Prove that ∀Z · ∃Q · (p(Q) → p(Z)) ⊨ ∀Z · (∃Q · p(Q)) → p(Z) does not hold by giving a suitable structure

I am working on this problem but am frankly stumped.  

I read this as "for All Z such that there exists a Q such that if p(Q) then p(Z) has equivalence to all Z such that there exists a Q if p(Z)

Is this reading of the question correct?

What would a "suitable structure" be and how would you find it?

If anyone can help it would be greatly appreciated.

Thank you.