The features of major search engines (looking at you, google!) prevent me from searching for an answer to this question, so I will poll the community here.

Is the state $|{\pm} i\rangle$ generally understood to mean $|0\rangle \pm i|1\rangle$, in the same way that $|\pm\rangle$ is generally understood to mean $|0\rangle \pm |1\rangle$, or should I define it in the paper I'm writing ?