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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This ABG shows a case of metabolic acidosis. There is a lowered PaCO2 as a result of respiratory compensation; in addition, the bicarbonate is reduced as the levels of H+ increase. This clinical picture is commonly observed in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis.",
"id": "10004004",
"label": "d",
"name": "pH: 7.25 (7.35-7.45); PaCO2: 2.3( 4.5-6.0) kPa; pO2: 13.2 (10-14) kPa; HCO3: 14 (22-26) mmol/L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This shows a picture of metabolic alkalosis with partial respiratory compensation. This could be caused by excessive vomiting that can result in a loss of H+ ions from the body.",
"id": "10004003",
"label": "c",
"name": "pH: 7.49 (7.35-7.45); PaCO2: 6.5 (4.5-6.0) kPa; pO2: 12 (10-14) kPa; HCO3: 30 (22-26) mmol/L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This ABG shows a picture of acute on chronic respiratory acidosis with type 2 respiratory failure. Given the patient's history of COPD, he is likely to be a chronic retainer of carbon dioxide and has lowered oxygen levels. This has resulted in chronic respiratory acidosis. In addition, the bicarbonate is raised due to partial metabolic compensation.",
"id": "10004001",
"label": "a",
"name": "pH: 7.26 (7.35-7.45); PaCO2: 8.9 (4.5-6.0) kPa; pO2: 8.1 (10-14) kPa; HCO3: 32 (22-26) mmol/L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 99
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This ABG shows an acute respiratory alkalosis which can be caused by hyperventilation. In patients with diagnosed COPD, you would expect carbon dioxide and bicarbonate to be elevated.",
"id": "10004002",
"label": "b",
"name": "pH: 7.49 (7.35-7.45); PaCO2: 2.3 (4.5-6.0) kPa; pO2: 11 (10-14) kPa; HCO3: 24 (22-26) mmol/L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a normal ABG and would not be found in a patient with an acute exacerbation of COPD.",
"id": "10004005",
"label": "e",
"name": "pH: 7.36 (7.35-7.45); PaCO2: 5.0 (4.5-6.0) kPa; pO2: 13.0 (10-14) kPa; HCO3: 24.5 (22-26) mmol/L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
"comments": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionComment",
"comment": "Just because someone has COPD does not mean that they will be a retainer of C02.",
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"name": "COPD",
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"name": "Respiratory physiology",
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"question": "A 70-year-old male comes into the hospital with breathlessness and complaining of a cough with purulent sputum. His only known past medical history is a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).\n\nWhich of the following would be the most likely ABG results in this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"totalVotes": 128,
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173,461,365 | false | 3 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,348 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Salbutamol is a short-acting beta-2 agonist which is usually the first-line treatment for patients with asthma. It relaxes muscles of the airway leading to dilation and the reduction of breathlessness.",
"id": "10004006",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stimulates bronchial smooth muscle Beta-2 receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 129
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of inhaled corticosteroids such as beclomethasone which modify immune responses. These are usually prescribed second-line in addition to salbutamol in patients who remain symptomatic.",
"id": "10004007",
"label": "b",
"name": "Binds to glucocorticoid receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These drugs are used for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) rather than asthma and include ipratropium (short-acting) and tiotropium (long-acting). They have a bronchodilatory effect.",
"id": "10004010",
"label": "e",
"name": "Muscarinic Antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Examples of this class of drugs include Montelukast. This is used in the management of chronic asthma and is prescribed after steroids and Beta-2 agonists have failed to control symptoms.",
"id": "10004009",
"label": "d",
"name": "Leukotriene receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of theophylline and aminophylline which are used in the treatment of severe asthma attacks and chronic persistent asthma. They have both an anti-inflammatory and bronchodilator effect.",
"id": "10004008",
"label": "c",
"name": "Phosphodiesterase inhibition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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"name": "Salbutamol",
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"name": "Respiratory Pharmacology",
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"question": "A 16-year-old girl presents to her GP complaining of a wheeze and shortness of breath during exercise. She is diagnosed with asthma and prescribed a salbutamol inhaler.\n\nWhat is the mechanism of action of salbutamol in asthma?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,461,366 | false | 4 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,349 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Provides motor supply to the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve results in winging of the scapula.",
"id": "10004013",
"label": "c",
"name": "Long Thoracic Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The phrenic nerve consists of C3,4 and 5 ventral rami and provides the sole motor supply to the diaphragm. Remember, C3, 4 and 5 keep the diaphragm alive!",
"id": "10004011",
"label": "a",
"name": "Phrenic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 131
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Supplies motor innervation to the anterior abdominal wall muscles, rectus abdominal muscles and all intercostal muscles.",
"id": "10004015",
"label": "e",
"name": "Subcostal nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The accessory nerve is the 11th cranial nerve and supplies motor function to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.",
"id": "10004014",
"label": "d",
"name": "Accessory Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve and provides parasympathetic supply to all organs of the thorax and abdomen.",
"id": "10004012",
"label": "b",
"name": "Vagus nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4226",
"name": "Development of body cavities and the diaphragm",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Damage to which of the following nerves can result in paralysis of the diaphragm?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"totalVotes": 140,
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173,461,367 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,350 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "These arteries all anastomose to form Littles Area which is the most common site for epistaxis.",
"id": "10004016",
"label": "a",
"name": "Sphenopalatine artery, Anterior ethmoidal artery, inferior ethmoidal artery, branches of the greater palatine artery, branch of the superior labial artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 60
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These arteries supply the frontal sinus and are not responsible for epistaxis.",
"id": "10004018",
"label": "c",
"name": "Supra-orbital artery and anterior ethmoidal artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These arteries form the vascular supply of the trachea and are not responsible for epistaxis.",
"id": "10004017",
"label": "b",
"name": "Inferior thyroid artery, bronchial arteries, tracheal branches of the aorta, mediastinal branches of internal thoracic artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These arteries are responsible for the blood supply of the larynx, not the nasal septum.",
"id": "10004019",
"label": "d",
"name": "Superior and inferior laryngeal arteries",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These arteries make up the vascular supply of the ethmoid sinuses.",
"id": "10004020",
"label": "e",
"name": "Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries, sphenopalatine arteries",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
}
],
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"name": "Epistaxis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "208",
"name": "Ear, Nose + Throat",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 208,
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"question": "A 16-year-old boy presents to A&E with persistent epistaxis.\n\nWhat arteries make up the anastomosis of the area likely affected?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
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"typeId": 1,
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173,461,368 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,351 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A moderate asthma attack includes a PEFR of 50-75% best, normal speech, and a pulse of <110. The patient does not meet any of these criteria.",
"id": "10004022",
"label": "b",
"name": "Moderate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In a near-fatal asthma attack, the patient's PaCO2 levels are above the normal range indicating complete exhaustion and CO2 retention. The patient in this question has not yet reached this level.",
"id": "10004024",
"label": "d",
"name": "Near-Fatal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "According to the NICE guidelines, asthma attacks are stratified into near-fatal, life-threatening, severe and moderate classifications. Therefore mild is not correct.",
"id": "10004025",
"label": "e",
"name": "Mild",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "While the heart rate and PEFR fall under the classification of a \"severe\" attack, the patient's pCO2 is in the normal range indicating that the patient is tired. Thus, it is classified as a life-threatening asthma attack.",
"id": "10004021",
"label": "a",
"name": "Life-threatening",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "While the patient has a pulse rate of >110 and a PEFR that is at 41% of her normal baseline which would classify as a severe asthma attack, the normal CO2 levels indicate that this is life-threatening.",
"id": "10004023",
"label": "c",
"name": "Severe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 60
}
],
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"name": "Asthma",
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"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "A 17-year-old girl is admitted to A&E for an acute asthma attack. She is too breathless to speak. Observations show that she has a heart rate of 115 (<100), a PEFR of 250ml (normal: 600ml) and a PaCO2 of 5.0 kPa (4.7-6.0 kPa).\n\nWhich of the following is the most appropriate classification of her asthma attack",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 116,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,369 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,352 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hilar lymphadenopathy is not a feature of pulmonary fibrosis but rather of sarcoidosis, another interstitial restrictive lung disease.",
"id": "10004029",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hilar lymphadenopathy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by a dry cough rather than a purulent one.",
"id": "10004028",
"label": "c",
"name": "Purulent cough",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis usually presents with fine bi-basal end-inspiratory crackles on auscultation.",
"id": "10004030",
"label": "e",
"name": "Course bi-basal crackles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This ratio describes a pattern of obstructive lung disease. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is a restrictive lung disease and therefore FEV1/FVC >0.7.",
"id": "10004027",
"label": "b",
"name": "FEV1/FVC <0.7",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Honeycomb lung is a common finding of pulmonary fibrosis on CT. It describes enlarged air spaces with fibrotic walls and is seen in end-stage fibrosis.",
"id": "10004026",
"label": "a",
"name": "Honeycomb Lung",
"picture": null,
"votes": 93
}
],
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"id": "3693",
"name": "Pulmonary Fibrosis",
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"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of the following is a feature of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 123,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
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173,461,370 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,353 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A common finding in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which involves increased air spaces in the lung. Percussion will show hyper-resonance.",
"id": "10004032",
"label": "b",
"name": "Emphysema",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A pneumothorax is defined as the presence of air within the pleural space. Percussion will result in hyper-resonance.",
"id": "10004034",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pneumothorax",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Pleural effusion is known to cause \"stony dullness\" upon percussion.",
"id": "10004031",
"label": "a",
"name": "Pleural Effusion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 86
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Typically the patient will have some degree of consolidation on the lung which will lead to dullness on percussion but not stony dullness.",
"id": "10004033",
"label": "c",
"name": "Pneumonia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Asthmatic patients will present with normal resonance upon percussion.",
"id": "10004035",
"label": "e",
"name": "Asthma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
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"question": "A 45-year-old patient presents to his GP complaining of difficulty breathing. A respiratory exam is performed and upon percussion, there is a stony dull resonance at the base of the left lung.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,461,371 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,354 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a long-acting Beta-2 agonist and is prescribed once salbutamol and steroids have been trialled.",
"id": "10004038",
"label": "c",
"name": "Salmeterol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is an inhaled steroid. If short-acting beta-2 agonists are not a sufficient monotherapy in asthma, NICE recommends the addition of a steroid.",
"id": "10004036",
"label": "a",
"name": "Beclomethasone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 89
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an anti-mucolytic agent used in the treatment of conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, bronchiectasis and cystic fibrosis.",
"id": "10004040",
"label": "e",
"name": "Carbocisteine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a short-acting muscarinic antagonist used first-line to treat patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.",
"id": "10004039",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ipratropium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a leukotriene receptor antagonist which is prescribed after short-acting and long-acting beta-2 agonists in adjunct with corticosteroids have failed to manage symptoms.",
"id": "10004037",
"label": "b",
"name": "Montelukast",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"entitlement": null,
"id": "4228",
"name": "Treatment options in Asthma",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "189",
"name": "Respiratory Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 189,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A 12-year-old girl presents to the GP complaining of breathlessness and wheezing during light exercise. She uses her salbutamol inhaler but finds it is not helping.\n\nWhich of the following medications should be considered as the next line of management?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 118,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,372 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,355 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a classical ECG finding in patients with hypokalemia and describes a small deflection immediately following the T wave.",
"id": "10004043",
"label": "c",
"name": "U waves",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Described as a slurring upstroke of the QRS complex. This is indicative of an additional pathway conducting electrical activity between the atria and ventricles.",
"id": "10004041",
"label": "a",
"name": "Delta waves",
"picture": null,
"votes": 98
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Describes alternating QRS complex amplitudes on an ECG. This is found in patients with cardiac tamponade.",
"id": "10004045",
"label": "e",
"name": "Electrical alternans",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is observed in patients who have hyperkalemia.",
"id": "10004042",
"label": "b",
"name": "Tall tented T waves",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an ECG finding commonly observed in patients with hypothermia.",
"id": "10004044",
"label": "d",
"name": "J waves",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
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"id": "3700",
"name": "Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A 67-year-old man presents to A&E complaining of palpitations. He mentions he has recently been diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.\n\nWhich of the following ECG findings is classically seen in this condition?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 117,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,373 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,356 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a calcium channel blocker. This is first line in Afro-Caribbean patients or those who are >55. ",
"id": "10004047",
"label": "b",
"name": "Amlodipine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor and is the first line according to NICE guidelines for patients who are < 55 or have type 2 diabetes mellitus.",
"id": "10004046",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ramipril",
"picture": null,
"votes": 69
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an aldosterone antagonist and is prescribed in patients with treatment-resistant hypertension. Patients must have a serum K+ < 4.5 mmol/L as this is a potassium-sparing diuretic.",
"id": "10004049",
"label": "d",
"name": "Spironolactone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a thiazide diuretic. This is used as an anti-hypertensive agent in patients where both angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi)/angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) and calcium channel blocker therapy fail to lower BP.",
"id": "10004048",
"label": "c",
"name": "Indapamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a beta-blocker which can be prescribed for physical sympathetic symptoms including those seen in anxiety. It is also indicated in treatment-resistant hypertension as an alternative to spironolactone if serum potassium is >4.5 mmol/L.",
"id": "10004050",
"label": "e",
"name": "Propranolol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3701",
"name": "Hypertension",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
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"question": "A 60-year-old Caucasian male with type one diabetes presents to his GP for a regular check-up. His recent average ambulatory blood pressure readings were 150/95mmHg. his only regular medication is insulin.\n\nWhich of the following is the next best step of management for this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"b"
],
"totalVotes": 121,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,374 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,357 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is where needle decompression is performed for the management of tension pneumothorax.",
"id": "10004055",
"label": "e",
"name": "2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the best location to listen to the tricuspid valve.",
"id": "10004051",
"label": "a",
"name": "4th intercostal space left sternal edge",
"picture": null,
"votes": 90
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the location of the apex of the heart. Additionally, this is where the mitral valve can be heard best.",
"id": "10004052",
"label": "b",
"name": "5th intercostal space left mid-clavicular line",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is where the pulmonary valve is auscultated.",
"id": "10004053",
"label": "c",
"name": "2nd intercostal space left sternal edge",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is where the aortic valve is auscultated.",
"id": "10004054",
"label": "d",
"name": "2nd intercostal space right sternal edge",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4229",
"name": "Tricuspid regurgitation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
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"question": "A 50-year-old female is on the cardiology ward after a recent diagnosis of tricuspid regurgitation secondary to infective endocarditis.\n\nWhere is the best place to auscultate this murmur?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 120,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,375 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,358 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an inherited blood condition whereby the patient is unable to produce normal haemoglobin. It is not linked to aortic dissection and patients are often diagnosed as children.",
"id": "10004058",
"label": "c",
"name": "Thalassemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an inherited disease that results in damage to peripheral nerves. It is not linked to an increased risk of aortic dissection.",
"id": "10004060",
"label": "e",
"name": "Charcot Marie Tooth Disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an inherited disorder that affects the lungs and digestive tract resulting in increased secretion of thick mucous. It does not increase the risk of aortic dissection.",
"id": "10004059",
"label": "d",
"name": "Cystic Fibrosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. These patients often lose the ability to walk and have a life expectancy of less than 50 years old. This patient is not showing any evidence of muscle weakness.",
"id": "10004057",
"label": "b",
"name": "Duchenne's muscular dystrophy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is an inherited connective tissue disorder. Patients often are extremely tall and slim and can have disproportionately long arms, legs and fingers. These patients often have aortic wall abnormalities and are at increased risk of aortic dissection (tear of the aortic wall), which is what the patient is presenting to A&E with.",
"id": "10004056",
"label": "a",
"name": "Marfan's syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 116
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
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"id": "3707",
"name": "Aortic Dissection",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A 30-year-old male presents to A&E complaining of severe, sudden-onset chest pain radiating to his back. He has no past medical history although he is very tall and has extremely long arms.\n\nWhich of the following underlying conditions has predisposed this patient to the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 124,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,376 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,359 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Approximately 25% of people have a PFO. It is an opening between the right and left atria and is not considered a congenital heart defect as there is no septal tissue missing and no significant shunting. Rarely it can cause a paradoxical embolic event.",
"id": "10004063",
"label": "c",
"name": "Patent foramen ovale",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is characterized by a hole in the ventricular septum. It can result in blood flow from the left to the right ventricle which can lead to heart failure and stunted growth. It is not linked to profound attacks of cyanosis.",
"id": "10004062",
"label": "b",
"name": "Ventricular septal defect",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is characterized by a constricted aortic segment. Patients can present with diminished femoral pulses and differential blood pressures between the upper and lower extremities. Treatment can be either primary surgical repair or balloon angioplasty.",
"id": "10004064",
"label": "d",
"name": "Coarctation of the aorta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This involves the narrowing of the pulmonary valve. Most children who have this defect only present with a murmur. In severe cases, infants may have signs of heart failure.",
"id": "10004065",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pulmonary valve stenosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common complex congenital heart condition. It consists of 4 defects: pulmonary valve stenosis, a large ventricle septal defect, an overriding aorta and right ventricular hypertrophy. Patients with unrepaired tetralogy of Fallot can experience sudden episodes of cyanosis and hypoxia (tet spell) which is what the infant is presenting with here. This is managed by putting the child into a knee-chest position to increase blood flow to the lungs.",
"id": "10004061",
"label": "a",
"name": "Tetralogy of Fallot",
"picture": null,
"votes": 64
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3943",
"name": "Tetralogy of Fallot",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "153",
"name": "Paediatrics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 153,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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},
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"question": "A 1-year-old infant is placed in a knee-to-chest position on the neonatal ward after suddenly turning blue.\n\nWhat condition is this infant likely suffering from?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 119,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,377 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,360 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a result of pulmonary congestion which occurs as a result of left-sided heart failure.",
