I study Swedish and I have a question. I know ancient grammatical masculine and femenine gender fused into one ("common gender") at some point in time, but I was wondering...
They say that the grammatical gender a word has in our native tounge can shape the way we think of talk about that specific thing. I once read an article about how people whose native language is a Romance language, when asked to say the first adjective that came to their mind when thinking of the word "chair" (feminine in most Romance languages), tended to use adjectives like "comfortable" which depict a "nice" characteristic.
On the other hand, when German-native speakers were asked to take part in the same task, they would more likely use words like "hard" or "heavy", words usually associated with masculinity and manhood ("chair" is masculine gender in German).
Hence, my question would be: if your native language has no grammatical gender (or does but has no distinction between masculine and feminine, like Swedish), would it be less likely for a native speaker to have biased thoughts or use biased adjectives about a specific word? Could speaking an agender language have as a direct result a minor bias?

I would like to write a paper about that so it would be really appreciated if you could link me any resource or research about that matter.

Thank you all in advance.