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Impact of comorbidities on stroke rehabilitation outcomes: does the method matter? | To examine the impact of comorbidities in predicting stroke rehabilitation outcomes and to examine differences among 3 commonly used comorbidity measures--the Charlson Index, adjusted clinical groups (ACGs), and diagnosis cost groups (DCGs)--in how well they predict these outcomes. Inception cohort of patients followed for 6 months. Department of Veterans Affairs (VA) hospitals. A total of 2402 patients beginning stroke rehabilitation at a VA facility in 2001 and included in the Integrated Stroke Outcomes Database. Not applicable. Three outcomes were evaluated: 6-month mortality, 6-month rehospitalization, and change in FIM score. During 6 months of follow-up, 27.6% of patients were rehospitalized and 8.6% died. The mean FIM score increased an average of 20 points during rehabilitation. Addition of comorbidities to the age and sex models improved their performance in predicting these outcomes based on changes in c statistics for logistic and R(2) values for linear regression models. While ACG and DCG models performed similarly, the best models, based on DCGs, had a c statistic of .74 for 6-month mortality and .63 for 6-month rehospitalization, and an R(2) of .111 for change in FIM score. | Comorbidities are important predictors of stroke rehabilitation outcomes. How they are classified has important implications for models that may be used in assessing quality of care. | closed_qa |
Upper-arm anthropometry: an alternative indicator of nutritional health to body mass index in unilateral lower-extremity amputees? | To evaluate the utility of body mass index (BMI) and corrected-arm-muscle area (CAMA) as measures of nutritional health for lower-limb amputees attending prosthetics clinics. Cross-sectional study. Prosthetics clinic in Australia. Unilateral lower-extremity amputees (N=58; age range, 21-91y; 37 transtibial, 21 transfemoral) attending a regional prosthetics clinic between May and November 2003. Not applicable. Weight (without prosthesis), corrected and uncorrected for the amputated limb was used with height estimated from knee height to calculate corrected BMI (cBMI) and uncorrected BMI (uBMI). CAMA was calculated using the mean of triplicate mid-upper-arm circumference (MUAC) and triceps skinfold thickness (TST) measurements. The Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) and Assessment of Quality of Life were administered according to recommended protocols. The Pearson correlation was used to determine the strength and significance of associations between variables, and bivariate regression analyses were performed to determine whether an association existed between the nutritional variables (BMI, CAMA, MNA) and quality of life (QOL). There were no statistically significant differences in the measures of nutritional health according to site (transtibial, transfemoral) of amputation. MUAC, TST, and CAMA all showed moderate to high positive correlations (r range, .541-.782) with both cBMI and uBMI. The strength of the relationship between the MNA and cBMI/uBMI was weaker (r=.383, r=.380, respectively) but remained positive and statistically significant (P=.003). QOL was not associated with cBMI or uBMI but was related to CAMA (beta=-.132; P=.030) and MNA (beta=-.561; P=.017). | For persons with unilateral lower-extremity amputation, measurement of upper-arm anthropometry may be a more useful indicator of nutritional health and its consequences than BMI. | closed_qa |
A 20-year experience with percutaneous resection of upper tract transitional carcinoma: is there an oncologic benefit with adjuvant bacillus Calmette Guérin therapy? | To determine whether there is an oncologic benefit of adjuvant bacillus Calmette Guérin (BCG) after resection of upper tract transitional cell carcinoma (UTTCC). A total of 133 renal units (RU) treated by percutaneous resection for UTTCC between 1985 and 2005 were retrospectively analyzed. Forty-four RU were excluded because of carcinoma in situ, high grade/stage, metastatic disease present at initial presentation, and/or the patient could tolerate loss of RU. Eighty-nine RU treated primarily by percutaneous resection were then analyzed. Fifty RU received adjuvant BCG therapy 2 weeks after endoscopic management for a total of 6 courses. Recurrence was defined as a positive biopsy result after the third-look nephroscopy. Progression of disease was assessed at time of recurrence and defined as an increase in grade/stage of disease. Mean age (+/- SD) of 89 RU was 70.9 +/- 11.1 years. Overall follow-up