Given the Series $$\sum\_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k(k+2)}$$

How exactly would I find out the limit is $\frac34$ as suggested by Wolframalpha? I already found out I can prove it actually converges by performing the comparison test and seeing that the underlying sequence isn't a null-sequence. But unfortunately I am absolutely clueless on how to prove that it converges to $\frac34$.

Regards,

Dennis