",
"picture": null,
"votes": 84
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker and is used first line for patients over 55 years, however angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors such as ramipril are first line in diabetic patients.",
"id": "10006242",
"label": "b",
"name": "Amlodipine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 37
}
],
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"id": "3701",
"name": "Hypertension",
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"id": "134",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A 56 year old patient with a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to be started on an antihypertensive following home ambulatory blood pressure readings averaging 150/97 mmHg.\n\nWhich of the following anti-hypertensives should he be started on?",
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173,462,627 | false | 1 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,846 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "There is rapid Na+ inflow through open fast Na+ channels leading to a rise in membrane potential from -90mV to above 0mV. This causes the rapid depolarisation in phase 0 of a cardiac myocyte action potential.",
"id": "10006496",
"label": "a",
"name": "Inflow of Na+",
"picture": null,
"votes": 141
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The inflow of Ca2+ through L-type Ca2+ channels is electrically balanced by the outflow of K+ through delayed K+ channels. This causes the plateau in phase 2 of a cardiac myocyte action potential.",
"id": "10006498",
"label": "c",
"name": "Slow inflow of Ca2+",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Na+ and Ca2+ channels close and the open K+ channels keep the membrane potential at -90mV. This causes the resting potential in phase 4 of a cardiac myocyte action potential.",
"id": "10006500",
"label": "e",
"name": "Outflow of K+",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Ca2+ channels close, but the delayed K+ channels remain open and drop the membrane potential to -90mV. This causes the repolarisation in phase 3 of a cardiac myocyte action potential.",
"id": "10006499",
"label": "d",
"name": "Outflow of K+ and inflow of Ca2+ stops",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Transient K+ channels open and K+ outflow returns the membrane potential to 0mV as Na+ inflow stops. This causes partial depolarisation in phase 1 of a cardiac myocyte action potential.",
"id": "10006497",
"label": "b",
"name": "Outflow of K+ and inflow of Na+ stops",
"picture": null,
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}
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"name": "Cardiac Action Potential Generation and Conduction",
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"question": "What causes the rapid depolarisation in phase 0 of a cardiac myocyte action potential?",
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173,462,628 | false | 2 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,847 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These provide sympathetic stimulation through beta-2 adrenergic receptors, leading to bronchodilation.",
"id": "10006502",
"label": "b",
"name": "T2-T4 sympathetic trunk ganglia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic stimulation to the airways through muscarinic ACh receptors, leading to bronchoconstriction.",
"id": "10006501",
"label": "a",
"name": "Vagus nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 76
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This provides motor innervation to the cricothyroid muscle. The recurrent laryngeal nerve then provides motor innervation for all other intrinsic muscles of the larynx.",
"id": "10006504",
"label": "d",
"name": "External branch of superior laryngeal nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "These provide innervation to the pleura. The phrenic nerve innervates the mediastinal pleura and the majority of the diaphragmatic pleura, causing referred pain in C3-C5 dermatomes (shoulder tip pain). The intercostal nerves supply the costal pleura, causing pain to be felt in relation to the thoracic wall.",
"id": "10006503",
"label": "c",
"name": "Phrenic nerve (C3-C5) and intercostal nerves (T1-T11)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This provides sensory innervation to the larynx above the level of the vocal cords.",
"id": "10006505",
"label": "e",
"name": "Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
],
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"id": "4514",
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"question": "What nerve causes bronchoconstriction of the airways?",
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"a"
],
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173,462,629 | false | 3 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,848 | {
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"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of exopeptidases. Endopeptidases split the internal bonds of non-terminal amino acids.",
"id": "10006510",
"label": "e",
"name": "Endopeptidases cleave amino acids off the ends of polypeptides",
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Amino acids are absorbed through facilitated diffusion and co-transport. Amino acids are absorbed alongside Na+, while peptides can be co-transported with H+.",
"id": "10006508",
"label": "c",
"name": "Amino acids are absorbed alongside H+ across the intestinal brush border",
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In the duodenum, peptide digestion occurs at the brush border, intestinal lumen and intracellularly.",
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"label": "b",
"name": "Peptide digestion only occurs at the brush border of the duodenum",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Pepsinogen is secreted from chief cells in the stomach body. Secretion is activated by HCl release from parietal cells, which is stimulated by parasympathetic and enteric nerve activity.",
"id": "10006509",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pepsinogen secretion is inhibited by HCl release",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This statement is true.",
"id": "10006506",
"label": "a",
"name": "Pepsin action is terminated upon exit from the stomach",
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}
],
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"name": "Amino acid and small peptide absorption",
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"name": "Gastro-intestinal physiology",
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},
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"question": "Which of the following is true with regard to protein digestion and absorption?",
"sbaAnswer": [
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],
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"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,630 | false | 4 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,849 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Here, maturation and enlargement of chondrocytes prepare the matrix for calcification in the next zone.",
"id": "10006513",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hypertrophic zone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Here, osteoblasts and vessels penetrate the empty spaces produced from the calcification zone and create new bone, whilst osteoclasts break down the calcified cartilaginous matrix.",
"id": "10006515",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ossification zone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Here, there is no cellular proliferation. It instead acts as a site of matrix production and storage for lipids, glycogen, and proteoglycan.",
"id": "10006512",
"label": "b",
"name": "Reserve zone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Here, calcification of the matrix causes chondrocytes to die as it restricts nutrient diffusion, producing empty spaces.",
"id": "10006514",
"label": "d",
"name": "Calcification zone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Here, chondrocytes divide rapidly through mitosis and form columns within the matrix. This proliferation of chondrocytes pushes the diaphysis away from the epiphysis, leading to longitudinal growth.",
"id": "10006511",
"label": "a",
"name": "Proliferative zone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 89
}
],
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"name": "Cartilage and endochondral ossification",
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"name": "Physiology and pathology of bone",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "The epiphyseal growth plate is a thin cartilage between the primary and secondary ossification centres produced in endochondral ossification.\n\nWhich zone of the growth plate is primarily responsible for growth?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 135,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,631 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,850 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The cerebellum is a region at the back of the brain within the posterior cranial fossa. It is responsible for maintaining posture, balance, muscle tone and coordinating voluntary movements of muscles and the eye. It is attached to the midbrain by the superior peduncle which is responsible for mainly efferent output, the middle peduncle which informs voluntary motor output, and the inferior peduncle which conveys muscle proprioception and vestibular inputs.",
"id": "10006516",
"label": "a",
"name": "Cerebellum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 73
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is located on the pre-central gyrus of the frontal lobe and is the highest level in the brain for controlled movement. Each hemisphere controls the contralateral half of the body and is made up of a direct pathway that increases movement, and an indirect pathway that decreases or stops movement.",
"id": "10006517",
"label": "b",
"name": "Primary motor cortex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 46
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These areas are responsible for language. Broca’s area is found in the dominant frontal lobe and is responsible for the production of speech. Wernicke’s area is found in the temporal lobe and is responsible for understanding language.",
"id": "10006518",
"label": "c",
"name": "Broca's and Wernicke’s area",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The basal ganglia contains a group of nuclei deep within the cerebral hemisphere. These help to facilitate purposeful movements and inhibit unwanted movements, and carry out a variety of cognitive and emotional functions.",
"id": "10006519",
"label": "d",
"name": "Basal ganglia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The parietal lobe receives and interprets sensations. It contains the primary somatosensory cortex on the post-central gyrus.",
"id": "10006520",
"label": "e",
"name": "Parietal lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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"id": "3863",
"name": "Cerebellum",
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"topic": {
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"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "A 50-year-old man is assessed on the neurology ward and diagnosed with ataxia, which causes him to have poor control over his voluntary movements.\n\nWhich region of the brain is responsible for coordination of voluntary movements?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 132,
"typeId": 1,
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173,462,632 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,851 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "During this time is cavitation and differentiation of the embryo to form an early blastocyst",
"id": "10006524",
"label": "d",
