I have trouble understanding if the placement quantifier matter in these following problems.

**Problem One:** Nobody in calculus class is smarter than everybody in the discrete math class.

Let S(x,y) stand for "x is smarter than y", D(x) stand for "x is in discrete math class," and C(x) stand for "x is in calculus class."

My analysis of the English statement in logical form was this:

$\neg \exists\_x \forall\_y [(C(x) \land D(y)) \to S(x,y)]$

However ,the books answer was the following:

$\neg \exists\_x [(C(x) \land \forall\_y (D(y) \to S(x,y))]$

Here's another example:

**Problem Two:** Anyone who has a friend who has the measles will be quarantined

Let F(x,y) stand for "x and y are friends", M(x) stand for "x has the Measles," and Q(x) stand for "x will be quarantined."

This was my answer:
$\forall\_x \exists\_y [(F(x,y) \land M(y)) \to Q(x)]$

This was the books answer:

$\forall\_x [\exists\_y(F(x,y) \land M(y)) \to Q(x)]$

Does my logical analysis of the English statement change the meaning of the English statement? In other words, is my logical translation an incorrect representation of the English statement? Is my answers and the author's answers acceptable to the representation of the English statements?