Regard the $(\omega \times \omega)$ version of [Chomp](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chomp). It is stated [here](http://www.whydomath.org/Reading_Room_Material/ian_stewart/chocolate/chocolate.html) that the version of chomp on an infinite chocolate bar is in fact a finite game. I am confused by this statement. Isn't it possible that the two player in turn take a $(1 \times 1)$ bite out of the chocolate for example only in the top row? Therefor playing an infinite game? Or is a *bite* $(n \times m) \in \mathbb{N}^2$, resulting in a finite chocolate bar after the first move. I only have this informal definition of the problem which is confusing to me.