"name": "Five days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Day six is when the hatching of the blastocyst occurs. This is where the late-stage blastocyst expands and hatches out of the zona pellucida, which is essential for implantation.",
"id": "10006525",
"label": "e",
"name": "Six days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is when compaction occurs, where the cells flatten and maximise intracellular contacts, forming tight junctions and polarisation of outer cells, which are needed for quick differentiation.",
"id": "10006523",
"label": "c",
"name": "Four days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The process of implantation in the uterus occurs eight to nine days after fertilisation, or on the 21st day of the menstrual cycle.",
"id": "10006521",
"label": "a",
"name": "Eight to nine days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is when the initial cleavage of the zygote takes place, resulting in increased cell numbers for sufficient cell differentiation.",
"id": "10006522",
"label": "b",
"name": "Two to three days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
}
],
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"id": "3963",
"name": "Mechanisms of Fertilisation",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "175",
"name": "Reproductive Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 175,
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"question": "Typically, how many days after fertilisation does implantation of the blastocyst occur?",
"sbaAnswer": [
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"typeId": 1,
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173,462,633 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,852 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cholesterol is a precursor for all corticosteroids (produced in the adrenal cortex). Synthesis takes place in the cytoplasm and in the endoplasmic reticulum of cells.",
"id": "10006530",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cholesterol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) is a type of androgen, which is produced from the zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex.",
"id": "10006528",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dehydroepiandrosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Cortisol is a type of glucocorticoid, which is produced from the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex.",
"id": "10006527",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cortisol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Aldosterone is a type of mineralocorticoid, which is produced from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex.",
"id": "10006526",
"label": "a",
"name": "Aldosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 113
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Adrenaline, along with noradrenaline, is a catecholamine, which are produced in the adrenal medulla.",
"id": "10006529",
"label": "d",
"name": "Adrenaline",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
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"id": "3812",
"name": "Adrenal cortical hormones",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "167",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following is secreted from the zona glomerulosa in the adrenal gland?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,462,634 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,853 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In the absence of Mullerian-inhibiting factor, the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts do not degenerate and instead develop into the uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes and uterus and upper two-thirds of the vagina.",
"id": "10006533",
"label": "c",
"name": "Fallopian tubes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "In the absence of testosterone, the Wolffian duct degenerates and the lower one-third of the vagina and female external genitalia on the surface develop from the urogenital sinus.",
"id": "10006531",
"label": "a",
"name": "Lower one-third of the vagina",
"picture": null,
"votes": 59
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In the absence of mullerian-inhibiting factor, the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts do not degenerate and instead develop into the uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes and uterus and upper two-thirds of the vagina.",
"id": "10006532",
"label": "b",
"name": "Upper two-thirds of the vagina",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In the absence of mullerian-inhibiting factor, the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts do not degenerate and instead develop into the uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes and uterus and upper two-thirds of the vagina.",
"id": "10006534",
"label": "d",
"name": "Uterus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In the absence of mullerian-inhibiting factor, the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts do not degenerate and instead develop into the uterus, cervix, fallopian tubes and uterus and upper two-thirds of the vagina.",
"id": "10006535",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cervix",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
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"question": "Which of the following does **NOT** develop from the paramesonephric ducts in the absence of testosterone?",
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"a"
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173,462,635 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,854 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the volume of the transcellular fluid compartment.",
"id": "10006540",
"label": "e",
"name": "0.5L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the volume of the extracellular fluid compartment. It is one-third of the total volume of fluid or 20% of the total body weight. It is comprised of intravascular fluid (3L) and extravascular fluid (11L).",
"id": "10006536",
"label": "a",
"name": "14L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 58
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the volume of the extravascular fluid compartment. It is comprised of interstitial fluid (10.5L) and transcellular fluid (0.5L).",
"id": "10006539",
"label": "d",
"name": "11L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the volume of the intracellular fluid compartment. It is two-thirds of the total volume of fluid, or 40% of the total body weight.",
"id": "10006538",
"label": "c",
"name": "28L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the total volume of the body's fluid compartments. It is 60% of the total body weight.",
"id": "10006537",
"label": "b",
"name": "42L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
}
],
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"name": "Total body water",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "In a 70kg male, how many litres of his total body water distribution is accounted for by the extracellular fluid?",
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"a"
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173,462,636 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,855 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of human error where actions or omissions do not meet the standards of an ordinary, skilled professional who has competence.",
"id": "10006543",
"label": "c",
"name": "Error of negligence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 65
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Errors occur due to inexperience, leading to the incorrect course of action. It is more likely to occur in complex tasks.",
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"label": "e",
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"picture": null,
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"name": "Skill-based error",
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of human error where the incorrect action is taken.",
"id": "10006542",
"label": "b",
"name": "Error by commission",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a type of human error where the required action is delayed or not taken. In the scenario, the doctor ends up doing the correct investigations, but it was delayed and not carried out in the recommended time.",
"id": "10006541",
"label": "a",
"name": "Error by omission",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
}
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"question": "A senior registrar in A&E is admitting a patient with a suspected stroke. However, as it is very busy in the department the patient is not seen promptly and the registrar does not end up performing a CT head until two hours after the patient’s admission, leading to a late diagnosis of a stroke.\n\nWhat type of error is this describing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,462,637 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,856 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This force pushes water from the interstitial fluid and into the capillary. It is an osmotic produced from the plasma protein concentration.",
"id": "10006549",
"label": "d",
"name": "Capillary oncotic pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is not a Starling force. Starling forces determine the rate at which water exchange occurs and the direction of net water movement between the capillary circulation and interstitial fluid.",
"id": "10006546",
"label": "a",
"name": "Intracellular hydrostatic pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 79
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This force pushes water out of the capillary and into the interstitial fluid.",
"id": "10006547",
"label": "b",
"name": "Capillary hydrostatic pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This force pushes water out of the capillary and into the interstitial fluid. It is an osmotic produced from the interstitial-fluid protein concentration.",
"id": "10006550",
"label": "e",
"name": "Interstitial oncotic pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This force pushes water from the interstitial fluid and into the capillary.",
"id": "10006548",
"label": "c",
"name": "Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
}
],
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"id": "4230",
"name": "Frank-Starling Curve",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following is not a Starling force?",
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"a"
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173,462,638 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,857 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is representative of the total lung capacity. Total lung capacity = residual volume + vital capacity.",
"id": "10006552",
"label": "b",
"name": "4.5L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is representative of the vital capacity, which is the maximum air expelled after maximum inspiration. Vital capacity = expiratory reserve volume + inspiratory reserve capacity + tidal volume.",
"id": "10006551",
"label": "a",
"name": "3.9L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 83
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is representative of residual volume, which is the air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration to prevent lung collapse. Residual volume = functional residual capacity - expiratory reserve volume.",
"id": "10006554",
"label": "d",
"name": "0.6L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is representative of inspiratory capacity, which is the maximum air inhaled after normal tidal expiration. Inspiratory capacity = inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume.",
"id": "10006553",
"label": "c",
"name": "2.5L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is just the tidal volume, which is the volume inhaled or exhaled in a normal breath, and is combined with the inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes to calculate the vital capacity",
