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"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst the patient's hypertension is classified as Stage 2, Amlodipine, a Calcium-Channel Blocker would be inappropriate first-line therapy as this woman has Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.",
"id": "10002495",
"label": "d",
"name": "Stage 2 Hypertension and commence the patient on Amlodipine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Stage 3 hypertension is defined as a blood pressure of >180/120 in the clinic and IV Nitroprusside would only be administered where there are signs of papilloedema and/or retinal haemorrhage.",
"id": "10002494",
"label": "c",
"name": "Stage 3 Hypertension and immediate administration of IV Nitroprusside",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as stage 1 hypertension is defined as clinic BP of 140/90 - 159/99 mmHg. ABPM is used to confirm the clinical diagnosis of both stage 1 & stage 2 hypertension.",
"id": "10002496",
"label": "e",
"name": "Stage 1 Hypertension and confirm via Ambulatory Blood Pressure Measurements (ABPM)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This patient's reading is 165/110 mmHg, and the threshold for stage 2 Hypertension in the clinic is ≥ 160/100 mmHg. NICE guidelines recommend the use of ABPM to confirm the diagnosis.",
"id": "10002492",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stage 2 Hypertension and confirm via Ambulatory Blood Pressure Measurements (ABPM)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 140
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "While this patient does have stage 2 hypertension in the clinic measurements, and Ramipril would be the appropriate first-line treatment for this patient, NICE guidelines recommend ABPM to exclude the possibility of white coat hypertension before commencing any pharmacological interventions.",
"id": "10002493",
"label": "b",
"name": "Stage 2 Hypertension and commence the patient on Ramipril",
"picture": null,
"votes": 70
}
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"question": "A 47-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine review of her Type 2 diabetes medication. The GP performs her blood pressure which reads 165/110 mmHg.\n\nWhat is the best interpretation and appropriate course of action for this reading?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
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173,460,743 | false | 2 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,046 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "There is no stage 5 in the Keith-Wagener classification.",
"id": "10015629",
"label": "e",
"name": "Stage 5",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as stage 3 is due to ischaemic changes and retinal infarction which causes damage to nerve fibres. This is what results in the cotton-wool-like patches. Stage 3 is also where hard exudates and haemorrhages are seen due to lipids and blood leaking into the retina from damaged vessels.",
"id": "10002499",
"label": "c",
"name": "Stage 3",
"picture": null,
"votes": 59
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct, the silver wiring is due to the walls of the arterioles becoming thickened and sclerosed, resulting in an increase in light reflection, which gives the characteristic silver look.",
"id": "10002497",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stage 1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 86
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as stage 4 is characterised by papilloedema, which is a result of ischaemia to the optic nerve, causing oedema of the optic nerve and blurring of the disc margins.",
"id": "10002500",
"label": "d",
"name": "Stage 4",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as stage 2 is due to the focal constriction of blood vessels and arteriovenous nipping where the arterioles compress the veins they cross.",
"id": "10002498",
"label": "b",
"name": "Stage 2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 53
}
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"typeId": 7
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"question": "A 73-year-old woman with a longstanding history of hypertension has been observed on fundoscopy to have silver wiring.\n\nWhich of the following is the Keith-Wagener classification of her hypertensive retinopathy?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
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173,460,744 | false | 3 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,047 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Thiazide-like diuretics are reserved for second and/or third-line treatment in the management of Hypertension.",
"id": "10002504",
"label": "d",
"name": "Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this patient is from an afro-caribbean background and does not have type 2 diabetes mellitus, therefore under NICE guidelines for hypertension would not be suitable for an ACE inhibitor.",
"id": "10002503",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ramipril 2.5mg once daily",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), such as Candesartan are used for second and/or third-line management of hypertension in patients from Afro-Caribbean backgrounds who do not have Type 2 diabetes mellitus.",
"id": "10002505",
"label": "e",
"name": "Candesartan 8mg once daily",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "As the patient is of Afro-Caribbean origin and does not have Type 2 diabetes mellitus, a calcium-channel blocker such as amlodipine is the correct drug to prescribe as first-line management in this case.",
"id": "10002501",
"label": "a",
"name": "Amlodipine 5mg once daily",
"picture": null,
"votes": 138
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst a calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine is appropriate first-line management for this patient, NICE guidelines recommend an initial dose of 5mg once daily for hypertension, which can be increased up to 10mg if necessary.",
"id": "10002502",
"label": "b",
"name": "Amlodipine 10mg once daily",
"picture": null,
"votes": 51
}
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"name": "Hypertension",
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"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
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"question": "A 40-year-old Black Male has just been diagnosed with hypertension after having a clinic blood pressure of 163/102 mmHg and later confirmed via Ambulatory Blood Pressure Measurements (APBM).\n\nWhat is appropriate first-line management?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
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173,460,745 | false | 4 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,048 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The Mitral valve is correct, as it is located between the left atrium and left ventricle, thus controlling the flow of blood into the left ventricle. The Mitral valve is best auscultated in the fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line.",
"id": "10002506",
"label": "a",
"name": "Mitral Valve, fifth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line",
"picture": null,
"votes": 192
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst the mitral valve being located between the left atria and left ventricle means it controls the flow of blood into the left ventricle, this option is incorrect as the mitral valve is best auscultated in the mid-clavicular line in the fifth intercostal space.",
"id": "10002510",
"label": "e",
"name": "Mitral Valve, second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The aortic valve is incorrect, as it is located between the left ventricle and ascending aorta, meaning it controls the flow of blood out of the left ventricle.",
"id": "10002507",
"label": "b",
"name": "Aortic Valve, second intercostal space, right sternal border",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The Tricuspid valve is incorrect as it is located in between the right atrium and right ventricle, therefore it controls the flow of blood into the right ventricle.",
"id": "10002508",
"label": "c",
"name": "Tricuspid Valve, fifth intercostal space, left sternal border",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The Pulmonary valve is incorrect as it is located between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk, controlling the flow of blood out of the right ventricle.",
"id": "10002509",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pulmonary Valve, Second intercostal space, left sternal border",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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"id": "4046",
"name": "Anatomy",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
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"question": "You are on the Cardiology Ward Round when the consultant asks the FY2 to listen to the heart valve which controls the flow of blood into the left ventricle, what is this valve called and where is it best auscultated?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 213,
"typeId": 1,
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173,460,746 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,049 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Despite an Echocardiogram being useful in investigating Ejection Fraction and the status of the heart valves, it would not be an immediate investigation in this case.",
"id": "10002515",
"label": "e",
"name": "Echocardiogram",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "ECG is the correct answer. An urgent ECG is required in every patient that has a suspected Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS). ECG is the gold-standard method for helping to diagnose and differentiate between Acute Coronary Syndromes.",
"id": "10002511",
"label": "a",
"name": "ECG",
"picture": null,
"votes": 194
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Gastroscopy is an investigation indicated in suspected GORD with red flag symptoms such as weight loss. As this patient has strong indicators from the history pointing to an ACS, gastroscopy would not be an appropriate investigation.",
"id": "10002514",
"label": "d",
"name": "Gastroscopy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although a CT Pulmonary Angiography is useful in diagnosing/ excluding a pulmonary embolism as a cause for chest pain, it would not be a first-line investigation in this case.",
"id": "10002513",
"label": "c",
"name": "CTPA",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst a Chest X-ray can be useful in assessing for signs of heart failure, other causes of chest pain and pulmonary oedema, it is not the most urgent investigation required in this case.",
"id": "10002512",
"label": "b",
"name": "Chest X-Ray",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
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"id": "3713",
"name": "Myocardial infarction and Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS)",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
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"question": "A 60-year-old male with a 40-pack-year history of smoking presents to the Emergency Department with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw, shortness of breath and clamminess, what is the most urgent investigation to perform?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 212,
"typeId": 1,
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173,460,747 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,050 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although amlodipine is a Calcium-Channel Blocker that reduces peripheral vascular resistance by inhibiting vascular smooth muscle contraction and cardiac muscle contraction, it is not indicated in heart failure.",
"id": "10002519",
"label": "d",
"name": "Amlodipine - lowers heart rate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst propanolol causes lower arterial blood pressure, it is not due to vasodilation, it is instead due to less calcium influx through L-type calcium channels on cardiomyocytes, decreasing the heart rate. Propanolol is not used in patients with heart failure",
"id": "10002518",
"label": "c",
"name": "Propanolol - causes vasodilation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although Ivabradine reduces heart rate by acting on the sinoatrial node, it is second-line management in heart failure.",
"id": "10002520",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ivabradine - reduces heart rate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor (ACEi) that inhibits the conversion of Angiotensin I into Angiotensin II. Amongst other funstions, angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, so by inhibiting its production, the ACEi Ramipril is able to cause vasodilation, reducing strain on the heart. Angiotensin II has a number of other effects that lead to lowering of blood pressure, including: sympathetic activation, sodium reabsorption in the kidneys, aldosterone release and ADH release.",
"id": "10002516",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ramipril - causes vasodilation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst Furosemide inhibits Na-K-Cl cotransporters in the thick ascending loop of Henle, it is nor first line management in heart failure.",
"id": "10002517",
"label": "b",
"name": "Furosemide - loop diuretic",
"picture": null,
"votes": 158
}
],
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"id": "3798",
"name": "Heart Failure",
"status": null,
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"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A 76-year-old female has been diagnosed with Left Ventricular Systolic dysfunction and Heart failure after being referred to a cardiologist by her GP following swollen ankles. The cardiologist prescribes some medication which she has to take once a day.\n\nWhat is the name of this medication and what is the mechanism of action?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 210,
"typeId": 1,
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173,460,748 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,051 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Due to the significant smoking history, and classical clinical features of breathlessness on exertion, productive cough but no haemoptysis, COPD is the most likely diagnosis.",
"id": "10002521",
"label": "a",
"name": "COPD",
"picture": null,
"votes": 194
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "PE is a good differential, however as the breathlessness has been present for 6 months, and there is no haemoptysis, this makes it a very unlikely underlying cause of the patients' symptoms.",
"id": "10002524",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pulmonary Embolism (PE)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "CAP is unlikely as the patient is not reporting a fever, or showing other signs of infection.",
"id": "10002523",
"label": "c",
"name": "Community-Acquired Pneumonia (CAP)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst Asthma and COPD can be hard to differentiate, in this case, the age and smoking history points to COPD.",
"id": "10002525",
"label": "e",
"name": "Asthma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst lung cancer is a relevant differential diagnosis, considering the patient's smoking history, there is no weight loss reported in the scenario nor haemoptysis so malignancy is unlikely.",
"id": "10002522",
"label": "b",
"name": "Lung Cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
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"name": "COPD",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A 58-year-old male presents to his GP after becoming breathless in everyday activities such as climbing the stairs for the past 6 months. The patient remarks he has a productive cough, but there is no blood and has been getting more chest infections recently. The patient has a 30-pack-year smoking history. On examination, the patient is afebrile and coarse crackles are auscultated at the base of the lungs bilaterally.\n\nWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 210,
"typeId": 1,
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173,460,749 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,052 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Type II hypersensitivity reactions occur in hours-days. An example of Type II hypersensitivity reactions is autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Type III reactions are mediated by IgG and IgM.",
"id": "10002527",
"label": "b",
"name": "Type II reaction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Type V hypersensitivity reactions occur when antibodies are produced to stimulate specific cell targets, for example Graves disease.",
"id": "10002530",
"label": "e",
"name": "Type V",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct as Type I hypersensitivity reactions occur in asthma. This involves an immediate reaction (a matter of minutes) mediated by IgE.",
"id": "10002526",
"label": "a",
"name": "Type I reaction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 178
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Type IV hypersensitivty is delayed, typically occurring 24-72 hours after exposure. This type of reaction is also T-cell mediated. An example is contact dermatitis.",
"id": "10002529",
"label": "d",
"name": "Type IV reaction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Type III hypersensitivity reactions can occur over hours, days or even weeks. A common example of Type III hypersensitivity reaction is rheumatoid arthritis. This reaction is mediated by an antigen-antibody complex.",
"id": "10002528",
"label": "c",
"name": "Type III reaction",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3725",
"name": "Asthma",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "An 8-year-old girl was helping her mother clean out an old dusty garage. Soon she becomes breathless and has a feeling of tightness in her chest.\n\nWhat type of hypersensitivity reaction has occurred?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 212,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,750 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,053 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as *Klebsiella pneumoniae* are more commonly implicated in cases of ventilator-associated pneumonia.",
"id": "10002534",
"label": "d",
"name": "*Klebsiella pneumoniae*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct as *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is the most common type of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP).",
"id": "10002531",
"label": "a",
"name": "*Streptococcus pneumoniae*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 180
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as *Pseudomonas aeruginosa* are more likely to be seen in hospital-acquired pneumonia.",
"id": "10002533",
"label": "c",
"name": "*Pseudomonas aeruginosa*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as *E. coli* pneumonia is typically seen in cases of aspiration pneumonia.",
"id": "10002535",
"label": "e",
"name": "*Escherichia coli*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as *Mycoplasma pneumoniae* are rare in the community and are classed as atypical pneumonia.",
"id": "10002532",
"label": "b",
"name": "*Mycoplasma pneumonia*",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3709",
"name": "Pneumonia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"question": "A 55-year-old man presents to his GP with a 2-week history of a productive cough with yellow sputum and a fever. On examination, there is dullness when percussing over the left lower lobe.\n\nWhat is the likely causative organism?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 209,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,751 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,054 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as whilst this is an oxidation reaction, alcohol dehydrogenase is the enzyme that catalyses this reaction and not the product.",
"id": "10002540",
"label": "e",
"name": "Oxidation and Alcohol Dehydrogenase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as whilst this is an oxidation reaction, the product of the first step of alcohol metabolism is acetaldehyde, not acetate which is the final product.",
"id": "10002538",
"label": "c",
"name": "Oxidation and Acetate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This answer is correct as Ethanol is oxidised by Alcohol dehydrogenase to form Acetaldehyde. Acetaldehyde is a very reactive and toxic substance and is quickly converted into acetate.",
"id": "10002536",
"label": "a",
"name": "Oxidation and Acetaldehyde",
"picture": null,
"votes": 125
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This option is incorrect as this reaction is neither reduction nor is the product for step 1 metabolism acetate, it is acetaldehyde.",
"id": "10002539",
"label": "d",
"name": "Reduction and Acetate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as whilst Acetaldehyde is the correct product, this is an oxidation reaction.",
"id": "10002537",
"label": "b",
"name": "Reduction and Acetaldehyde",
"picture": null,
"votes": 45
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4047",
"name": "Alcohol metabolism",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "149",
"name": "Gastro-intestinal physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 149,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "In the first step of alcohol metabolism in the liver, a reactive and toxic product is formed.\n\nWhat type of reaction occurs and what is the product?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 203,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,752 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,055 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Consumption of raw and undercooked shellfish are a major risk factor for the contraction of Hepatitis A. If the shellfish are living in water that has been contaminated with the stool containing the virus, the shellfish could be carrying the virus.",
"id": "10002541",
"label": "a",
"name": "Hepatitis A",
"picture": null,
"votes": 173
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hepatitis D is incorrect as it cannot be transmitted faecal-orally. Hep D can be transmitted through sharing of body fluids. Moreover, Hep D requires co-infection of Hep B as it attaches to HBsAg to survive.",
"id": "10002544",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hepatitis D",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hepatitis C is incorrect as it cannot be transmitted faecal-orally. Hep C can be transmitted through sharing of body fluids.",
"id": "10002543",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hepatitis C",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as there is no indication that the patient drank an excessive amount of alcohol to cause alcoholic hepatitis.",
"id": "10002545",
"label": "e",
"name": "Alcoholic Hepatitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Hepatitis B is incorrect as it cannot be transmitted faecal-orally. Hep B can be transmitted through sharing of body fluids.",
"id": "10002542",
"label": "b",
"name": "Hepatitis B",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4039",
"name": "Hepatitis viruses",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4039,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
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"id": "13055",
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 47-year-old man recently returned from a 3-week long holiday in Central America. He is now jaundiced, has nausea and vomiting, and deranged LFTs. He reports having eaten a lot of shellfish whilst on holiday.\n\nWhat is the most likely underlying cause?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 205,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,753 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,056 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Gastric Lavage would only be effective within an hour of ingesting.",
"id": "10002550",
"label": "e",
"name": "Gastric Lavage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as activated charcoal is only considered in adults who present within an hour of taking an overdose.",
"id": "10002547",
"label": "b",
"name": "Activated Charcoal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. NAC is a precursor of glutathione which will bind to the NAPQI that can then be excreted really.",
"id": "10002546",
"label": "a",
"name": "IV N-acetylcysteine (NAC)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 187
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as transplantation is only considered where the overdose has progressed into Acute Liver Failure.",
"id": "10002548",
"label": "c",