"id": "10004069",
"label": "d",
"name": "Cough with frothy sputum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is described as breathlessness on lying in the recumbent position that is relieved on sitting up. Often patients are breathless at night time. This is a sign of left-sided heart failure.",
"id": "10004067",
"label": "b",
"name": "Orthopnoea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is often caused by decreased cardiac output and is a sign of left-sided heart failure.",
"id": "10004070",
"label": "e",
"name": "Activity intolerance",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "A characteristic sign of right heart failure is peripheral oedema. Less blood reaches the lungs and builds up in the systemic circulation resulting in oedema.",
"id": "10004066",
"label": "a",
"name": "Peripheral Oedema",
"picture": null,
"votes": 85
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This indicates decreased tissue perfusion as a result of reduced cardiac output. This is a sign of left-sided heart failure.",
"id": "10004068",
"label": "c",
"name": "Peripheral cyanosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3798",
"name": "Heart Failure",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
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},
"conceptId": 3798,
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"id": "13360",
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"question": "A 77-year-old female presents to her GP with symptoms which are consistent with heart failure.\n\nWhich of the following clinical presentations would suggest right-sided heart failure?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 115,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,378 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,361 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "In heart failure, the ventricular wall is stretched over a favourable point according to the frank-starling mechanism. The actin-myosin overlap becomes ineffective and you actually get a decrease in the force the heart can generate.",
"id": "10004071",
"label": "a",
"name": "An increase in ventricular end-diastolic volume results in reduced stroke volume",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as it is not in line with the Frank-starling law principles.",
"id": "10004074",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increased cardiac output with reduced ventricular end-diastolic pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the frank starling law under normal physiological conditions. In heart failure, this relationship fails.",
"id": "10004072",
"label": "b",
"name": "As ventricular end-diastolic pressure increases, cardiac output increases",
"picture": null,
"votes": 60
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as in heart failure both cardiac output and end-diastolic pressure are affected.",
"id": "10004075",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cardiac output and end-diastolic pressure do not change",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "In heart failure, while cardiac output is reduced, ventricular end-diastolic volume continues to increase as there is a backlog of blood failing to be pumped around the body. Therefore this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10004073",
"label": "c",
"name": "The ventricular end-diastolic volume reduces along with the cardiac output",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4230",
"name": "Frank-Starling Curve",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "159",
"name": "Cardiovascular physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 159,
"totalCards": null,
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173,461,379 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,362 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the percentage of blood that goes to the skin at rest.",
"id": "10004078",
"label": "c",
"name": "9%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "At rest, there is approximately 5000ml/min of blood circulating the body. 4% of this (215ml/min) goes towards the heart.",
"id": "10004076",
"label": "a",
"name": "4%",
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},
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"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the percentage of blood flow that goes to the brain at rest.",
"id": "10004077",
"label": "b",
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"picture": null,
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},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the percentage of blood that goes to the abdominal organs at rest.",
"id": "10004080",
"label": "e",
"name": "24%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the percentage of blood that goes to the kidneys at rest.",
"id": "10004079",
"label": "d",
"name": "20%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
}
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"question": "What percentage of blood circulating the body does the heart receive at rest?",
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173,461,380 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,363 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is when a thrombus crosses an intracardiac defect, in this case, the patent foramen ovale, and goes into the systemic circulation. Often this gets lodged in the brain causing a stroke.",
"id": "10004081",
"label": "a",
"name": "Paradoxical embolism",
"picture": null,
"votes": 77
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of skin infection and has no connection to having a patent foramen ovale.",
"id": "10004085",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cellulitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
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"explanation": "While a severe complication of patent foramen ovale includes a heart attack, this is extremely rare and far less likely to occur than a paradoxical embolus.",
"id": "10004083",
"label": "c",
"name": "Myocardial infarction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a sudden and profound episode of cyanosis which is found in infants who have tetralogy of Fallot.",
"id": "10004082",
"label": "b",
"name": "Tet spells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Pneumonia is not a known complication of patent foramen ovale.",
"id": "10004084",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pneumonia",
"picture": null,
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}
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"question": "Which of the following complications is a patient with asymptomatic patent foramen ovale at risk of developing?",
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173,461,381 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,364 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Similarly, this would result in a lower Reynolds number and therefore more laminar blood flow.",
"id": "10004088",
"label": "c",
"name": "Reduced diameter of vessels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 39
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Reynolds number (Re) is used to indicate whether blood flow is likely laminar or turbulent. As Reynolds number increases, turbulent blood flow becomes more likely. Re = ( ( Velocity of flow ) x ( radius of the vessel ) ) / ( Viscosity ). Therefore according to the equation, the reduction in viscosity will result in a larger Reynolds number.",
"id": "10004086",
"label": "a",
"name": "Reduced blood viscosity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "According to the equation for the Reynolds number, this would result in a lower value and more laminar flow.",
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"label": "b",
"name": "Low-velocity flow",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This would result in more laminar blood flow and a lower Reynolds number as abnormal vessel walls result in increased turbulence.",
"id": "10004090",
"label": "e",
"name": "Normal vessel walls",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "As observed in the Reynolds equation this does not directly contribute to blood flow.",
"id": "10004089",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increased serum sodium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
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"question": "Which of the following factors is responsible for an increase in Reynolds number?",
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"a"
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173,461,382 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,365 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is not a muscle of mastication and is responsible for drawing the tongue upwards and backwards.",
"id": "10004095",
"label": "e",
"name": "Styloglossus muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is another muscle of mastication. Its primary role is elevating the mandible and also laterally deviating it.",
"id": "10004092",
"label": "b",
"name": "Medial Pterygoid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is another muscle of mastication. The primary role of the masseter is to elevate and protract the mandible.",
"id": "10004093",
"label": "c",
"name": "Masseter",
"picture": null,
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{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the only muscle of mastication that opens the mouth. It achieves this by depressing the mandible in conjunction with the anterior belly of the digastric muscle and the mylohyoid muscle.",
"id": "10004091",
"label": "a",
"name": "Lateral Pterygoid Muscle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 43
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is another muscle of mastication. It is primarily responsible for closing the mouth and movements of the mandible at the temporomandibular joint.",
"id": "10004094",
"label": "d",
"name": "Temporalis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
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173,461,383 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,366 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This nerve provides motor supply to the deltoid and teres minor muscles of the shoulder and sensory innervation to the regimental badge region. It is not responsible for referred pain from the gallbladder.",
"id": "10004098",
"label": "c",
"name": "Axillary nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This nerve is a branch of the brachial plexus, it provides motor supply to the anterior compartment of the arm and sensory supply to the forearm. It is not involved in referred pain related to the gallbladder.",
"id": "10004097",
"label": "b",
"name": "Musculocutaneous Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This nerve is made up of T5-T9 nerve fibres and supplies sympathetic supply to the stomach and duodenum.",
"id": "10004099",
"label": "d",
"name": "Greater splanchnic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 45
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a classic presentation of biliary colic with referred pain to the shoulder. Pain from the gallbladder is usually referred to the epigastrium, but if the adjacent peritoneum is involved, pain may be referred to the right shoulder by the supraclavicular nerve (C3,4,5).",
"id": "10004096",
"label": "a",
"name": "Supraclavicular nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This nerve supplies the somatic motor function of the external urethral sphincter.",
"id": "10004100",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pudendal nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
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"id": "4235",
"name": "Acute Cholecystitis",
"status": null,
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"id": "149",
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"question": "A 47-year-old patient attends his GP complaining of colicky right upper quadrant radiating to his shoulder.\n\nWhich of the following nerves is responsible for this pattern of pain?",
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"a"
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"totalVotes": 106,
"typeId": 1,
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173,461,384 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,367 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the most common cancer diagnosed in children. However, it has no link with coeliac disease.",
"id": "10004103",
"label": "c",
"name": "Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma (EATL) is a rare type of non-Hodgkin's lymphoma and is a specific complication of coeliac disease.",
"id": "10004101",
"label": "a",
"name": "T-cell lymphoma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 52
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is caused by the translocation of genes between chromosomes 9 and 22, also known as the Philadelphia chromosome. There is no increased risk in patients with Coeliac disease.",
"id": "10004104",
"label": "d",
"name": "Chronic Myeloid Leukemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Stomach Cancer has not been linked with coeliac disease.",
"id": "10004102",
"label": "b",
"name": "Stomach cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Several studies have shown coeliac disease may be protective against breast cancer. There is no increased risk in patients with coeliac disease.",
"id": "10004105",
"label": "e",
"name": "Breast Cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
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"name": "Coeliac disease",
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "A 24-year-old female attends her GP after being diagnosed with coeliac disease. She has concerns after reading that it is linked to cancer.\n\nWhich of the following cancers is she at an increased risk of getting after this diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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"typeId": 1,
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173,461,385 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,368 | {
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"choices": [
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"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is defined as an infection of the appendix and is the most common in young people aged 10-20. However, this presents more acutely and not over 2 months. Additionally, symptoms commonly include abdominal pain, non-bloody diarrhoea, and anorexia. Therefore this diagnosis is unlikely.",
"id": "10004110",
"label": "e",
"name": "Acute appendicitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the other type of irritable bowel disease. Unlike ulcerative colitis, this can affect the whole GI tract from the mouth to the anus and is non-continuous with healthy sections of the gut. It is less common for stool to be full of blood and mucous and tenesmus is more commonly observed in ulcerative colitis. Hence, Crohn's is less likely in this patient.",
"id": "10004107",
"label": "b",
"name": "Crohn's Disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a type of inflammatory bowel disease which is characterized by continuous inflammation limited to the colon. Ulcerative colitis commonly presents with bloody mucoid stools and tenesmus, which is a feeling of incomplete emptying of the bowels after going to the toilet.",
"id": "10004106",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ulcerative Colitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 76
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Commonly presents with non-specific symptoms of GI disturbance including bloating, changes in bowel habits and/or abdominal pain lasting for at least 6 months. Bloody stools are not observed in irritable bowel syndrome.",
"id": "10004108",
"label": "c",
"name": "Irritable bowel syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "*Escherichia coli* commonly causes gastroenteritis and is characterized by watery stools, abdominal cramps and nausea.",
"id": "10004109",
"label": "d",
"name": "*Escherichia coli* infection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
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"name": "Ulcerative Colitis",
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"question": "An 18-year-old man attends his GP complaining of bloody mucoid diarrhoea along with the feeling of incomplete emptying after going to the toilet. These symptoms have been ongoing for 2 months.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
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"a"
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173,461,386 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,369 | {
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"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This class of laxatives acts on opioid receptors. An example includes methylnaltrexone bromide.",
"id": "10004115",
"label": "e",
"name": "Peripheral opioid receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of laxative that softens the stool by drawing water into the bowel, having an osmotic effect. An example of this type of laxative includes lactulose.",
"id": "10004112",
"label": "b",
"name": "Osmotic laxative",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This class of laxatives acts on the intestinal mucosa, altering water and electrolyte secretion. In addition, they stimulate peristalsis in the bowel. An example of a simulant laxative is senna.",
"id": "10004114",
"label": "d",
"name": "Stimulant laxative",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This type of laxative provides increased stool volume and promotes peristalsis via distension. An example of this includes ispaghula husk.",
"id": "10004113",
"label": "c",
"name": "Bulk-forming laxative",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Docusate is a laxative that is classified as a stool softener, it works by softening the stool making it easier to be expelled from the body.",
"id": "10004111",
"label": "a",
"name": "Faecal Softener",
"picture": null,
"votes": 39
}
],
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"question": "A 65-year-old male is on the acute medical ward after being diagnosed with a chest infection. He complains that he has been unable to move his bowels for 2 days. He is prescribed docusate to relieve his symptoms.\n\nWhich of the following describes the mechanism of action of this medication?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 96,
"typeId": 1,
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173,461,387 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,370 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This occurs when fluid gathers in the lowest part of the chest when a patient is upright during a chest x-ray forming a \"meniscus.\" It is a classic sign of a pleural effusio,n not a perforation.",
"id": "10004119",
"label": "d",
"name": "Meniscus sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a classical sign of colon cancer found on abdominal X-rays. Thus, this is not the correct answer.",
"id": "10004117",
"label": "b",
"name": "Apple Core Lesion",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient is presenting with signs of a perforated peptic ulcer. A chest X-ray would show free air under the diaphragm in patients with a perforation. This sign is known as a pneumoperitoneum.",
"id": "10004116",
"label": "a",
"name": "Pneumoperitoneum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 43
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a characteristic sign of heart failure found on a chest X-ray. It is described as horizontal lines on the periphery of the lung that extend to the pleural surface.",
"id": "10004118",
"label": "c",
"name": "Kerley B lines",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes the presence of exudate in the lungs and is oftentimes a sign of pneumonia.",
"id": "10004120",
"label": "e",
"name": "Consolidation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
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"id": "4052",
"name": "Peptic ulcer disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
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"question": "A 75-year-old male who has recently been diagnosed with a peptic ulcer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of acute onset severe epigastric pain. He is haemodynamically unstable.\n\nWhich of the following is expected on a chest X-ray to support the likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 99,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,388 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,371 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a viral infection of the liver that is spread through infected blood or body fluid. Features include jaundice, fever and raised liver transaminases (ALT and AST). Therefore, this diagnosis is unlikely.",
"id": "10004124",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hepatitis B",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is inflammation of the bile duct, often it is caused by gallstones. It usually presents with the classic Charcot's triad of abdominal pain, fever and jaundice which this patient does not have. You would also expect liver function test results to be more deranged.",
"id": "10004122",
"label": "b",
"name": "Acute cholangitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Gilbert's syndrome is a benign liver condition that is caused by the impaired breakdown of bilirubin. It often presents with jaundice during a bout of illness, such as in this case as the patient is recovering from a sinus infection. It does not require any treatment and should resolve on its own.",
"id": "10004121",
"label": "a",
"name": "Gilbert's syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 80
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a condition of an unknown aetiology that is associated with other auto-immune conditions. It most commonly is seen in young females and would show deranged LFT results. Therefore this diagnosis is not likely.",
"id": "10004125",
"label": "e",
"name": "Auto-immune hepatitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This commonly affects the head of the pancreas which can compress the bile duct. While this does often present with painless jaundice, it is unlikely in a patient of this boy's age. Additionally, you would expect the LFTs to show an obstructive picture.",
"id": "10004123",
"label": "c",
"name": "Pancreatic cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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"demo": null,
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"id": "4238",
"name": "Gilberts Syndrome",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
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"question": "A 14-year-old boy is brought into A&E by his mother who is concerned that he has turned yellow. She mentions that he has been recovering from a sinus infection. Aside from a raised bilirubin, all other LFTs are within normal range.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 105,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,389 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,372 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Carcinoma (HNPCC) is an autosomal dominant condition and is the most common inherited form of colon cancer. Patients with HNPCC are also at a high risk of getting other cancers. Endometrial cancer is the next most common form of cancer after colon cancer in people with this condition.",
"id": "10004126",
"label": "a",
"name": "Endometrial Cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Patients with HNPCC mutations are at risk of ovarian cancer, however, endometrial cancer is the most common extracolonic manifestation of HNPCC.",
"id": "10004128",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ovarian cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a form of skin cancer. It is not known to be linked to HNPCC.",
"id": "10004127",
"label": "b",
"name": "Melanoma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of brain tumour that patients with HNPCC are susceptible to. However, it is significantly rarer than endometrial cancer.",
"id": "10004130",
"label": "e",
"name": "Glioma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is an increased risk of renal cancer in patients with HNPCC mutations. However, it is not as common as endometrial cancer.",
"id": "10004129",
"label": "d",
"name": "Renal cell carcinoma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
}
],
"comments": [],
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"id": "4239",
"name": "Colorectal Cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "135",
"name": "General surgery",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 135,
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"question": "A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with abdominal pain. She is concerned she has colon cancer as she mentions that Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC) runs in the family.\n\nWhich of the following other types of cancer is she most at risk of?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 101,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,390 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,373 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Inspiratory capacity is the maximum amount of air that can be inspired after the conclusion of a normal expiration. It is the sum of the tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume (3.0 L + 480 ml).",
"id": "10004131",
"label": "a",
"name": "3.48 L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 65
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the patient's vital capacity, which is the sum of tidal volume, inspiratory respiratory volume and expiratory volume. This is defined as the volume of air that can be breathed in during maximum inspiration following a maximum expiration.",
"id": "10004132",
"label": "b",
"name": "4.33 L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the average total lung capacity of a human. It is calculated by the summation of vital capacity and residual lung volume and cannot be recorded by spirometry alone.",
"id": "10004134",
"label": "d",
"name": "6 L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the value of Expiratory Respiratory volume minus tidal volume. This is not a recorded volume in spirometry.",