"id": "10006555",
"label": "e",
"name": "0.4L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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"name": "Lung volumes",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A 30-year-old woman undergoes spirometry and gas dilution to measure her lung capacity due to concerns about her breathing. Her results are below:\n- Inspiratory reserve volume = 2.1L\n\n- Expiratory reserve volume = 1.4L\n\n- Tidal volume = 0.4L\n\n- Functional residual capacity = 2.0L\n\nWhat is her vital capacity?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 120,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,639 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,858 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Digestion of food in the stomach is followed by the release of acidic chyme into the duodenum which initiates the intestinal phase of pancreatic secretion. The majority of pancreatic enzyme secretion occurs during this phase and is regulated by hormonal and neural mechanisms.",
"id": "10006560",
"label": "e",
"name": "Presence of gastric acid in the duodenum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Sensory inputs such as sight, smell and taste of food, lead to the anticipation of food. These sensations initiate the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion, which involves parasympathetic vagus nerve stimulation of acinar cells to produce digestive enzymes.",
"id": "10006557",
"label": "b",
"name": "Smell of food",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This initiates the gastric phase of pancreatic secretion. It primarily involves parasympathetic vagus nerve stimulation of acinar cells to produce digestive enzymes, similar to the cephalic phase.",
"id": "10006556",
"label": "a",
"name": "Entry of food into the stomach",
"picture": null,
"votes": 74
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Tasting food prior to mastication can lead to the anticipation of food, which initiates the cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion.",
"id": "10006558",
"label": "c",
"name": "Interaction of long-chain fatty acids with oral cavity receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The presence of amino acids and fatty acids in the duodenum causes the release of cholecystokinin which relaxes the sphincter of Oddi and induces gallbladder contraction, causing enzyme secretion. This occurs by the end of the gastric phase.",
"id": "10006559",
"label": "d",
"name": "Presence of food in the duodenum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
}
],
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"id": "4520",
"name": "Stages of pancreatic secretion",
"status": null,
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"name": "Gastro-intestinal physiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following initiates the gastric phase of pancreatic secretion?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 117,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,640 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,859 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is true.",
"id": "10006562",
"label": "b",
"name": "Bone remodelling may occur in response to loading",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Modelling occurs primarily in children. The gross shape of the bone is altered as bone is added or taken away. Remodelling primarily occurs in adults where all of the old bone is removed and replaced by new bone.",
"id": "10006561",
"label": "a",
"name": "Occurs primarily in children during growth",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is true.",
"id": "10006563",
"label": "c",
"name": "Secondary osteons cut through layers of lamellae and drive remodelling",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is true.",
"id": "10006564",
"label": "d",
"name": "In remodelling, osteoclasts attach to the bone surface and secrete acid, which dissolves the bone mineral to form resorption cavities",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is true.",
"id": "10006565",
"label": "e",
"name": "In remodelling, osteoblasts are recruited to the resorbed bone and secrete osteoid matrix, which is mainly comprised of collagen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
}
],
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"id": "4521",
"name": "Bone remodelling",
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"name": "Musculoskeletal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 228,
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"question": "Which of the following is false with regards to bone remodelling?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 114,
"typeId": 1,
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173,462,641 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,860 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by a lesion to the inferior optic radiation (Meyer’s loop) in the temporal lobe. An inferior quadrantanopia is caused by a lesion to the superior optic radiation (Baum’s loop) in the parietal lobe.",
"id": "10006569",
"label": "d",
"name": "Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by a lesion to the left optic tract and leads to loss of vision in the temporal field of the left eye and the nasal field of the right eye.",
"id": "10006568",
"label": "c",
"name": "Left homonymous hemianopia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is caused by a lesion to the optic chiasm and leads to loss of vision in both temporal visual fields.",
"id": "10006566",
"label": "a",
"name": "Bitemporal hemianopia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 70
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by a lesion to the left optic nerve and leads to complete loss of vision in the left eye.",
"id": "10006567",
"label": "b",
"name": "Total left blindness",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by a lesion to the optic cortex in the occipital lobe and leads to loss of vision on the temporal field, with sparing in the centre.",
"id": "10006570",
"label": "e",
"name": "Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
],
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"id": "4508",
"name": "Anatomy of visual pathways",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A 32-year-old woman is being assessed for sudden onset loss of vision. She is confirmed to have damage to the optic chiasm.\n\nWhat visual field defect would she have presented with?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 96,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,642 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,861 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are found in the anterior pituitary, and produce FSH and LH.",
"id": "10006575",
"label": "e",
"name": "Gonadotropic cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Granulosa cells differentiate into theca cells. The two work together to synthesise oestrogen in the follicular phase of menstruation.",
"id": "10006573",
"label": "c",
"name": "Granulosa and theca cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The dominant follicle released becomes the corpus luteum, which produces oestrogen and progesterone in the luteal phase. It also produces oestrogen and progesterone for the first ten weeks of pregnancy, before the placenta takes over.",
"id": "10006571",
"label": "a",
"name": "Corpus luteum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 56
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "If the corpus luteum is not fertilised within ten days, it reaches its maximum development and then rapidly degenerates via apoptosis, triggering menstruation. When the corpus luteum collapses it becomes the corpus albicans, and marks the end of the luteal phase.",
"id": "10006574",
"label": "d",
"name": "Corpus albicans",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The antrum is a fluid-filled space formed from granulosa cell secretions.",
"id": "10006572",
"label": "b",
"name": "Antrum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3841",
"name": "Menstrual cycle",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "175",
"name": "Reproductive Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 175,
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"question": "Which of the following secretes oestrogen in the luteal phase of menstruation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 105,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,643 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,862 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Stimulates the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary. Somatostatin inhibits the release of GHRH.",
"id": "10006577",
"label": "b",
"name": "Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Dopamine inhibits the release of prolactin from the anterior pituitary.",
"id": "10006576",
"label": "a",
"name": "Dopamine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 65
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "TRH stimulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary.",
"id": "10006579",
"label": "d",
"name": "Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "CRH stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone from the anterior pituitary.",
"id": "10006580",
"label": "e",
"name": "Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "GRH stimulates the release of luteinising hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary.",
"id": "10006578",
"label": "c",
"name": "Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GRH)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
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"id": "3897",
"name": "Hormones of the anterior pituitary gland",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "167",
"name": "Endocrine physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "The release of anterior pituitary hormones is stimulated by hypophysiotropic hormones produced by the hypothalamus.\n\nWhich hypophysiotropic hormone has an inhibitory effect on an anterior pituitary hormone?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 106,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,644 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,863 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This arises from the visceral mesoderm of the primitive gut.",
"id": "10006582",
"label": "b",
"name": "Muscle of the gut wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This arises from the visceral mesoderm of the primitive gut.",
"id": "10006585",
"label": "e",
"name": "Connective tissue for glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This arises from the visceral mesoderm of the primitive gut.",
"id": "10006583",
"label": "c",
"name": "Peritoneal components of the gut wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The epithelial lining of the digestive tract, along with liver hepatocytes and endocrine and exocrine cells of the pancreas, is derived from the endoderm of the primitive gut.",
"id": "10006581",
"label": "a",
"name": "Epithelial lining of the digestive tract",
"picture": null,
"votes": 65
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This arises from the visceral mesoderm of the primitive gut.",
"id": "10006584",
"label": "d",
"name": "Connective tissue of the gut wall",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
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},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3942",
"name": "Development of the foregut",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "The primitive gut is derived from the endoderm and the visceral mesoderm.\n\nWhich of the following is derived from the endoderm?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 107,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,645 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,864 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is converted and reformed in the carnitine shuttle in order to cross the outer mitochondrial membrane to be used in beta-oxidation.",