"name": "Liver Transplantation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst this is an important referral to consider, it is incorrect in this context as it needs to be ensured the patient is medically stable before a psychiatric referral.",
"id": "10002549",
"label": "d",
"name": "Urgent Psychiatric Assessment",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4048",
"name": "Paracetamol Overdose",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4048,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 15-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department after consuming 64 tablets of paracetamol around 12 hours ago.\n\nWhat is the most appropriate immediate step to take?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 204,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,754 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,057 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Based on the history, we can tell this patient is suffering from post-hepatic jaundice as she has both pale stools and dark urine, indicating there is a build of conjugated bilirubin which solely occurs in post-hepatic jaundice.",
"id": "10002551",
"label": "a",
"name": "Biliary Stricture",
"picture": null,
"votes": 175
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as sickle cell anaemia is a cause of pre-hepatic jaundice and results in an increased unconjugated bilirubin production.",
"id": "10002552",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sickle Cell anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as thalassaemia is a cause of pre-hepatic jaundice and results in an increased unconjugated bilirubin production.",
"id": "10002553",
"label": "c",
"name": "Thalassaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is inccorrect as Gilberts' syndrome is a hereditary condition that is more common in men, causing pre-hepatic jaundice.",
"id": "10002554",
"label": "d",
"name": "Gilberts' Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Criggler-Najjar syndrome is hereditary resulting in defects in bilirubin metabolism.",
"id": "10002555",
"label": "e",
"name": "Crigler-Najjar Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4049",
"name": "Jaundice",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4049,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13057",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 49-year-old female presents with a 3-day history of fever, jaundice and right-upper quadrant pain. The patient also reported pale stools and dark urine. On examination, scleral icterus was noted and RUQ tenderness.\n\nWhat is the most underlying cause?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 203,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,755 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,058 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the abdominal aorta lies slightly left to the midline and is straight until L4 where it bifurcates into the common iliac arteries.",
"id": "10002557",
"label": "b",
"name": "Abdominal Aorta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the left renal artery supplies the kidney and is not torturous.",
"id": "10002560",
"label": "e",
"name": "Left Renal Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the common hepatic artery originates at the coeliac trunk and then supplies structures on the right hand side.",
"id": "10002558",
"label": "c",
"name": "Common Hepatic Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the inferior mesenteric artery supplies structures in the left lower quadrant.",
"id": "10002559",
"label": "d",
"name": "Inferior Mesenteric Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The splenic artery is correct as it has a tortuous route from the coeliac trunk to the spleen.",
"id": "10002556",
"label": "a",
"name": "Splenic Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 193
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4050",
"name": "GI Blood Supply",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "192",
"name": "Upper GI",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 192,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4050,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13058",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "In an operating theatre, during a surgery on the abdomen, the surgeon points out an artery to you and says it has a tortuous route and lies in the left upper quadrant.\n\nWhat is the name of this artery?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 205,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,756 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,059 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect due to the red flag symptoms the patient is reporting. Whilst a Nissen fundoplication is a good surgical management option for GORD, this is usually offered after all Medical options have been exhausted and the patient is concerned with long-term side effects of medication.",
"id": "10002563",
"label": "c",
"name": "Refer to surgery for a Nissen fundoplication",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the most important step to take as this woman is over the age of 55, has dysphagia and has weight loss, a diagnosis of cancer is highly suspected, so an urgent referral is necessary.",
"id": "10002561",
"label": "a",
"name": "Referral to Endoscopy under urgent 2-week-wait",
"picture": null,
"votes": 190
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this patient has many red flag symptoms indicating a cancer diagnosis is likely.",
"id": "10002562",
"label": "b",
"name": "Prescribe 20mg of Omeprazole once a day and review in 4-8 weeks",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the patient is displaying clear red flag symptoms that need urgent investigation. pH monitoring is useful in making an initial diagnosis of GORD.",
"id": "10002565",
"label": "e",
"name": "24-hour pH monitoring",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this patient is presenting with many red flag symptoms indicative of a cancer diagnosis. Therefore, they must be referred to endoscopy as a matter of urgency.",
"id": "10002564",
"label": "d",
"name": "Non-urgent referral to endoscopy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4051",
"name": "Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4051,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13059",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 60-year-old female presents to her GP with a 3 month history of heartburn and progressively worsening dysphagia. She also notes she has lost some weight recently.\n\nWhat is the most important step to take?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 202,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,757 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,060 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the patient has a penicillin allergy. This combination of drugs can be used for *H.pylori* eradication in patients without a penicillin allergy.",
"id": "10002567",
"label": "b",
"name": "Omeprazole, Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 43
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the patient has a penicillin allergy. This combination of drugs can be used for *H.pylori* eradication in patients without a penicillin allergy.",
"id": "10002568",
"label": "c",
"name": "Omeprazole, Amoxicillin, Metronidazole",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this would be a second-line management option for patients where a first-line management was unsuccessful.",
"id": "10002569",
"label": "d",
"name": "Omeprazole, Bismuth subsalicylate, Metronidazole and Tetracycline",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "A PPI and dual-therapy of antibiotics is the best course of action for PUD with *H.pylori* eradication therapy. As this patient is allergic to penicillins the correct antibiotic combination would be Clarithromycin and Metronidazole for first line therapy.",
"id": "10002566",
"label": "a",
"name": "Omeprazole, Clarithromycin and Metronidazole",
"picture": null,
"votes": 131
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is a second-line treatment for the eradication of *H.pylori* and the patient is allergic to penicillins.",
"id": "10002570",
"label": "e",
"name": "Omeprazole, Amoxicillin, Levofloxacin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4052",
"name": "Peptic ulcer disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4052,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"question": "A 46-year-old male presents to his GP with epigastric pain, dyspepsia and heartburn. On examination, the GP noted epigastric tenderness. The patient remarks he take ibuprofen almost every day for knee pain and is allergic to penicillin. The GP organises a stool antigen test which proves to be positive for *H. pylori* antigens.\n\nWhat is the best course of management?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 199,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,758 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,061 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as there is no evidence of there being an obstruction of blood flow.",
"id": "10002574",
"label": "d",
"name": "Obstructive Shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as there is no evidence of any heart damage, where the heart is unable to meet the demands of the body.",
"id": "10002573",
"label": "c",
"name": "Cardiogenic Shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as there is no evidence of infection, as the patients is normothermic.",
"id": "10002572",
"label": "b",
"name": "Septic Shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct as the patient has a clear history of blood loss, the patient's blood pressure is dropping and his heart rate is increasing to try and compensate for this.",
"id": "10002571",
"label": "a",
"name": "Hypovolaemic Shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 169
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as there is no evidence of any allergic trigger, causing this patients' symptoms.",
"id": "10002575",
"label": "e",
"name": "Anaphylactic Shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4053",
"name": "Shock",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "161",
"name": "Emergency Medicine",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 161,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4053,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13061",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 58-year-old male with a 3-month history of melaena is brought into the Emergency Department as he has become increasingly confused. You take some obs which are: BP - 75/46 mm/Hg, HR - 127 BPM, the temperature of 36.2. ECG is normal and the you note the patient has pale, cool hands.\n\nWhat type of Shock is the patient in?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 199,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,759 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,062 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect s NICE guidelines recommend fluid resuscitation with crystalloids that have a sodium content of 130-154 mmol/l and 5% glucose solution contains 0 mmol/l of sodium chloride.",
"id": "10002579",
"label": "d",
"name": "500ml IV 5% glucose",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as NICE guidelines recommend fluid resuscitation with crystalloids that have a sodium content of 130-154 mmol/l and this only has 31 mmol/l.",
"id": "10002577",
"label": "b",
"name": "500ml IV Sodium chloride 0.18%/4% glucose",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. NICE guidelines recommends administering IV fluids, using crystalloids that contains sodium in the range 130-154 mmol/l. Giving a 500ml bolus in less than 15 mins.",
"id": "10002576",
"label": "a",
"name": "500ml IV Sodium chloride 0.9%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 127
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as NICE guidelines recommend fluid resuscitation with crystalloids that have a sodium content of 130-154 mmol/l and this only has 77 mmol/l.",
"id": "10002578",
"label": "c",
"name": "500ml IV 0.45% NaCl/4% glucose",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, human albumin solution is only considered in fluid resuscitation for patients with severe sepsis.",
"id": "10002580",
"label": "e",
"name": "500ml IV Human Albumin 4.5%",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4053",
"name": "Shock",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "161",
"name": "Emergency Medicine",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 161,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4053,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13062",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
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"question": "A 58-year-old male with a 3 month history of melaena is brought into the Emergency Department as he has become increasingly confused. You take some obs which are: BP - 75/46 mm/Hg, HR - 127 BPM, the temperature of 36.2. On examination the patient has pale, cool hands.\n\nWhat is the most appropriate management?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 192,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,760 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,063 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct answer as the history is indicative of peritonitis - generalized abdominal pain with guarding that localises to an area.",
"id": "10002581",
"label": "a",
"name": "Peritonitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 118
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is unlikely to be pancreatitis, as pancreatitis localises in the epigastric region and the pain radiates to the back.",
"id": "10002585",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pancreatitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an unlikely diagnosis as the pain has localised in the left iliac fossa. Ascending Cholangitis localises in the right hypochondrium.",
"id": "10002584",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ascending Cholangitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst a good differential to have in mind, there is no mention of right iliac fossa pain, which would lean the diagnosis to appendicitis.",
"id": "10002582",
"label": "b",
"name": "Appendicitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 53
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst a good differential to have, given this patients' age it is unlikely to be an ectopic pregnancy.",
"id": "10002583",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ectopic Pregnancy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4054",
"name": "Peritonitis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4054,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13063",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 68-year-old female has been admitted to the Acute Surgical Unit following severe generalised abdominal pain, accompanied by fever and vomiting. The patient reported that the pain has now localised to the left iliac fossa and is very severe. On examination, it is noted the patient is tachycardic and there is diffuse abdominal guarding.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 197,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,761 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,064 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a rare, but feasible complication of surgery and a good complication to have as a differential in this case. However, the increased pain at the surgical site points more towards a post-operative sepsis.",
"id": "10002588",
"label": "c",
"name": "Reaction to anaesthesia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as there is no evidence of urinary retention in this history.",
"id": "10002589",
"label": "d",
"name": "Urinary Retention",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as based on the history there is no evidence of hypovolaemic shock.",
"id": "10002590",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hypovolaemic Shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the most likely diagnosis, given the type of surgery the patient had and the new onset symptoms.",
"id": "10002586",
"label": "a",
"name": "Post-Operative Sepsis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 190
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst this is an important complication post-surgery to remember, there are no clinical signs to point to PE at the moment.",
"id": "10002587",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pulmonary Embolism (PE)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4035",
"name": "Sepsis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "161",
"name": "Emergency Medicine",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 161,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4035,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13064",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "You are on the ward and you notice a 72-year-old male, who had bowel repair surgery yesterday following perforation has suddenly become pyrexic, increased pain around the surgical site and is becoming confused.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 197,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,762 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,065 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Kehr's sign is acute shoulder tip pain most commonly due to blood irritating the diaphragm. This is a common presentation of both ruptured ectopic pregnancy and a ruptured spleen.",
"id": "10002595",
"label": "e",
"name": "Kehr's sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Rovsing's sign occurs in appendicitis when there is pain in the Right Iliac Fossa on palpating the Left Iliac Fossa.",
"id": "10002592",
"label": "b",
"name": "Rovsing's Sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Dunphy's sign is where abdominal pain is increased with coughing. It is associated with appendicitis and peritonitis.",
"id": "10002593",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dunphy's Sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Murphy's sign is a good way to differentiate between RUQ differentials as it is generally only positive in Cholecystitis. Murphy's sign is positive when you ask the patient to breathe out, place your hand on their right costal margin and they feel pain when the gallbladder (which is being pushed down by inspiration) comes into contact with the examiners' hand. This sign is only positive when it occurs on the right hand side.",
"id": "10002591",
"label": "a",
"name": "Murphy's Sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 157
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Blumberg's sign is associated with pain upon removal of pressure (rebound tenderness). This is indicative of appendicitis.",
"id": "10002594",
"label": "d",
"name": "Blumberg's Sign",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4055",
"name": "Acute Cholecystitis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "135",
"name": "General surgery",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 135,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4055,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13065",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 57-year-old male developed sharp, right upper quadrant pain after dinner last night. Blood results show deranged LFTs. On examination, you notice the patient winces on inspiration when your hand is placed on their right costal margin.\n\nWhat is the name of this sign?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 195,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,763 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,066 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This answer is correct. Macrophages are derived from Myeloid Progenitor Cells.",
"id": "10002596",
"label": "a",
"name": "Common Myeloid Progenitor, Myeloblast, Monocyte, Macrophage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 166
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Megakaryocytes break up to form platelets, not macrophages.",
"id": "10002598",
"label": "c",
"name": "Common Myeloid Progenitor, Megakaryocyte, Macrophage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as neither Common Lymphoid Progenitors nor Neutrophils are involved in the lineage of Macrophages.",
"id": "10002600",
"label": "e",
"name": "Common Lymphoid Progenitor, Myeloblast, Neutrophil, Macophage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Macrophages are derived from Myeloid Progenitor Cells, not lymphoid progenitor cells.",
"id": "10002597",
"label": "b",
"name": "Common Lymphoid Progenitor, Small Lymphocyte, B Lymphocyte, Macrophage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as whilst all of the cells in this answer are correct, they are not in the correct order. The correct order is: Common Myeloid Progenitor, Myeloblast, Monocyte, Macrophage",
"id": "10002599",
"label": "d",
"name": "Common Myeloid Progenitor, Monocyte, Myeloblast, Macrophage",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4056",
"name": "Haematopoiesis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "193",
"name": "Haematological Science",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 193,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4056,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13066",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which is the correct lineage of a Macrophage?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 193,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,764 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,067 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as although a vitamin B12 deficiency is common in those who follow a vegan diet, B12 deficiency anaemia would have Macrocytic (increased MCV) cells.",
"id": "10002602",
"label": "b",
"name": "Vitamin B12 Deficiency Anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as although a Folate deficiency is common in those who follow a vegan diet, Folate deficiency anaemia would have Macrocytic (increased MCV) cells.",
"id": "10002603",
"label": "c",
"name": "Folate Deficiency Anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Acute Blood Loss Anaemia would have normocytic cells, whereas this patient has microcytic cells.",
"id": "10002605",
"label": "e",
"name": "Acute Blood Loss Anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct, as the patient has a reduced haemoglobin, a reduced Mean cell volume (Microcytic cells) and hypochromic cells, all which point to Iron deficiency Anaemia.",
"id": "10002601",
"label": "a",
"name": "Iron Deficiency Anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 152
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this patient has a Microcytic anaemia, and sickle cell anaemia has normocytic anaemia.",
"id": "10002604",
"label": "d",
"name": "Sickle Cell Anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3794",
"name": "Iron deficiency anaemia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "157",
"name": "Haematology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 157,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"question": "A 42-year-old Female, who follows a vegan diet presents to her GP feeling tired all of the time. FBC and blood film show a Haemoglobin of 8.8 g/dL, Mean Cell volume of 62 fL and hypochromic cells.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 197,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,765 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,068 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Fidaxomicin is prescribed as a second-line antibiotic only when Vancomycin has been tried and is ineffective or if there is a relapse in *C.difficile* infection.",
"id": "10002608",
"label": "c",
"name": "200mg Fidaxomicin Orally 2 times a day for 10 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The *C. diff* needs to be treated with Vancomycin to avoid the spread throughout the rest of the ward and to relieve the patient's symptoms.",
"id": "10002607",
"label": "b",
"name": "Let the patient finish the current course of Co-amoxiclav",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is the correct first-line treatment for severe *C.difficile* as per NICE guidelines.",
"id": "10002606",
"label": "a",
"name": "125mg Vancomycin Orally 4 times a day for 10 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 120
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This combination of aggressive antibiotics is generally only given by specialists after both First- and Second-line antibiotics have been ineffective or when there is a life-threatening infection.",
"id": "10002609",
"label": "d",
"name": "500mg Vancomycin orally 4 times a day and 500mg Metronidazole IV 3 times a day both for 10 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 44
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as FMT is only recommended in refractory or recurrent *C.diff* infections.",
