I found that the statement:

$$(p\_1 \rightarrow (p\_3 \rightarrow (\lnot p\_4 \rightarrow p\_2)))$$

can only be false when $p\_1 = T = p\_3$ and $p\_2 = F = p\_4$. Is this right? Sorry but I can't just draw the truth table which consists of $16$ rows to show my work