"id": "10006589",
"label": "d",
"name": "Acyl coA",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are the products of ketone synthesis.",
"id": "10006590",
"label": "e",
"name": "1 beta-hydroxybutyrate, 1 acetoacetate, and 1 acetone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are the products of the Krebs cycle.",
"id": "10006587",
"label": "b",
"name": "3 NADH, 1 FADH2 and 1 GTP",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "These are the products of beta-oxidation of a fatty acid.",
"id": "10006586",
"label": "a",
"name": "1 NADH, 1 FADH2 and 1 acetyl coA",
"picture": null,
"votes": 64
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are the net products of glycolysis. Glycolysis produces 4 ATP in total but consumes 2 ATP in the process, so has a net total of 2 ATP. As it produces 2 glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate, it also produces 2 pyruvate and 2 NADH in the process.",
"id": "10006588",
"label": "c",
"name": "2 NADH, 2 ATP and 2 pyruvate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3879",
"name": "Beta oxidation of fatty acids",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "180",
"name": "Biochemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 180,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "Which of the following are produced in each round of beta-oxidation of a fatty acid?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 108,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,646 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,865 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the first stage of the transtheoretical model, where the patient is still doing the undesired behaviour and does not intend to take action in the foreseeable future. For example, in this scenario, the patient may still be smoking and may not wish to stop for the next six months.",
"id": "10006592",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pre-contemplation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the second stage of the transtheoretical model, where the patient intends to change their behaviour in the next six months, but is yet to put in any active changes. For example, in this scenario, the patient may be thinking about or talking about quitting smoking, but is not ready to participate in any STOP programmes immediately.",
"id": "10006593",
"label": "c",
"name": "Contemplation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the fourth stage of the transtheoretical model, where the patient has made specific, observable changes to their lifestyle within the past six months. For example, in this scenario, the patient may have been an ex-smoker for less than six months.",
"id": "10006594",
"label": "d",
"name": "Action",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the third stage of the transtheoretical model where the patient intends to take action in the immediate future, usually in the next month. In this scenario, the patient is preparing to stop in one week, but has not yet stopped smoking",
"id": "10006591",
"label": "a",
"name": "Preparation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 94
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the fifth stage of the transtheoretical model where the patient has made a sustained change to their behaviour for at least six months. They are still actively working to prevent relapse, but do not need to apply change processes as frequently as before. For example, in this scenario, the patient may have been an ex-smoker for more than six months. From here, they can either go on to lead a stable changed lifestyle, or relapse.",
"id": "10006595",
"label": "e",
"name": "Maintenance",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"pictures": [],
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4522",
"name": "Smoking Cessation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "162",
"name": "General practice",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 162,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "A 35-year-old woman has been attending her local GP for smoking cessation advice. She has decided that she is on her last pack of cigarettes and has set a stop date in one week's time.\n\nAccording to the transtheoretical model, what stage is the patient currently at?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 111,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,647 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,866 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This corresponds to the P wave.",
"id": "10006598",
"label": "c",
"name": "Atrial depolarisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This corresponds to the PR interval.",
"id": "10006600",
"label": "e",
"name": "Interval between atrial depolarisation and ventricular depolarisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This corresponds to the ST segment.",
"id": "10006599",
"label": "d",
"name": "Interval between depolarisation and repolarisation of the ventricles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This corresponds to the T wave.",
"id": "10006597",
"label": "b",
"name": "Ventricular repolarisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This corresponds to the QRS complex.",
"id": "10006596",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ventricular depolarisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 103
}
],
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"id": "3799",
"name": "ECG",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "159",
"name": "Cardiovascular physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 159,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A 52-year-old man has an ECG which shows QRS prolongation.\n\nWhat part of the cardiac cycle does the QRS complex correspond to?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 118,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,462,648 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,867 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is showing a restrictive spirometry pattern (FEV1<80%, FVC <80% and FEV1/FVC normal) and type 2 respiratory failure (hypoxaemia and hypercapnia). A COPD patient is more likely to have an obstructive respiratory pattern.",
"id": "10006604",
"label": "d",
"name": "FEV1 = 31%, FVC = 26%, FEV1/FVC = 115%, PaO2 = 6kPa, PaCO2 = 7kPa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is showing a normal spirometry pattern with no respiratory failure.",
"id": "10006605",
"label": "e",
"name": "FEV1 = 85% , FVC = 90%, FEV1/FVC = 94%, PaO2 = 12kPa, PaCO2 = 5kPa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is showing an obstructive spirometry pattern (FEV1<80%, FVC normal and FEV1/FVC<70%) and type 2 respiratory failure (hypoxaemia and hypercapnia), which is most typical for COPD.",
"id": "10006601",
"label": "a",
"name": "FEV1 = 58.5%, FVC = 91.1%, FEV1/FVC = 68.8%, PaO2 = 6kPa, PaCO2 = 7kPa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 72
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is showing a restrictive spirometry pattern (FEV1<80%, FVC <80% and FEV1/FVC normal) and type 1 respiratory failure (only hypoxaemia). A COPD patient is more likely to have an obstructive spirometry pattern and type 2 respiratory failure.",
"id": "10006603",
"label": "c",
"name": "FEV1 = 31%, FVC = 26%, FEV1/FVC = 115%, PaO2 = 6kPa, PaCO2 = 5kPa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is showing an obstructive spirometry pattern (FEV1<80%, FVC normal and FEV1/FVC<70%) and type 1 respiratory failure pattern (only hypoxaemia). A COPD patient is more likely to have type 2 respiratory failure.",
"id": "10006602",
"label": "b",
"name": "FEV1 = 58.5%, FVC = 91.1%, FEV1/FVC = 68.8%, PaO2 = 6kPa, PaCO2 = 5kPa",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "A 65-year-old man with poorly controlled COPD is brought into hospital. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is carried out showing type II respiratory failure.\n\nNormal values for PaO2 and PaCo2 are shown below:\n\n- PaO2 = 10-14kPa\n- PaCO2 = 4-6kPa\n\nWhat would his spirometry and ABG results most likely show?",
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173,462,649 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,868 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by a deficiency of vitamin A, which helps with vision, growth and stabilisation of cell membranes. Deficiency can also cause xerophthalmia.",
"id": "10006607",
"label": "b",
"name": "Night blindness",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, which plays a part in collagen synthesis and iron absorption. Deficiency can also cause scurvy, hair loss and easy bruising and bleeding.",
"id": "10006609",
"label": "d",
"name": "Teeth and gum disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is caused by a deficiency of vitamin E, which works as an important antioxidant. Deficiency can also cause myopathy, neuropathy and ataxia.",
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"name": "Haemolytic anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12, which helps form red blood cells and DNA. Deficiency can also cause macrocytic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy.",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Malabsorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by deficiency of vitamin D, which increases intestinal absorption of calcium and is used in the resorption and formation of bone. Deficiency can also cause rickets in adults due to the demineralisation of bone.",
"id": "10006610",
"label": "e",
"name": "Osteomalacia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
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"question": "A 19-year-old woman who has a rare congenital defect affecting her fat metabolism, is found to be deficient in Vitamin E.\n\nWhich of the following conditions is she most at risk of developing?",
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"a"
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"totalVotes": 105,
"typeId": 1,
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173,462,650 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,869 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The correct order is inflammation (0-7 days after injury), repair (2-3 weeks after injury) and remodelling (can continue from months-years after injury).",
"id": "10006612",
"label": "b",
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"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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},
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"label": "d",
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"label": "a",
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}
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173,462,651 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,870 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "These receptors respond to acetylcholine and nicotine and are present in the neuromuscular junction. In skeletal muscle, Ach promotes muscle contraction, but in the heart, it inhibits muscle contraction.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors",
"picture": null,
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"label": "e",
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}
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173,462,652 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,871 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "A primary spermatocyte will undergo meiosis I to produce two secondary spermatocytes. These will then undergo meiosis II to produce a total of four spermatids.",
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"label": "e",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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173,462,653 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,872 | {