"id": "10004135",
"label": "e",
"name": "370 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is Inspiratory Respiratory volume minus tidal volume. This is not used volume in spirometry",
"id": "10004133",
"label": "c",
"name": "2.52 L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
}
],
"comments": [],
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"demo": null,
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"id": "3726",
"name": "Spirometry",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
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"question": "A 27-year-old male presents to General Practice complaining of wheeze.\n\nSpirometry is performed with the following results:\n\n - Tidal Volume: 480 ml\n - Inspiratory Respiratory Volume: 3.0 L\n - Expiratory Respiratory Volume: 850 ml\n\nWhich of the following is the patient's inspiratory capacity?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 103,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,391 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,374 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is inflammation of the gallbladder and presents with a fever and positive Murphy's sign. A positive Murphy's sign is defined as a painful palpable gallbladder in the RUQ during inspiration. It is important to note that acute cholecystitis rarely presents with jaundice, therefore this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10004138",
"label": "c",
"name": "Acute cholecystitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Biliary colic describes colicky right upper quadrant pain due to gallstones passing through the biliary tree. The pain is worse on eating and may radiate to the shoulder region. There is no jaundice or abnormal liver function tests in biliary colic.",
"id": "10004140",
"label": "e",
"name": "Biliary colic",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Clarithromycin is a type of macrolide which are known to be hepatotoxic. This patient and her LFTs show a cholestatic picture (extremely raised ALP) which occurred after the initiation of the antibiotic treatment. Therefore, this is a drug-induced cholestasis picture.",
"id": "10004136",
"label": "a",
"name": "Drug-induced cholestasis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 73
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a benign inherited liver condition involving impaired processing of bilirubin. Patients may experience jaundice when due to elevated levels of bilirubin but additional LFTs should not be abnormal.",
"id": "10004137",
"label": "b",
"name": "Gilbert's Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This involves inflammation of the pancreas. It is a life-threatening emergency and patients commonly present with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back and vomiting. The patient is not in any pain and therefore this diagnosis is unlikely.",
"id": "10004139",
"label": "d",
"name": "Acute pancreatitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4049",
"name": "Jaundice",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A 37-year-old was recently admitted to the hospital and started on clarithromycin for pneumonia.\n\nShe was discharged, and 4 days later became itchy and noticed she was turning yellow. Her LFTs show:\n\n - ALP: 328\n - ALT: 67\n - GGT: 401\n - Bilirubin: 156.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely cause of this clinical presentation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 101,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,392 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,375 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a short-acting beta agonist used as first-line treatment for asthma, it is not contraindicated in renal artery stenosis.",
"id": "10004145",
"label": "e",
"name": "Salbutamol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an opioid used for pain relief, it is not contraindicated in renal artery stenosis. Opioids however should be used with caution in renal impairment as they can accumulate.",
"id": "10004143",
"label": "c",
"name": "Oral morphine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in renal artery stenosis as they can exacerbate renal hypoperfusion.",
"id": "10004141",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ramipril",
"picture": null,
"votes": 88
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Insulin is used to treat diabetes mellitus; it must be continued when patients are sick as long as they are eating and drinking and is not contraindicated in renal artery stenosis.",
"id": "10004144",
"label": "d",
"name": "Insulin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a calcium channel blocker used to control hypertension, it is not contraindicated in renal artery stenosis.",
"id": "10004142",
"label": "b",
"name": "Amlodipine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4240",
"name": "Renal Artery Disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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"question": "A 65-year-old man with reduced kidney function on the geriatric ward is diagnosed with renal artery stenosis.\n\nWhich of the following medications must be stopped urgently?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 107,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,393 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,376 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "While bladder cancer can present with haematuria, it does not commonly metastasize to the lung, unlike renal cell carcinoma.",
"id": "10004150",
"label": "e",
"name": "Bladder Cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "While patients with a UTI can present with haematuria, there is no association with cannonball-type lesions on a chest X-ray and is not linked with a cough.",
"id": "10004149",
"label": "d",
"name": "Urinary tract infection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Renal cell carcinoma often presents with a triad of flank pain, renal mass and haematuria. Cannonball lesions are a classic sign of renal cell carcinoma metastasizing to the lungs.",
"id": "10004146",
"label": "a",
"name": "Renal Cell Carcinoma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 79
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Pneumonia is characterized on a chest X-ray with areas of consolidation; it is not associated with cannonball-type lesions.",
"id": "10004148",
"label": "c",
"name": "Pneumonia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "COPD can show hyperinflation of the lung fields but does not show cannonball-type lesions on a chest x-ray.",
"id": "10004147",
"label": "b",
"name": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"chapterId": 2693,
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"id": "4012",
"name": "Renal Cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "143",
"name": "Urology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 143,
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"question": "A 50-year-old male presents to A&E complaining of a cough and blood in his urine.\n\nA Chest X-ray is performed and shows \"cannonball\" type lesions.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 103,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,394 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,377 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are ducts of the para-urethral glands that open on each side of the lateral margins of the female urethra. Therefore, this is incorrect.",
"id": "10004152",
"label": "b",
"name": "Skene's glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "These are folds of mucosa that can be seen when the urinary bladder is empty. They permit distension of the bladder. They are not involved in the metastatic spread of prostate cancer.",
"id": "10004154",
"label": "d",
"name": "Trigone of the Bladder",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This structure holds the neck of the bladder in place, allowing it to rest on the pelvic floor. It is not involved in metastatic spread.",
"id": "10004153",
"label": "c",
"name": "Puboprostatic ligament",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "These are valveless venous communications in the prostate that connect with the internal vertebral venous plexus and can facilitate tumour spread.",
"id": "10004151",
"label": "a",
"name": "Batson Venous Plexus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a network of nerves which supplies the organs of the pelvic cavity including the bladder and urethra. It is not involved in the spread of prostate cancer.",
"id": "10004155",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inferior hypogastric plexus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
}
],
"comments": [],
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"demo": null,
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"id": "3755",
"name": "Prostate cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "143",
"name": "Urology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 143,
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"question": "A 60-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with metastatic prostate cancer after complaining of haematuria and nocturia.\n\nWhich of the following structures can facilitate tumour spread from the prostate?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 94,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,395 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,378 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Dehydration results in hypernatremia and an abnormally elevated serum osmolality. Thus, this is incorrect.",
"id": "10004159",
"label": "d",
"name": "Dehydration",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Similarly to vomiting, diarrhoea can cause hypovolemic hyponatremia. However, the urine sodium is typically <20.",
"id": "10004160",
"label": "e",
"name": "Diarrhoea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient is hyponatraemic with a low plasma osmolality and a raised urine sodium. SIADH involves the excess release of ADH resulting in increased water reabsorption in the kidneys resulting in a euvolemic (dilutional) hyponatremia as observed in this patient. SIADH is most commonly caused by malignancy, pulmonary conditions or medications.",
"id": "10004156",
"label": "a",
"name": "SIADH",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a rare laboratory abnormality where there is a low measured sodium concentration in the presence of an actual normal serum sodium levels. It will show as hyponatremia with normal plasma osmolality.",
"id": "10004158",
"label": "c",
"name": "Pseudo-hyponatremia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vomiting can cause hyponatremia, however, this would result in urinary sodium levels of <20.",
"id": "10004157",
"label": "b",
"name": "Vomiting",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
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"demo": null,
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"id": "4241",
"name": "SIADH",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "170",
"name": "Clinical Chemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 170,
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"question": "A 35-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of being thirsty all the time.\nBlood tests are performed and a urine sample is obtained.\n\n\nHer results are as follows:\n\n\nPlasma\n\n||||\n|---------------------------|:-------:|--------------------|\n|Sodium|118 mmol/L|135 - 145|\n|Urea|2.7 mmol/L|2.5 - 7.8|\n|Serum Osmolality|250 mOsmol/kg|285 - 295|\n\nUrine\n\n||||\n|---------------------------|:-------:|------------------------------|\n|Sodium|41 mmol/L|75 - 300|\n|Urine Osmolality|810 mOsmol/kg|50 - 1200|\n\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 99,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,396 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,379 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The loop of Henle consists of a thin descending segment and a thick ascending limb 20% of filtered water and 25% of filtered sodium are reabsorbed here in addition to potassium and chloride.",
"id": "10004164",
"label": "d",
"name": "Loop of Henle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the specialized collection of capillaries that are responsible for the filtration of blood in the nephron. No absorption occurs here.",
"id": "10004165",
"label": "e",
"name": "Glomerulus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Approximately 5% of filtered sodium is absorbed here and the distal tubule is impermeable to water.",
"id": "10004163",
"label": "c",
"name": "Distal convoluted tubule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Less than 10% of filtered water and sodium ions are reabsorbed here. This is the final site for processing urine and therefore this part of the renal tubule determines urine output and composition.",
"id": "10004162",
"label": "b",
"name": "Medullary collecting ducts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "65% of filtered sodium and water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubule. This is predominately sodium pump driven.",
"id": "10004161",
"label": "a",
"name": "Proximal convoluted tubule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 67
}
],
"comments": [],
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"id": "2693",
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4242",
"name": "Salt Transport in the loop of Henle",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "Where is the majority of sodium and water absorbed in the kidney?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 110,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,397 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,380 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is one of the two BRCA genes that is linked to familial forms of breast cancer and ovarian cancer.",
"id": "10004170",
"label": "e",
"name": "BRCA1 gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a gene which is formed by the exchange of genetic information between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22. This forms a Philadelphia chromosome which is often found in chronic myeloid leukaemia.",
"id": "10004169",
"label": "d",
"name": "BCR-ABL gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient is presenting with a likely renal mass, specifically Wilm's tumour. This is a type of kidney cancer that typically presents in children below the age of 3. Specifically mutations in the WT1 gene, which is a tumour suppressor gene, cause Wilm's tumour.",
"id": "10004166",
"label": "a",
"name": "WT1 gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a tumour suppressor gene which is linked to the formation of retinoblastoma, a type of cancer in the eye found in young children.",
"id": "10004167",
"label": "b",
"name": "RB1 gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a DNA mismatch repair gene. It is one of the genes which is linked to hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC). This is the most common genetic form of colorectal carcinoma.",
"id": "10004168",
"label": "c",
"name": "MSH2 gene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
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"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4012",
"name": "Renal Cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "143",
"name": "Urology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 143,
"totalCards": null,
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"conceptId": 4012,
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"question": "A 2-year-old girl is brought into the GP surgery by her parents. They have noticed blood in her urine and describe left flank pain. Upon palpation of the left flank, a large mass is felt.\n\nWhich of the following genes is most likely responsible for this presentation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 93,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,398 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,381 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Potassium is commonly elevated in patients with CKD as there is reduced excretion from the kidney. Additionally, symptoms do not coincide with hypokalaemia.",
"id": "10004174",
"label": "d",
"name": "Potassium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Folate deficiency can result in macrocytic anaemia and is often caused by dietary insufficiency. However, due to the presence of chronic kidney disease, a deficiency in EPO is more likely.",
"id": "10004175",
"label": "e",
"name": "Folate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a hormone that is naturally produced in the kidneys. It is responsible for stimulating red blood cell synthesis. A deficiency of this hormone is commonly observed in patients with kidney disease. This results in a normocytic anaemia which is what this patient is presenting with.",
"id": "10004171",
"label": "a",
"name": "Erythropoietin (EPO)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 78
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin B12 is essential for neurological function and red blood cell synthesis. Deficiency can cause macrocytic anaemia, however, in this case, an EPO deficiency is more likely due to chronic kidney disease.",
"id": "10004172",
"label": "b",
"name": "Vitamin B12",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vitamin C deficiency is responsible for scurvy which may present with symptoms similar to anaemia. However, given that this patient has chronic kidney disease, and there is no particular evidence they are lacking vitamin C in their diet, this answer is unlikely.",
"id": "10004173",
"label": "c",
"name": "Vitamin C",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4243",
"name": "Chronic Kidney Disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
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"question": "A 55-year-old male with stage 3b Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) presents to A&E complaining of fatigue that is interfering with his everyday life. He also looks particularly pale.\n\nWhich of the following deficiencies is likely responsible for this presentation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 102,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,399 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,382 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Sepsis is a life-threatening emergency involving systemic infection of the blood. Septic shock results in lactic acidosis which will cause a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Therefore, this is not the correct answer.",
"id": "10004177",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sepsis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient is likely suffering from gastroenteritis. Symptoms often include diarrhoea and vomiting. Diarrhoea can cause a metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap due to loss of bicarbonate from the GI tract. This is what the VBG results are showing.",
"id": "10004176",
"label": "a",
"name": "Diarrhoea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 65
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a life-threatening emergency which occurs in diabetics. Common signs and symptoms include breathlessness, stomach pain and vomiting. It will cause a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, similar to septic shock. Therefore, this is not the correct answer.",
"id": "10004178",
"label": "c",
"name": "Diabetic ketoacidosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hyperventilation results in the loss of CO~2~ from the body causing a respiratory alkalosis. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10004180",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hyperventilation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Vomiting can be a symptom of gastroenteritis. However, it results in metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of hydrogen ions and therefore is incorrect.",
"id": "10004179",
"label": "d",
"name": "Vomiting",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4244",
"name": "Raised Anion Gap",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "170",
"name": "Clinical Chemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 170,
"totalCards": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4244,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13382",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"question": "A 17-year-old female presents to A&E complaining of being systemically unwell over the last 3 days since eating a \"dodgy takeaway.\" A venous blood gas (VBG) shows:\n\n\n||||\n|--------------|:-------:|------------------|\n|pH|7.32|7.35 - 7.45|\n|PaO₂|12.0 kPa|11 - 15|\n|PaCO₂|4.9 kPa|4.6 - 6.4|\n|Bicarbonate|19 mmol/L|22 - 30|\n|Anion gap|+9 mmol/L|8 - 14|\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 101,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,400 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,383 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of diploid fungus that is often associated with antibiotic use. It commonly causes candidiasis (thrush) which can present with dysuria, abnormal discharge and itching. This does not match this patient's presentation and therefore, this answer is unlikely.",
"id": "10004183",
"label": "c",
"name": "Candida albicans",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a gram-positive bacteria found in the normal microbiota of the female perineum and vagina and commonly causes urinary tract infections. It is less common in men and is not associated with bladder calcification. Therefore this is an unlikely causative pathogen.",
"id": "10004185",
"label": "e",
"name": "Staphylococcus saprophyticus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This man is presenting with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. Schistosoma haematobium is a trematode worm found in contaminated water in tropical and subtropical areas which causes schistosomiasis. It gains access to the host through the skin, matures in the liver and lays eggs which can travel to and penetrate the bladder. This can cause bladder calcification in addition to other complications. It is treated with praziquantel.",
"id": "10004181",
"label": "a",
"name": "Schistosoma haematobium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Escherichia coli is a gram-negative bacteria and is the most common pathogen causing urinary tract infections (UTIs). While it is the most common cause of UTIs, it is not known to cause bladder calcification.",
"id": "10004182",
"label": "b",
"name": "Escherichia coli",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a protozoan that is responsible for causing trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection. It is uncommon in males and therefore in this case is unlikely.",
"id": "10004184",
"label": "d",
"name": "Trichomonas vaginalis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3757",
"name": "Urinary Tract Infection",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"dislikes": 0,
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"question": "A 35 year old man has recently returned from travelling around Africa. He mentioned he was drinking local water.\n\nHe is complaining of itchiness, urinary frequency and haematuria. An abdominal X-ray shows calcification of the bladder. Which of the following is the likely organism responsible for this presentation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 97,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,401 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,384 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Urea is reabsorbed in the kidney tubules and contributes to the osmolarity of the medullary interstitial gradient during dehydration. Therefore, it is not an accurate marker of GFR.",
"id": "10004188",
"label": "c",
"name": "Urea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Urinary inulin is the gold standard for calculating eGFR as it is freely filtered by the glomerulus, not secreted or reabsorbed in the tubules and is not metabolized or synthesized by the kidneys.",
"id": "10004186",
"label": "a",
"name": "Inulin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 57
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Sodium is reabsorbed throughout the kidney tubules and would not be a reliable marker of GFR.",
"id": "10004189",
"label": "d",
"name": "Sodium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Similar to sodium, water is reabsorbed throughout the kidney tubules and would not be a reliable marker of GFR.",
"id": "10004190",
"label": "e",
"name": "Water",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Albumin is a protein and therefore is not freely filtered in the glomerulus under normal conditions. Therefore it would not be an accurate marker of GFR.",
"id": "10004187",
"label": "b",
"name": "Albumin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"id": "4245",
"name": "Glomerular Filtration",
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
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"a"
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173,461,402 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,385 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is incorrect. Spermatogenesis requires a lower temperature to occur.",
"id": "10004195",
"label": "e",
"name": "It requires a normal body temperature",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is incorrect. Oogenesis results in the production of a finite number of oocytes as the ovaries have no stem cells. In spermatogenesis, there are an infinite number of sperm produced as the testis has a stem cell population.",
"id": "10004194",
"label": "d",
"name": "It results in the production of a finite number of sperm",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is incorrect. The process of spermatogenesis in males is continuous, unlike oogenesis which is discontinuous with periods of arrest.",
"id": "10004192",
"label": "b",
"name": "It is discontinuous",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This statement is incorrect, sperm cells are highly motile. It is female gametes that are immotile.",
"id": "10004193",
"label": "c",
"name": "It results in the production of immotile gametes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Unlike oogenesis, where meiosis begins before birth and where the initial stimulus is not steroidal, in spermatogenesis meiosis is indirectly dependent on progesterone which increases significantly during puberty.",
