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> “God is not a man, that He should lie, Nor a son of man, that He should repent. Has He said, and will He not do? Or has He spoken, and will He not make it good? (Numbers 23:19 NKJV)
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> לא איש אל ויכזב ובן-אדם ויתנחם ההוא אמר ולא יעשה ודבר ולא יקימנה
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Two different words for "man" are used. The first, [איש (*'iysh*)](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H376&t=KJV) can mean man, husband, human being, servant. The second, [אדם (*'adam*)](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H120&t=KJV) can mean man, mankind, Adam.

The two meanings are similar, but it seems some distinction in the two types is intended: familial (father/son), marital (husband/unmarried), age (older/younger), or literal (man and son of Adam).

"*God is not a man that He should lie*," is a straight-forward statement. On the other hand, "*God is not a son of man that He should repent (נָחַם),*" is not so obvious if "son of Adam" is intended to suggest the reader consider how Cain responded after murdering Abel.

"Repent" in Numbers appears to conflict with Exodus, as noted in this question: [help me explain difference between Numbers 23;19 and Exodus 32;10,14](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/34445/help-me-explain-difference-between-numbers-2319-and-exodus-3210-14) But [נָחַם](https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H5162&t=KJV) does have a meaning beyond "repent" which could explain the conflict.

Should ובן-אדם ויתנחם be taken to mean God does not repent as a son of Adam (i.e. Cain) did?