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"label": "d",
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"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Raised GFR can be caused by a build-up of pressure in the glomerulus from constricted efferent or dilated afferent arterioles. High dietary proteins can lead to afferent arteriole dilation.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Increased dietary protein",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "Hypotension decreases renal blood flow, causing the kidneys to release angiotensin II (which vasoconstricts efferent arterioles) and prostaglandins (which dilates afferent arterioles ). This leads to reduced fluid pressure in the glomerulus, reducing GFR.",
"id": "10006630",
"label": "e",
"name": "Low blood pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Large losses of blood cause hypotension, which decreases renal blood flow, causing the kidneys to release angiotensin II (which vasoconstricts efferent arterioles) and prostaglandins (which dilates afferent arterioles). This leads to reduced fluid pressure in the glomerulus, reducing GFR.",
"id": "10006627",
"label": "b",
"name": "Blood loss",
"picture": null,
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}
],
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"name": "Glomerular filtration rate",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A 43-year-old man has been started on spironolactone and requires monthly renal function monitoring. His two most recent results show a significant raise in eGFR.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely cause of his results?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 104,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,654 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,873 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the umbilical arteries. After birth, the proximal umbilical arteries become the internal iliac and superior vesical arteries, while distal portions are obliterated and form the medial umbilical ligaments.",
"id": "10006635",
"label": "e",
"name": "Carries deoxygenated blood from the foetus to the placenta",
"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the ductus arteriosus. It shunts oxygenated blood to bypass the non-functioning foetal lungs. Its' remnant forms the ligamentum arteriosum shortly after birth.",
"id": "10006632",
"label": "b",
"name": "Shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the function of the foramen ovale. It shunts oxygenated blood to bypass the non-functioning foetal lungs, which are fluid-filled. Normally, the foramen ovale completely closes a few months after birth.",
"id": "10006631",
"label": "a",
"name": "Shunts blood from the right atrium to the left atrium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 102
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the umbilical vein. After birth, the umbilical vein obliterates and its' remnant forms the ligamentum teres.",
"id": "10006634",
"label": "d",
"name": "Carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the foetus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the function of the ductus venosus. It shunts oxygenated blood to bypass the semi-functional foetal liver. Its' remnant forms the ligamentum venosum shortly after birth.",
"id": "10006633",
"label": "c",
"name": "Shunts blood from the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
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"question": "A two-year-old girl is found to have a heart murmur caused by a patent foramen ovale.\n\nWhat is the function of the foramen ovale in utero?",
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"a"
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"typeId": 1,
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173,462,655 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,874 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"label": "e",
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},
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"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"picture": null,
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},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is produced from succinate via succinate dehydrogenase and produces FADH2 as a byproduct. It then produces malate via fumarate hydrase.",
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"picture": null,
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}
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173,462,656 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,875 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This is the fourth stage of mitosis, where sister chromatids separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cells via their centromeres as spindle fibres contract.",
"id": "10006641",
"label": "a",
"name": "Anaphase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 102
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the fifth stage of mitosis where the nuclear membrane reforms, the chromosomes unfold into chromatin and cytokinesis begins.",
"id": "10006645",
"label": "e",
"name": "Telophase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
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"id": "4205",
"name": "Mitosis and meiosis",
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"question": "During mitosis, at what stage do sister chromatids separate to opposite poles of the cell?",
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173,462,657 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,876 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This supplies the right atrium and the right ventricle.",
"id": "10006650",
"label": "e",
"name": "Right coronary artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "This supplies part of the right ventricle, the left ventricle and the interventricular septum.",
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"label": "d",
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"votes": 0
},
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"label": "b",
"name": "Left circumflex artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
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"explanation": "This only supplies the left ventricle, so would not explain the ischaemia of the interventricular septum.",
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"label": "c",
"name": "Left marginal artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
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"question": "An ECG shows an anteroseptal infarction suggestive of ischaemia to the left ventricle and the interventricular septum.\n\nWhich coronary artery has most likely been affected by the infarction?",
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173,462,658 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,877 | {
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "There would be an increase in HCO3-, and buffering capacity, causing a rise in pH, suggesting metabolic alkalosis. With respiratory compensation, lung chemoreceptors are inhibited, reducing respiration and increasing CO2, which decreases pH.",
"id": "10006655",
"label": "e",
"name": "Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "There would be a rise in H+ (acid) production and loss of buffering, leading to a decreased HCO3- and decreased pH, suggesting metabolic acidosis. With respiratory compensation, lung chemoreceptors are stimulated, increasing respiration and decreasing CO2, to help increase the pH.",
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"label": "d",
"name": "Respiratory acidosis with renal compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
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"explanation": "There would be a decrease in CO2, leading to a raised pH, suggesting respiratory alkalosis. With renal compensation, the kidneys retain H+ by decreasing H+ secretion, which also results in decreased HCO3- reabsorption which lowers the buffering capacity and base excess, decreasing the pH.",
"id": "10006653",
"label": "c",
"name": "Respiratory alkalosis with renal compensation",
"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "The patient has a raised pH, suggesting alkalosis. His pO2 and pCO2 levels are normal, whilst his HCO3- is raised, suggesting a metabolic cause. If he had respiratory compensation, he would have a raised pCO2, essentially meaning he would have to hypoventilate.",
"id": "10006651",
"label": "a",
"name": "Metabolic alkalosis with no respiratory compensation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 89
}
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"question": "A 72-year-old man is brought to A&E with persistent vomiting, new onset arrhythmia and normal breathing. An arterial blood gas (ABG) is taken and is shown below:\n\n- pH: 7.55 (7.35-7.45)\n- pO2: 10.5 (10-14)\n- pCO2: 5.0 (1.5-6.0)\n- HCO3-: 30 (22-26)\n- BE: +5 (-2 to +2)\nWhat is the most appropriate interpretation of this ABG?",
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173,462,659 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,878 | {
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"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Small amounts of hepatic bile are made from bilirubin and proteins.",
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"label": "e",
"name": "Protein",
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"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Small amounts of hepatic bile are made from cholesterol.",
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"label": "d",
"name": "Cholesterol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Carbohydrates are not a component of hepatic bile. Hepatic bile is a complex lipid-rich micellar solution that contains water, inorganic electrolytes and organic solutes.",
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"name": "Carbohydrate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 52
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"id": "10006658",
"label": "c",
"name": "Lithocholic",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Phospholipids make up one-quarter of hepatic bile.",
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"label": "b",
"name": "Phospholipid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
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"question": "Which of the following is not a component of hepatic bile?",
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173,462,660 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,879 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "PTH decreases phosphate reabsorption, which results in more ionised calcium in the blood, as there are fewer phosphate ions to form salts with calcium.",
"id": "10006662",
"label": "b",
"name": "Decreases phosphate reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "PTH stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone which releases the calcium and phosphorus.",
"id": "10006664",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increases calcium and phosphorus release from bone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "PTH increases calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, which also decreases urinary calcium excretion.",
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"label": "a",
"name": "Decreases calcium reabsorption in the kidneys",
"picture": null,
"votes": 75
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "PTH stimulates the formation of this active form of vitamin D. Vitamin D then exerts negative feedback on PTH secretion. The active form of vitamin D increases the amount of calcium absorbed in the small intestine and decreases loss from the kidneys.",
"id": "10006665",
"label": "e",