"id": "10004191",
"label": "a",
"name": "Meiosis begins at puberty",
"picture": null,
"votes": 43
}
],
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"id": "4246",
"name": "Spermatogenesis",
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"id": "175",
"name": "Reproductive Physiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "Which of these statements is correct regarding spermatogenesis?",
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"a"
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173,461,403 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,386 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is another pelvic gateway. It allows the passage of the obturator neurovascular bundle as the name suggests.",
"id": "10004198",
"label": "c",
"name": "Obturator canal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The greater sciatic foramen is an opening in the posterior aspect of the pelvis which allows structures to pass into the gluteal region. It allows the passage of the sciatic nerve and the gluteal neurovascular bundle.",
"id": "10004196",
"label": "a",
"name": "Greater sciatic foramen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 73
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The pelvic inlet is marked by the pelvic brim. It consists of the sacral prominence posteriorly, the arcuate line laterally and the pectineal line of the pubis and the pubic symphysis anteriorly.",
"id": "10004200",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pelvis inlet",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The lesser foramen is separated from the greater foramen by the sacrospinous ligament. It allows the passage of the pudendal nerve and the internal pudendal vessels.",
"id": "10004197",
"label": "b",
"name": "Lesser sciatic foramen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the medial compartment of the femoral sheath. It contains lymphatic vessels which drain the deep inguinal lymph nodes, the lacunar node, empty space and loose connective tissue.",
"id": "10004199",
"label": "d",
"name": "Femoral canal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
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"id": "4247",
"name": "Back Pain",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "146",
"name": "Rheumatology",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "Which pelvic gateway does the sciatic nerve pass through?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 101,
"typeId": 1,
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173,461,404 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,387 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the absence of both testes at birth. It results in hypergonadotropic hypogonadism. Therefore, FSH and LH levels are abnormally elevated.",
"id": "10004205",
"label": "e",
"name": "Anorchia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This condition is also known as Kallman's syndrome. Symptoms include hypogonadism, small genitalia, scanty pubic hair and anosmia. This is due to low levels of LH, FSH and testosterone. It is treated by monthly testosterone injections.",
"id": "10004201",
"label": "a",
"name": "Kallman's Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 47
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is where there is a temporary delay of puberty due to the underdevelopment of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis. This results in low levels of FSH and LH. However, anosmia is not observed in this condition and therefore this answer is unlikely.",
"id": "10004204",
"label": "d",
"name": "Constitutional delay of puberty",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a type of hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism. It is a result of an XXY chromosome karyotype. It presents similarly to Kallman's syndrome with hypogonadism, small genitalia, scanty pubic hair and additionally gynecomastia. In Klinefelter's syndrome, FSH and LH levels are abnormally raised. Therefore this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10004202",
"label": "b",
"name": "Klinefelter's Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 44
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Malnutrition can cause a temporary delay in puberty.",
"id": "10004203",
"label": "c",
"name": "Malnutrition",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
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"id": "4248",
"name": "Hypotestosteronism",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "209",
"name": "Pediatrics",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "An 18-year-old male presents to his GP with concerns that he is not developing appropriately.\n\nExamination reveals a small penis and sparse pubic hair.\n\nHe also complains that he is having trouble smelling things.\n\nBlood tests are performed showing low FSH, LH and testosterone. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 101,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,405 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,388 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The cremasteric reflex tests the L1 spinal level.",
"id": "10004207",
"label": "b",
"name": "T10",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The cremasteric reflex tests the L1 spinal level.",
"id": "10004209",
"label": "d",
"name": "T9",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The cremasteric reflex tests the spinal level L1. It is characterized by the ipsilateral testicular retraction upon stroking the superior medial thigh. It is absent in patients with testicular torsion which is what this patient is presenting with.",
"id": "10004206",
"label": "a",
"name": "L1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The cremasteric reflex tests the L1 spinal level.",
"id": "10004210",
"label": "e",
"name": "S2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The cremasteric reflex tests the L1 spinal level.",
"id": "10004208",
"label": "c",
"name": "L3",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
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"demo": null,
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"id": "4249",
"name": "Testicular Torsion",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "143",
"name": "Urology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 143,
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"question": "A 23-year-old male presents to A&E complaining of sudden onset severe testicular pain. The patient is noted to have an absent cremasteric reflex.\n\nWhich spinal level is implicated in this reflex?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 93,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,406 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,389 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Down Syndrome is suggested if HCG is elevated, PAPP-A is reduced and nuchal translucency is thickened. Therefore, this is not correct.",
"id": "10004212",
"label": "b",
"name": "Reduced HCG; Reduced PAPP-A and normal nuchal translucency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Down's Syndrome is suggested if HCG is elevated, PAPP-A is reduced and nuchal translucency is thickened. Therefore, this is not correct.",
"id": "10004214",
"label": "d",
"name": "Elevated HCG; Elevated PAPP-A and normal nuchal translucency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The combined test is a standard pre-natal test screening for Down's syndrome. It measures nuchal translucency, serum B-HCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A), and the above results suggest a diagnosis of Down's syndrome.",
"id": "10004211",
"label": "a",
"name": "Elevated HCG; Reduced PAPP-A and thickened nuchal translucency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 67
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Alpha-fetoprotein is measured as part of the quadruple test, which is a screening test used for Down's syndrome screening test used if women present later in their pregnancy. A lowered alpha-fetoprotein suggests a possible diagnosis of Down's syndrome. Therefore, this is incorrect.",
"id": "10004213",
"label": "c",
"name": "Elevated Alpha-fetoprotein",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Oestriol is measured as part of the quadruple test, which is a screening test used for Down's syndrome screening test used if women present later in their pregnancy. A lowered oestriol is suggestive of a possible diagnosis of Down's syndrome. Therefore, this is incorrect.",
"id": "10004215",
"label": "e",
"name": "Elevated oestriol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4126",
"name": "Down Syndrome Screening",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "174",
"name": "Obstetrics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 174,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A pregnant woman comes into the hospital for her antenatal combined screening test. She is 12 weeks pregnant.\n\nWhich of the following results would suggest a possible diagnosis of Down's syndrome?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 94,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,407 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,390 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of the drug trastuzumab (Herceptin). Epidermal Growth Factor Receptor 2 (HER2) is over-expressed in 20-30% of breast cancers. Trastuzumab prevents signalling, suppresses angiogenesis and growth and mediates cytotoxicity.",
"id": "10004217",
"label": "b",
"name": "HER2 monoclonal antibody",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Oestrogen can promote the expression of genes in breast cancer that can stimulate cancer growth. Therefore, tamoxifen prevents this from happening. It is often used prophylactically after surgery for early-stage breast cancer.",
"id": "10004216",
"label": "a",
"name": "Oestrogen receptor antagonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 69
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A substance that would stimulate estrogen receptors would be counterintuitive. Around 60% of breast cancers are oestrogen receptor-positive. Oestrogen acts to promote the proliferation of the cancer. Therefore this is incorrect.",
"id": "10004219",
"label": "d",
"name": "Oestrogen receptor agonist",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of the drug docetaxel which can be used to treat certain types of breast cancer. By stabilizing microtubules, there are aberrant, multipolar spindles and chromosomes are unable to segregate leading to apoptosis of the cancerous cells.",
"id": "10004218",
"label": "c",
"name": "Stabilizes microtubules",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of action of Gardasil which is used for HPV vaccination. This is used for prophylaxis of cervical cancer due to the HPV virus being a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.",
"id": "10004220",
"label": "e",
"name": "Stimulates human papillomavirus (HPV) targeting antibodies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4250",
"name": "Tamoxifen",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "210",
"name": "Reproductive Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 210,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A 43-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer. She is started on tamoxifen.\n\nWhich of the following describes the mechanism of action of this drug?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 96,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,408 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,391 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Progesterone is an important hormone involved in a variety of important reproductive processes. In pregnancy, it is important for preventing uterine contractions. It is not responsible for halting menstruation.",
"id": "10004222",
"label": "b",
"name": "Progesterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This answer is incorrect. During pregnancy, serum FSH concentrations are decreased due to the inhibitory effects of elevated estrogen and progesterone levels.",
"id": "10004224",
"label": "d",
"name": "Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Maternal testosterone levels are elevated during pregnancy. However, they are not responsible for amenorrhea.",
"id": "10004225",
"label": "e",
"name": "Testosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Oestrogen levels significantly increase during pregnancy. It is specifically responsible for improving the vascularization of the placenta during pregnancy.",
"id": "10004223",
"label": "c",
"name": "Oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone produced by the placenta during pregnancy. HCG levels rise after conception and continue to rise until approximately 10 weeks into pregnancy. This encourages the thickening of the uterine lining to support a growing embryo.",
"id": "10004221",
"label": "a",
"name": "HCG",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4251",
"name": "Pregnancy hormones",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "175",
"name": "Reproductive Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 175,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "Which of the following hormones is responsible for preventing menstruation during pregnancy?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 98,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,409 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,392 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "90% of males with a penile urethral gonorrhoea infection will have symptoms. This includes urethral discharge and pain. Light microscopy is one of the three basic microbial testing methods for sexually transmitted infections. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a gram-negative intracellular diplococcus which infects epithelial cells of the mucous membrane of the genito-urinary tract or rectum.",
"id": "10004226",
"label": "a",
"name": "Gram-negative diplococci",
"picture": null,
"votes": 68
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is how Chlamydia trachomatis is characterized under a light microscope.",
"id": "10004229",
"label": "d",
"name": "Obligate, intracellular Gram-negative",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Candida albicans is a gram-positive diploid fungus which can infect the vulva and/or vagina.",
"id": "10004227",
"label": "b",
"name": "Gram-positive diploid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is how Trichomonas vaginalis appears under light microscopy.",
"id": "10004230",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pear shaped flagellate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the gram stain of Treponema pallidum under light microscopy. This is also referred to as syphilis.",
"id": "10004228",
"label": "c",
"name": "Gram negative spirochete",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4252",
"name": "Common Genito-Urinary infections",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "211",
"name": "Genito-Urinary medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 211,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4252,
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"question": "A 22-year-old male comes to his GP complaining of dysuria and discharge from his penis. A genital swab confirms a diagnosis of gonorrhoea.\n\nWhich of the following describes the causative pathogen when visualised under light microscopy?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 96,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,410 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,393 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is an increased risk of endometrial cancer in patients taking progesterone-only hormone replacement therapy unopposed to oestrogen. However, this is not a complication in patients taking the combined oral contraceptive pill.",
"id": "10004234",
"label": "d",
"name": "Endometrial cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Weight gain is a common side effect of the combined contraceptive pill but it is not acutely life-threatening or severe.",
"id": "10004235",
"label": "e",
"name": "Weight Gain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Coronary heart disease is a severe side effect of anabolic androgen steroids. However, it is not linked to the combined oral contraceptive pill.",
"id": "10004233",
"label": "c",
"name": "Coronary heart disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Flushing is defined as the sudden reddening of the face or skin due to vasodilation. This is a common side effect of the combined contraceptive pill but it is not severe or life-threatening.",
"id": "10004232",
"label": "b",
"name": "Flushing",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The combined contraceptive pill contains oestrogen and progestogen. There is a small increased risk of thromboembolism in patients who take it and this can be life-threatening.",
"id": "10004231",
"label": "a",
"name": "Thromboembolism",
"picture": null,
"votes": 83
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
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"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4253",
"name": "Combined oral contraceptive pill",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "210",
"name": "Reproductive Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 210,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4253,
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
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"question": "Which of these is a severe possible side-effect of the combined oral contraceptive pill?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 100,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,411 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,394 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Patients aged 38-39 have a 21.8% chance of IVF treatments being successful. Therefore, this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10004240",
"label": "e",
"name": "0.5%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "According to HFEA statistics on IVF in the UK, patients aged 38-39 have a 21.8% chance of IVF treatments being successful. Rates of success decrease significantly as the patients get older.",
"id": "10004236",
"label": "a",
"name": "21.8%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the success rate of patients aged 45 years and older having a successful IVF treatment.",
"id": "10004238",
"label": "c",
"name": "2.0%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the rate of success of IVF treatment in patients aged 40-42.",
"id": "10004239",
"label": "d",
"name": "13.7%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the likelihood of patients aged 18-34 years old having a successful.",
"id": "10004237",
"label": "b",
"name": "32.8%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
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"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4030",
"name": "Fertility",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "175",
"name": "Reproductive Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 175,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"dislikes": 0,
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"multiAnswer": null,
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"question": "A 38-year-old woman comes into her GP asking about in-vitro fertilisation (IVF). She has been unable to conceive with her partner naturally over the past year and wants to know the likelihood of IVF being successful in someone her age.\n\nWhich of the following states the change of successful pregnancy through IVF?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 92,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,412 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,054 | null | false | [] | null | 13,395 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is one of the most common causes of gastroenteritis. The majority of patients experience vomiting and diarrhoea but is not commonly associated with itchiness and an isolated eosinophilia.",
"id": "10004242",
"label": "b",
"name": "Norovirus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A. lumbricoides is a giant roundworm that can infect and inhabit a patient's gut. it can lead to digestive upsets, malnutrition, and intestinal blockages and may even invade the mouth and nose. It is not commonly associated with itchiness and therefore this diagnosis is unlikely.",
"id": "10004243",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ascaris lumbricoides infection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This protozoan causes an infection of the small intestine known as Giardiasis. It is one of the most common causes of travellers' diarrhoea. It normally presents with self-limiting diarrhoea whereby the stools are classically loose, foul-smelling and fatty. It is not associated with anal pruritis and is therefore unlikely.",
"id": "10004245",
"label": "e",
"name": "Giardia lamblia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a hookworm that is often picked up while walking barefoot in infected areas. It attaches to the small intestine and causes hypochromic anaemia. It is not associated with anal itchiness.",
"id": "10004244",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ancylostoma duodenale",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Enterobius Vermicularis is a type of threadworm that can infect the GI tract. Female worms migrate to the anus at night and lay thousands of eggs. This results in intense itching of the anal region and also can lead to diarrhoea and elevated eosinophils. Therefore, this is the most likely diagnosis.",
"id": "10004241",
"label": "a",
"name": "Enterobius Vermicularis infection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 37
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4254",
"name": "Giardiasis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4254,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13395",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "An 18-year-old male attends his GP practice complaining of diarrhoea and severe itchiness in his anus. A full blood count reveals eosinophilia.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 98,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,433 | false | 1 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,396 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect as this is not Broca's area. The cingulate gyrus is a component of the limbic system and is involved in behaviour regulation, processing emotions and regulating autonomic motor function.",
"id": "10004247",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cingulate gyrus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient is presenting with Broca's aphasia (non-fluent or expressive aphasia). Symptoms of Broca's aphasia include very poor or absent spontaneous speech with a difficulty in forming complete sentences. There is typically a loss of normal grammatical structure, trouble writing sentences and more difficulty using verbs than nouns. However, understanding is not affected so the patients can still understand others' speech. Broca's aphasia results from damage to the Broca's area which is located in the dominant hemisphere of the frontal lobe in the inferior frontal gyrus (on the left side in a right-handed individual or the right side in a left-handed individual). Therefore, the inferior frontal gyrus is correct.",
"id": "10004246",
"label": "a",
"name": "Inferior frontal gyrus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 257
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect as this is not Broca's area. The lingual gyrus is involved in processing vision and is located in the occipitotemporal region.",
"id": "10004248",
"label": "c",
"name": "Lingual gyrus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect as this is not Broca's area. The superior temporal gyrus is the location of the Wernicke's area. Damage to this area leads to Wernicke's (fluent or receptive aphasia) aphasia which results in difficulty understanding others' speech or difficulty processing the meaning of words. Patient's with Wernicke's aphasia can articulate their words normally but speak in a jumbled \"word salad\" i.e. when speaking they string words together that don't make sense in a sentence. They are typically unaware of the mistakes in their speech.",
"id": "10004250",
"label": "e",
"name": "Superior temporal gyrus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 104
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect as this is not Broca's area. The superior parietal lobule is involved in attention and visuospatial perception.",
"id": "10004249",
"label": "d",
"name": "Superior parietal lobule",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4255",
"name": "Applied neuroanatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4255,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13396",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 63-year-old man presents to A+E with speech problems. He is struggling to talk fluently and can only speak in short, disjointed sentences with continuous stuttering. However, he can understand what others say to him. An MRI was performed which showed a lesion in his left cerebral hemisphere.\n\nIn what area of the brain is the lesion most likely located?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 415,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,434 | false | 2 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,397 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The temporal lobe contains the inferior optic radiating fibres (also known as Meyer's loop). The Meyer loop gives rise to vision in the contralateral superolateral visual field. Therefore, damage to the temporal lobe can cause damage to Meyer's loop, causing contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia (loss of vision in the contralateral superolateral visual field). This is also known as a pie-in-the-sky field cut.",
"id": "10004251",
"label": "a",
"name": "Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 200
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing occurs due to lesions or damage in the visual cortex located in the occipital lobe (calcarine sulcus). Partial damage to the visual cortex will spare the macula as the macula is represented in a very large region of the cortex and is spread out. This is often caused by a stroke or a tumour.",
"id": "10004254",
"label": "d",