"id": "10002610",
"label": "e",
"name": "Faecal microbiota transplantation (FMT)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4057",
"name": "Clostridium Difficule",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "194",
"name": "Infectious Diseases",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 194,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4057,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13068",
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 79-year-old female on the respiratory ward who was prescribed Co-amoxiclav for mild hospital-acquired pneumonia has passed five loose, watery stools in the past 24 hours and is pyrexic.\n\nWhat is the most appropriate management?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 191,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,766 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,069 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Patients with DKA will require IV fluid replacement due to dehydration, Insulin to lower hyperglycaemia, and potassium to prevent hypokalaemia associated with insulin therapy.",
"id": "10002611",
"label": "a",
"name": "Diabetic Ketoacidosis - Fluids, Insulin, Potassium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 135
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hypoglycaemia is defined as blood glucose <4.0 mmol/L. Treating this patient with FLuids, Insulin and Potassium is correct though.",
"id": "10002615",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hypoglycaemia - Fluids, Insulin, Potassium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hypergylcaemic Hyperosmolar State is when the patient's blood glucose is >30mmol/L. The treatment options are correct.",
"id": "10002613",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hyperglycaemic Hyperosmolic State - Fluids, Insulin, Potassium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 43
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst the diagnosis and Insulin therapy are correct, large amounts of insulin should always be given with potassium to prevent hypokalaemia. Fluids should also be given as DKA patients are generally dehydrated.",
"id": "10002612",
"label": "b",
"name": "Diabetic Ketoacidosis - Insulin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hypoglycaemia is defined as blood glucose <4.0 mmol/L. Treating this patient with an oral glucose load and a complex carbohydrate meal will only exacerbate their current condition.",
"id": "10002614",
"label": "d",
"name": "Hypoglycaemia - oral glucose load and complex carbohydrate meal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4058",
"name": "Diabetes Mellitus",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "167",
"name": "Endocrine physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 167,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
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"question": "A 46-year-old female with a history of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus, that is normally controlled with Metformin, presents to her GP with polyuria, polydipsia and headache. Her blood glucose is 17.9 mmol/L (normal <6.1 mmol/L) and on urinalysis there are ++ for ketones.\n\n\nWhat is the diagnosis and what steps should be taken to manage this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 193,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,767 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,070 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Although Hypertension is an indicator for Conn's syndrome, weight gain and easy bruising are not. Therfore, this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10002618",
"label": "c",
"name": "Conn's Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct as the patient's symptoms mirror that of someone who has had prolonged exposure of an excess of glucocorticoids such as that in Cushing's Syndrome.",
"id": "10002616",
"label": "a",
"name": "Cushing's Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 180
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as hyperthyroidism is associated with weight loss, not gain as seen in this patient.",
"id": "10002620",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hyperthyroidism",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Although hypertension is associated with acromegaly the ease of bruising seen in this patient is not.",
"id": "10002619",
"label": "d",
"name": "Acromegaly",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Addison's disease typically presents with weight loss, muscle wasting, depression and postural hypotension.",
"id": "10002617",
"label": "b",
"name": "Addison's Disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3764",
"name": "Cushing's syndrome",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "133",
"name": "Endocrinology",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 133,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3764,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13070",
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"multiAnswer": null,
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"question": "A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP as she has been recently putting on weight, and has large visible stretch marks across her abdomen. Her arms and legs are disproportionately thin compared to her abdomen and she is noticing she is easily bruised. The GP performs her blood pressure and notes she is hypertensive.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 198,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,768 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,071 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as dehydroepiandrosterone is an androgen. Androgens are produced and secreted by the Zona reticularis.",
"id": "10002623",
"label": "c",
"name": "Zona Glomerulosa - dehydroepiandosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the Zona Fasciculata produces and secretes cortisol and cortisol is a corticosteroid not a mineralocorticoid.",
"id": "10002622",
"label": "b",
"name": "Zona Glomerulosa - Cortisol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Cortisol is a corticosteroid that is produced and secreted by the Zona Fasciculata.",
"id": "10002625",
"label": "e",
"name": "Zona Fasciculata - Cortisol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Renin causes the conversion of Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin I in the blood stream. Angiotensin I is then converted to Angiotensin II by ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) in the lungs. Angiotensin II then acts on the Zona Glomerulosa in the adrenal cortex to release Aldosterone. Aldosterone causes the renal tubules to increase reabsorption of sodium, subsequently causing the reabsorption of water into the bloodstream.",
"id": "10002621",
"label": "a",
"name": "Zona Glomerulosa - Aldosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 179
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The adrenal medulla produces and secretes catecholamines such as adrenaline. Aldosterone is the correct mineralocorticoid but it is produced and secreted by the Zona Glomerulosa.",
"id": "10002624",
"label": "d",
"name": "Adrenal Medulla - Aldosterone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3812",
"name": "Adrenal cortical hormones",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "167",
"name": "Endocrine physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 167,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3812,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13071",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
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"question": "When there is hypoperfusion to the kidney, juxtaglomerular cells in the kidneys secrete a substance called renin into the circulation. Renin release eventually causes another substance to act on the adrenal gland which releases a mineralocorticoid.\n\nWhich layer of the adrenal gland is this released from and what is the mineralocorticoid?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 196,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,769 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,072 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as there is no evidence of this patient having an urge to urinate.",
"id": "10002627",
"label": "b",
"name": "Urgency Incontinence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Stress incontinence is correct. The pregnancy and vaginal birth would have caused some weakening of the patients' pelvic floor muscles and the coughing causes an increase in intra-abdominal pressure which leads to the incontinence.",
"id": "10002626",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stress Incontinence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 175
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as there is no evidence of bladder outlet obstruction or an underactive detrusor muscle in this patient.",
"id": "10002629",
"label": "d",
"name": "Overflow Incontinence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as although this patient has elements of stress incontinence, there is no evidence of Urgency Incontinence.",
"id": "10002628",
"label": "c",
"name": "Mixed Incontinence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as there is no evidence of this patient not being able to store any urine at all which would be the case in total incontinence.",
"id": "10002630",
"label": "e",
"name": "Total Incontinence",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4059",
"name": "Types of urinary incontinence",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "143",
"name": "Urology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 143,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4059,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13072",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 35-year-old female gave birth via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery 1 week ago. There were no complications during the pregnancy or birth. However, she has no noticed that when she coughs, she has some urine incontinence.\n\nWhat type of incontinence is this?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 187,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,770 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,073 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Nephritic syndrome is incorrect as there is no proteinuria.",
"id": "10002632",
"label": "b",
"name": "Nephritic Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "While heart failure is a good differential, there are no other signs such as breathlessness or cyanosis.",
"id": "10002634",
"label": "d",
"name": "Heart Failure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Nephrotic Syndrome is correct as this patient presents with the classical triad of: Oedema, hypoalbuminaemia and proteinuria.",
"id": "10002631",
"label": "a",
"name": "Nephrotic Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 158
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "AKI is incorrect as there is no decline in renal function in the history, such as reduced urine output.",
"id": "10002635",
"label": "e",
"name": "Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "UTI is incorrect as there is no systemic signs of infection and the urine is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites.",
"id": "10002633",
"label": "c",
"name": "Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4060",
"name": "Nephrotic Syndrome",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4060,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13073",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 69-year-old male presents to his GP with peripheral oedema and a feeling of being tired all of the time. The GP performs a urine dip which shows +++ for protein, however there is no haematuria. Leukocytes and Nitrites are negative too.\n\n\nBlood shows albumin levels of 27 g/L (normal range 35 - 50 g/L).\n\n\nWhat is the underlying cause?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 190,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,771 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,074 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Amoxicillin is only given in pregnant women as second-line management when a urine culture has been performed and the causative organism is sensitive to amoxicillin.",
"id": "10002639",
"label": "d",
"name": "Amoxicillin 500mg three times a day for 7 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Cefalexin at this dose is indicated in acute Pyelonephritis.",
"id": "10002640",
"label": "e",
"name": "Cefalexin 500mg 2/3 times a day for 7-10 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as this is the treatment for UTIs in men or pregnant women.",
"id": "10002638",
"label": "c",
"name": "Nitrofurantoin 100mg twice a day for 7 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 69
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Pivmecillinam is indicated as second-line management for lower UTIs in non-pregnant women.",
"id": "10002637",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pivmecillinam 400mg initially, then 200mg three times a day for 3 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Nitrofurantoin is the first line antibiotic for lower UTIs in non-pregnant women.",
"id": "10002636",
"label": "a",
"name": "Nitrofurantoin 100mg twice a day for 3 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 98
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3757",
"name": "Urinary Tract Infection",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3757,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13074",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 38-year-old female has dysuria, nocturia and cloudy urine. Urine dipstick shows ++ for both leukocytes and nitrites. The doctor diagnoses a UTI. The patient is not currently known to be pregnant.\n\nWhat is the best treatment?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 189,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,772 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,075 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst Crohn's disease is a relevant differential given the haematochezia and weight loss, it is generally not associated with tenesmus, therefore this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10002644",
"label": "d",
"name": "Crohn's Disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst haematochezia and tenesmus are common symptoms of haemorrhoids, the weight loss indicates a more serious diagnosis, therefore this answer is incorrect.",
"id": "10002642",
"label": "b",
"name": "Haemarrhoids",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as given the history, diverticulitis is an unlikely differential.",
"id": "10002643",
"label": "c",
"name": "Diverticulitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The haematochezia reported, combined with the tenesmus and weight loss immediately point to a sinister diagnosis and colorectal cancer is the most likely given the symptoms experienced.",
"id": "10002641",
"label": "a",
"name": "Colorectal Cancer",
"picture": null,
"votes": 171
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "An anal fissure is incorrect, as the only clinical feature associated with it in the history is the haematochezia. The tenesmus and weight loss would not explain an anal fissure.",
"id": "10002645",
"label": "e",
"name": "Anal fissure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3731",
"name": "Colorectal Cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3731,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13075",
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"question": "A 65-year-old man presents to his GP with a 3-month history of blood in his stools and on wiping, feeling unable to completely empty his bowels. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals he has also lost some weight recently.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 190,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,773 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,076 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect.",
"id": "10002649",
"label": "d",
"name": "Every 3 years between the ages of 60 and 74",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Breast Screening starts as early as 50 and ends at aged 71 unless requested by the patient to continue.",
"id": "10002647",
"label": "b",
"name": "Every 3 years between the ages of 53 and 70",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This is the screening programme for colorectal cancer.",
"id": "10002648",
"label": "c",
"name": "Every 2 years between the ages of 60 and 74",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Anyone registered with a GP as a female will be invited for NHS breast screening every 3 years when they are between the ages of 50 and 71.",
"id": "10002646",
"label": "a",
"name": "Every 3 years between the ages of 50 and 71",
"picture": null,
"votes": 120
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect.",
"id": "10002650",
"label": "e",
"name": "Every 3 years between the ages of 45 and 75",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3779",
"name": "Breast Cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "151",
"name": "Breast Disease",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 151,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3779,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13076",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 63-year-old female visits her GP for a follow-up appointment, following abnormal results after being screened for breast cancer.\n\nWhat describes the screening programme for Breast Cancer in the UK?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 184,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,774 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,077 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This answer is correct.\nT1 indicates the tumour has invaded the submucosa.\nN1b indicates there is metastasis in 2/3 regional lymph nodes.\nM0 indicates there is no evidence of distant metastasis based upon imaging.",
"id": "10002651",
"label": "a",
"name": "T1 N1b M0",
"picture": null,
"votes": 77
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This answer is incorrect.\nTis indicates the tumour is in situ\nNX indicates the regional lymph nodes cannot be assessed\nM0 is correct as it indicates no distant metastasis",
"id": "10002655",
"label": "e",
"name": "This NX M0",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This answer is incorrect.\nT1 is correct as it indicates the tumour has invaded through the submucosa.\nN2a is incorrect as it indicates there is metastasis in 4-6 regional lymph nodes.\nM1a indicates there is metastasis to 1 organ",
"id": "10002653",
"label": "c",
"name": "T1 N2a M1a",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This answer is incorrect.\nT2 indicates the tumour invades the muscularis propria.\nN1a indicates there is metastasis in only 1 regional lymph node.\nM0 is correct as it indicates no distant metastasis.",
"id": "10002652",
"label": "b",
"name": "T2 N1a M0",
"picture": null,
"votes": 69
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "T3 is incorrect as this indicates the tumour invades through the muscularis propria into the per colorectal tissues.\nN1a is incorrect as it indicates there is metastasis to only one regional lymph node.\nM0 is correct as it indicates no distant metastasis.",
"id": "10002654",
"label": "d",
"name": "T3 N1a M0",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3731",
"name": "Colorectal Cancer",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3731,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13077",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 57-year-old man with known colorectal cancer affecting the sigmoid colon visits his oncologist. The cancer was observed to invade the submucosa, have no distant metastatic spread, but has spread to 3 regional lymph nodes.\n\nWhat is the staging?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 182,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,775 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,078 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency causes pellagra which typically presents with 3Ds: Diarrhoea, Dermatitis and Dementia.",
"id": "10002656",
"label": "a",
"name": "Niacin Deficiency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 96
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Kwashiorkor is a very rare condition caused by insufficient protein intake. Whilst Kwashiorkor can present with dermatitis, the most common presentation is with bilateral pitting oedema in the feet. On examination an enlarged fatty liver would be palpable. Kwashiorkor only affects children under the age of 5.",
"id": "10002660",
"label": "e",
"name": "Kwashiorkor",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Whilst UC is an important differential to have in chronic diarrhoea, it is incorrect in this case as the patient is also sufferring from a rash and memory loss.",
"id": "10002659",
"label": "d",
"name": "Ulcerative Collitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) deficiency presents with a triad of: Ophthalmoplegia, Ataxia and Confusion.",
"id": "10002657",
"label": "b",
"name": "Thiamine Deficiency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 56
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ascorbic Acid (Vitamin C) Deficiency causes Scurvy, which presents with bleeding gums, severe joint or leg pain and a feeling of tiredness all of the time.",
"id": "10002658",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ascorbic Acid Deficiency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4061",
"name": "Vitamin deficiency syndromes",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4061,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13078",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 56-year-old female who had recently emigrated to the UK, presents to the Emergency Department with a 5-month history of diarrhoea and a bilateral, photsensitve rash on her neck and arms. Her son who is accompanying her also notes she is struggling to remember things in recent weeks.\n\nWhat is the underlying cause?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 182,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,776 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,079 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. The Roux-en-Y or gastric bypass works by dividing the stomach and forming a small gastric pouch which then joins onto the small intestine around 1m away from the caecum.",
"id": "10002661",
"label": "a",
"name": "Roux-en-Y bypass",
"picture": null,
"votes": 121
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A Hartmann's procedure is used to treat either cancer or inflammation of the rectosigmoid colon. It involves resection of the rectosigmoid colon, closure of the anorectal stump and creates a colostomy.",
"id": "10002665",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hartmann's Procedure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A Nissen Fundoplication is a treatment for GORD, whereby the gastric fundus is wrapped around the lower oesophagus to prevent reflux.",
"id": "10002664",
"label": "d",
"name": "Nissen Fundoplication",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. A gastric band works by placing a restrictive band around the stomach, which restricts the size the stomach can expand to.",
"id": "10002663",
"label": "c",
"name": "Gastric Band",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The sleeve gastrectomy works by removing a section of the stomach proximal to the greater curvature, causing the total gastric volume to be reduced.",
"id": "10002662",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sleeve Gastrectomy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4062",
"name": "Bariatric Surgery",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4062,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13079",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "On the pre-operative surgical ward round in the morning, you speak to a 45-year-old female who is about to undergo bariatric surgery. She cannot remember the name of the procedure but describes it as a pouch being created from her stomach to small intestine.\n\nWhat procedure is this woman about to undergo?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 179,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,777 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,080 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Thiamine Deficiency is correct. This patient is presenting with the classical symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome: Ataxia, Confabulation and Ophthalmoplegia. Chronic alcohol abuse is a major risk factor for thiamine deficiency and thus Wernicke's encephalopathy.",
