So today I was informed that I had [an answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/21446/4563), to [“Pathfinder RPG in Forgotten Realms 3.5 setting?”](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/q/21440/4563) that was not “licit” because I have not done the exact specific thing asked in the question (run Forgotten Realms in *Pathfinder*).

I have run other D&D 3.5 settings in other systems (not *Pathfinder*), but that, to me, is irrelevant.

Why? Because *this is not a particularly subjective question.* The actual questions posed were “can it be done?” and “has anyone done so?” the answer to both of which is quite simply “yes.” It’s not even a particularly onerous or difficult process; I don’t have explicitly that exact experience but I have related experience and I have knowledge of both the setting and the systems. My answer isn’t even particularly different from the answer of someone who *did* have such *exact* experience, and with a score of 11 (higher than that answer), apparently quite a few people found the answer useful, more useful than the one that had the exact experience in question.

But in reading several comments in the chat by mxyzplk today, it seems that the mods’ new definition of “subjective” is “anything that’s not pure rules-lookup” and their idea of “Good Subjective, Bad Subjective” is that you are required to have the *exact same experience* as the question-asker before being *allowed* to answer the question.

So I want to know:

Which questions does the *community* feel are subjective, and how should Good Subjective, Bad Subjective be interpreted?
========================================================================================================================