It is written in my book that a disorederd state is more probable than an ordered state and hence every system tends to move spontaneously to a state of higher disorder or higher probability.

*But I think it depends on us since we can define any state as an ordered or disordered state*.

Suppose we have 3 unbiased coins and all are tossed at once.

Now let's say that there is a man *A* and he defines an ordered state as having three heads at a time. For him the definition of entropy sets good since the probability of getting the ordered state (all head) is less than that for an disordered state.

Now say there is a man *B* and he defines an ordered state as a state with at least one head. Now , we know that the probability of getting an ordered state for that man is more than the probability of getting a disordered state.

How is this possible ? The definition of entropy is not favourable for *B*.

**What is wrong with this intuition ? Do we need to change the definition of entropy ? Or am I wrong somewhere ?**