"id": "10002666",
"label": "a",
"name": "Thiamine Deficiency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 95
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst CJD is a good differential to have in mind, it is extremely rare now and does not present with Ophthalmoplegia, instead it presents with visual loss and/or blindness.",
"id": "10002670",
"label": "e",
"name": "Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst Delirium Tremens is an important differential given the confusion seen in this patient, and the history of alcohol abuse, it is incorrect as there are no typical features of DT, such as shaking or seizures. Also, DT is not associated with ataxia or Ophthalmoplegia.",
"id": "10002667",
"label": "b",
"name": "Delirium Tremens",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as whilst HE is associated with confusion. It is not associated with both Ophthalmoplegia. Furthermore, there are no factors indicative of hepatic involvement, i.e., jaundice.",
"id": "10002668",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hepatic Encephalopathy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 53
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, as the patient would be presenting with symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, sweating, vomiting and tachycardia.",
"id": "10002669",
"label": "d",
"name": "Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4061",
"name": "Vitamin deficiency syndromes",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "136",
"name": "Gastroenterology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 136,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4061,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13080",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 52-year-old male with a long standing history of alcohol abuse is brought into the Emergency Department as he is unable to maintain balance and has speech changes. His partner who is accompanying him remarks that he often makes events up, however he genuinely believes these things to be true. On examination, you notice the patient struggles to move his eyes.\n\nWhat is the underlying diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 185,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,778 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,081 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the tibial nerve compression will cause tarsal tunnel syndrome. This results in sensory changes in the sole of the foot and motor function may also be affected, causing weakness of the intrinsic foot muscles.",
"id": "10002672",
"label": "b",
"name": "Tibial Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 63
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "The common peroneal nerve is correct as it is most likely to cause foot drop because loops over the head of the fibula on the lateral side of the knee joint, meaning it is likely to be affected by disease and trauma.",
"id": "10002671",
"label": "a",
"name": "Common Peroneal Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 104
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as damage to the obturator nerve results in sensory loss and weakness of the medial thigh and weakness in thigh adduction.",
"id": "10002673",
"label": "c",
"name": "Obturator Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Damage to the pudendal nerve can cause pelvic pain, the urgency to urinate or defecate and dyspareunia.",
"id": "10002675",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pdendeal Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. The saphenous nerve is a branch of the femoral nerve which can be damaged during surgery. Damage to the saphenous nerve can cause weakness and sensory loss of the medial lower leg.",
"id": "10002674",
"label": "d",
"name": "Saphenous Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4063",
"name": "Lumbosacral Plexus",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4063,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13081",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
"presentations": [],
"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 48-year-old female with diagnosed relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis is observed to have difficulty lifting up her left foot.\n\nWhat nerve is responsible?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 186,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,779 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,082 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Garden Type fracture classification is for intra-capsular fractures only. Garden Type II fracture is where the fracture is non-displaced but a completed fracture.",
"id": "10002678",
"label": "c",
"name": "Garden Type II",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Garden Type fracture classification is for intra-capsular fractures only. Garden Type III fracture is where the fracture is completed but only partially displaced.",
"id": "10002679",
"label": "d",
"name": "Garden Type III",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This answer is correct. This fracture is in -fact extra-capsular as it is outside of the capsule. As this fracture is between the greater and lesser trochanter, it can be further sub-classified into an Inter-trochanteric neck of femur fracture.",
"id": "10002676",
"label": "a",
"name": "None of the above",
"picture": null,
"votes": 103
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Garden Type fracture classification is for intra-capsular fractures only. Garden Type I fracture is where the fracture is non-displaced and an incomplete fracture.",
"id": "10002677",
"label": "b",
"name": "Garden Type I",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Garden Type fracture classification is for intra-capsular fractures only. Garden type IV fracture is where the fracture is completed and fully displaced.",
"id": "10002680",
"label": "e",
"name": "Garden Type IV",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3907",
"name": "fractured neck of femur",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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},
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"question": "An 82-year-old male fell over in his garden. On examination, his left leg is shortened and externally rotated. On imaging, you see a fracture between the greater and lesser trochanter of the femur.\n\nWhat is the classification of this type of fracture?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 178,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,780 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,083 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. DHS is the best option for treating an inter-trochanteric neck of femur fracture.",
"id": "10002681",
"label": "a",
"name": "Dynamic Hip Screw",
"picture": null,
"votes": 102
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as an Anterograde Intramedullary Femoral Nail is indicated in sub-trochanteric fractures.",
"id": "10002685",
"label": "e",
"name": "Anterograde Intramedullary Femoral Nail",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Hemiarthroplasty is reserved for Garden Type III/IV fractures.",
"id": "10002683",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hemiarthroplasty",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as Total-Hip replacement is reserved for Garden Type III/IV fractures.",
"id": "10002684",
"label": "d",
"name": "Total-Hip Replacement",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Cannulated Hip Screws are only indicated in Garden Type I/II fractures.",
"id": "10002682",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cannulated Hip Screws",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4064",
"name": "Neck of femur fracture",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"difficulty": 1,
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"question": "An 82-year-old male fell over in his garden. On examination his left leg is shortened and externally rotated. On imaging, you see a fracture between the greater and lesser trochanter of the femur.\n\nWhat is the best management option for this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 184,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,781 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,084 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct, glucose is a large molecule so has to cross the BBB via a GLUT1 glucose transporter via facilitated diffusion.",
"id": "10002686",
"label": "a",
"name": "Glucose",
"picture": null,
"votes": 114
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, water is a small molecule that easily diffuses across the BBB.",
"id": "10002690",
"label": "e",
"name": "Water",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, Nitrous Oxide is a small molecule which readily diffuses across the BBB.",
"id": "10002688",
"label": "c",
"name": "Nitrous Oxide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 25
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Carbon Dioxide is a small inorganic molecule which readily diffuses across the BBB.",
"id": "10002689",
"label": "d",
"name": "Carbon Dioxide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, oxygen is a small molecule which readily diffuses across the BBB.",
"id": "10002687",
"label": "b",
"name": "Oxygen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4065",
"name": "Blood-Brain Barrier",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13084",
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"question": "The blood-brain barrier is a crucial feature of the central nervous system as it is a highly selective semipermeable border formed of epithelial cells around the central nervous system that prevents certain molecules and pathogens in the blood from entering the central nervous system.\n\nWhich of these molecules below does not passively diffuse across the blood-brain barrier?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 182,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,782 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,085 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Astrocytes are responsible for glycogen storage, uptake of neurotransmitters and modulation of synaptic transmission.",
"id": "10002695",
"label": "e",
"name": "Astrocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Microglia are responsible for the immune function in the brain. They can recognise foregin antigens and can perform phagocytosis.",
"id": "10002694",
"label": "d",
"name": "Microglia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Ependymal cells produce cerebrospinal fluid.",
"id": "10002691",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ependymal Cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 153
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Oligodendrocytes insulate the axons in the central nervous system as they produce a myelin sheath that wraps around the axon.",
"id": "10002692",
"label": "b",
"name": "Oligodendrocytes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Schwann cells insulate axons in the peripheral nervous system by wrapping a myelin sheath around them.",
"id": "10002693",
"label": "c",
"name": "Schwann Cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4066",
"name": "Cerebrospinal Fluid",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "152",
"name": "Neuroscience",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 152,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13085",
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear fluid found within the subarachnoid space and the central canal of the spinal cord.\n\nWhich cells of the central nervous system produce cerebrospinal fluid?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 187,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,783 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,086 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Multiple sclerosis is correct, this patient has had optic neuritis as well as paraesthesia and ataxia due to her left limb. The diagnosis of multiple sclerosis is further supported by the lesions found on imaging.",
"id": "10002696",
"label": "a",
"name": "Multiple Sclerosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 160
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as stroke symptoms have a sudden onset and do not spontaneously resolve unless the undelrying cause is treated. Furthermore, stroke patients often suffer from long-term complications, however, these patients' symptoms spontaneously resolved.",
"id": "10002699",
"label": "d",
"name": "Stroke",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst GBS is an important differential diagnosis to have, it does not typically affect the eyes and tends to affect the body bilaterally, therefore in this case it is incorrect.",
"id": "10002700",
"label": "e",
"name": "Guillain-Barré Syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "As this patient has history of diabetes, this is incorrect.",
"id": "10002697",
"label": "b",
"name": "Diabetic Neuropathy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as due to the chronic nature of the presenting complaint a diagnosis of MS is more likely than TIA. TIA symptoms resolve within 24 hours.",
"id": "10002698",
"label": "c",
"name": "Transient Ischaemic Attack",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3745",
"name": "Multiple Sclerosis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
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"question": "A 34-year-old female presents are referred to a neurologist as she lost her vision in her left eye for 5 days 2 months ago. Around 1 year ago, she had also lost all sensation and movement in her left leg for around 2 weeks which spontaneously resolved. She described the loss of sensation as first starting as pins and needles then progressing to full sensory loss over a few days. MRI of her brain and spinal cord showed multiple lesions throughout the CNS. The patient has no past medical history or family history.\n\nWhat is the most likely underlying diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 185,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,784 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,087 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Radial nerve is correct as it causes wrist drop when compressed. Colloquially, the patient has 'saturday night palsy' caused by sleeping on the upper arm, resulting in pressure on the radial nerve.",
"id": "10002701",
"label": "a",
"name": "Radial Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 93
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Ulnar nerve palsy results in the patient being unable to adduct their thumb to hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger.",
"id": "10002702",
"label": "b",
"name": "Ulnar Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Damage to the axillary nerve causes inabilty to abduct the shoulder and loss of sensation over the inferior deltoid.",
"id": "10002704",
"label": "d",
"name": "Axillary Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, damage to the musculocutaneous nerve causes weakened flexion of the shoulder and elbow and weak supination of the forearm. There is also sensory loss over the lateral side of the forearm.",
"id": "10002705",
"label": "e",
"name": "Musculocutaneous Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Compression of the median nerve can cause carpal tunnel syndrome which causes numbness, tingling and pain throughout the anterolateral 3 and a half fingers.",
"id": "10002703",
"label": "c",
"name": "Median Nerve",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3864",
"name": "Brachial plexus injuries",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "141",
"name": "Neurology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 141,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3864,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13087",
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"question": "A 19-year-old man presents to his GP as he noticed he is unable to straighten his wrist and has noticed this has also affected his fingers as his grip strength is weak. He explains he noticed this occured one weak ago after returning home from a night out and explains he slept with his head on his upper arm.\n\nWhat is the affected nerve?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 185,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,785 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,088 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. This patient has a typical presentation of osteoarthritis as the stiffness in her joints resolve within 30 mins but resolves as the day goes on, however the pain increases with movement throughout the day.",
"id": "10002706",
"label": "a",
"name": "Osteoarthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 128
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as pseudogout typically has an acute attack and then resolves within a few weeks. However, this patient has had this condition constantly for the past 15 years.",
"id": "10002707",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pseudogout",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Whilst a good differential, this is not rheumatoid arthritis as the morning stiffness resolved in 30 minutes.",
"id": "10002709",
"label": "d",
"name": "Rheumatoid Arthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 46
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the patient has not reported any signs of infection, such as a red or warm joint. There are no systemic symptoms such as fever, indicating an infection is the cause.",
"id": "10002708",
"label": "c",
"name": "Septic Arthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Psoriatic Arthritis is generally associated with warm-to-the-touch joints. Furthermore, psoriatic arthritis is associated with skin changes consistent with psoriasis.",
"id": "10002710",
"label": "e",
"name": "Psoriatic Arthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3766",
"name": "Osteoarthritis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3766,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13088",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 77-year-old female has pain in her left knee and both of her hands. She says that her left knee and hands are stiff for 30 minutes in the morning, but get better as the day goes on. The pain is exacerbated by movement throughout the day. The pain and stiffness has lasted for around the past 15 years and have progressively gotten worse. On examination, the joint is not red or warm to the touch.\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 184,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,786 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,089 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Rheumatoid Arthritis is correct as the pain the patient experiences takes greater than 30 mins in the morning to resolve, however movement eases the pain, indicative of an inflammatory condition.",
"id": "10002711",
"label": "a",
"name": "Rheumatoid Arthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 111
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the patient has not reported any signs of infection, such as a red or warm joint. There are no systemic symptoms such as fever, indicating an infection is a cause.",
"id": "10002714",
"label": "d",
"name": "Septic Arthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Osteoarthritis is incorrect as OA is associated with short morning stiffness, and pain at the end of the day.",
"id": "10002712",
"label": "b",
"name": "Osteoarthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Psoriatic Arthritis is generally associated with warm-to-the-touch joints. Furthermore, psoriatic arthritis is associated with skin changes consistent with psoriasis.",
"id": "10002713",
"label": "c",
"name": "Psoriatic Arthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as reactive arthritis occurs within 4 weeks of an infection and this patient stated she has not been ill recently.",
"id": "10002715",
"label": "e",
"name": "Reactive Arthritis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 54
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3975",
"name": "Rheumatoid Arthritis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "146",
"name": "Rheumatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 146,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3975,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13089",
"isLikedByMe": null,
"learningPoint": null,
"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 54-year-old presents to her GP with pain and stiffness in both of her hands. The patient also remarks the pain gets better throughout the day and lasts for around 2 hours in the morning. On examination, the GP notes the joint most affected are the proximal interphalangeal and the metacarpophalangeal joints. They are not red or warm to the touch. The GP notes there is pain on joint palpation and a reduced range of motion. On further questioning, the patient reveals she had community-acquired pneumonia 6 months ago, but has not been ill since then.\n\nWhat is the underlying diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 183,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,787 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,090 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) should only be prescribed when other options such as SSRIs have been tried and the patient is sufferring from major depression.",
"id": "10002718",
"label": "c",
"name": "Tranylcypromine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Fluoxetine is correct as it is an SSRI and this patient is exhibiting clear signs of clinical depression.",
"id": "10002716",
"label": "a",
"name": "Fluoxetine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 96
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Sertraline is incorrect. Sertraline is an effective SSRI used in treating adults with depression, however it has been shown to increase self-harm when prescribed to patients under the age of 18, therefore it is inappropriate.",
"id": "10002717",
"label": "b",
"name": "Sertraline",
"picture": null,
"votes": 77
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Benzodizepines are indicated in anxiety disorders, insomnia and seizures.",
"id": "10002719",
"label": "d",
"name": "Diazepam",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Mirtazipine is only indicated in major depression and generally not a first line therapy.",
"id": "10002720",
"label": "e",
"name": "Mirtazipine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3971",
"name": "Depression",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13090",
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"question": "A 14-year-old male presents to his GP as he brokeup with his girlfriend around 3 weeks ago. Since then he has noticed low mood, problems falling asleep at night, tiredness all of the time. His mother also states he is eating less than usual and is not taking interest in his hobbies that he used to.\n\nWhat is the most appropriate management for this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 181,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,788 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,091 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect, Priadel (lithium carbonate) is not indicated in GAD. It is used to treat mania, bipolar disorder, and recurrent depression.",
"id": "10002725",
"label": "e",
"name": "Priadel",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Sertraline is correct. It is the best step-up treatment to offer this patient as he has already tried CBT>",
"id": "10002721",
"label": "a",
"name": "Sertraline",
"picture": null,
"votes": 138
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. Pregabalin is only offered if the patient is unable to tolerate SSRIs/SNRIs.",
"id": "10002724",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pregabalin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Benzodiazepines should not be prescribed for GAD in primary care unless as a short-term measure during crises.",
"id": "10002723",
"label": "c",
"name": "Diazepam",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "CBT would be inappropriate as he has already tried it with little effect.",
"id": "10002722",
"label": "b",
"name": "CBT",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4067",
"name": "Anxiety, Obsessions and Stress Reactions (including OCD)",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13091",
