In Matt. 26:63–65, Jesus effectively admits to being the “son of God” according to his response to the chief priest, (i.e., “You said.”).

English translation:

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> 63 But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest answered and said to Him, “I put You under oath by the living God: Tell us if You are the Christ, the Son of God!” 64 Jesus said to him, “It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming on the clouds of heaven.” 65 Then the high priest tore his clothes, saying, “He has spoken blasphemy! What further need do we have of witnesses? Look, now you have heard His blasphemy! NKJV, ©1982
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Greek text:

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> 63 ὁ δὲ Ἰησοῦς ἐσιώπα καὶ ἀποκριθεὶς ὁ ἀρχιερεὺς εἶπεν αὐτῷ ἐξορκίζω σε κατὰ τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ ζῶντος ἵνα ἡμῖν εἴπῃς εἰ σὺ εἶ ὁ Χριστὸς ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ 64 λέγει αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς σὺ εἶπας πλὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ἀπ᾽ ἄρτι ὄψεσθε τὸν υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καθήμενον ἐκ δεξιῶν τῆς δυνάμεως καὶ ἐρχόμενον ἐπὶ τῶν νεφελῶν τοῦ οὐρανοῦ 65 τότε ὁ ἀρχιερεὺς διέρρηξεν τὰ ἱμάτια αὐτοῦ λέγων ὅτι Ἐβλασφήμησεν τί ἔτι χρείαν ἔχομεν μαρτύρων ἴδε νῦν ἠκούσατε τὴν βλασφημίαν αὐτοῦ TR, 1550
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But what puzzles me is Matt. 26:65 where the chief priest interprets that as “blasphemy” (note the verb ἐβλασφήμησεν and the noun βλασφημίαν).

I heard that the phrase “Son of Man” became equated with “Messiah” and also “Son of God,” but where does it become equated with God?