"name": "Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing",
"picture": null,
"votes": 67
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia is due to damage to the optic nerve after the optic chiasm i.e. in the optic tract. Damage to the optic tract results in the whole half of the contralateral field being lost in both eyes. This is usually caused by a tumour or a stroke.",
"id": "10004253",
"label": "c",
"name": "Contralateral homonymous hemianopia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 64
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A central scotoma is a blurry, grey/black or blind spot in the middle of the vision. This is usually due to lesions of the optic nerve itself or the macula.",
"id": "10004255",
"label": "e",
"name": "Central Scotoma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Bitemporal hemianopia is caused by damage to the optic chiasm. This is commonly due to compression of the optic chiasm from tumours (frequently pituitary tumours), aneurysms or lesions over the optic chiasms. This is because the fibres that give rise to the temporal half of vision on both eyes cross over at the optic chiasm.",
"id": "10004252",
"label": "b",
"name": "Bitemporal hemianopia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4256",
"name": "Visual defects",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4256,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13397",
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"question": "A 31-year-old man with drug-resistant focal, impaired awareness seizures is scheduled to undergo a left temporal lobectomy for hippocampal sclerosis.\n\nWhat visual defect could be seen postoperatively?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 374,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,435 | false | 3 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,398 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Outer hair cells are not precursor stem cells for inner hair cells.",
"id": "10004257",
"label": "b",
"name": "Precursor stem cells for inner hair cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This is the role of the inner hair cells.",
"id": "10004258",
"label": "c",
"name": "Convert the vibrations of the basilar membrane into electrical signals which are transmitted to the brain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 89
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The outer hair cells play a vital role in amplifying sound waves to aid the cochlea in detecting sounds with higher sensitivity.",
"id": "10004256",
"label": "a",
"name": "Local amplification of sound within the cochlear",
"picture": null,
"votes": 210
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The vibration of the basilar membrane is vital for the inner hair cells to convert into electrical signals.",
"id": "10004260",
"label": "e",
"name": "Act to reduce vibration of the basilar membrane",
"picture": null,
"votes": 32
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The cochlea is responsible for relaying sound pitch.",
"id": "10004259",
"label": "d",
"name": "Relay of sound pitch",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4257",
"name": "Ear anatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4257,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13398",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Within the ear there are outer and inner hair cells, both contributing towards the hearing sound.\n\nWhat is the function of the outer hair cells?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 356,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,436 | false | 4 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,399 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is involved in cognitive functions including task switching, planning and working memory.",
"id": "10004262",
"label": "b",
"name": "Dorsolateral prefrontal cortex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 114
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The hippocampus is involved in learning and memory.",
"id": "10004265",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hippocampus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 46
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The orbit medial prefrontal cortex is responsible for decision-making, processing and regulating emotions as well as the inhibitory control of behaviour. A lesion in this area can therefore leave to impulsive behaviour and apathy.",
"id": "10004261",
"label": "a",
"name": "Orbitomedial prefrontal cortex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 179
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The pars opercularis is involved with recognising a tone of voice and the production of language. This area is situated within Broca's area. A lesion within Broca's area causes Broca's aphasia.",
"id": "10004263",
"label": "c",
"name": "Pars opercular's",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Wernicke's area is involved in understanding speech and the meaning of words. A lesion in this area leads to Wernicke's aphasia.",
"id": "10004264",
"label": "d",
"name": "Wernicke's area",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
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"id": "2693",
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"id": "3969",
"name": "Neuroanatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
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"question": "A 51-year-old man presents to the GP with his wife. His wife is concerned about the patient's recent change in personality. She explains that he recently has been swearing at strangers in public unprovoked. Upon further questioning, the wife also found the patient urinating in the garden last night at their friend's house.\n\nWhich area of the brain is most likely to have a lesion resulting in these symptoms?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 348,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,437 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,400 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual processing, distance and depth perception, object and face recognition and the perception of colour.",
"id": "10004269",
"label": "d",
"name": "Non-dominant occipital lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 73
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The dominant temporal lobe is involved in understanding language and retaining verbal information. The Wernicke's area is located here.",
"id": "10004270",
"label": "e",
"name": "Dominant temporal lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The occipital lobe is responsible for visual processing, distance and depth perception, object and face recognition and the perception of colour.",
"id": "10004268",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dominant occipital lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The dominant parietal lobe is involved in controlling language and calculation. The non-dominant side is involved in contralateral spatial awareness.",
"id": "10004267",
"label": "b",
"name": "Dominant parietal lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 78
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The non-dominant parietal lobe is involved in contralateral spatial navigation. As a result, lesions in the non-dominant lobe lead to inattention and hemispatial neglect of the contralateral side. This can be seen in patients whilst drawing where they typically miss out on one side of the drawing.",
"id": "10004266",
"label": "a",
"name": "Non-dominant parietal lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 105
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"name": "Neuroanatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
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"likes": 0,
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"question": "Hemispatial neglect is a condition resulting in a deficit in awareness of one side of the field of vision. This usually results due to damage to one hemisphere of the brain.\n\nWhat lobe of the brain is most associated with hemispatial neglect?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 330,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,438 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,401 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The neural retina lies between the vitreous and retinal pigment epithelium.",
"id": "10004274",
"label": "d",
"name": "Vitreous and retinal pigment epithelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 47
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. If the vitreous separates from the neural retina it is called vitreous detachment.",
"id": "10004273",
"label": "c",
"name": "Vitreous and neural retina",
"picture": null,
"votes": 46
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Retinal detachment occurs when the neurosensory retina separates from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium.",
"id": "10004271",
"label": "a",
"name": "Neural retina and retinal pigment epithelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 117
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The choroid contains the blood vessels and lies deeper into the retinal pigment epithelium.",
"id": "10004272",
"label": "b",
"name": "Choroid and retinal pigment epithelium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 61
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The retinal pigment epithelium lies between the neural retina and the choroid.",
"id": "10004275",
"label": "e",
"name": "Neural retina and choroid",
"picture": null,
"votes": 57
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4258",
"name": "Eye",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4258,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13401",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 25-year-old man comes into A+E with a painful right eye along with a decrease in vision following impact to his eye. He is diagnosed with retinal detachment.\n\nWhich two structural components of the eye become separated in retinal detachment?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 328,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,439 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,402 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The ciliary ganglion innervates the muscles that constrict the pupil and control the shape of the lens in the eye. The vergence centre sends signals to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus during convergence of the eyes.",
"id": "10004280",
"label": "e",
"name": "Signals are sent to the ciliary ganglion via sympathetic fibres of the oculomotor nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 76
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The pretectal nucleus receives afferents from both the retina and optic tectum. The pretectal nucleus is involved in controlling the motor responses to changing visual inputs.",
"id": "10004279",
"label": "d",
"name": "Signals are sent to the pretectal nucleus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The ciliary ganglion innervates the muscles that constrict the pupil and control the shape of the lens in the eye. The vergence centre sends signals to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus during the convergence of the eyes.",
"id": "10004278",
"label": "c",
"name": "Signals are sent to the ciliary ganglion via parasympathetic fibres of the optic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 44
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The abducens nucleus is involved in coordinating the conjugate gaze, not in the dis conjugate gaze pathway. The abducens nucleus is the originating nucleus from where the abducens nerve emerges.",
"id": "10004277",
"label": "b",
"name": "Signals are sent to the abducens nucleus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 39
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The Edinger-Westphal nucleus supplies preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the eye. It plays a role in constricting the pupil, the convergence of the eyes and accommodation.",
"id": "10004276",
"label": "a",
"name": "Signals are sent to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 101
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
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"id": "4258",
"name": "Eye",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4258,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13402",
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"likes": 0,
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"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "The pathway of dis conjugate eye movements involves the vergence centre sending out signals.\n\nDuring convergence of the eyes, which of the following signals are sent out by the vergence centre?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 298,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,440 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,403 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. During a reflex, interneurons branch out from the alpha motor neurones in a specific muscle to innervate the presynpatic terminal of the spindle afferent of the antagonist's muscle. These interneurons therefore directly inhibit the antagonist's muscle. These interneurons are GABAergic and act through metabotropic receptors.",
"id": "10004281",
"label": "a",
"name": "Metabotropic GABAergic receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 90
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Glycinergic receptors are not involved in this process. During a reflex, interneurons branch out from the alpha motor neurones in a specific muscle to innervate the presynaptic terminal of the spindle afferent of the antagonist muscle. These interneurons therefore directly inhibit the antagonist muscle. These interneurons are GABAergic and act through metabotropic receptors.",
"id": "10004284",
"label": "d",
"name": "Metabotropic glycinergic receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Glycinergic receptors are not involved in this process. During a reflex, interneurones branch out from the alpha motor neurones in a specific muscle to innervate the presynaptic terminal of the spindle afferent of the antagonist's muscle. These interneurons therefore directly inhibit the antagonist's muscle. These interneurons are GABAergic and act through metabotropic receptors.",
"id": "10004283",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inotropic glycinergic receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Glutaminergic receptors are not involved in this process. During a reflex, interneurons branch out from the alpha motor neurones in a specific muscle to innervate the presynaptic terminal of the spindle afferent of the antagonist's muscle. These interneuroes therefore directly inhibit the antagonist's muscle. These interneurons are GABAergic and act through metabotropic receptors.",
"id": "10004285",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ionotropic glutaminergic receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. During a reflex, interneurones branch out from the alpha motor neurones in a specific muscle to innervate the presynaptic terminal of the spindle afferent of the antagonist muscle. These interneurons therefore directly inhibit the antagonist muscle. These interneurons are GABAergic and act through metabotropic receptors.",
"id": "10004282",
"label": "b",
"name": "Ionotropic GABAergic receptors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 153
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4259",
"name": "Reflexes",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
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"highlights": [],
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"likes": 0,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "During activation of the reflex arc, there is presynaptic inhibition of the antagonist muscle group spindle afferents by the agonist muscle group spindle afferents.\n\nWhat kind of receptors on the antagonist muscle group spindle afferents does this pathway involve?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 296,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,441 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,404 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Analgesia is either the inability to feel pain or medication that acts to relieve pain.",
"id": "10004290",
"label": "e",
"name": "Analgesia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Neuropathic pain is caused by a disease or a lesion in the somatosensory nervous system.",
"id": "10004288",
"label": "c",
"name": "Neuropathic pain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hyperalgesia occurs when there is increased sensitivity to pain with an increased response to a painful stimulus.",
"id": "10004287",
"label": "b",
"name": "Hyperalgesia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 125
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Allodynia is defined as pain caused by a stimulus that does not usually provoke pain.",
"id": "10004286",
"label": "a",
"name": "Allodynia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 164
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hypoalgesia defines as a decreased sensitivity to a painful stimulus.",
"id": "10004289",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hypoalgesia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4260",
"name": "Pain pathway",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
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"likes": 0,
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"psaSectionId": null,
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"question": "A 55-year-old woman presents to the GP with chronic pain. When the GP touches the woman's arm with cotton wool, the patient grimaces in pain.\n\nWhat best describes this response?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 312,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,442 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,405 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A lesion in the right optic nerve would result in a lack of pupil constriction in both the right and left eyes when light is shone into the right eye. However, if light is shone into the left eye, there is constriction of both eyes as the oculomotor nerves would be functioning. Additionally, there may also be ipsilateral vision loss.",
"id": "10004293",
"label": "c",
"name": "Right optic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A lesion in the left optic nerve would result in a lack of pupil constriction in both the right and left eyes when light is shone into the left eye. However, if the light is shone into the right eye, there is constriction of both eyes as the oculomotor nerves would be functioning. Additionally, there may also be ipsilateral vision loss.",
"id": "10004294",
"label": "d",
"name": "Left optic nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 85
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The right pretectal nucleus receives an afferent from the retinal ganglion cells of the optic nerve when light is shone into the left eye. The right pretectal nucleus will then send signals to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of both eyes which results in an efferent through the oculomotor nerve to cause pupillary constriction in both eyes via the ciliary ganglion. If the lesion was located here, neither the left nor right pupil would constrict when light is shone into the left eye. However, if the light is shone into the right eye, there is constriction of both eyes as the oculomotor nerves would be functioning.",
"id": "10004292",
"label": "b",
"name": "Right pretectal nucleus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The left pretectal nucleus receives an afferent from the retinal ganglion cells of the optic nerve when light is shone into the right eye. The left pretectal nucleus will then send signals to the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of both eyes which results in an efferent through the oculomotor nerve to cause pupillary constriction in both eyes via the ciliary ganglion. If the lesion was located here, neither the left nor right pupil would constrict when light is shone into the right eye. However, if the light is shone into the left eye, there is constriction of both eyes as the oculomotor nerves would be functioning.",
"id": "10004295",
"label": "e",
"name": "Left pretectal nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Firstly, as there is no constriction of the left pupil when light is shone in the left or the right eye, there is a lesion either in the left optic nerve or left oculomotor nerve. However, when light is shone into the left eye, there is constriction of the right pupil, indicating it is not an afferent nerve lesion. Therefore, the lesion must be located in the left oculomotor nerve, with failure to produce left pupil constriction.",
"id": "10004291",
"label": "a",
"name": "Left oculomotor nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 182
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4261",
"name": "Eye anatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4261,
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13405",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 1,
"multiAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
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"question": "A 49-year-old man is having his pupil reflexes assessed in A&E. When light is directed into his right eye, there is constriction of the right pupil but not the left pupil. When light is directed into his left eye, there is a contraction of the right pupil but not the left pupil.\n\nWhich structure is most likely damaged?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 312,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,443 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,406 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Melanocytes produce the pigment melanin inside melanosomes. This contributes to skin pigmentation. The Langerhan cells play a vital role in the pathophysiology of atopic eczema.",
"id": "10004298",
"label": "c",
"name": "Melanocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The subcutaneous adipose cells are involved in regulating the storage and usage of lipid energy. This aids in insulating the body, cushioning and protection against blunt trauma and conserving a source of energy. The Langerhans cells play a vital role in the pathophysiology of atopic eczema.",
"id": "10004299",
"label": "d",
"name": "Subcutaneous adipose cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Merkel cells are located in the epidermis and are essential for light touch sensation hence play a vital role in mechanoreceptor and nociceptive responses. The Langerhans cells play a vital role in the pathophysiology of atopic eczema.",
"id": "10004300",
"label": "e",
"name": "Merkel cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer. Langerhans cells, located in the epidermis, act as the outermost guard of the skin against pathogens. Langerhans cells play a vital role in the development of atopic eczema as well as atopic dermatitis.",
"id": "10004296",
"label": "a",
"name": "Langerhan cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 141
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Dermal fibroblasts are located in the dermis and are involved in wound healing. The Langerhans cells play a vital role in the pathophysiology of atopic eczema.",
"id": "10004297",
"label": "b",
"name": "Dermal fibroblasts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 117
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4262",
"name": "Eczema",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "144",
"name": "Dermatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 144,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"videos": []
},
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
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"question": "An 8-year-old girl presents to the GP with a history of longstanding eczema which has recently relapsed. There are increased areas of the rash along with crusting and weeping in the forearms and hands. The girl was diagnosed with atopic eczema when she was 1 year old.\n\nWhich of the following cells contributes a vital role in the pathophysiology of atopic eczema?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 298,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,444 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,407 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer. Tinea is a fungal infection of the skin, commonly known as ringworm. This fungal infection is typically seen as red ring-shaped patches on the skin commonly seen on the scalp, legs, arms, trunk or feet.",
"id": "10004301",
"label": "a",
"name": "Tinea",
"picture": null,
"votes": 188
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Psoriasis causes patches of dry, scaly rashes that typically are seen in extensor surfaces such as the back of elbows. This ring-shaped rash is typical of tinea.",
"id": "10004304",
"label": "d",
"name": "Psoriasis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Actinic keratoses are seen as rough and scaly patches which are usually found on sun-exposed areas of skin, typically in paler individuals. This ring-shaped rash is typical of tinea.",
"id": "10004305",
"label": "e",
"name": "Actinic (solar) keratosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Eczema rashes look like red, dry, scaly areas typically seen in flexor surfaces such as the insides of elbows, wrists and knees. This ring-shaped rash is typical of tinea.",
"id": "10004302",
"label": "b",
"name": "Eczema",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Contact dermatitis results in itchy, dry, red rashes that usually occur hours or days after contact with an irritant or allergen. This ring-shaped rash is typical of tinea.",
"id": "10004303",
"label": "c",
"name": "Contact dermatitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4263",
"name": "Dermatological conditions",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "144",
"name": "Dermatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 144,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
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"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13407",
