God instructed Moses to say “I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: ‘I AM has sent me to you’” (Exodus 3:14 New International Version).

***The phrase translated “I am who I am” in Hebrew is ehyeh asher ehyeh.*** The word ehyeh is the first person common singular of the verb to be. It would be used in any number of normal situations: “I am watching the sheep,” “I am walking on the road,” or “I am his father.”

My understanding is that when used as a stand-alone description, I AM is the ultimate statement of self-sufficiency, self-existence, and immediate presence. God’s existence is not contingent upon anyone else. His plans are not contingent upon any circumstances. He promises that He will be what He will be; that is, He will be the eternally constant God. He stands, ever-present and unchangeable, completely sufficient in Himself to do what He wills to do and to accomplish what He wills to accomplish.

Some Bibles translate ‘ehyeh asher ehyeh’ as “I will Become whatsoever I please” (Rotherham Translation) and “I will become what I choose to become” (New World Translation).

Does it make grammatical sense to use the expression “I WILL” has sent me rather than “I AM” has sent me?

This is a related question but does not specifically address what I am asking here: ["I am" in Greek Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 vs. John 8:58 - how do they compare?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/59842/i-am-in-greek-septuagint-translation-of-exodus-314-vs-john-858-how-do-the)