"name": "Increases 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D production in the kidney",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "PTH increases dietary calcium reabsorption from the duodenum and jejunum, and into the blood.",
"id": "10006663",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increases calcium reabsorption in the small intestine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
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"name": "Hormonal control of calcium",
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"a"
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,661 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,880 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The spinothalamic tract decussates in the spinal cord, leading to contralateral loss of pain, temperature and crude touch sensations below the lesion.",
"id": "10006666",
"label": "a",
"name": "Contralateral loss of pain sensation below the level of the lesion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The dorsal column decussates in the medulla, leading to ipsilateral loss of proprioception and fine touch below the lesion.",
"id": "10006669",
"label": "d",
"name": "Contralateral loss of fine touch below the level of the lesion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The spinothalamic tract decussates in the spinal cord, leading to contralateral loss of crude touch sensations below the lesion.",
"id": "10006670",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ipsilateral loss of crude touch below the level of the lesion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The dorsal column decussates in the medulla, leading to ipsilateral loss of proprioception and fine touch below the lesion.",
"id": "10006668",
"label": "c",
"name": "Contralateral loss of proprioception below the level of the lesion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The corticospinal tract decussates in the medulla, leading to ipsilateral motor weakness below the lesion.",
"id": "10006667",
"label": "b",
"name": "Contralateral motor weakness below the level of the lesion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
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"id": "4530",
"name": "Brown-Séquard Syndrome",
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"topic": {
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"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with Brown-Sequard syndrome following a traumatic car accident.\n\nWhich of the following examination findings are most likely to be seen?",
"sbaAnswer": [
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"totalVotes": 85,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,662 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,881 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Angiotensin II increases K+ excretion in the distal tubule to stimulate aldosterone production. A rise in aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption which raises plasma volume and maintains osmolarity, increasing blood pressure.",
"id": "10006673",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increased tubular K+ excretion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Angiotensin II acts on arterioles by causing vasoconstriction which increases blood pressure.",
"id": "10006672",
"label": "b",
"name": "Arterial vasoconstriction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Angiotensin II acts on the hypothalamus to increase vasopressin and activate thirst centres, which raises plasma volume and maintains osmolarity, increasing blood pressure.",
"id": "10006674",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increased vasopressin secretion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Angiotensin II stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, which can lead to increased vasopressin secretion, cardiovascular response and thirst sensation.",
"id": "10006675",
"label": "e",
"name": "Increased sympathetic activity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The renin-angiotensin system is stimulated by a decrease in blood pressure. Angiotensin II works to increase blood pressure by acting on multiple systems.",
"id": "10006671",
"label": "a",
"name": "Decreases blood pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 97
}
],
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"typeId": 7
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173,462,663 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,882 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "High cortisol levels inhibit gonadotropin releasing hormone, leading to decreased progesterone and oestrogen in females.",
"id": "10006678",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increase in progesterone, increase in oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "High cortisol levels inhibit gonadotropin releasing hormone, leading to decreased progesterone and oestrogen in females.",
"id": "10006680",
"label": "e",
"name": "It has no effect on progesterone or oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "High cortisol levels inhibit gonadotropin releasing hormone leading to decreased progesterone and oestrogen in females. It can lead to reduced ovulation and sexual activity in women, and a reduced sperm count in men.",
"id": "10006676",
"label": "a",
"name": "Decrease in progesterone, decrease in oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "High cortisol levels inhibit gonadotropin releasing hormone, leading to decreased progesterone and oestrogen in females.",
"id": "10006677",
"label": "b",
"name": "Increase in progesterone, decrease in oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "High cortisol levels inhibit gonadotropin-releasing hormone, leading to decreased progesterone and oestrogen in females.",
"id": "10006679",
"label": "d",
"name": "Decrease in progesterone, increase in oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
}
],
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"demo": null,
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"id": "4532",
"name": "Cortisol",
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"id": "167",
"name": "Endocrine physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 167,
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"question": "What effect, if any, does increasing cortisol have on female hormones?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
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"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,664 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,883 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "These are globular cells within the alveolar wall that synthesise, store and secrete surfactant. From 24-28 weeks surfactant begins to be produced by the foetal lungs, but it is not sufficiently produced until 32-34 weeks. Surfactant reduces surface tension and allows equal aeration of alveoli.",
"id": "10006681",
"label": "a",
"name": "Type II alveolar pneumocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 110
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are phagocytic cells derived from blood monocytes. They help remove particulates that have entered the alveolar air space. The alveolar phagocytes produced can be removed via the mucociliary escalator or lymphatics.",
"id": "10006683",
"label": "c",
"name": "Alveolar macrophages",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are found within the alveolar wall and produce reticulin and elastic tissue that allow for the elastic recoil of the lungs during exhalation.",
"id": "10006685",
"label": "e",
"name": "Fibroblasts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are squamous epithelial cells that have a flattened nucleus and few organelles to allow for rapid gas exchange.",
"id": "10006682",
"label": "b",
"name": "Type I alveolar pneumocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium that contains mucus-secreting goblet cells that line the conducting airways of the respiratory system. The alveoli, where surfactant is produced, have a single layer of squamous epithelium to allow for gas exchange.",
"id": "10006684",
"label": "d",
"name": "Respiratory epithelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
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"entitlement": null,
"id": "4533",
"name": "Development of the lungs",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
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"question": "A baby is born prematurely at 30 weeks. Her mother is worried about her lung development as surfactant has not yet been sufficiently produced to allow for effective breathing.\n\nWhat cells produce surfactant in the lung?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 117,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,462,665 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,884 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a mutation of the regulatory sequence.",
"id": "10006690",
"label": "e",
"name": "The genome coding sequence is still intact, but the gene is abnormally switched on or off",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a duplication mutation, which can lead to the incorrect protein being generated.",
"id": "10006688",
"label": "c",
"name": "Sections of the genome are repeated",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a mis-sense mutation, such as in sickle cell disease where CAG is replaced with CTG. Mis-sense mutations can have a varied effect, such as being a silent mutation or resulting in a non-functional protein.",
"id": "10006686",
"label": "a",
"name": "Point mutation where a single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 88
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an in-frame deletion mutation, which only leads to one amino being lost and keeping the reading frame intact. An out-of-frame deletion would cause the whole gene sequence to sift, causing the reading frame of the gene to change.",
"id": "10006689",
"label": "d",
"name": "One codon is removed, so only one amino acid is lost",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a non-sense mutation, such as in Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy. This results in an incomplete, usually non-functional protein.",
"id": "10006687",
"label": "b",
"name": "Point mutation that produces a stop codon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
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"id": "3890",
"name": "Mechanisms of genetic disorders",
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "156",
"name": "Medical Genetics",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following best describes a mis-sense mutation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,462,666 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,885 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of information bias where information is recorded in a distorted manner e.g an incorrectly calibrated instrument.",
"id": "10006695",
"label": "e",
"name": "Measurement bias",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a type of information bias where participants do not accurately remember previous events or leave out details. In this scenario, the participants' disease status is affecting their likelihood of reporting the exposure.",
"id": "10006691",
"label": "a",
"name": "Recall bias",
"picture": null,
"votes": 94
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of information bias where variables are reported differently between assessors.",
"id": "10006694",
"label": "d",
"name": "Observer bias",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is an error in the process of selecting or retaining participants for the study and assigning them to particular arms of the study.",
"id": "10006692",
"label": "b",
"name": "Selection bias",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is a systematic error in the collection of data and has many different sources.",
"id": "10006693",
"label": "c",