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"question": "A 32-year-old man presents to the GP with itchy red patches of skin. The patient first noticed these patches 3 days ago after returning from a 3-week holiday in Thailand a week ago. On examination, two circular plaques are seen located on the dorsum of his right hand. The plaques are well defined with a pale centre surrounded by a red ring.\n\nWhich of the following is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 299,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,445 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,408 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Holocrine is a term used to classify the mode of secretion in exocrine glands which involves plasma membrane rupture. Examples of holocrine glands are glands that include sebaceous glands of the skin and meibomian glands of the eyelid.",
"id": "10004310",
"label": "e",
"name": "Holocrine glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst apocrine glands also produce sweat, they open into hair follicles and hence develop in areas where there are many hair follicles such as the scalp, armpits and groin. This patient had sweat in the palms of her hands where eccrine glands would predominate.",
"id": "10004307",
"label": "b",
"name": "Apocrine glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 68
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The eccrine glands are found over most of the body and play a role in maintaining homeostasis which involves secreting sweat to maintain the body temperature.",
"id": "10004306",
"label": "a",
"name": "Eccrine glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 173
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Endocrine glands are responsible for releasing hormones, not sweat.",
"id": "10004308",
"label": "c",
"name": "Endocrine glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Sebaceous glands are responsible for producing and secreting sebum which contains olis, wax and cholesterol to lubricate and protect the skin against friction and provide moisture.",
"id": "10004309",
"label": "d",
"name": "Sebaceous glands",
"picture": null,
"votes": 50
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4264",
"name": "Glands in the skin",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "144",
"name": "Dermatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 144,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"question": "A 12-year-old girl presents to the GP worried about her excessive sweating. The sweat is mostly apparent in the palms of her hands and has no odour.\n\nWhich gland is responsible for secreting this sweat?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 303,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,446 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,409 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Tight junctions are involved in maintaining and providing a barrier between various compartments of the body which restricts the diffusion of molecules between different compartments.",
"id": "10004314",
"label": "d",
"name": "Tight junctions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 60
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Desmosomes are intercellular junctions which provide strong adhesions between adjacent cells in the stratum spinosum.",
"id": "10004311",
"label": "a",
"name": "Desmosomes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 182
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Fascia adherens play an important role in the cardiac muscle where they anchor cells together by linking the cell membrane to the actin cytoskeleton.",
"id": "10004315",
"label": "e",
"name": "Fascia adherens",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Gap junctions are channels that directly connect the cytoplasm of two cells whilst allowing direct cell-cell transfer of molecules. Desmosomes are important for anchoring the cytoskeletons of adjacent cells in the stratum spinosum.",
"id": "10004313",
"label": "c",
"name": "Gap junctions",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Actin plays a role in muscle contraction, cell movement and maintaining cell shape. Actin does not link adjacent cells together.",
"id": "10004312",
"label": "b",
"name": "Actin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4265",
"name": "Anatomy of the skin",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "144",
"name": "Dermatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 144,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4265,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13409",
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"likes": 0,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "The stratum spinosum is a layer within the epidermis.\n\nWhat links the cytoskeletons of adjacent cells in the stratum spinosum?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 296,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,447 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,410 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Langerhans cells, located in the epidermis, act as the outermost guard of the skin against pathogens. Langerhan cells play a vital role in the development of atopic eczema as well as atopic dermatitis.",
"id": "10004317",
"label": "b",
"name": "Langerhans cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Melanocytes produce the pigment melanin inside melanosomes. This contributes to skin pigmentation. Vitiligo occurs when melanocytes die or stop producing melanin.",
"id": "10004316",
"label": "a",
"name": "Melanocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 268
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The subcutaneous adipose cells are involved in regulating the storage and usage of lipid energy. This aids in insulating the body, cushioning and protecting against blunt trauma and conserving a source of energy.",
"id": "10004320",
"label": "e",
"name": "Subcutaneous adipose cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Merkel cells are located in the epidermis and are essential for light touch sensation hence play a vital role in mechanoreceptor and nociceptive responses.",
"id": "10004318",
"label": "c",
"name": "Merkel cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Dermal fibroblasts are located in the dermis and are involved in wound healing.",
"id": "10004319",
"label": "d",
"name": "Dermal fibroblasts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4265",
"name": "Anatomy of the skin",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "144",
"name": "Dermatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 144,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4265,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13410",
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 22-year-old woman presents to the dermatology clinic with pale patches on her skin that she has noticed for the past 2 months. She is later diagnosed with vitiligo.\n\nMalfunction of which cells cause vitiligo?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 291,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,448 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,411 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although type 2B muscle fibres produce fast and powerful movements, the best answer would be an increase in both the muscle diameter and several types 2 myosin fibres.",
"id": "10004323",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increase in the number of type 2B myosin-containing cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Type 2 muscle fibres, also known as \"fast-twitch\" muscle fibres, are used during short and explosive periods of physical activity such as weight lifting. They are responsible for producing faster and stronger movements. As a result, training by lifting heavy weights will increase the muscle diameter and the number of these fibres.",
"id": "10004321",
"label": "a",
"name": "Increased muscle diameter and number of type 2 myosin fibres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 138
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Type 1 muscle fibres, also known as \"slow-twitch\" muscle fibres, are responsible for producing slower and less forceful movements, ideal for long, aerobic activities. Training by lifting heavy weights requires type 2 muscle fibres which produce fast and explosive movements.",
"id": "10004322",
"label": "b",
"name": "Increased muscle diameter and number of type 1 myosin fibres",
"picture": null,
"votes": 53
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This answer is not the best answer from the options. Training using heavy weights would increase both the muscle diameter and several types 2 myosin fibres.",
"id": "10004324",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increase in the muscle diameter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 31
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This answer is not the best answer from the options. Training using heavy weights would increase both the muscle diameter and several types 2 myosin fibres.",
"id": "10004325",
"label": "e",
"name": "Increased muscle cell number and diameter",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4266",
"name": "Muscle fibres",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "190",
"name": "Musculoskeletal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 190,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4266,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13411",
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"question": "A 17-year-old male sprinter starts training by lifting heavy weights at the gym.\n\nOver time, what changes will happen to the muscles that he is using when lifting weights?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 279,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,449 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,412 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Fibroblast growth factor (FGF) is a molecule that is vital towards the growth of the limbs. Achondroplasia results from a mutation in one of the receptors for FGF hence inhibiting the function of FGF.",
"id": "10004326",
"label": "a",
"name": "FGF (fibroblast growth factor)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 164
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. MyoD is involved in regulating myogenesis and regulating muscle repair.",
"id": "10004327",
"label": "b",
"name": "MyoD",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Wnt regulates a range of cellular processes such as cell fate determination, primary axis formation and organogenesis.",
"id": "10004329",
"label": "d",
"name": "Wnt",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Shh plays a role in cell growth and patterning of the body. Whilst it does play a role in limb development by controlling the width of the limb bud, FGF (fibroblast growth factor) is the molecule that determines the verticle growth of the limb.",
"id": "10004330",
"label": "e",
"name": "Shh (Sonic Hedgehog)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IGF-1 is the major mediator of growth hormone which promotes the normal growth of bones and tissues. Achondroplasia results from incorrect signalling of FGF which initiates the growth of limbs.",
"id": "10004328",
"label": "c",
"name": "IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 74
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4267",
"name": "Defects in growth",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "190",
"name": "Musculoskeletal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 190,
"totalCards": null,
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"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4267,
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"pictures": [],
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"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Achondroplasia is due to incorrect signalling of which of the following molecules?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 283,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,450 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,413 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Motor neuron disease presents with upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rarely seen in patients below the age of 40 years old. The typical presentation of motor neuron disease includes fasciculations, mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs and muscle wasting. Motor neuron disease does not involve sensory symptoms.",
"id": "10004333",
"label": "c",
"name": "Motor Neuron Disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Becker's muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive genetic condition which has less severe problems than Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Patients with Becker's muscular dystrophy typically present after 10 years old with progressive muscle weakness and wasting. It typically affects males and can cause cardiomyopathy.",
"id": "10004332",
"label": "b",
"name": "Becker's Muscular Dystrophy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive inherited disorder affecting the dystrophin genes. This typically presents in patients over the age of 5 years old with progressive proximal muscle weakness. Other signs include pseudohypertrophy of the calf muscles and Gower's sign where a child has to use their arms to aid in standing up from squatting.",
"id": "10004335",
"label": "e",
"name": "Duchenne's Muscular Dystrophy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 71
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease encompasses a group of inherited conditions that damage the peripheral nerves, mostly in the legs or arms. It is the most common hereditary peripheral neuropathy commonly resulting in a motor loss. Common features include foot drop, high-arched feet known as pes cavus, distal muscle weakness and wasting along with loss of sensation.",
"id": "10004331",
"label": "a",
"name": "Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 146
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Myasthenia gravis typically presents with fatigability involving muscle weakness following repetitive use of the muscle or muscle weakness at the end of the day. This can involve extraocular muscle weakness resulting in diplopia.",
"id": "10004334",
"label": "d",
"name": "Myasthenia Gravis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4268",
"name": "Neuromuscular disorders",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "190",
"name": "Musculoskeletal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 190,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4268,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13413",
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"multiAnswer": null,
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"question": "A 13-year-old boy presents to A+E with a loss in lower leg sensation and weakness in his lower legs. On examination, there is muscle wasting in his lower legs along with high arched feet.\n\nWhich of the following options is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 288,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,451 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,414 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Aggrecan provides a hydrated gel structure in articular cartilage to aid in load-bearing.",
"id": "10004337",
"label": "b",
"name": "Aggrecan",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Type III collagen fibrils are present in the articular cartilage where it plays a vital role in mediating fibril assembly and biomechanical functions of the articular cartilage.",
"id": "10004340",
"label": "e",
"name": "Type III collagen fibrils",
"picture": null,
"votes": 122
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hyaluronan is located in the articular cartilage and aids in the lubrication of joints and absorbing shock.",
"id": "10004339",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hyaluronan",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Chondrocytes are the cells responsible for the formation and development of cartilage. Chondrocytes also produce collagen and the extracellular matrix hence playing a role in the maintenance and repair of the articular cartilage.",
"id": "10004338",
"label": "c",
"name": "Chondrocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Keratan sulphate plays important role in corneal development. It is not a component of articular cartilage.",
"id": "10004336",
"label": "a",
"name": "Keratan sulphate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 111
}
],
"comments": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionComment",
"comment": "Keratan sulphate is a component of aggrecan so surely it a component? Moreover it is type II collagen that is significant in articular cartilage, not type III\n",
"createdAt": 1717529566,
"dislikes": 0,
"id": "51936",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"likes": 2,
"parentId": null,
"questionId": 13414,
"replies": [],
"user": {
"__typename": "User",
"accessLevel": "subscriber",
"displayName": "luamm",
"id": 33224
}
}
],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4269",
"name": "Articular cartilage",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "190",
"name": "Musculoskeletal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 190,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 1,
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"question": "Which of the following options is not a component of articular cartilage in joints?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 290,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,452 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,415 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The extensor hallucis longus originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.",
"id": "10004345",
"label": "e",
"name": "Extensor hallucis longus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 139
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The sternum originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.",
"id": "10004342",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sternum",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone. The somites do not form long bones.",
"id": "10004341",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ulna",
"picture": null,
"votes": 47
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The occipital bone originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.",
"id": "10004344",
"label": "d",
"name": "Occipital bone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 58
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The C7 vertebra originates from somites. Somites form the cartilage of the vertebrae, the sternum and rib cage, skeletal muscles and the occipital bone.",
"id": "10004343",
"label": "c",
"name": "C7 vertebra",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4270",
"name": "Embryology",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "190",
"name": "Musculoskeletal",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 190,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4270,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13415",
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"likes": 0,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "The precursor population of cells called somites give rise to important structures in the body.\n\nWhich of the following does not originate from somites?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 283,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,453 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,416 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.",
"id": "10004346",
"label": "a",
"name": "50%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 232
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.",
"id": "10004349",
"label": "d",
"name": "0%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.",
"id": "10004348",
"label": "c",
"name": "75%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The condition is not X-linked. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.",
"id": "10004350",
"label": "e",
"name": "100% of male",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. As only one parent has the autosomal dominant condition and the other parent does not, any children of the couple have a 50% chance of inheriting the condition.",
"id": "10004347",
"label": "b",
"name": "25%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4271",
"name": "Patterns of inheritance",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "212",
"name": "Molecular and Cellular Basis of Health and Disease",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 212,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4271,
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13416",
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"likes": 0,
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"question": "A 40-year-old man with Marfan syndrome is concerned that his children may inherit the syndrome. The mother of the children does not have the syndrome. Marfan syndrome is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.\n\nWhat is the percentage likelihood that each of the patient's children will have inherited the condition?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 288,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,454 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,417 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The lack of the 3'-OH group on ddNTPs means the phosphodiester bond cannot form. Therefore, when DNA (Taq) polymerase randomly incorporates a ddNTP, DNA strand elongation ceases.",
"id": "10004351",
"label": "a",
"name": "ddNTPs lack a hydroxyl group",
"picture": null,
"votes": 84
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Taq polymerase randomly incorporates a ddNTP which lacks a hydroxyl group, leading to the ceasation of DNA strand elongation as a phosphodiester bond cannot be formed.",
"id": "10004355",
"label": "e",
"name": "Taq polymerase reaches end of the template strand",
"picture": null,
"votes": 108
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. It is the lack of the hydroxyl group on the ddNTPs that is responsible for the cessation of DNA strand elongation.",
"id": "10004352",
"label": "b",
"name": "ddNTPs lack a carboxyl group",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Taq polymerase randomly incorporates a ddNTP which lacks a hydroxyl group, leading to the cessation of DNA strand elongation as a phosphodiester bond cannot be formed.",
"id": "10004354",
"label": "d",
"name": "Taq Polymerase randomly stops synthesising the strand",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. It is the lack of the hydroxyl group on the ddNTPs that is responsible for the cessation of DNA strand elongation.",
"id": "10004353",
"label": "c",
"name": "ddNTPs are fluorescently tagged",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4272",
"name": "DNA sequencing (Sanger sequencing)",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "212",
"name": "Molecular and Cellular Basis of Health and Disease",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 212,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4272,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13417",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Sanger sequencing, or chain termination PCR, is a technique used for DNA sequencing.\n\nWhy does DNA strand elongation arrest during Sanger sequencing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 259,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,455 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,418 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. DNA gyrase reduces supercoiling during DNA unwinding. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.",
"id": "10004358",
"label": "c",
"name": "Gyrase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Topoisomerase (such as DNA gyrase) are involved in relaxing supercoiled DNA. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.",
"id": "10004360",
"label": "e",
"name": "Topoisomerase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.",
"id": "10004356",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ligase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 180
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Telomerase is responsible for the synthesis of telomeric DNA repeats at the 3' ends to protect against DNA loss in rounds of DNA replication. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.",
"id": "10004359",
"label": "d",
"name": "Telomerase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. DNA helicase is involved in unwinding DNA. DNA ligase is the enzyme involved in annealing ends of DNA fragments via the formation of phosphodiester bonds between the 3'-OH of one end with the 5'-phosphate of the other end.",
"id": "10004357",
"label": "b",
"name": "Helicase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4273",
"name": "DNA",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "212",
"name": "Molecular and Cellular Basis of Health and Disease",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 212,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4273,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13418",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
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"question": "When two separate pieces of DNA are cut by the same restriction enzyme it produces complementary sticky ends that can anneal to form one new piece of DNA. This can be done artificially in a lab to form recombinant DNA.\n\nWhat enzymes form phosphodiesterase bonds to assist the annealing process?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 266,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,456 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,419 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. dNTPs are needed in the amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.",
"id": "10004364",
"label": "d",
"name": "dNTPs",
"picture": null,
"votes": 37
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Taq polymerase is needed in the amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.",
"id": "10004363",
"label": "c",
"name": "Taq polymerase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Buffer is needed in the amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.",
"id": "10004365",
"label": "e",
"name": "Buffer to maintain PH",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. DNA primers are needed in amplification of DNA in PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.",