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"question": "A 21-year-old male with a 4-year history of generalised anxiety disorder visits his GP, after sufferring from palpitations, panick attacks, and tingling in his fingers for the past four weeks. He has already tried CBT with little effect.\n\nWhat is the best first-line treatment?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 182,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,789 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,092 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes the mechanism of action for Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)",
"id": "10002727",
"label": "b",
"name": "Blocks the reabsorption of serotonin and norepinephrine into the presynaptic cell",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct. Citalopram is a selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI), meaning that it blocks the reabsorption of serotonin into the presynaptic cell. This results in a greater concentration of extracellular serotonin.",
"id": "10002726",
"label": "a",
"name": "Blocks the reabsorption of serotonin into the presynaptic cell",
"picture": null,
"votes": 108
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as SSRIs such as citalopram work by inhibiting the reabsorption of serotonin into the synaptic cell, resulting in more extracellular serotonin available.",
"id": "10002730",
"label": "e",
"name": "Facilitates the reabsorption of serotonin into the presynaptic cell",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes how benzodiazepines work.",
"id": "10002729",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increases the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect. This describes the mechanism of action for Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)",
"id": "10002728",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inhibits activity of monoamine oxidase enzymes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4068",
"name": "Selective Serotonin Re-uptake inhibitors",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "172",
"name": "Pharmacology of the Nervous System",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 172,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13092",
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"multiAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 45-year-old female was prescribed Citalopram by her GP for depression and anxiety.\n\nWhat is the mechanism of action of this drug?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 176,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,790 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,093 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "0.5 g = 500 mg\n\n500/10 = 50 ml of solution required",
"id": "10002731",
"label": "a",
"name": "50ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 126
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002734",
"label": "d",
"name": "100 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002732",
"label": "b",
"name": "500ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002733",
"label": "c",
"name": "5 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002735",
"label": "e",
"name": "10 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4069",
"name": "Drug-dose calculations",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "195",
"name": "Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 195,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "A 35-year old female requires 0.5g of paracetamol intravenously. In the store room, the solution has a concentration of 10mg/ml.\n\nWhat volume of solution is required?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 181,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,791 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,035 | null | false | [] | null | 13,094 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002740",
"label": "e",
"name": "60 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct:\n\n3.375 / 100 = 0.03375 g in 1 ml\n\n4500mg = 4.5g\n\n4.5 / 0.03375 = 133.33 ml\n\nTherefore, 133 ml of the drug is required to be the nearest whole number.",
"id": "10002736",
"label": "a",
"name": "133 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 121
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002739",
"label": "d",
"name": "1.33 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002738",
"label": "c",
"name": "1333 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect",
"id": "10002737",
"label": "b",
"name": "13 ml",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
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"id": "4069",
"name": "Drug-dose calculations",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "195",
"name": "Pharmacology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 195,
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},
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"question": "A 73 year-old male needs with severe hospital-acquired pneumonia needs 4500 mg of piperacillin with tazobactam IV infusion. However the solution only comes in 3.375g/100ml.\n\nHow much solution should be",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 175,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,792 | false | 1 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,095 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Pericarditis can cause inflammation to the muscular layers of the heart which causes troponin to be released from the cardiac myocytes.",
"id": "10002742",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pericarditis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This will not cause a rise in troponin levels as it will not specifically damage cardiac myocytes.",
"id": "10002741",
"label": "a",
"name": "Anxiety",
"picture": null,
"votes": 125
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "A PE can cause ischaemia in the right ventricle which causes the increase in troponin.",
"id": "10002744",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pulmonary embolus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Troponin is released from cardiac myocytes which they are damaged. This can happen in most diseases affecting the heart.",
"id": "10002743",
"label": "c",
"name": "Arrythmias",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "The mechanism for this is not fully understood. It is thought to relate to the reduced clearance of cardiac troponin, as everyone has small quantities within their blood.",
"id": "10002745",
"label": "e",
"name": "Chronic kidney disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4070",
"name": "Troponin",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "170",
"name": "Clinical Chemistry",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 170,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"highlights": [],
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"question": "A 68 year old man presents with central crushing chest pain. Bloods are taken and show a raised troponin which raises suspicions of a myocardial infarction.\n\nWhich of the following does not commonly cause a raised blood troponin level?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 193,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,793 | false | 2 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,096 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of sulfonylureas such as gliclazide.",
"id": "10002750",
"label": "e",
"name": "Depolarise islet cells in the pancreas to increase insulin release",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Dapgliflozin is a SLGT2 inhibitor which acts to secrete glucose into the urine.",
"id": "10002746",
"label": "a",
"name": "Increase urinary glucose loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 76
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of DPP4 inhibitors such as sitagliptin.",
"id": "10002748",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inhibit GLP1 breakdown",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of thiazolidinediones such as pioglitazone",
"id": "10002749",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increase peripheral insulin sensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is the mechanism of intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitors such as acarbose.",
"id": "10002747",
"label": "b",
"name": "Delay intestinal carbohydrate absorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4071",
"name": "Anti-diabetic drugs mechanisms of action",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "133",
"name": "Endocrinology",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 133,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4071,
"conditions": [],
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"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"question": "55 year old male patient presents to diabetes clinic for a review of blood sugar control. He has recently been diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes and has tried using metformin for blood glucose control. This is not successful so Dapgliflozin is added to his medication regime.\n\nWhat is the mechanism of Dapgliflozin?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 144,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,794 | false | 3 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,097 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes the citric acid cycle, which is a precursor to the electron transport chain.",
"id": "10002753",
"label": "c",
"name": "Acetyl-CoA is added to oxaloacetate to produce citrate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This describes the process of glycolysis which is a precursor to the electron transport chain.",
"id": "10002752",
"label": "b",
"name": "6-carbon sugars are broken down into 2 molecules of pyruvate, 2 NADH and 2 ATP",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is correct as it describes the final part of the electron transport chain, and is where the energy comes from.",
"id": "10002751",
"label": "a",
"name": "ATP is generated by H+ moving into the mitochondrial matrix from the intermembrane space",
"picture": null,
"votes": 89
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is an indirect effect of the electron transport chain, but it is not the best description of the process.",
"id": "10002755",
"label": "e",
"name": "Production of reactive oxygen species",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is incorrect as the electrons move through a series of 4 proteins in the mitochondrial membrane.",
"id": "10002754",
"label": "d",
"name": "Electrons move through a series of 6 proteins embedded in the mitochondrial membrane",
"picture": null,
"votes": 47
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4072",
"name": "Cell organelles",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "181",
"name": "Structure and Function of Cells",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 181,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4072,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13097",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following statements best describes the electron transport chain?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 160,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,795 | false | 4 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,098 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct.",
"id": "10002756",
"label": "a",
"name": "Frontal and parietal lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 105
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is the Lateral (sylvian) sulcus separating these lobes.",
"id": "10002757",
"label": "b",
"name": "Frontal and temporal lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is the Lateral (sylvian) sulcus separating these lobes.",
"id": "10002758",
"label": "c",
"name": "Parietal and temporal lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is the parieto-occipital sulcus separating these lobes.",
"id": "10002759",
"label": "d",
"name": "Parietal and occipital lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is the parieto-occipital sulcus separating these lobes.",
"id": "10002760",
"label": "e",
"name": "Temporal and occipital lobe",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4073",
"name": "The cerebrum",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "196",
"name": "Neuroanatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 196,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
"conceptId": 4073,
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"highlights": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which two lobes of the brain does the central sulcus separate?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 146,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,796 | false | 5 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,099 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This structure secretes many hormones including thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), somatostatin and dopamine.",
"id": "10002765",
"label": "e",
"name": "Hypothalamus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This structure secretes oxytocin and anti-diuretic hormone.",
"id": "10002764",
"label": "d",
"name": "Posterior pituitary gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This structure secretes many hormones including growth hormones, prolactin and thyroid stimulating hormone.",
"id": "10002763",
"label": "c",
"name": "Anterior pituitary gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This structure secretes mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids and sex hormones.",
"id": "10002762",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cortex of adrenal gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 42
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Adrenaline is released from the medulla of the adrenal gland, this region is closest to the central adrenomedullary vein.",
"id": "10002761",
"label": "a",
"name": "Medulla of adrenal gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 111
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4074",
"name": "Adrenal glands",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "197",
"name": "Abdominal anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 197,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4074,
"conditions": [],
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"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
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"question": "20 year old female presents to the GP requiring a blood test. They state that they have an intense fear of needles and can be seen to be shaking. You explain the phyiology of this to them, and explain that many symptoms are caused by adrenaline release.\n\nWhich structure releases adrenaline?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 164,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,797 | false | 6 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,100 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormone production.",
"id": "10002767",
"label": "b",
"name": "Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is also known as anti-diuretic hormone and acts on the kidney to reduce water excretion.",
"id": "10002768",
"label": "c",
"name": "Vasopressin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This hormone stimulates the adrenal gland to produce cortisol.",
"id": "10002766",
"label": "a",
"name": "Adrenocorticotrophin (ACTH)",
"picture": null,
"votes": 132
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This stimulates breast tissue and induces lactation",
"id": "10002770",
"label": "e",
"name": "Prolactin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This, along with follicle stimulating hormone, stimulates the gonads to produce sex steroids and promotes ovulation in females and spermatogenesis in males.",
"id": "10002769",
"label": "d",
"name": "Luteinising hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3977",
"name": "Pituitary disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "133",
"name": "Endocrinology",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 133,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 44 year old male presents with adrenal insufficiency secondary to pituitary pathology.\n\nWhich hormone stimulates the production and release of cortisol?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 154,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,798 | false | 7 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,101 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is an example of mycobacterium tuberculosis as its cell wall shows features of being both gram negative and gram positive.",
"id": "10002774",
"label": "d",
"name": "Aerobic bacillus, neither gram positive nor gram negative",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Gram positive coccus include streptococcus and pneumococcus.",
"id": "10002772",
"label": "b",
"name": "Gram positive coccus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. An example of this type of bacteria is E.coli",
"id": "10002773",
"label": "c",
"name": "Anaerobic gram negative bacillus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Coccobacillus is an intermediate shape between coccus and bacillus. The gram negative element means it doesn't absorb the staining so will show up pink.",
"id": "10002771",
"label": "a",
"name": "Gram negative coccobacillus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is an example of listeria monocytogenes.",
"id": "10002775",
"label": "e",
"name": "Gram positive bacillus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4075",
"name": "Whooping cough",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "194",
"name": "Infectious Diseases",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 194,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
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"question": "4 year old female presents with a dry cough, conjunctivitis, and mild fever which has been ongoing for 10 days. They are diagnosed with whooping cough, the causative agent of this is *bordetella pertussis*.\n\nWhat type of bacteria is *bordetella pertussis*?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 128,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,799 | false | 8 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,102 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Due to this man having pre-existing diabetes the first line drug group should be a ACE inhibitor or ARB. Ramipril is a commonly used ACE inhibitor.",
"id": "10002776",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ramipril",
"picture": null,
"votes": 127
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Amlodipine is an example of a calcium channel blocker, which would be first line if the patient was over 55, was from an African-Caribbean origin",
"id": "10002777",
"label": "b",
"name": "Amlodipine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Indapamide is an example of a thiazide-like diuretic which is an option if first line treatments fail to control the blood pressure.",
"id": "10002778",
"label": "c",
"name": "Indapamide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Spirolactone is an adjunct to treatment of resistant hypertension.",
"id": "10002779",
"label": "d",
"name": "Spironolactone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is given in pregnancy when there is severe hypertension or pre-eclampsia.",
"id": "10002780",
"label": "e",
"name": "Magnesium sulfate",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3701",
"name": "Hypertension",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "50 year old man presents to the GP for annual type 2 diabetes review and is found to have hypertension. They are from a white heritage and apart from diabetes, they have no other medical conditions.\n\nWhat is the first line drug which the GP should prescribe?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 150,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,800 | false | 9 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,103 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Her BP is above 140/90mmHg which indicates stage 1 hypertension.",
"id": "10002782",
"label": "b",
"name": "She doesn't have hypertension",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would be true if she had a systolic pressure above 180mmHg or a diastolic pressure above 110mmHg",
"id": "10002784",
"label": "d",
"name": "Stage 3",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. She would have stage 2 hypertension if her BP was above 160/100mmHg",
"id": "10002783",
"label": "c",
"name": "Stage 2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 67
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. She has stage 1 hypertension as her BP is above 140/90mmHg but below 160/100mmHg",
"id": "10002781",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stage 1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 67
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would be true if she had a systolic pressure above 180mmHg or a diastolic pressure above 120mmHg and evidence of end organ damage.",
"id": "10002785",
"label": "e",
"name": "Malignant",
"picture": null,
"votes": 0
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3701",
"name": "Hypertension",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 134,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
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"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 40 year old woman presents to the GP for a health check appointment. She has her observations taken and is found to have a blood pressure of 155/93mmHg.\n\nWhat is the best classification of hypertension in this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 148,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,801 | false | 10 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,104 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is one of the structures found within the anterior mediastinum in children.",
"id": "10002790",
"label": "e",
"name": "Thymus gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. The anterior mediastinum lies anterior to the pericardium.",
"id": "10002786",
"label": "a",
"name": "Anterior border of pericardium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 96
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the inferior border of the anterior mediastinum.",
"id": "10002789",
"label": "d",
"name": "Diaphragm",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the anterior border of the posterior mediastinum",
"id": "10002787",
"label": "b",
"name": "Posterior border of pericardium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the posterior border of the posterior mediastinum.",
"id": "10002788",
"label": "c",
"name": "Thoracic vertebrae T5 to T12",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4076",
"name": "Anterior mediastinum",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "198",
"name": "Thoracic anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 198,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4076,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13104",
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"question": "Which of the following is the posterior border of the anterior mediastinum?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 148,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,802 | false | 11 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,105 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The oesophageal arteries are unpaired arteries which branch to supply the oesophagus.",
"id": "10002792",
"label": "b",
"name": "Oesophagus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The subcostal arteries are small paired arteries which branch off to supply the abdominal wall muscles.",
"id": "10002795",
"label": "e",
"name": "Abdominal wall muscles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 44
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Posterior intercostal arteries supply the intercostal spaces, except for the 1st and 2nd which are supplied by the internal thoracic artery which is a branch of the subclavian artery.",
"id": "10002791",
"label": "a",
"name": "1st intercostal space",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The pericardial arteries are small, unpaired arteries which branch to supply the dorsal pericardium",
"id": "10002794",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pericardium",
"picture": null,
"votes": 28
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The superior phrenic arteries are paired branches of the thoracic aorta.",
"id": "10002793",
"label": "c",
"name": "Superior aspect of the diaphragm",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4077",
"name": "Thoracic aorta",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "198",