"name": "Information bias",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
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"name": "Selection Bias",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "In a study looking at people with and without cancer, participants with cancer were more likely to remember having smoked even one time. However, researchers believe that this data may be subject to bias.\n\nWhich bias is this process describing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"totalVotes": 109,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,462,667 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,886 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Sarcolemmas are the plasma membrane of cardiomyocytes or skeletal muscle fibres.",
"id": "10006696",
"label": "a",
"name": "Plasma membrane of the muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing the thin actin filament in a myocyte.",
"id": "10006697",
"label": "b",
"name": "Globular, double-stranded protein in a helical structure with a myosin-binding site",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing transverse-tubules in a myocyte.",
"id": "10006700",
"label": "e",
"name": "Extensions of the cell membrane that penetrate to the centre of the myocyte",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing titin, which prevents muscle fibres from overstretching.",
"id": "10006699",
"label": "d",
"name": "Responsible for the elasticity of muscle, allowing it to recoil to its normal form",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is a specialised form of endoplasmic reticulum necessary for muscle contraction and relaxation. Activation of the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases stored Ca2+ which binds to troponin and induces the actin-myosin complex.",
"id": "10006698",
"label": "c",
"name": "Holds ATPase on its membrane and is dedicated to Ca2+ handling",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
}
],
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"name": "Myocytes",
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"id": "159",
"name": "Cardiovascular physiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following best describes the sarcolemma of a cardiomyocyte?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 108,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,462,668 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,887 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing a juxtapulmonary receptor. They are found in the alveolar walls in close proximity to the pulmonary capillaries.",
"id": "10006705",
"label": "e",
"name": "Stimulate bronchoconstriction in response to irritants and lung volume",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing an arterial baroreceptor. They are found in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses.",
"id": "10006703",
"label": "c",
"name": "Regulate systemic circulation in response to the distortion of the arterial wall due to pressure changes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is describing a central chemoreceptor. They are located in the medulla, and they activate the sympathetic nervous system to trigger arterial vasoconstriction.",
"id": "10006701",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stimulates arterial vasoconstriction in response to changes in pCO2 and pH",
"picture": null,
"votes": 76
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing a cardiopulmonary baroreceptor. They are located in the atria, ventricles and pulmonary artery.",
"id": "10006704",
"label": "d",
"name": "Decrease vasoconstriction and blood pressure in response to pressure changes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing a peripheral chemoreceptor. They are located in the aortic arch and carotid sinuses. They activate the sympathetic nervous system to increase respiration.",
"id": "10006702",
"label": "b",
"name": "Stimulates increased respiration in response to decreases in pO2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
}
],
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"name": "Central and peripheral chemoreceptors",
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"name": "Respiratory physiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following best describes the role of a central chemoreceptor?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,462,669 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,888 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The submandibular glands are continuously active glands that produce mixed serous and mucous secretions.",
"id": "10006707",
"label": "b",
"name": "Submandibular glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Weber’s glands are minor salivary glands found at the superior pole of the tonsils. They are continuously active glands that produce purely mucous secretions.",
"id": "10006709",
"label": "d",
"name": "Weber’s glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The palatine glands are minor salivary glands found in the hard palate of the mouth. They are continuously active glands that produce purely mucous secretions.",
"id": "10006710",
"label": "e",
"name": "Palatine glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The parotid glands are intermittently active glands that produce purely serous secretions.",
"id": "10006706",
"label": "a",
"name": "Parotid glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 53
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The sublingual glands are continuously active glands that produce purely mucous secretions.",
"id": "10006708",
"label": "c",
"name": "Sublingual glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
}
],
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"id": "3805",
"name": "Saliva",
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"id": "149",
"name": "Gastro-intestinal physiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "The von Ebner gland is the only minor salivary gland that produces purely serous secretions.\n\nWhich of the following salivary glands also produces purely serous secretions?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
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"typeId": 1,
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173,462,670 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,889 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing troponin. It works with other structures in the sarcomere to produce muscle contraction. Troponin-C binds to calcium ions. Troponin-I inhibits actin and myosin action. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin.",
"id": "10006714",
"label": "d",
"name": "A globular protein that can form three types of thin filaments",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing tropomyosin, which regulates muscle contraction.",
"id": "10006715",
"label": "e",
"name": "A thin filament made of two helical peptide chains within the grooves between actin strands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is describing a type IIa muscle fibre.",
"id": "10006711",
"label": "a",
"name": "Fast-twitch oxidative fibres which can use aerobic and anaerobic energy sources",
"picture": null,
"votes": 58
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing a type I muscle fibre.",
"id": "10006712",
"label": "b",
"name": "Slow-twitch oxidative fibres which use aerobic energy sources",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is describing a type IIb muscle fibre.",
"id": "10006713",
"label": "c",
"name": "Fast-twitch glycolytic fibres which use anaerobic energy sources",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
}
],
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"id": "4536",
"name": "Types of Muscle Fibres",
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"id": "228",
"name": "Musculoskeletal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following best describes a type IIa muscle fibre?",
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"a"
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"typeId": 1,
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173,462,671 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,890 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a monosynaptic (myotatic) reflex, where afferent fibres synapse directly with the motor neurons without any interneurons. Stretch reflexes are the only monosynaptic reflexes.",
"id": "10006717",
"label": "b",
"name": "Biceps reflex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a polysynaptic reflex, where there is at least one interneuron between the afferent and efferent neurons. Another example is the inverse stretch reflex.",
"id": "10006716",
"label": "a",
"name": "Withdrawal reflex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 53
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a monosynaptic (myotatic) reflex, where afferent fibres synapse directly with the motor neurons without any interneurons. Stretch reflexes are the only monosynaptic reflexes.",
"id": "10006720",
"label": "e",
"name": "Achilles tendon reflex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a monosynaptic (myotatic) reflex, where afferent fibres synapse directly with the motor neurons without any interneurons. Stretch reflexes are the only monosynaptic reflexes.",
"id": "10006719",
"label": "d",
"name": "Patellar stretch reflex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a monosynaptic (myotatic) reflex, where afferent fibres synapse directly with the motor neurons without any interneurons. Stretch reflexes are the only monosynaptic reflexes.",
"id": "10006718",
"label": "c",
"name": "Triceps reflex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
],
"comments": [],
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4537",
"name": "Monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflex arcs",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following is not an example of a monosynaptic reflex?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"totalVotes": 104,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,672 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,891 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This statement is true.",
"id": "10006721",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stimulation to the pelvic nerve causes a release of ACh, which works on M3 muscarinic ACh receptors on the detrusor muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 56
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Neurons of the pontine micturition centre excite the sacral preganglionic neurons. This centre inhibits Onuf’s nucleus which leads to a reduction in sympathetic stimulation to the internal urethral sphincter causing relaxation.",
"id": "10006722",
"label": "b",
"name": "Neurons of Onuf’s nucleus excite the sacral preganglionic neurons",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Detrusor muscle contraction causes a conscious reduction in voluntary contraction of the external urethral sphincter from the cerebral cortex, allowing for distention of the urethra and the passing of urine.",
"id": "10006725",
"label": "e",
"name": "A sub-conscious reduction in voluntary contraction of the internal urethral sphincter from the cerebral cortex allows for distention of the urethra and the passing of urine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The sacral preganglionic neurones cause parasympathetic stimulation to the pelvic nerve (S2-S4). Passing urine is under parasympathetic control.",
"id": "10006723",
"label": "c",
"name": "The sacral preganglionic neurons cause sympathetic stimulation to the pelvic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The pelvic nerve causes detrusor muscle contraction which leads to micturition.",
"id": "10006724",
"label": "d",
"name": "Detrusor muscle relaxation leads to micturition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4538",
"name": "Micturition reflex",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"psaSectionId": null,
