Specifically, verse 22 of 1 Corinthians 14 states,

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> "Speaking in tongues, then, is intended as a **sign**, not for believers but for unbelievers, while prophecy is not for unbelievers but for believers."
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In context how is the word '**sign**' used? In the previous verses, explanation of clarity is made by Paul, and the very next verse (23) states,

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> "If, therefore, the whole church assembles together and all are speaking in tongues and people who are outsiders or unbelievers come in, will they not say that you are out of your minds?"
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This verse 23 sounds like tongues show an aversion to sanity to the unbeliever. Previous verses show tongues as needing clarity for the hearers to understand. How is any of this a 'sign'?

Again, if we look back at verse 22, how is prophecy a 'sign' to believers and tongues a 'sign' for unbelievers, unless we take the word 'sign' to mean a guidepost to direct someone in a certain direction? Or should we take the word 'sign' as meaning a miracle of sorts?