"name": "Thoracic anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 198,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4077,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13105",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"question": "Which of the following region does not have blood supply from a branch of the thoracic aorta?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 145,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,803 | false | 12 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,106 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is shown by the T wave.",
"id": "10002798",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ventricular repolarisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 50
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is shown by the QT interval.",
"id": "10002800",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 46
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. It is during the ST segment where the ventricles remain in a activated state, between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation.",
"id": "10002796",
"label": "a",
"name": "Ventricles are maximally contracted",
"picture": null,
"votes": 38
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is shown by the PR interval",
"id": "10002799",
"label": "d",
"name": "Conduction passing through the AV node",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is shown by the P wave",
"id": "10002797",
"label": "b",
"name": "Atrial depolarisation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
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"id": "134",
"name": "Cardiology",
"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "A 67 year old male presents with chest pain & breathlessness. An ECG is performed and shows ST elevation.\n\nWhich of the following best describes the physiological basis of ST segment in relation to cardiac function?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 146,
"typeId": 1,
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} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,804 | false | 13 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,107 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This drug has side effects such as hypotension.",
"id": "10002803",
"label": "c",
"name": "Furosemide",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is a beta blocker which has a common side effect of dizziness.",
"id": "10002801",
"label": "a",
"name": "Bisoprolol",
"picture": null,
"votes": 70
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This drug has side effects such as gynaecomastia.",
"id": "10002802",
"label": "b",
"name": "Spironolactone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This drug is used mainly used by heart failure specialists and has side effects such as arrythmias.",
"id": "10002804",
"label": "d",
"name": "Amiodarone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This drug is more widely used for the prevention of cardiac disease",
"id": "10002805",
"label": "e",
"name": "Aspirin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
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"name": "Heart Failure",
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},
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"question": "63 year old female presents to the GP with dizziness. They have a past medical history of heart failure and take medication for this.\n\nWhich heart failure drug is this most likely a side effect of?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 144,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,805 | false | 14 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,108 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is a condition caused by a parasite and can lead to eyelid swelling and an enlarged colon.",
"id": "10002806",
"label": "a",
"name": "Chagas disease",
"picture": null,
"votes": 65
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is an infection caused by a parasite and presents with muscle aches and lymphadenopathy.",
"id": "10002809",
"label": "d",
"name": "Toxoplasmosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This condition is found in Western America which can lead to complications such as meningitis.",
"id": "10002808",
"label": "c",
"name": "Colorado Tick Fever",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a condition affecting the respiratory system and can lead to complications such as myocarditis.",
"id": "10002807",
"label": "b",
"name": "Diphtheria",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is the most common vector-borne disease in California can lead to complications such as encephalitis.",
"id": "10002810",
"label": "e",
"name": "West Nile Virus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"name": "Heart Failure",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"question": "70 year old man presents with orthopnoea, tachypnoea and ankle swelling. He has recently moved to the UK from South America and is diagnosed with heart failure.\n\nWhich of the following infectious diseases is a common cause of heart failure in South America?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 127,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,806 | false | 15 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,109 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This occurs after a serious injury, but is more likely in peripheral areas such as the hands and feet.",
"id": "10002814",
"label": "d",
"name": "Gangrenous necrosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This inolves damage to the tubule cells of the kidney, which is unlikely to happen due to this fall.",
"id": "10002813",
"label": "c",
"name": "Acute tubular necrosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the death of fat tissue due to injury, whilst this could happen in this patient, avascular necrosis is significantly more likely.",
"id": "10002812",
"label": "b",
"name": "Fat necrosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This occurs when there is limited blood supply to a bone, which can occur in intracapsular fractures due to the network of blood vessels.",
"id": "10002811",
"label": "a",
"name": "Avascular necrosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 89
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is when the inside lining of blood vessels become damaged, it is often due to malignant hypertension or autoimmune conditions.",
"id": "10002815",
"label": "e",
"name": "Fibrinoid necrosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4079",
"name": "Avascular Necrosis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "145",
"name": "Orthopaedics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 145,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "84 year old female is brought to A&E after a fall. She has an inability to weight bear and the leg is visibly shortened and externally rotated. She is diagnosed with a suspected intracapsular neck of femur fracture.\n\nWhich type of necrosis is she at highest risk of?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 138,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,807 | false | 16 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,110 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a branch of the right marginal artery which would lead to an inferior MI.",
"id": "10002820",
"label": "e",
"name": "Right Marginal Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. A good way to remember the blood supply in different MIs is:\n\n- Left Anterior Descending (LAD) - LADs sit at the front of the lecture hall (anterior MI)\n\n- Circumflex - Goes around the heart (Lateral MI)\n\n- Right Coronary - (Inferior MI)",
"id": "10002817",
"label": "b",
"name": "Circumflex artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. A good way to remember the blood supply in different MIs is:\n\n- Left Anterior Descending (LAD) - LADs sit at the front of the lecture hall (anterior MI)\n\n- Circumflex - Goes around the heart (Lateral MI)\n\n- Right Coronary - (Inferior MI)",
"id": "10002816",
"label": "a",
"name": "Left Anterior Descending artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 100
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. A good way to remember the blood supply in different MIs is:\n\n- Left Anterior Descending (LAD) - LADs sit at the front of the lecture hall (anterior MI)\n\n- Circumflex - Goes around the heart (Lateral MI)\n\n- Right Coronary - (Inferior MI)",
"id": "10002818",
"label": "c",
"name": "Right Coronary Artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the main venous drainage of the heart.",
"id": "10002819",
"label": "d",
"name": "Coronary Sinus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4080",
"name": "Vasculature of the heart",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "198",
"name": "Thoracic anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 198,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "50 year old male presents to A&E with chest pain and breathlessness. ECG indicates an anterior ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).\n\nWhich artery is affected in an anterior STEMI?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 141,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,808 | false | 17 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,111 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is when blood and oxygen cannot reach the patient's organs, this can be caused by cardiac tamponade and tension pneumothorax.",
"id": "10002825",
"label": "e",
"name": "Obstructive shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is caused by an allergic reaction which develops quickly after exposure to an allergen, which there is no evidence of in this patient.",
"id": "10002823",
"label": "c",
"name": "Anaphylactic shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This history suggests a spinal injury which is the most common cause of neurogenic shock.",
"id": "10002821",
"label": "a",
"name": "Neurogenic shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 54
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is caused by blood loss, which there is no evidence of in this patient.",
"id": "10002822",
"label": "b",
"name": "Hypovolemic shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 64
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This occurs when the heart cannot pump enough oxygen and blood around the body, it is caused by conditions such as myocarditis.",
"id": "10002824",
"label": "d",
"name": "Cardiogenic shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4081",
"name": "Shock",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "199",
"name": "Emergency Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 199,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "25 year old female presents after a fall from a horse. She has reduced sensation bilaterally in her lower limbs. On examination she is found to have several lacerations to her thorax and complains of mild abdominal pain.\n\nObservations are taken and show her heart rate to be 63bpm, and blood pressure is 93/64mmHg.\n\nWhich type of shock is most likely in this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 136,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,809 | false | 18 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,112 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a symptom of a urinary tract infection, however it is not indicative of a pyelonephritis.",
"id": "10002830",
"label": "e",
"name": "Foul-smelling urine",
"picture": null,
"votes": 41
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a symptom of a urinary tract infection, however it is not indicative of a pyelonephritis.",
"id": "10002828",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dysuria",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a symptom of a urinary tract infection, however it is not indicative of a pyelonephritis.",
"id": "10002829",
"label": "d",
"name": "Urgency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This will rarely be seen in cystitis but is commonly seen in pyelonephritis.",
"id": "10002826",
"label": "a",
"name": "Loin pain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 64
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a symptom of a urinary tract infection, however it is not indicative of a pyelonephritis.",
"id": "10002827",
"label": "b",
"name": "Urinary frequency",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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},
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"demo": null,
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"id": "3757",
"name": "Urinary Tract Infection",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
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"question": "An 18 year old female presents with urinary frequency, loin pain, dysuria, urgency and foul-smelling urine\n\nWhich of their symptoms is suggestive of pyelonephritis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 126,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,810 | false | 19 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,113 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Amoxicillin would be the correct second line option, if there is no improvement after 48 hours, but it would need to be taken for 7 days.",
"id": "10002834",
"label": "d",
"name": "Amoxicillin for 5 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a first line option for non-pregnant women but cannot be given to pregnant women as it has a teratogenic risk, especially in the first trimester.",
"id": "10002835",
"label": "e",
"name": "Trimethoprim for 7 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would be the correct second line option, if there is no improvement after 48 hours.",
"id": "10002833",
"label": "c",
"name": "Amoxicillin for 7 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Nitrofurantoin is the first line drug choice for lower UTI, and as she is pregnant it is to be taken for 7 days.",
"id": "10002831",
"label": "a",
"name": "Nitrofurantoin for 7 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 48
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Nitrofurantoin is the first line drug choice for lower UTI, however as she is pregnant it is to be taken for 7 days, not 3 days.",
"id": "10002832",
"label": "b",
"name": "Nitrofurantoin for 3 days",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
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"id": "3757",
"name": "Urinary Tract Infection",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"question": "25 year old female presents to her GP with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. She is 8 weeks pregnant and has no other medical conditions.\n\nWhat is the best first line antibiotic regime?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 126,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,811 | false | 20 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,114 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Stage 3 is diagnosed if the eGFR is between 30 and 59",
"id": "10002836",
"label": "a",
"name": "Stage 3",
"picture": null,
"votes": 73
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Stage 1 is diagnosed if the eGFR is >90 with demonstratable kidney damage",
"id": "10002837",
"label": "b",
"name": "Stage 1",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Stage 2 is diagnosed if the eGFR is between 60 and 89 with demonstratable kidney damage.",
"id": "10002838",
"label": "c",
"name": "Stage 2",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Stage 4 is diagnosed if the eGFR is below 15",
"id": "10002840",
"label": "e",
"name": "Stage 5",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Stage 4 is diagnosed if the eGFR is between 15 and 30",
"id": "10002839",
"label": "d",
"name": "Stage 4",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3753",
"name": "Chronic kidney disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "142",
"name": "Nephrology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 142,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "67 year old man presents for a review of their pre-existing chronic kidney disease. It was previously diagnosed as stage 1.\n\nHis eGFR is now 39ml/min/1.73m2. What stage of CKD does he currently have?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 117,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,812 | false | 21 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,115 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, the inferior vena cava is a retroperitoneal structure\n\nUse the mnemonic SAD PUCKER to help you remember the retroperitoneal organs:\n\nS: suprarenal gland\n\nA: aorta/IVC\n\nD: duodenum (second and third part)\n\nP: pancreas (except tail)\n\nU: ureters\n\nC: colon (ascending and descending)\n\nK: kidneys\n\nE: (o)esophagus\n\nR: rectum",
"id": "10002843",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inferior vena cava",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. The liver is an intraperitoneal organ.\n\nUse the mnemonic SAD PUCKER to help you remember the retroperitoneal organs:\n\nS: suprarenal gland\n\nA: aorta/IVC\n\nD: duodenum (second and third part)\n\nP: pancreas (except tail)\n\nU: ureters\n\nC: colon (ascending and descending)\n\nK: kidneys\n\nE: (o)esophagus\n\nR: rectum",
"id": "10002841",
"label": "a",
"name": "Liver",
"picture": null,
"votes": 93
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, the pancreas is a retroperitoneal organ\n\nUse the mnemonic SAD PUCKER to help you remember the retroperitoneal organs:\n\nS: suprarenal gland\n\nA: aorta/IVC\n\nD: duodenum (second and third part)\n\nP: pancreas (except tail)\n\nU: ureters\n\nC: colon (ascending and descending)\n\nK: kidneys\n\nE: (o)esophagus\n\nR: rectum",
"id": "10002842",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pancreas",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, the uterers are retroperitoneal structures\n\nUse the mnemonic SAD PUCKER to help you remember the retroperitoneal organs:\n\nS: suprarenal gland\n\nA: aorta/IVC\n\nD: duodenum (second and third part)\n\nP: pancreas (except tail)\n\nU: ureters\n\nC: colon (ascending and descending)\n\nK: kidneys\n\nE: (o)esophagus\n\nR: rectum",
"id": "10002845",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ureters",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, the kidneys are retroperitoneal structures\n\nUse the mnemonic SAD PUCKER to help you remember the retroperitoneal organs:\n\nS: suprarenal gland\n\nA: aorta/IVC\n\nD: duodenum (second and third part)\n\nP: pancreas (except tail)\n\nU: ureters\n\nC: colon (ascending and descending)\n\nK: kidneys\n\nE: (o)esophagus\n\nR: rectum",
"id": "10002844",
"label": "d",
"name": "Kidneys",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4082",
"name": "Intraperitoneal and retroperitoneal organs",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "197",
"name": "Abdominal anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 197,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following structures is **NOT** retroperitoneal?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 128,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,813 | false | 22 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,116 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. They branch from efferent arterioles and are long, straight arteries.",
"id": "10002846",
"label": "a",
"name": "Vasa recta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 46
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a division of interlobar arteries and interlobular arteries branch off them.",
"id": "10002849",
"label": "d",
"name": "Arcuate artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 30
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. These form the glomerulus where filtration of blood occurs.",
"id": "10002848",
"label": "c",
"name": "Afferent arterioles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Whilst it the renal artery does branch from the abdominal aorta, this answer is not specific enough for the question.",
"id": "10002850",
"label": "e",
"name": "Abdominal aorta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. They branch from the efferent arterioles and supply the outer two-thirds of the cortex.",
"id": "10002847",
"label": "b",
"name": "Peritubular capillaries",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"typeId": 7
},
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"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4083",
"name": "Development of the kidneys",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "197",
"name": "Abdominal anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 197,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which specific vessel supplies the inner third of the cortex and medulla of the kidney?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 120,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,814 | false | 23 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,117 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Lymph drains into these nodes from the body of the pancreas.",
"id": "10002853",
"label": "c",
"name": "Superior mesenteric lymph nodes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Lymph drains directly into these nodes, which are found around the abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava.",
"id": "10002851",
"label": "a",
"name": "Para-aortic lymph nodes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 33
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Lymph drains into these nodes from the oesophagus, mediastinum and posterior surface of diaphragm.",
"id": "10002854",
"label": "d",
"name": "Posterior mediastinal lymph nodes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Lymph drains into these nodes from the descending and sigmoid colon.",
"id": "10002855",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inferior mesenteric lymph nodes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Lymph drains into these nodes from the oesophagus, stomach and pancreas, along with other abdominal organs.",
"id": "10002852",
"label": "b",
"name": "Splenic lymph nodes",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
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"id": "4083",
"name": "Development of the kidneys",
"status": null,
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"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "197",
"name": "Abdominal anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 197,
"totalCards": null,
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},
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"highlights": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Where does lymph from the kidneys drain into?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 117,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,815 | false | 24 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,118 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The Modification of Diet in Renal Disease Study Group (MDRD) equation is widely used but certain factors such as pregnancy can make it inaccurate so it is not the gold standard.",
"id": "10002858",
"label": "c",
"name": "MDRD equation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is widely used but is not the gold standard test.",
"id": "10002857",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cockcroft-Gualt equation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Inulin is 100% secreted by the glomeruli which makes it the most accurate test.",
"id": "10002856",
"label": "a",
"name": "Inulin clearance",
"picture": null,
"votes": 87
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This cannot measure GFR but can give a rough idea of kidney function.",
"id": "10002860",
"label": "e",
"name": "Dipstick Urine test",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is used to predict the probability of hydronephrosis in patients with acute kidney injury.",
"id": "10002859",
"label": "d",
"name": "Licurse Score",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3954",
"name": "Glomerular filtration rate",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3954,
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"psaSectionId": null,
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"question": "What is the gold standard test for measuring glomerular filtration rate?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 119,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,816 | false | 25 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,119 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. A lack of ADH production leads to cranial diabetes insipidus.",
"id": "10002861",
"label": "a",
"name": "Anti-diuretic hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 95
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Prolactin causes breast growth and lactation",
"id": "10002862",
"label": "b",
"name": "Prolactin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Excessive growth hormone can lead to acromegaly but is not related to diabetes insipidus.",
"id": "10002863",
"label": "c",