"id": "10004362",
"label": "b",
"name": "DNA Primers",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. CaCl2 is not a necessary component of PCR. The necessary components of PCR include template DNA, DNA polymerase, buffer, magnesium, dNTPs and primers.",
"id": "10004361",
"label": "a",
"name": "CaCl2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 178
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4274",
"name": "PCR",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "212",
"name": "Molecular and Cellular Basis of Health and Disease",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 212,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4274,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13419",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Amplification of DNA in PCR requires the template DNA sequence along with various components.\n\nWhich of the following is not needed?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 256,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,457 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,420 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Although guanosine is involved in the 5' cap the correct answer is methylguanosine as the guanosine is methylated.",
"id": "10004368",
"label": "c",
"name": "Guanosine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 79
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is correct. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.",
"id": "10004370",
"label": "e",
"name": "Guanosine monophosphate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 55
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.",
"id": "10004366",
"label": "a",
"name": "Methylguanosine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 82
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.",
"id": "10004367",
"label": "b",
"name": "Deoxyguanosine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is correct. Guanosine is methylated directly after capping by a methyltransferase and connected to mRNA by a triphosphate bridge.",
"id": "10004369",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ethylguanine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4275",
"name": "mRNA",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "212",
"name": "Molecular and Cellular Basis of Health and Disease",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 212,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4275,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13420",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "During the transcription of eukaryotic mRNA, a cap is added to the 5' end by the linkage of a triphosphate bridge.\n\nWhat molecule makes up the rest of the 5' cap?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 249,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,458 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,421 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.",
"id": "10004371",
"label": "a",
"name": "250ml/hr",
"picture": null,
"votes": 207
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.",
"id": "10004373",
"label": "c",
"name": "25ml/hr",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.",
"id": "10004374",
"label": "d",
"name": "2.5ml/hr",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.",
"id": "10004372",
"label": "b",
"name": "500ml/hr",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 5 litres is equal to 5000ml. If 200mg of the drug is in 5000ml this means that in 50ml there is 2mg of the drug. Therefore 50 x 5 = 250ml for 10mg of the drug. 10mg of the drug is removed after one hour. Therefore the clearance of the drug is 250ml in an hour.",
"id": "10004375",
"label": "e",
"name": "0.25ml/hr",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionComment",
"comment": "this was a hard one \n",
"createdAt": 1685015560,
"dislikes": 0,
"id": "26162",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"likes": 1,
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"questionId": 13421,
"replies": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionComment",
"comment": "too right bro!",
"createdAt": 1685208521,
"dislikes": 0,
"id": "26649",
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"likes": 1,
"parentId": 26162,
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"displayName": "GeneralMcGuffin",
"id": 35177
}
}
],
"user": {
"__typename": "User",
"accessLevel": "subscriber",
"displayName": "Lacerated Haemorrhoid",
"id": 33484
}
}
],
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},
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"name": "Calculation",
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "195",
"name": "Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 195,
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"question": "5 litres contains 200mg of a drug. If 10mg of the drug is removed after 1 hour.\n\nwhat is the clearance of the drug in ml/hr?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 266,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,459 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,422 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The black triangle reporting system is used to report all reactions and side effects caused by new drugs in the market, not just more common side effects. The yellow card scheme is the system patients can use to report adverse drug reactions and common side effects of drugs in the UK.",
"id": "10004378",
"label": "c",
"name": "They tend to pick up more common side effects in the population",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The black triangle reporting system is used for reporting all suspected adverse reactions by newer drugs or vaccines.",
"id": "10004376",
"label": "a",
"name": "Used for drugs that are new to the market",
"picture": null,
"votes": 103
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. All suspected reactions caused by a new drug or vaccine should be reported using the black triangle reporting system.",
"id": "10004379",
"label": "d",
"name": "Only major adverse drug reactions are recorded",
"picture": null,
"votes": 37
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The black triangle reporting system is used for new drugs or vaccines on the market. The yellow card scheme is the system patients can use to report adverse drug reactions and common side effects of drugs in the UK.",
"id": "10004377",
"label": "b",
"name": "Can be used for continual monitoring of drugs that have been on the market for several years",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The yellow card scheme is the system patients can use to report adverse drug reactions and common side effects of drugs in the UK.",
"id": "10004380",
"label": "e",
"name": "They are the main way of monitoring adverse drug reactions in the UK",
"picture": null,
"votes": 44
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4277",
"name": "Adverse drug reactions",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "195",
"name": "Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 195,
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"question": "Adverse drug reactions can be reported using the black triangle reporting system.\n\nWhich of the following statements is correct about the black triangle reporting system?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 259,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,460 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,423 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.",
"id": "10004383",
"label": "c",
"name": "Persistent use despite harmful consequences of the drug’s use",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.",
"id": "10004382",
"label": "b",
"name": "A strong desire or sense of compulsion to take the drug",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.",
"id": "10004384",
"label": "d",
"name": "A physiological withdrawal state and evidence of tolerance of the drug",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This forms part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency.",
"id": "10004385",
"label": "e",
"name": "Prioritising drug use along with neglect of other life pleasures",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. This does not form part of the ICD-10 criteria for drug dependency. The ICD-10 criteria for dependence include a strong desire to take the drug, difficulty in controlling use of the drug, a physiological withdrawal state and symptoms when not taking the drug, tolerance built against the drug, continual use of the drug despite negative consequences and prioritising using the drug over other activities.",
"id": "10004381",
"label": "a",
"name": "Continual use of the drug for at least 6 months, with usage on over 75% of days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 154
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4278",
"name": "ICD-10",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "195",
"name": "Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 195,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "The ICD-10 gives diagnostic guidelines for drug dependency. Three or more factors of the criteria must be present to give a diagnosis.\n\nWhich of the following is not part of the criteria?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 256,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,461 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,424 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.",
"id": "10004387",
"label": "b",
"name": "2L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.",
"id": "10004388",
"label": "c",
"name": "20mL",
"picture": null,
"votes": 55
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.",
"id": "10004386",
"label": "a",
"name": "20L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 132
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.",
"id": "10004389",
"label": "d",
"name": "200mL",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. 120mg x 0.25 (bioavailability) = 30mg of the drug. If there is 1.5mg of the drug in 1L then 30mg must be in 20L as 30/1.5 = 20.",
"id": "10004390",
"label": "e",
"name": "40L",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4276",
"name": "Calculation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "195",
"name": "Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 195,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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},
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"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13424",
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"question": "120mg of a drug is administered orally to a patient. This drug has a bioavailability of 0.25 and when measured later its concentration within the plasma is 1.5mg/L.\n\nWhat is the correct value for the apparent volume of distribution of the drug?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 248,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,462 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,425 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors include postural hypotension and lightheadedness.",
"id": "10004395",
"label": "e",
"name": "Postural hypotension",
"picture": null,
"votes": 64
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors include both diarrhoea and constipation.",
"id": "10004392",
"label": "b",
"name": "Constipation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors do not usually cause decreased appetite and typically cause weight gain.",
"id": "10004391",
"label": "a",
"name": "Decreased appetite",
"picture": null,
"votes": 93
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors include insomnia.",
"id": "10004394",
"label": "d",
"name": "Insomnia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Common side effects of monoamine oxidase inhibitors includes a dry mouth.",
"id": "10004393",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dry mouth",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4279",
"name": "Pharmacology of psychiatric drugs",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "213",
"name": "Mind (psychiatry)",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 213,
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"typeId": null,
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},
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"highlights": [],
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"pictures": [],
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors have various side effects.\n\nWhich of the following is not a side effect of these drugs?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 265,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,463 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,426 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. According to the NICE guidelines, SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are much less frequently used than other antidepressants.",
"id": "10004400",
"label": "e",
"name": "Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. According to the NICE guidelines, SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression. SNRIs such as duloxetine are commonly used if SSRIs fail to improve symptoms.",
"id": "10004397",
"label": "b",
"name": "SNRI",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The first-line medication for the management of depression in adults according to the NICE guidelines are SSRIs such as sertraline.",
"id": "10004396",
"label": "a",
"name": "SSRI",
"picture": null,
"votes": 271
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. According to the NICE guidelines, SSRIs are the first-line treatment for depression. Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline are commonly used if SSRIs fail to improve symptoms.",
"id": "10004398",
"label": "c",
"name": "Tricyclic antidepressants",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Benzodiazepines are used for the treatment of anxiety and agitation.",
"id": "10004399",
"label": "d",
"name": "Benzodiazepines",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4280",
"name": "Depression",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "213",
"name": "Mind (psychiatry)",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 213,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4280,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13426",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "According to the NICE guidelines, which of the following is the first-line treatment for depression?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 278,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,464 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,427 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The COCP is contraindicated in patients who have a history of thromboembolism due to increasing the risk of blood clots.",
"id": "10004402",
"label": "b",
"name": "The combined oral contraception pill",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The hormonal coil (IUS) is contraindicated in patients who have a history of thromboembolism due to increasing the risk of blood clots.",
"id": "10004405",
"label": "e",
"name": "IUS (hormonal coil)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The progesterone-only pill is contraindicated in patients who have a history of thromboembolism due to increasing the risk of blood clots.",
"id": "10004404",
"label": "d",
"name": "Progesterone only pill",
"picture": null,
"votes": 66
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The contraceptive injection is contraindicated in patients who have a history of thromboembolism due to increasing the risk of blood clots.",
"id": "10004403",
"label": "c",
"name": "Depo-Provera (contraceptive injection)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The copper coil is safe to use in patients with a history of thromboembolism.",
"id": "10004401",
"label": "a",
"name": "Copper coil (IUCD)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 168
}
],
"comments": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionComment",
"comment": "This answer and explanation is not based in NICE guidelines or research papers, and appears to only be supported by a case study report. ",
"createdAt": 1682627648,
"dislikes": 0,
"id": "22842",
"isLikedByMe": 0,
"likes": 0,
"parentId": null,
"questionId": 13427,
"replies": [],
"user": {
"__typename": "User",
"accessLevel": "subscriber",
"displayName": "torietots",
"id": 28047
}
}
],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4281",
"name": "Contraception",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "214",
"name": "Reproduction",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 214,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4281,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13427",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 39-year-old woman presents to the GP asking for contraception. On further questioning, she is found to have a past medical history of thromboembolism (DVT).\n\nWhat contraception option would be best suited for her to take?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 268,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,465 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,428 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Prostaglandin E2 is used to induce labour by stimulating the cervix to dilate.",
"id": "10004408",
"label": "c",
"name": "Prostaglandin E2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 69
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Terbutaline is a beta-2 receptor agonist and is referred to as a tocolytic drug. It acts by relaxing the myometrium and delaying contractions.",
"id": "10004406",
"label": "a",
"name": "Terbutaline",
"picture": null,
"votes": 77
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Oxytocin is used to induce labour by stimulating the contraction of the uterus.",
"id": "10004407",
"label": "b",
"name": "Oxytocin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Labetalol is used in the management of pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.",
"id": "10004409",
"label": "d",
"name": "Labetalol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Magnesium sulphate is used in the management of eclampsia in pregnancy.",
"id": "10004410",
"label": "e",
"name": "Magnesium sulphate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 69
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4282",
"name": "Labour",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "214",
"name": "Reproduction",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 214,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"difficulty": 1,
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"question": "A 32-year-old pregnant woman has prematurely entered labour. The doctor wants to delay the woman's uterine contractions.\n\nWhat medication should be given?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 267,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,466 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,429 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Fertilisation occurs at the ampulla of the fallopian tube.",
"id": "10004411",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ampulla",
"picture": null,
"votes": 219
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Fertilisation occurs at the ampulla of the fallopian tube. The fimbriae are responsible for catching the ovulated egg and sweeping the egg into the fallopian tube.",
"id": "10004415",
"label": "e",
"name": "Fimbriae of the fallopian tube",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Fertilisation occurs at the ampulla of the fallopian tube. The uterine cavity is where the fetus grows and develops.",
"id": "10004414",
"label": "d",
"name": "Uterine cavity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Fertilisation occurs at the ampulla of the fallopian tube.",
"id": "10004413",
"label": "c",
"name": "Isthmus of the fallopian tube",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Fertilisation occurs at the ampulla of the fallopian tube.",
"id": "10004412",
"label": "b",
"name": "Infundibulum of the fallopian tube",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4283",
"name": "Fertilisation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "214",
"name": "Reproduction",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 214,
"totalCards": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13429",
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Where does fertilisation typically take place?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 271,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,467 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,430 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The morula contains 16 cells and is the stage before the embryo becomes a blastocyst.",
"id": "10004417",
"label": "b",
"name": "Morula",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The embryo becomes a blastocyst first before implantation occurs.",
"id": "10004420",
"label": "e",
"name": "8 cell stage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. A blastocyst is when the embryo reaches a stage where it is a rapidly dividing ball of cells. The embryo reaches the blastocyst stage around 5 days after fertilisation after which it begins to implant into the uterine wall.",
"id": "10004416",
"label": "a",
"name": "Blastocyst",
"picture": null,
"votes": 212
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The embryo becomes a blastocyst first before implantation occurs.",
"id": "10004419",
"label": "d",
"name": "4 cell stage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A zygote is a diploid cell formed after fertilisation when the two haploid gametes fuse.",
"id": "10004418",
"label": "c",
"name": "Zygote",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4284",
"name": "Implantation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "214",
"name": "Reproduction",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 214,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4284,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13430",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
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"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "When the fertilised egg implants into the uterine wall, what stage of development is it at?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 268,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,468 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,431 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Edward's syndrome is a genetic condition that has an extremely low life expectancy with most babies affected not living past their 1st birthday. The key features of Edward's syndrome include micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet and overlapping of fingers.",
"id": "10004423",
"label": "c",
"name": "Edward's syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Turner's syndrome results when one of the X chromosomes is missing (XO). This results in a range of problems including a short height, heart defects and failure of the development of ovaries. A webbed neck and a high-arched palate are commonly seen in Turner's syndrome.",
"id": "10004421",
"label": "a",
"name": "Turner's syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 224
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. William's syndrome is a developmental disorder due to microdeletion on chromosome 7 that causes mild to moderate intellectual disability, learning problems and short stature. Other features include elfin-like facies, a very friendly personality and supra-valvular aortic stenosis.",
"id": "10004425",
"label": "e",
"name": "William's syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is when a person has the genotype of a male (XY) but the phenotype of a female due to a lack of function of androgens. This would present as a female with a lack of starting periods along with little or no axillary and pubic hair. On examination, there may be groin swellings indicative of undescended testes. In this case, the short stature, webbed neck and high-arched palate are suggestive of Turner's syndrome.",
"id": "10004424",
"label": "d",
"name": "Androgen insensitivity syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Although Noonan syndrome also presents with a webbed neck, short stature and potentially delayed secondary sexual characteristics, it is less likely in this case than Turner's syndrome. Additionally, other features of Noonan syndrome are not present such as pulmonary stenosis and pectus excavated.",
"id": "10004422",
"label": "b",
"name": "Noonan syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4285",
"name": "Pubertal disorders",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "214",
"name": "Reproduction",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 214,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4285,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13431",
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 17-year-old girl presents to the GP worried about not starting her period yet. On examination, she has a short stature, a webbed neck and a high-arched palate.\n\nWhich of the following syndromes is she likely to have?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 267,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,469 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,432 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Oestrogen levels rise in the mid-follicular phase and drop after ovulation before rising again in the mid-luteal phase and decreasing at the end of the menstrual cycle. However, progesterone plays a role in maintaining the endometrial lining. Therefore, the fall in progesterone leads to the shedding of the endometrial lining and causes menstruation.",
"id": "10004427",
"label": "b",
"name": "Oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. When the corpus luteum dies, there is a fall in progesterone. As progesterone plays a role in maintaining the endometrial lining, the fall in progesterone leads to the shedding of the endometrial lining and causes menstruation.",
"id": "10004426",
"label": "a",
"name": "Progesterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 201
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Testosterone does not play a vital role in the menstrual cycle.",
"id": "10004430",
"label": "e",
"name": "Testosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. LH aids in egg maturation and ovulation during the menstrual cycle.",
