In 3 John 1:11, it is written,

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> 11 Beloved, do not imitate what is evil, but what is good. He who does good is of God, but he who does evil has not seen God. NKJV, 1982
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>  Ἀγαπητὲ, μὴ μιμοῦ τὸ κακὸν, ἀλλὰ τὸ ἀγαθόν ὁ ἀγαθοποιῶν ἐκ τοῦ Θεοῦ ἐστιν ὁ δὲ κακοποιῶν οὐχ ἑώρακεν τὸν Θεόν TR, 1550
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One might expect the inverse statement of “he who does good is of God” to be “he who does evil (i.e., the opposite of good) is not of God.” Instead, the author writes, “He who does evil **has not seen God**.” Is the author equating being of God with seeing God, and thus, he who does good has seen God, while he who does evil has not seen God? What does the author mean by “seeing” God?