"name": "Growth hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Insulin is involved in diabetes mellitus but not diabetes insipidus.",
"id": "10002864",
"label": "d",
"name": "Insulin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone is involved in the production and release of cortisol.",
"id": "10002865",
"label": "e",
"name": "Adrenocorticotrophic hormone",
"picture": null,
"votes": 9
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4084",
"name": "Antidiuretic hormone",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "168",
"name": "Renal Physiology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 168,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4084,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 34 year old female patient presents with polyuria and polydipsia after a traumatic head injury.\n\nIt is suspected that they have cranial diabetes insipidus.\n\nWhich hormone is involved in this condition?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 121,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,817 | false | 26 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,120 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This scenario suggests an anaemia of chronic disease. Iron transporters (ferroportin) are involved in anaemia of chronic disease but they are not affected in this way.",
"id": "10002867",
"label": "b",
"name": "Cancer cells stimulate necrosis of iron transporters in intestinal cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This scenario suggests an anaemia of chronic disease. Chronic disease precipitates the formation of inflammatory cytokines such as IL-6. Ferroportin is involved in transporting absorbed iron into the bloodstream, so when activity of this is decreased less haemoglobin can be made.",
"id": "10002866",
"label": "a",
"name": "High levels of IL-6 stimulate hepcidin release from the liver which decreases the activity of ferroportin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 57
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This describes sideroblastic anaemia, whereas the scenario suggests anaemia of chronic disease.",
"id": "10002870",
"label": "e",
"name": "Ineffective erythropoiesis leads to increased iron absorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This describes pernicious anaemia, whereas the scenario suggests anaemia of chronic disease. Intrinsic factor is involved in the absorption of Vitamin B12.",
"id": "10002869",
"label": "d",
"name": "Autoimmune destruction of the parietal cells in the stomach, leading to decreased production of intrinsic factor",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This describes aplastic anaemia, whereas the scenario suggests anaemia of chronic disease.",
"id": "10002868",
"label": "c",
"name": "Pancytopenia with hypocellular bone marrow",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4085",
"name": "Anaemia of Chronic Disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "157",
"name": "Haematology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 157,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
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"question": "A 65 year old female patient presents with new diagnosis of lung cancer and is incidently found to have an anaemia.\n\nWhat is the most likely pathophysiology of this type of anaemia?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 122,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,818 | false | 27 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,121 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would usually be diagnosed at a younger age, and bloods would show a microcytic anaemia with haemolysis.",
"id": "10002875",
"label": "e",
"name": "Sickle Cell anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would usually be diagnosed at a younger age, and bloods would show a isolated microcytosis",
"id": "10002873",
"label": "c",
"name": "Beta thalassemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Pernicious anaemia is associated with high MCH and MCV. Gastritis is also linked to this condition.",
"id": "10002871",
"label": "a",
"name": "Pernicious anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 98
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would usually be diagnosed at a younger age, and bloods would show a microcytic anaemia.",
"id": "10002872",
"label": "b",
"name": "Alpha Thalassemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Bloods in this condition would show a microcytic anaemia along with a high serum ferritin",
"id": "10002874",
"label": "d",
"name": "Sideroblastic anaemia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4086",
"name": "Pernicious anaemia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "157",
"name": "Haematology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 157,
"totalCards": null,
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"question": "A 70 year old female presents to the GP and states they are feeling tired all the time. They have a past medical history of gastritis and diabetes.\n\nBlood tests show a low Hb, high MCV and MCH, normal MCHC.\n\nWhat type of anaemia is this patient presenting with?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 122,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,819 | false | 28 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,122 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is the pathophysiology of sickle cell crisis and can lead to ischaemia of vital organs.",
"id": "10002876",
"label": "a",
"name": "Abnormal red blood cells stick together and cause clotting in the microvasculature across the body",
"picture": null,
"votes": 91
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This describes the pathophysiology of disseminated intravascular coagulation.",
"id": "10002880",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inappropriate activation of clotting cascade, leading to thrombus formation and depletion of clotting factors",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is not the pathophysiology of vaso-occlusive crisis",
"id": "10002877",
"label": "b",
"name": "Blood flows too slowly through the vessels, causing irritation to the vessels",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This describes why the red blood cells have a sickle shape, but it is not the direct cause of the crisis.",
"id": "10002878",
"label": "c",
"name": "Crystals form in blood cells, enabling polymers to form",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This describes paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria.",
"id": "10002879",
"label": "d",
"name": "Haemolysis occurs due to an abnormal glycoprotein on the surface of red blood cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3921",
"name": "sickle cell disease",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "157",
"name": "Haematology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 157,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3921,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "8 year old female with pre-existing sickle cell anaemia presents with intense pain and is found to be in a vaso-occlusive crisis.\n\nWhat is the pathophysiology of vaso-occlusive crisis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 113,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,820 | false | 29 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,123 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. In adults this would be the blood group of choice, but it is unnessary to cross match newborn babies.",
"id": "10002882",
"label": "b",
"name": "Only blood group O can be given",
"picture": null,
"votes": 73
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is a possibility as the baby can be given any blood type however they can have more than only B",
"id": "10002885",
"label": "e",
"name": "Only blood group B can be given",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is a possibility as the baby can be given any blood type however they can have more than only AB.",
"id": "10002883",
"label": "c",
"name": "Only blood group AB can be given",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. ABO antigens are not expressed until 16 weeks after birth so there is no need to cross match a newborn baby.",
"id": "10002881",
"label": "a",
"name": "Any blood group which is available can be given",
"picture": null,
"votes": 39
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is a possibility as the baby can be given any blood type however they can have more than only A.",
"id": "10002884",
"label": "d",
"name": "Only blood group A can be given",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"id": "2693",
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4087",
"name": "Blood group compatibility",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "200",
"name": "Haemotology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 200,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
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"difficulty": 1,
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"question": "Baby is born and found to have severe anaemia so is taken to the neonatal, requiring an urgent blood transfusion.\n\nThe mother has a blood group of A and the father has a blood group of B\n\nWhich of the following statements is true?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 123,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,821 | false | 30 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,124 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the mechanism of intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitors such as acarbose",
"id": "10002890",
"label": "e",
"name": "Delay intestinal carbohydrate absorption",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is the mechanism of biguanides, of which metformin is an example of.",
"id": "10002886",
"label": "a",
"name": "Increase peripheral insulin sensitivity and hepatic glucose uptake",
"picture": null,
"votes": 78
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the mechanism of GLP1 analogues such as evenatide",
"id": "10002889",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increase insulin secretion and sensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the mechanism of sulfonureas such as gliclazide",
"id": "10002887",
"label": "b",
"name": "Depolarise islet cells in the pancreas increasing insulin release",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the mechanism of SGLT2 inhibitors such as dapgliflozin",
"id": "10002888",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increase urinary glucose loss",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4071",
"name": "Anti-diabetic drugs mechanisms of action",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "133",
"name": "Endocrinology",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 133,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4071,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13124",
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"likes": 0,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 43 year old male has been recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus.\n\nDiet and lifestyle modifications have been attempted but these don't control his symptoms so is given metformin.\n\nWhat is the mechanism of metformin?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 116,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,822 | false | 31 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,125 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This scenario suggests bronchiectasis, haemophilus influenzae is a common causative organism and other symptoms shown are indicative of this condition.",
"id": "10002891",
"label": "a",
"name": "Bronchiectasis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 55
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This could be a differential in this patient, however haemoptysis would be unlikely and the X-ray findings would instead be bullae and hyperinflation.",
"id": "10002893",
"label": "c",
"name": "Emphysema",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The haemoptysis makes this differental more likely however the clubbing and X-ray findings decrease the chances.",
"id": "10002894",
"label": "d",
"name": "Pneumonia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 34
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This could be a differential in this patient, however haemoptysis would be unlikely and the X-ray findings would instead be bullae and hyperinflation.",
"id": "10002892",
"label": "b",
"name": "Chronic bronchitis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 20
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The cough would be more likely to not be productive, and the X-ray would show bilateral lymphadenopathy and pulmonary fibrosis.",
"id": "10002895",
"label": "e",
"name": "Sarcoidosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3719",
"name": "Bronchiectasis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
"conceptId": 3719,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13125",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
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"question": "83 year old female presents with a productive cough with haemoptysis. On examination finger clubbing is found and coarse inspiratory crepitations can be heard on auscultation.\n\nSputum culture is performed and confirms presence of haemophilus influenzae and a chest X-ray shows thickened bronchial walls\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 119,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,823 | false | 32 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,126 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis.",
"id": "10002899",
"label": "d",
"name": "Mutation of the CFTR gene leading to thick mucus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the pathophysiology of emphysema",
"id": "10002897",
"label": "b",
"name": "Loss of alpha1-antitrypsin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the pathophysiology of transudative pleural effusion.",
"id": "10002898",
"label": "c",
"name": "Heart failure increasing the capillary hydrostatic pressure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the pathophysiology of asbestosis",
"id": "10002900",
"label": "e",
"name": "Inhalation of particles leading to pleural plaque formation",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Noxious particles can come from cigarette smoking and air pollutants",
"id": "10002896",
"label": "a",
"name": "Noxious particles cause hypersecretion of mucus, and cigarette smoke interferes with cilia in removing these particles",
"picture": null,
"votes": 98
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3717",
"name": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3717,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13126",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "What is the pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 121,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,824 | false | 33 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,127 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is not the role of neutrophil elastase.",
"id": "10002905",
"label": "e",
"name": "Clear bacterial debris found in the lung parenchyma",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is not the role of neutrophil elastase.",
"id": "10002904",
"label": "d",
"name": "Reduce the inflammation caused by cytokines in the epithelial tissue",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the role of CFTR gene.",
"id": "10002903",
"label": "c",
"name": "Increase sodium absorption and chloride secretion in airway epithelial cells",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. In COPD there is no inhibition which means it is overactive, leading to loss of elastic recoil.",
"id": "10002901",
"label": "a",
"name": "Inhibiting excessive activity of neutrophil elastase",
"picture": null,
"votes": 66
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the role of the cilia.",
"id": "10002902",
"label": "b",
"name": "Remove noxious particles from the airways",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
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"id": "3717",
"name": "Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
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"userNote": null,
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},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13127",
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"question": "A 57 year old male presents with shortness of breath and a productive cough.\n\nSpirometry shows an FEV1 of 50% and so are diagnosed with COPD.\n\nThey have never smoked and are found to have an alpha1-antitrypsin deficency.\n\nWhat is the role of α1-antitrypsin?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 119,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,825 | false | 34 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,128 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. The tubercle is a smooth facet articulation of the rib with the corresponding vertebrae",
"id": "10002906",
"label": "a",
"name": "Tubercle",
"picture": null,
"votes": 58
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This marks attachment of erector spinae.",
"id": "10002909",
"label": "d",
"name": "Angle of the body",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This structure contains the neurovascular bundle.",
"id": "10002907",
"label": "b",
"name": "Subcostal groove",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is part of rib 1 and is where the subclavian artery is found",
"id": "10002910",
"label": "e",
"name": "Subclavian groove",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This structure articulates with the vertebrae above.",
"id": "10002908",
"label": "c",
"name": "Articular facet",
"picture": null,
"votes": 48
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4088",
"name": "Rib structure",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "198",
"name": "Thoracic anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 198,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
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"highlights": [],
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which part of a typical rib articulates with the transverse process of the corresponding vertebrae?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 120,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,826 | false | 35 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,129 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this surface relates to costal pleura of internal thoracic wall.",
"id": "10002913",
"label": "c",
"name": "Costal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this surface relates to the superior surface of the diaphragm",
"id": "10002914",
"label": "d",
"name": "Diaphragmatic",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is not a surface of the lung, the mediastinal surface is the surface relating to the pericardium.",
"id": "10002911",
"label": "a",
"name": "Pericardial",
"picture": null,
"votes": 61
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this surface relates to lateral aspect of pericardium",
"id": "10002915",
"label": "e",
"name": "Mediastinal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This surface projects into the root of the neck.",
"id": "10002912",
"label": "b",
"name": "Apical",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4089",
"name": "Lung Structure",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "198",
"name": "Thoracic anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 198,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following is **NOT** a surface of the lung?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 122,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,827 | false | 36 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,130 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is the immediate management needed as it is suspected that this patient has a tension pneumothorax. ATLS guidelines now recommend accessing the 5th intercostal space mid-axillary line in **traumatic** tension pneumothorax following studies that have shown improved success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the mid-axillary line is used instead of the 2nd intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line in adult patients. ",
"id": "10002916",
"label": "a",
"name": "Needle decompression at the fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line",
"picture": null,
"votes": 48
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would likely be management at a later stage, however as this patient has a tension pneumothorax it needs urgent decompression.",
"id": "10002917",
"label": "b",
"name": "Chest drain",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This patient has a tension pneumothorax and needs immediate management. A patient with asymptomatic pneumothorac may be admitted for observations without any immediate management.",
"id": "10002918",
"label": "c",
"name": "Admit for observations",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This patient has a suspected tension pneumothorax, meaning a chest X-ray is unnecessary.",
"id": "10002920",
"label": "e",
"name": "Chest X-Ray",
"picture": null,
"votes": 16
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the correct management plan but in the incorrect location.",
"id": "10002919",
"label": "d",
"name": "Needle decompression at the second intercostal space, mid-axillary line",
"picture": null,
"votes": 37
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3899",
"name": "Pneumothorax",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "132",
"name": "Respiratory",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 132,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3899,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13130",
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 24 year old male patient presents with a stab wound to the chest. On examination they have tracheal deviation and oxygen saturations of 94%.\n\nWhat is the **first** step in management of this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 117,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,828 | false | 37 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,131 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the incorrect dose but correct route to give.",
"id": "10002924",
"label": "d",
"name": "500 milligrams adrenaline IM",
"picture": null,
"votes": 26
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. It is likely that this patient is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction so needs immediate management.",
"id": "10002922",
"label": "b",
"name": "Watch and wait to see if the reaction worsens",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the correct dose but incorrect route to give.",
"id": "10002923",
"label": "c",
"name": "500 micrograms adrenaline IV",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. It is likely that this patient is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction so needs immediate management, and this is the correct dose and route to give.",
"id": "10002921",
"label": "a",
"name": "500 micrograms adrenaline IM",
"picture": null,
"votes": 63
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the incorrect dose but correct route to give. This dose would be given in children in age 6 to 12.",
"id": "10002925",
"label": "e",
"name": "300 micrograms adrenaline IM",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
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"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4090",
"name": "Emergency management of anaphylaxis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "199",
"name": "Emergency Medicine",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 199,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4090,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13131",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 31 year old female patient who is already admitted on the ward begins to complain of swollen lips and a widespread rash after taking a dose of antibiotics.\n\nWhat is the first line management plan for this patient?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 110,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,829 | false | 38 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,132 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This type of hypersensitivity is a delayed type of hypersensitivity and is seen in graft versus host disease.",
"id": "10002929",
"label": "d",
"name": "Type IV hypersensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. In this type of hypersensitivity is mediated by the formation of immune complexes.",
"id": "10002926",
"label": "a",
