I have been reading that some scholars do not differentiate between *'illa* العلة and *sabab* السبب in usul al fiqh, while others do.

**Question:**
What is the difference between 'illa and sabab in usul al fiqh? 

---

Provide examples with verses.

If possible, also add which scholars that doesn't differentiate between the two terms, and which does. Also explaining how some of them conclude that there is *or* isn't a difference between the terms.

For instance the verse 5:91:

> 
> إِنَّمَا **يُرِيدُ** الشَّيْطَانُ **أَن يُوقِعَ بَيْنَكُمُ** الْعَدَاوَةَ وَالْبَغْضَاءَ فِي الْخَمْرِ وَالْمَيْسِرِ وَيَصُدَّكُمْ عَن ذِكْرِ اللَّهِ وَعَنِ الصَّلَاةِ ۖ فَهَلْ أَنتُم مُّنتَهُونَ
> 
> 
> 

if there is a difference between the terms; then maybe to comment whether this would be a sabab or 'illa.

*All views are welcome, I do however hope that the one answering has been studying usul al fiqh or is familiar with it, i.e just linking to a website is not what i am looking for.*