**Background:** I'm currently performing research in mathematical biology, 
specifically on the treatment dynamics of HIV and TB co-infection.

**Question:** Can a person infected with TB disease, who are undergoing treatment for it, infect a person with no history of TB bacteria in their body? 

**Reformulation:** In other words, is there a similar analogue for TB as for HIV, wherein an HIV+ person undergoing treatment for HIV will have a lowered viral load and thus have negligible chances of infecting a person with no history of HIV?

Please note that my model does not incorporate latent TB because it would become too complicated to analyze. I am focusing only on TB disease because **only it** is infectious.

Thanks for any help.