was 61.1 + 54.8 months. Grade distribution was 56.2% (50 of 89) and 43.8% (39 of 89) for low- and high-grade disease, respectively. There was no statistical difference with regard to tumor grade or stage between treated and nontreated groups (P>.05). Recurrence, time to recurrence, and progression of disease among RU treated with BCG were subselected by grade and compared with the corresponding nontreated group. Statistical significance between any of the treated and nontreated groups was not demonstrated (P>.05). | Our data demonstrate that there is no overall oncologic benefit in the administration of adjuvant BCG with regard to disease recurrence, interval to recurrence, and progression of disease in the treatment of UTTCC. | closed_qa |
Does immunosuppressive pharmacotherapy affect isoagglutinin titers? | Preoperative reduction of isoagglutinins leads to successful ABO-incompatible (ABOi) renal transplantation. The strategy includes pretransplantation plasmapheresis, more potent immunosuppressive drugs, splenectomy, and anti-CD20 antibody. It has been reported that low isoagglutinin antibody titers posttransplant were observed among ABOi renal transplants with favorable outcome. The isoagglutinin titers may increase slightly when plasmapheresis is discontinued; however, it never returns to the pretreatment level under immunosuppressive therapy. This raises the question of what occurs to the isoagglutinin titer in ABO-compatible renal transplants under maintenance immunosuppressive pharmacotherapy. We analyzed 10 renal transplant recipients, including seven living and three cadaveric donors. Patients were treated with basiliximab (20 mg) intravenously on day 0 and day 4. Maintenance immunosuppressive therapy involved a calcineurin inhibitor, mycophenolate mofetil, and steroid. Anti-human globulin isoagglutinin titers were routinely examined 1 day before and day 0 and 1, 2, 3, 4, 8, 12, and 24 weeks posttransplant. No ALG or intravenous immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis treatment was provided in the follow-up period. Our preliminary data showed nearly no influence on isoagglutinin titer levels in 6-month follow-up under maintenance immunosuppressive therapy. In addition, no significant difference in isoagglutinin titer was observed between tacrolimus and cyclosporine groups. | Maintenance immunosuppressive pharmacotherapy did not affect isoagglutinin titer levels in ABO-compatible kidney transplants. Further study is needed to investigate the mechanisms of persistent low-level isoagglutinin titers among successful ABOi renal transplantation patients. | closed_qa |
Screening for placental insufficiency in high-risk pregnancies: is earlier better? | To compare a profile of placental function between the first and second trimesters in pregnancies at high risk of adverse perinatal outcomes attributable to placental insufficiency. Prospective cohort study in 61 singleton pregnancies. Uterine artery Doppler and placental morphology (shape and texture) were determined at 11-13(+6) weeks and at 18-23(+6) weeks. First trimester (pregnancy-associated placental protein-A [PAPP-A]) and second trimester (total hCG and alpha fetoprotein [AFP]) serum biochemistry were determined. The two screening periods were compared for the prediction of a range of severe adverse perinatal outcomes (intrauterine growth restriction [IUGR], abruption, severe pre-eclampsia/HELLP syndrome, delivery<32 weeks, or stillbirth). Adverse perinatal outcomes occurred in 14 (23%) women; 3 (4.9%) losses<20 weeks, 2 (3.3%) stillbirths>20 weeks, 4 (6.6%) IUGR, 7 (11.5%) severe pre-eclampsia/HELLP syndrome, and 10 (16.4%) deliveries<32 weeks. Abnormal second trimester placental morphology was significantly associated with adverse outcome [+LR: 3.6, 95% CI: 1.3-8.5; -LR: 0.63, 95% CI: 0.36-0.93; p=0.025], as was>or = 1 abnormal second trimester tests [+LR: 5.9, 95% CI: 1.6-24; -LR: 0.68, 95% CI: 0.59-0.89; p=0.005] or>or = 2 abnormal second trimester tests [+LR: 3.6, 95% CI: 1.3-7.7; -LR: 0.58, 95% CI: 0.27-0.94; p=0.035]. No combination of first trimester tests significantly predicted severe adverse perinatal outcomes. A study sample size of 822 women with similar high-risk characteristics would be needed in order to refute the conclusion that present methods of first trimester screening are not inferior to second trimester screening for severe placental insufficiency (p=0.05, power 80%, z-test). | In clinically high-risk pregnancies, prediction of adverse perinatal outcomes using placental function testing is more effective in the second compared with the first trimester. | closed_qa |