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"question": "Which of the following is true with regards to the process of micturition?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 101,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,673 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,892 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "TSH increases protein synthesis in thyroid follicular cells. It also increases DNA replication, cell division and the amount of rough endoplasmic reticulum.",
"id": "10006726",
"label": "a",
"name": "TSH decreases protein synthesis in thyroid follicular cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "T3 also acts on the liver, has metabolic actions and is required for growth and nervous system development.",
"id": "10006727",
"label": "b",
"name": "T3 stimulates carbohydrate absorption from the small intestine and increases fatty acid release from adipocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "TBG is produced in the liver, and reversibly binds to T3 and T4.",
"id": "10006729",
"label": "d",
"name": "In the bloodstream T3 and T4 bind to Thyroxine-Binding Globulin (TBG)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "TSH acts on the thyroid gland to secrete T3 and T4. T4 is converted to T3 and acts on its target cells. The rise in T3 causes a negative feedback loop on the anterior pituitary to inhibit TSH and TRH.",
"id": "10006728",
"label": "c",
"name": "Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) actions are inhibited through a negative feedback loop",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "T4 is the most abundant form, but T3 is the biologically active form.",
"id": "10006730",
"label": "e",
"name": "T4 is converted to T3 in peripheral tissues by 5’-deiodinase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3834",
"name": "Thyroid Axis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "167",
"name": "Endocrine physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 167,
"totalCards": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
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"question": "Which of the following is false with regards to thyroid hormones?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 104,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,674 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,893 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The metencephalon originates from the rhombencephalon primary brain vesicle (hindbrain). It gives rise to the pons and cerebellum.",
"id": "10006734",
"label": "d",
"name": "Metencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The mesencephalon originates from the mesencephalon primary brain vesicle. It gives rise to the cerebral hemispheres.",
"id": "10006731",
"label": "a",
"name": "Mesencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 45
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The telencephalon originates from the prosencephalon primary brain vesicle (forebrain). It gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus and lateral and third ventricle.",
"id": "10006732",
"label": "b",
"name": "Telencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The myelencephalon originates from the rhombencephalon primary brain vesicle (hindbrain). It gives rise to the medulla oblongata.",
"id": "10006735",
"label": "e",
"name": "Myelencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The diencephalon originates from the prosencephalon primary brain vesicle (forebrain). It gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct.",
"id": "10006733",
"label": "c",
"name": "Diencephalon",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"id": "3874",
"name": "Neurulation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "From which secondary brain vesicle does the midbrain arise?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 98,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,675 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,894 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In this scenario, the child inherited his condition from his father. Mitochondrial conditions are always inherited from the mother, as all mitochondria of the foetus are maternal.",
"id": "10006740",
"label": "e",
"name": "Mitochondrial",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "With autosomal dominant conditions, the disease can manifest in a heterozygous state. In this scenario, the child is heterozygous and inherited his condition solely from his father.",
"id": "10006736",
"label": "a",
"name": "Autosomal dominant",
"picture": null,
"votes": 70
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are caused by a mutation on the X-chromosome. 100% incidence of affected sons from an affected mother suggests X-linked recessive. In this scenario, the child’s brother is unaffected and it was inherited from his father, who would have been unable to pass on his affected X-chromosome.",
"id": "10006739",
"label": "d",
"name": "X-linked recessive",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are caused by a mutation on the X-chromosome. 100% incidence of affected daughters from an affected father suggests X-linked dominance. In this scenario, as it is the child’s father who is affected, if it was an X-linked condition he would not be able to pass the affected X-chromosome to his son, as he would receive the Y-chromosome.",
"id": "10006738",
"label": "c",
"name": "X-linked dominant",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "With autosomal recessive conditions, the disease manifests in only a homozygous state. In this scenario, the child is heterozygous and so cannot be autosomal recessive.",
"id": "10006737",
"label": "b",
"name": "Autosomal recessive",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3891",
"name": "Genetic Inheritance",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "156",
"name": "Medical Genetics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 156,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"question": "A three-month -old boy is found to be positive for a genetic disease. He is heterozygous for the condition, as well as his father who is also affected by the disease. His mother and older brother do not possess the mutated gene.\n\nWhat is the most likely mode of this genetic inheritance?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 115,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,676 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,091 | null | false | [] | null | 13,895 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect because it is untrue. In fact, cross-sectional, cohort and case-control studies are not suitable for studying rarer diseases or exposures. This is because even in large samples, there may still be no one with the disease.",
"id": "10006745",
"label": "e",
"name": "Not suitable for common diseases",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a disadvantage mainly associated with case-control studies. Here, groups are defined by the presence or absence of disease, so only one condition can be studied at a time. This is not an issue in cross-sectional studies as data from multiple diseases can be collected simultaneously.",
"id": "10006743",
"label": "c",
"name": "Only a single disease can be studied at a time",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a disadvantage mainly associated with cross-sectional studies. They are descriptive in nature and cannot show causal relationships.",
"id": "10006741",
"label": "a",
"name": "Limited potential to establish disease aetiology",
"picture": null,
"votes": 50
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an advantage of cross-sectional studies. Since data only needs to be collected at a single point in time, they are less time-consuming than other study design methods.",
"id": "10006742",
"label": "b",
"name": "Relatively fast and inexpensive",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a disadvantage mainly associated with cohort studies. They may require long periods of follow-up as it may take a long time after exposure for the disease to occur. This is not an issue in cross-sectional studies as data is only collected at a single point in time.",
"id": "10006744",
"label": "d",
"name": "Expensive and time-consuming",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4326",
"name": "Properties of cross-sectional studies",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "178",
"name": "Medical Statistics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 178,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"dislikes": 0,
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"question": "A researcher is interested in carrying out a cross-sectional study.\n\nWhich of the following is a disadvantage of this study design?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 112,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,462,777 | false | 1 | null | 6,495,098 | null | false | [] | null | 13,896 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This patient is not in relapse as there is no evidence that he has attempted to give up smoking in the past and subsequently failed.",
"id": "10006748",
"label": "c",
"name": "Relapse",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In this stage, people intend to start the healthy behaviour in the near future, and recognise that their current behaviour may be problematic. Once specific plans are being made about how the change will be implemented, the person will move to the preparation stage of behaviour change.",
"id": "10006749",
"label": "d",
"name": "Contemplation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 134
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The patient is ready and preparing to take action in the near future. People in the preparation stage will often take small steps towards the behaviour change, and believe that changing their behaviour will lead to a healthier life.",
"id": "10006746",
"label": "a",
"name": "Preparation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 308
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although the patient has expressed a desire to change his actions and is actively looking at ways to change his behaviour, he has not yet implemented any of these. A person in the action stage would have recently changed their behaviour and intend to continue with this behaviour change.",
"id": "10006750",
"label": "e",
"name": "Action",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In this stage, people have no intention of taking action to elicit change in the foreseeable future. People in this stage are often unaware of the consequences of their actions.",
"id": "10006747",
"label": "b",
"name": "Precontemplation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3801",
"name": "Smoking cessation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3801,
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"explanation": null,
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"id": "13896",
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"multiAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
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"question": "A 62-year-old man attends his general practitioner complaining of shortness of breath on exertion and a dry cough which has been present for the past two months. The patient is a long-term smoker. Following further tests, the patient is diagnosed with COPD. When asked if the patient has considered giving up smoking, he explains that he is currently researching alternatives to cigarettes, stating that he would like to start weaning off cigarettes in the next few weeks. He also asks the GP for any advice on how he can quit.\n\nWhat stage in the transtheoretical model of behaviour change is this patient in?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 469,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
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