"id": "10004428",
"label": "c",
"name": "LH",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. FSH is involved in stimulating follicular growth and selecting the dominant follicle prior to ovulation.",
"id": "10004429",
"label": "d",
"name": "FSH",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4286",
"name": "Menstrual cycle",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "214",
"name": "Reproduction",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 214,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4286,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13432",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A fall in which hormone causes menstruation?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 273,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,470 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,433 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The Mullerian ducts develop into the female reproductive system. The regression of the Mullerian ducts is caused by the presence of AMH and this leads to the development of the male reproductive organs.",
"id": "10004434",
"label": "d",
"name": "The presence of oestrogen causes regression of the Mullerian ducts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The presence of AMH causes regression of the Mullerian ducts whilst the presence of testosterone causes growth of the Wolffian ducts. This leads to the development of the male reproductive system.",
"id": "10004432",
"label": "b",
"name": "The lack of AMH and testosterone causes regression of the Mullerian ducts and development of the Wolffian ducts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The presence of testosterone causes the Wolffian ducts to develop into the male reproductive organs.",
"id": "10004435",
"label": "e",
"name": "The presence of oestrogen causes the development of the Wolffian ducts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The lack of testosterone causes regression of the Wolffian ducts.",
"id": "10004433",
"label": "c",
"name": "The presence of oestrogen causes the regression of the Wolffian ducts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The lack of testosterone causes regression of the Wolffian ducts whilst the lack of AMH inhibits the regression of the Mullerian ducts, hence allowing the Mullerian ducts to develop. This starts the development of the female reproductive system.",
"id": "10004431",
"label": "a",
"name": "The lack of AMH and testosterone causes regression of the Wolffian ducts and development of the Mullerian ducts",
"picture": null,
"votes": 217
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4287",
"name": "Sexual differentiation",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "214",
"name": "Reproduction",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 214,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4287,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13433",
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"question": "During sexual differentiation, the Mullerian ducts and Wolffian ducts are the progenitors for female and male reproductive organs respectively. Sex hormones play vital roles in controlling sexual differentiation.\n\nWhich of the following is true for the development of the female reproductive organs?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 265,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,471 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,434 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. This is expected when a child is 12 months old",
"id": "10004436",
"label": "a",
"name": "Walks with one hand held",
"picture": null,
"votes": 186
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This is expected when a child is 3 years old.",
"id": "10004438",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ride a tricycle using pedals",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This is expected when a child is 2 years old.",
"id": "10004437",
"label": "b",
"name": "Walk upstairs and downstairs holding onto a rail",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This is expected when a child is 3 years old.",
"id": "10004439",
"label": "d",
"name": "Talks in short sentences",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This is expected when a child is 2 and a half years old.",
"id": "10004440",
"label": "e",
"name": "The vocabulary of 200 words",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4288",
"name": "Developmental milestones",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "215",
"name": "Growth",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 215,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4288,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13434",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is a 14-month-old child expected to be able to do?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 260,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,472 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,435 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IgG1 is produced early on during development.",
"id": "10004443",
"label": "c",
"name": "IgG1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IgE levels rise in childhood and peak at around 15 years old.",
"id": "10004445",
"label": "e",
"name": "IgE",
"picture": null,
"votes": 72
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. IgA is the last to reach adult levels during development. Babies receive IgA from breast milk.",
"id": "10004441",
"label": "a",
"name": "IgA",
"picture": null,
"votes": 83
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IgG2 is produced later than IgG1 and IgG3 but it reaches adult levels before IgA.",
"id": "10004444",
"label": "d",
"name": "IgG2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 29
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IgG4 is produced later than IgG1 and IgG3 but it reaches adult levels before IgA.",
"id": "10004442",
"label": "b",
"name": "IgG4",
"picture": null,
"votes": 56
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4289",
"name": "Immunity",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "215",
"name": "Growth",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 215,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4289,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13435",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Following birth, which antibody is the last to be produced and reach adult levels?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 263,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,473 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,436 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Progesterone does not inhibit prolactin.",
"id": "10004449",
"label": "d",
"name": "Progesterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Oxytocin stimulates prolactin secretion.",
"id": "10004447",
"label": "b",
"name": "Oxytocin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Dopamine inhibits prolactin production via the dopamine receptor 2.",
"id": "10004446",
"label": "a",
"name": "Dopamine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 178
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Testosterone does not inhibit prolactin.",
"id": "10004450",
"label": "e",
"name": "Testosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Oestrogen stimulates prolactin production.",
"id": "10004448",
"label": "c",
"name": "Oestrogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4290",
"name": "Breastfeeding",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "215",
"name": "Growth",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 215,
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},
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"question": "Prolactin is the main hormone that drives lactation for breastfeeding.\n\nWhich of the following hormones inhibits prolactin action?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 270,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,474 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,437 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing results in an increase in body fat percentage and a decrease in lean muscle mass.",
"id": "10004453",
"label": "c",
"name": "A change in drug distribution due to a decrease in body fat percentage and an increase in lean muscle mass",
"picture": null,
"votes": 43
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. In the elderly, there is a reduction in gastric pH and a reduction in intestinal blood flow which can decrease drug absorption.",
"id": "10004451",
"label": "a",
"name": "Generalised decrease in drug absorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 196
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing results in a reduction in liver blood flow.",
"id": "10004454",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hepatic blood flow increases",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing results in a decreased renal elimination of drugs.",
"id": "10004452",
"label": "b",
"name": "Renal excretion unchanged",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing results in a decrease in hepatic drug metabolism.",
"id": "10004455",
"label": "e",
"name": "Intrinsic hepatic drug metabolism increases",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
}
],
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"id": "4291",
"name": "Pharmacokinetics with ageing",
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"name": "Ageing",
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},
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"question": "What changes are observed in pharmacokinetics with increased age?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 264,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,475 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,438 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing causes a decline in the glomerular filtration rate.",
"id": "10004457",
"label": "b",
"name": "The glomerular filtration rate increases",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing results in a stiffer bladder wall which is not able to hold as much volume as before.",
"id": "10004460",
"label": "e",
"name": "The bladder wall becomes more flexible and elastic",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The prostate increases in size during ageing in men with benign prostatic hyperplasia being a common medical condition in this population.",
"id": "10004458",
"label": "c",
"name": "Prostatic gland shrinks",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Ageing causes a decline in the glomerular filtration rate. Nephron loss also occurs.",
"id": "10004456",
"label": "a",
"name": "The glomerular filtration rate declines",
"picture": null,
"votes": 213
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing does not cause the urethral mucosa to hypertrophy.",
"id": "10004459",
"label": "d",
"name": "Urethral mucosa hypertrophies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
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"id": "4292",
"name": "Urinary system and ageing",
"status": null,
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"name": "Ageing",
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},
"topicId": 216,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "How does the urinary system change during ageing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 263,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,476 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,439 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. During ageing, the epidermis does become thinner but the number of cell layers within the epidermis stays the same.",
"id": "10004462",
"label": "b",
"name": "The epidermis thins and the number of cell layers decrease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 82
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. During ageing, the epidermis becomes thinner. However, the number of cell layers within the epidermis stays the same.",
"id": "10004461",
"label": "a",
"name": "The epidermis thins but the number of cell layers remains the same",
"picture": null,
"votes": 151
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The dermis thickness may decrease with age.",
"id": "10004465",
"label": "e",
"name": "The dermis becomes thicker",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A decrease in melanocytes would make the skin paler.",
"id": "10004463",
"label": "c",
"name": "The number of melanocytes increases making the skin more pale",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Skin elasticity decreases due to a reduction in collagen and elastin.",
"id": "10004464",
"label": "d",
"name": "Skin elasticity increases giving rise to wrinkles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4293",
"name": "Skin and ageing",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "216",
"name": "Ageing",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 216,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "Which of the following is true regarding changes to the skin during ageing?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 263,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,477 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,440 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. There is no change in tidal volume with age.",
"id": "10004470",
"label": "e",
"name": "The tidal volume decreases",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. During ageing, there is a decrease in total body water so blood volume also decreases.",
"id": "10004468",
"label": "c",
"name": "There is an increase in total body water and blood volume",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The maximum cardiac output and aerobic capacity are reduced during ageing.",
"id": "10004466",
"label": "a",
"name": "The maximum cardiac output is generally reduced with age",
"picture": null,
"votes": 197
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ageing causes a decrease in the strength of respiratory muscles which can lead to a reduced effectiveness in coughing to clear airway secretions.",
"id": "10004469",
"label": "d",
"name": "The respiratory muscles increase in strength",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. During ageing, the aorta becomes thicker and stiffer.",
"id": "10004467",
"label": "b",
"name": "The aorta becomes thinner increasing the likelihood of tears",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
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"id": "4294",
"name": "Cardiorespiratory system and ageing",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
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"name": "Ageing",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 216,
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"question": "In the elderly, which of the following changes in the cardiorespiratory system can be observed?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 259,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,478 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,441 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hemotoxins are toxins that destroy red blood cells. Clostridium tetani releases exotoxins into the bloodstream.",
"id": "10004474",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hemotoxin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Clostridium tetani release exotoxins into the bloodstream.",
"id": "10004473",
"label": "c",
"name": "Chemical toxin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. An endotoxin is released when bacteria are lysed. Clostridium tetani release exotoxins into the bloodstream.",
"id": "10004472",
"label": "b",
"name": "Endotoxin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 88
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Phototoxins cause one to become photosensitive. Clostridium tetani release exotoxins into the bloodstream.",
"id": "10004475",
"label": "e",
"name": "Phototoxic",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. An exotoxin is a toxin excreted by organisms.",
"id": "10004471",
"label": "a",
"name": "Exotoxin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 145
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4295",
"name": "Toxins",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "217",
"name": "Immunity",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 217,
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"question": "Tetanus is an infection caused by Clostridium tetani. This bacteria releases toxins into the blood to cause symptoms including painful muscle contraction.\n\nWhat kind of toxin is released?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 261,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,479 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,442 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. MHC class II presents antigens to helper T cells with CD4+ receptors. Cytotoxic T cells recognise antigens that are presented by MHC protein type 1.",
"id": "10004478",
"label": "c",
"name": "MHC class II",
"picture": null,
"votes": 52
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Cytotoxic T cells recognise antigens that are presented by MHC protein type 1 via CD8+ receptors.",
"id": "10004476",
"label": "a",
"name": "MHC class I molecules",
"picture": null,
"votes": 204
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Antibodies bind to and recognise a specific antigen. Antibodies then stimulate the complement system and phagocytes to destroy pathogens. Cytotoxic T cells recognise antigens that are presented by MHC protein type 1.",
"id": "10004477",
"label": "b",
"name": "Antibodies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Cytotoxic T cells recognise antigens that are presented by MHC protein type 1.",
"id": "10004479",
"label": "d",
"name": "MHC class III",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Interleukins are involved in inflammatory and immune responses but they do not present antigens to cytotoxic T cells. Cytotoxic T cells recognise antigens that are presented by MHC protein type 1.",
"id": "10004480",
"label": "e",
"name": "Interleukins",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"id": "4296",
"name": "T cells",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "217",
"name": "Immunity",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 217,
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"question": "A 5-year-old boy is brought to the GP by his father with a sore throat and cough. The GP believes this is most likely a viral infection.\n\nWhich of the antigens of the following present to cytotoxic T cells for the immune system to fight off the infection?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 269,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,480 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,443 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IL-1 promotes the recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation through the release of chemokines. However, interferon-gamma promotes macrophages to aid in defence against microbes.",
"id": "10004482",
"label": "b",
"name": "IL-1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IL-4 promotes the recruitment of inflammatory cells at the site of inflammation through the release of chemokines as well as regulating antibody production. However, interferon gamma promotes macrophages to aid in defence against microbes.",
"id": "10004483",
"label": "c",
"name": "IL-4",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. IL-10 has anti-inflammatory properties hence limiting the host's immune response. Interferon-gamma promotes macrophages to aid in defence against microbes.",
"id": "10004485",
"label": "e",
"name": "IL-10",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. C3 protein is not a cytokine and is essential for activating the complement system. Interferon-gamma promotes macrophages to aid in defence against microbes.",
"id": "10004484",
"label": "d",
"name": "C3",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Interferon-gamma promotes macrophages to aid in defence against microbes.",
"id": "10004481",
"label": "a",
"name": "Interferon-gamma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 169
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "4297",
"name": "Macrophages",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "217",
"name": "Immunity",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 217,
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"question": "A 32-year-old male comes into the A+E with a history of haemoptysis and wakes up at night in a pool of sweat. On further questioning, it is discovered that he returned from a holiday in Pakistan a few months ago. A diagnosis of tuberculosis is suspected. Macrophages are involved in the defence against tuberculosis.\n\nWhich cytokines are primarily responsible for activating these macrophages?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 272,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,481 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,444 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The diphtheria vaccine is a toxoid vaccine (inactivated toxin).",
"id": "10004489",
"label": "d",
"name": "Diphtheria",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The pertussis vaccine is a toxoid vaccine (inactivated toxin).",
"id": "10004490",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pertussis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The tetanus vaccine is a toxoid vaccine (inactivated toxin).",
"id": "10004488",
"label": "c",
"name": "Tetanus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The MMR vaccine is an example of a live attenuated vaccine.",
"id": "10004486",
"label": "a",
"name": "Measles, Mumps and Rubella",
"picture": null,
"votes": 188
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The rabies vaccine is inactivated.",
"id": "10004487",
"label": "b",
"name": "Rabies",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
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"id": "4298",
"name": "Vaccines",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which one of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 271,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,482 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,056 | null | false | [] | null | 13,445 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The woman is safe to receive this blood type as she will not have anti-A antibodies.",
"id": "10004494",
"label": "d",
"name": "A-",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The woman is safe to receive this blood type as she will not have anti-B antibodies.",
"id": "10004493",
"label": "c",
"name": "B-",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. O- blood is the universal donor as anyone can receive this blood.",
"id": "10004492",
"label": "b",
"name": "O-",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The woman is safe to receive this blood type as she will not have anti-A or anti-B antibodies.",
"id": "10004495",
"label": "e",
"name": "AB-",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. As the woman has Rhesus negative blood, she will have antibodies against rhesus positive blood hence she cannot have blood from an A+ donor.",
"id": "10004491",
"label": "a",
"name": "A+",
"picture": null,
"votes": 235
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4299",
"name": "Complement",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "217",
"name": "Immunity",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 217,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4299,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13445",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
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"question": "A 45-year-old woman requires an emergency blood transfusion. Her blood type is AB-.\n\nWhich of the following blood donors can she not have?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 269,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,461,574 | false | 1 | null | 6,495,062 | null | false | [] | null | 13,446 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This enzyme catalyses the splitting of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate into glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate. This is the step in glycolysis after the main rate-limiting step catalysed by phosphofructokinase and has little regulatory effect on the glycolysis rate.",
"id": "10004498",
"label": "c",
"name": "Fructose-bisphosphate aldolase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This enzyme decarboxylates oxalosuccinate to A-ketoglutarate and CO2. This reaction is the main rate-limiting step of the citric acid cycle.",
"id": "10004500",
"label": "e",
"name": "Isocitrate dehydrogenase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This catalyses the conversion of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate. This reaction is the rate-limiting step in gluconeogenesis, not glycolysis.",
"id": "10004497",
"label": "b",
"name": "Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 85
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This catalyses the phosphorylation of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-biphosphate. It is allosterically activated by AMP and inhibited by ATP, allowing the rate of glycolysis to be altered according to the energetic demands of the cell.",
"id": "10004496",
"label": "a",
"name": "Phosphofructokinase-1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 199
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase is not involved in glycolysis. This decarboxylates pyruvate to generate acetyl-CoA, the starting point for the citric acid cycle.",
"id": "10004499",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pyruvate dehydrogenase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 102
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3941",
"name": "Glycolysis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "180",
"name": "Biochemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 180,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3941,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13446",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "The activity of which enzyme has the greatest effect on the rate of glycolysis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 393,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
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