Using Strong's dictionary the only reference to the word antichrist for G500 is in 1st and 2nd John.

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> 1 John 2:18
>  Little children, it is the last time: and as ye have heard that antichrist shall come, even now are there many antichrists; whereby we know that it is the last time.
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> 1 John 2:22
>  Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.
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> 1 John 4:3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.
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> 2 John 1:7 For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.
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Strongs says:

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> From G473 and G5547; *an opponent of the Messiah*: - antichrist.
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I'm wondering why is this the only use of the *word* "antichrist" in the entire Bible? I remember other things like the 'mark of the beast' and there are other references to antichrist type things metioned here <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/References_to_the_Antichrist_in_ecclesiastical_writings> 

Does anyone have an idea why this is the only time the word "antichrist" or "antichrists" is mentioned? Might it have something to do with John talking about testing the spirits, or just the time in which it was written that the word was just starting to be used, or any other ideas?

Thanks for your time.