"name": "Type III hypersensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 70
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This type of hypersensitivty is mediated by antibodies, examples include blood transfusion reactions.",
"id": "10002928",
"label": "c",
"name": "Type II hypersensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is not a type of hypersensitivity reaction",
"id": "10002930",
"label": "e",
"name": "Type VI hypersensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This type of hypersensitivity is immediate and seen in conditions such as anaphylaxis.",
"id": "10002927",
"label": "b",
"name": "Type I hypersensitivity",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4091",
"name": "Hypersensitivity reactions",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "158",
"name": "Immunology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 158,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4091,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13132",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "35 year old female patient presents with joint pain and swelling which has been ongoing for 6 months. They are diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis.\n\nWhat type of hypersensitivity reaction is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 121,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,830 | false | 39 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,133 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a known side effect of corticosteroid use but it is not as significant as other side effects.",
"id": "10002932",
"label": "b",
"name": "Acne",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is a known side effect of corticosteroid use but it is not as significant as other side effects.",
"id": "10002933",
"label": "c",
"name": "Dyspepsia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is not a known side effect of corticosteroid use",
"id": "10002935",
"label": "e",
"name": "Stroke",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "This is a side effect seen in long term corticosteroid use as the adrenal gland stops producing enough cortisol, and is significant as it can lead to complications.",
"id": "10002931",
"label": "a",
"name": "Adrenal suppression",
"picture": null,
"votes": 71
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is not a known side effect of corticosteroid use",
"id": "10002934",
"label": "d",
"name": "Cardiac failure",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4092",
"name": "Side effects of corticosteroids",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "146",
"name": "Rheumatology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 146,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4092,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13133",
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"likes": 0,
"multiAnswer": null,
"pictures": [],
"prescribeAnswer": null,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 34 year old female patient is considering starting long term oral corticosteroid therapy for multiple sclerosis.\n\nWhich of the following side effects is most important to warn the patient about?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 119,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,831 | false | 40 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,134 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is one of the ways in which the complement pathway destroys pathogens.",
"id": "10002939",
"label": "d",
"name": "Formation of the membrane attack complex",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the first step in the classical complement pathway.",
"id": "10002937",
"label": "b",
"name": "An antibody binds to an antigen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 17
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the first step in the lectin complement pathway.",
"id": "10002938",
"label": "c",
"name": "Mannose-binding lectin binds to sugar residues on the surface of pathogens",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is the first step in the alternative complement pathway.",
"id": "10002936",
"label": "a",
"name": "C3 undergoes hydrolysis in the presence of a pathogen",
"picture": null,
"votes": 63
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is one of the ways in which the complement pathway destroys pathogens.",
"id": "10002940",
"label": "e",
"name": "Opsonisation of invading pathogens",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3848",
"name": "The complement system",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "158",
"name": "Immunology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 158,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "What is the first step in the alternative pathway?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 116,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,832 | false | 41 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,135 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is when the patient has a temperature for over 3 weeks without a diagnosis, despite investigations being performed",
"id": "10002945",
"label": "e",
"name": "Pyrexia of unknown origin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would be diagnosed if there was sepsis with hypotension despite adequate fluid resuscitation.",
"id": "10002944",
"label": "d",
"name": "Septic shock",
"picture": null,
"votes": 5
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This patient has evidence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome, but the productive cough also suggests an infection.",
"id": "10002941",
"label": "a",
"name": "Sepsis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 59
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This patient has evidence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome, but the productive cough also suggests an infection which means sepsis would be the diagnosis.",
"id": "10002942",
"label": "b",
"name": "Systemic inflammatory response syndrome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 35
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Severe sepsis would be diagnosed if they had evidence of organ dysfunction",
"id": "10002943",
"label": "c",
"name": "Severe sepsis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4035",
"name": "Sepsis",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "161",
"name": "Emergency Medicine",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 161,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4035,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13135",
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"likes": 0,
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"question": "A 58 year old patient presents to A&E feeling generally unwell. They are found to have a temperature of 39ºC, heart rate of 120bpm and respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute. They have recently been suffering with a productive cough\n\nWhat is the most likely diagnosis in this case?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 116,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,833 | false | 42 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,136 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is a first rank symptom of schizophrenia and is usually in the form of a third person commentary.",
"id": "10002946",
"label": "a",
"name": "Auditory hallucinations",
"picture": null,
"votes": 92
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is seen in many patients with schizophrenia but it is not a first rank symptom.",
"id": "10002949",
"label": "d",
"name": "Slowing of movements",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is a negative symptom of schizophrenia but is not a first rank symptom.",
"id": "10002948",
"label": "c",
"name": "Anhedonia",
"picture": null,
"votes": 2
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is seen in many patients with schizophrenia but it is not a first rank symptom.",
"id": "10002950",
"label": "e",
"name": "Loss of libido",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is seen in many patients with schizophrenia but it is not a first rank symptom.",
"id": "10002947",
"label": "b",
"name": "Difficulty maintaining personal hygiene",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3972",
"name": "Schizophrenia",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "173",
"name": "Psychiatry",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 173,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 3972,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13136",
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"question": "43 year old female presents to the GP with deterioration of their previously well controlled schizophrenia. You discover they have recently stopped taking their medication.\n\nWhilst taking their history you note feelings of anhedonia, auditory hallucinations, difficulty maintaining personal hygiene as well as slowing of movements and a poor sex drive\n\nWhich symptom is a first rank symptom of schizophrenia?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 103,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,834 | false | 43 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,137 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This structure guards the opening of the ampulla of vater into the duodenum",
"id": "10002951",
"label": "a",
"name": "Sphincter of Oddi",
"picture": null,
"votes": 74
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This structure is where the left and right hepatic ducts join to form the common hepatic duct.",
"id": "10002954",
"label": "d",
"name": "Porta hepatis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is when the main pancreatic duct joins the common bile duct",
"id": "10002952",
"label": "b",
"name": "Ampulla of vater",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This recieves ducts from the lower part of the head of the pancreas",
"id": "10002955",
"label": "e",
"name": "Accessory pancreatic duct",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This strucutre is formed by the common hepatic duct joining the cystic duct",
"id": "10002953",
"label": "c",
"name": "Common bile duct",
"picture": null,
"votes": 7
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4093",
"name": "Biliary Tree structure",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "197",
"name": "Abdominal anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 197,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4093,
"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
"explanation": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "13137",
"isLikedByMe": null,
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"likes": 0,
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which structure opens in response to a meal to allow bile to flow from the pancreas into the duodenum?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 114,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,835 | false | 44 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,138 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is an extrinsic muscle, attaching to the inner mandible and hyoid bone.",
"id": "10002957",
"label": "b",
"name": "Genioglossus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is an extrinsic muscle, attaching to the hyoid bone",
"id": "10002958",
"label": "c",
"name": "Hyoglossus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 12
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is an extrinsic muscle, attaching inner mandible and hyoid bone.",
"id": "10002960",
"label": "e",
"name": "Palatoglossus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. This is an intrinsic muscle of the tongue.",
"id": "10002956",
"label": "a",
"name": "Transverse",
"picture": null,
"votes": 74
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is an extrinsic muscle, attaching to styloid process of temporal bone",
"id": "10002959",
"label": "d",
"name": "Styloglossus",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4094",
"name": "The tongue",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "201",
"name": "Head and neck anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 201,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
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},
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"question": "Which of the following is **NOT** a extrinsic muscle of the tongue?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 107,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,836 | false | 45 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,139 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This would present as a central swelling in the neck.",
"id": "10002965",
"label": "e",
"name": "Thyroid gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 8
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This gland can be swollen in sialadenitis but isn't the swelling seen in mumps.",
"id": "10002962",
"label": "b",
"name": "Submandibular gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 50
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This gland can be swollen in sialadenitis but isn't the swelling seen in mumps.",
"id": "10002963",
"label": "c",
"name": "Sublingual gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 3
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. Lipoma is a soft fatty lump but isn't what is seen in this patient.",
"id": "10002964",
"label": "d",
"name": "Fatty tissue",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. Parotitis is almost always seen in mumps",
"id": "10002961",
"label": "a",
"name": "Parotid gland",
"picture": null,
"votes": 49
}
],
"comments": [],
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},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4095",
"name": "Mumps",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "194",
"name": "Infectious Diseases",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 194,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"id": "13139",
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"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 3 year old female patient is brought to the GP with her caregiver after a week of lethargy. She now has bilateral swelling of the jaw and are diagnosed with mumps.\n\nWhich structure has become swollen?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 111,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,837 | false | 46 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,140 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This artery branches to give oesophageal arteries.",
"id": "10002970",
"label": "e",
"name": "Left gastric artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 10
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. The gastroduodenal artery branches from the common hepatic artery",
"id": "10002966",
"label": "a",
"name": "Gastroduodenal artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery branches from this artery.",
"id": "10002967",
"label": "b",
"name": "Superior mesenteric artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The superior rectal artery is a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery.",
"id": "10002968",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inferior mesenteric artery",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This artery branches into the left gastric, splenic and common hepatic arteries.",
"id": "10002969",
"label": "d",
"name": "Coeliac trunk",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4096",
"name": "Duodenum",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "197",
"name": "Abdominal anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 197,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4096,
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"dislikes": 0,
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13140",
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "A 54 year old female patient is having a pancreaticoduodenectomy to remove a pancreatic tumour.\n\nOne of the blood vessels supplying the duodenum is the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery\n\nWhich vessel does the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery branch from?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 110,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,838 | false | 47 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,141 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. The lower third of the rectum is completely extraperitoneal.",
"id": "10002975",
"label": "e",
"name": "Complete peritoneal covering",
"picture": null,
"votes": 11
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. No part of the posterior rectum is covered by peritoneum",
"id": "10002974",
"label": "d",
"name": "Peritoneal covering on the posterior aspect",
"picture": null,
"votes": 19
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. The lower third lies below the pelvic peritoneum meaning it has no extraperitoneal covering itself.",
"id": "10002971",
"label": "a",
"name": "Completely extraperitoneal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 40
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This describes the peritoneal covering of the upper third of the rectum",
"id": "10002973",
"label": "c",
"name": "Anterolateral peritoneal covering",
"picture": null,
"votes": 18
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect. This is the peritoneal covering of the middle third of the rectum",
"id": "10002972",
"label": "b",
"name": "Peritoneum on anterior aspect",
"picture": null,
"votes": 22
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4097",
"name": "Rectum",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "197",
"name": "Abdominal anatomy",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 197,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4097,
"conditions": [],
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"highlights": [],
"id": "13141",
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"psaSectionId": null,
"qaAnswer": null,
"question": "Which of the following best describes the peritoneal covering in the lower third of the rectum?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 110,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,839 | false | 48 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,142 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct. In Prader Willi syndrome, only the maternally inherited version is expressed.",
"id": "10002976",
"label": "a",
"name": "Only one copy of the gene is expressed",
"picture": null,
"votes": 36
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this describes X linked inheritance.",
"id": "10002977",
"label": "b",
"name": "The genetic varient is found on the X chromosome",
"picture": null,
"votes": 14
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this describes epigenetic changes",
"id": "10002980",
"label": "e",
"name": "Environmental factors causing alterations in the way the body reads DNA",
"picture": null,
"votes": 13
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this describes autosomal inheritance",
"id": "10002978",
"label": "c",
"name": "Inheritance of one autosome from each parent, expressing a mixture of the two",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this describes genetic mosaicism",
"id": "10002979",
"label": "d",
"name": "A selection of the gametes carry the mutation, but the remainder are normal",
"picture": null,
"votes": 23
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
"files": null,
"highlights": [],
"id": "2693",
"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4098",
"name": "Prader Willi Syndrome",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "153",
"name": "Paediatrics",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 153,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
"userNote": null,
"videos": []
},
"conceptId": 4098,
"conditions": [],
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"dislikes": 0,
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"question": "A 4 year old child presents to the GP with learning difficulties. They are found to also have a short stature and suffer with poor feeding. They are subsequently diagnosed with prader willi syndrome.\n\nThis condition is inherited via genomic imprinting, which of the following best describes this inheritance method?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 109,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,840 | false | 49 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,143 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this is something all diabetic patients should do to decrease the chances of lipodystrophy.",
"id": "10002985",
"label": "e",
"name": "Different location of injection",
"picture": null,
"votes": 1
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this is unlikely to occur, and destruction of beta cells is much more likely",
"id": "10002984",
"label": "d",
"name": "Increased metabolism of insulin",
"picture": null,
"votes": 24
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this scenario is something which can commonly occur in type 1 diabetes",
"id": "10002983",
"label": "c",
"name": "The original diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes was incorrect",
"picture": null,
"votes": 4
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "Incorrect, this could cause a change in insulin but it would be unlikely to cause a significant prolonged change.",
"id": "10002982",
"label": "b",
"name": "Change in diet",
"picture": null,
"votes": 27
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct, this is known as the honeymoon period and occurs if the patient still has beta cells producing insulin",
"id": "10002981",
"label": "a",
"name": "Any remaining beta cells have been destroyed",
"picture": null,
"votes": 57
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
"chapter": {
"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"highlights": [],
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "3937",
"name": "Type 1 Diabetes",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "133",
"name": "Endocrinology",
"typeId": 5
},
"topicId": 133,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"question": "A 8 year old male has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and have been prescribed daily insulin. They have recently used a low dose of insulin to manage blood sugar levels, but suddenly found this requirement to increase.\n\nWhat is the most likely explaination for this?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 113,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
173,460,841 | false | 50 | null | 6,495,036 | null | false | [] | null | 13,144 | {
"__typename": "QuestionSBA",
"choices": [
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is part of the tetralogy of fallot, meaning blood which is low in oxygen can travel into the aorta.",
"id": "10002990",
"label": "e",
"name": "Overriding aorta",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is part of the tetralogy of fallot, occuring as the heart needs to work harder to pump blood through it.",
"id": "10002989",
"label": "d",
"name": "Right ventricular hypertrophy",
"picture": null,
"votes": 15
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is part of the tetralogy of fallot, involving narrowing of the pulmonary valve",
"id": "10002987",
"label": "b",
"name": "Pulmonary stenosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 21
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": false,
"explanation": "This is part of the tetralogy of fallot, involving a hole between the left and right ventricles",
"id": "10002988",
"label": "c",
"name": "Ventricular septal defect",
"picture": null,
"votes": 6
},
{
"__typename": "QuestionChoice",
"answer": true,
"explanation": "Correct, this is not part of the tetralogy of fallot but instead is a separate condition.",
"id": "10002986",
"label": "a",
"name": "Patent ductus arteriosis",
"picture": null,
"votes": 62
}
],
"comments": [],
"concept": {
"__typename": "Concept",
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"__typename": "Chapter",
"explanation": null,
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"pictures": [],
"typeId": 7
},
"chapterId": 2693,
"demo": null,
"entitlement": null,
"id": "4099",
"name": "Congenital malformations of the heart",
"status": null,
"topic": {
"__typename": "Topic",
"id": "171",
"name": "Embryology",
"typeId": 7
},
"topicId": 171,
"totalCards": null,
"typeId": null,
"userChapter": null,
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},
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"conditions": [],
"difficulty": 1,
"dislikes": 0,
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"question": "Which of the following cardiac defects is **NOT** included in tetralogy of fallot?",
"sbaAnswer": [
"a"
],
"totalVotes": 119,
"typeId": 1,
"userPoint": null
} | MarksheetMark |
Subsets and Splits