We see St. Paul telling the Corinthians in [1 Cor 9:20-21](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+cor+9%3A20-21&version=NRSVCE) (NRSVCE):

> 
> To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews. To those under the law I became as one under the law (though I myself am not under the law) so that I might win those under the law. To those outside the law I became as one outside the law (though I am not free from God’s law but am under Christ’s law) so that I might win those outside the law.
> 
> 
> 

Elsewhere, he also says:

> 
> ... If anyone else has reason to be confident in the flesh, I have more: circumcised on the eighth day, a member of the people of Israel, of the tribe of Benjamin, a Hebrew born of Hebrews; as to the law, a Pharisee. ([Phil 3:4-5](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Phil+3%3A4-5&version=NRSVCE))
> 
> 
> 

One wonders as to why St. Paul says that he is not under the law as such, when he is proud of his Jewish ancestry. Moreover, the Pharisees were known for their scrupulosity in abiding with the law. My question therefore is: **According to Catholicism, why did St. Paul treat himself as a seasoned Jew and a Pharisee who was not under the law?**