Is there tachyphylaxis to intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor pharmacotherapy in age-related macular degeneration? | To determine whether repetitive injections of intravitreal bevacizumab and/or triamcinolone acetate in patients with exudative age-related macular degeneration (AMD) results in a decrease in biological response. Retrospective comparative case series. Forty-three eyes of 43 patients with exudative AMD. Pre- and postinjection optical coherence tomography (OCT) sections of 43 patients with AMD were analyzed to determine the change in the biologic response after each subsequent injection of intravitreal bevacizumab (2.5 mg/100 microL), preservative-free triamcinolone acetonide (pfTA) (4.0 mg/100 microL), or a combination of bevacizumab (1.25 mg/50 microL) and pfTA (2.0 mg/50 microL). The retinal thickness of each OCT sector was determined and expressed as volume. Standardized volumetric change index (SVCI) was determined to identify a statistically significant change. Pre- and postinjection (6 weeks) SVCI differences were plotted as a function of time to determine the biological response after each intravitreal treatment. Change in SVCI after intravitreal injections and the number of injections required to decrease the biological response by 50% (INJ(50)). There was no difference in the age, gender, and preinjection thickness of the retina in each of the 3 groups. The SVCI after intravitreal bevacizumab injections decreased, indicating a possible tachyphylactic response to bevacizumab. This decrease in biological response was partially alleviated with the addition of pfTA. Combination of pfTA and bevacizumab increased the INJ(50) from 2.9 with bevacizumab alone to 5.1 injections. A biphasic biologic response was observed with pfTA characterized by a rapid increase in efficacy with the second injection, peaking at the third injection and gradually decreasing afterward. | Repeated intravitreal injections of bevacizumab in exudative AMD seemed to be associated with decreased bioefficacy. However, combined pharmacotherapy with triamcinolone acetate lessened this effect. Thus, multitargeted pharmacotherapy in exudative AMD may have a therapeutic benefit.FINANCIAL DISCLOSURE(S): Proprietary or commercial disclosure may be found after the references. | closed_qa |
Primary antiphospholipid syndrome: a low-grade auto-inflammatory disease? | To test the inflammation and immune activation hypothesis in primary thrombotic APS (PAPS) and to identify clinical and laboratory factors related to inflammation and immune activation. PAPS (n = 41) patients were compared with patients with inherited thrombophilia (IT, n = 44) and controls (CTR, n = 39). IgG aCL, IgG anti-beta2-glycoprotein I (beta(2)GPI), high-sensitivity CRP (hs-CRP), serum amyloid A (SAA), CRP bound to oxidized low-density lipoprotein-beta(2)GPI complex (CRP-oxLDL-beta(2)GPI) (as inflammatory markers) neopterin (NPT), soluble CD14 (sCD14) (as immune activation markers) were measured by ELISA. After correction for confounders, PAPS showed higher plasma levels of hs-CRP (P = 0.0004), SAA (P<0.01), CRP-oxLDL-beta(2)GPI (P = 0.0004), NPT (P<0.0001) and sCD14 (P = 0.007) than IT and CTR. Two regression models were applied to the PAPS group: in the first, IgG aCL and IgG beta(2)GPI were included amongst the independent variables and in the second they were excluded. In the first model, SAA (as the dependent variable) independently related to thrombosis number (P = 0.003); NPT (as the dependent variable) independently related to thrombosis type (arterial, P = 0.03) and number (P = 0.04); sCD14 (as the dependent variable) independently related to IgG beta(2)GPI (P = 0.0001), age (0.001) and arterial thrombosis (P = 0.01); CRP-oxLDL-beta(2)GPI (as the dependent variable) independently related to IgG beta(2)GPI (P = 0.0001). In the second model, sCD14 and NPT independently related to each other (P = 0.002) (this was noted also in the IT group, P<0.0001) and CRP-oxLDL-beta(2)GPI independently predicted SAA (P = 0.002). | Low-grade inflammation and immune activation occur in thrombotic PAPS and relate to clinical features and aPL levels. | closed_qa |
Is albumin administration in hypoalbuminemic elderly cardiac surgery patients of benefit with regard to inflammation, endothelial activation, and long-term kidney function? | Because patients with low albumin levels may benefit from human albumin (HA) administration, we studied correction of hypovolemia with HA in hypoalbuminic elderly cardiac surgery patients. In a prospective, randomized study, 50 patients aged>80 yr undergoing cardiac surgery using cardiopulmonary bypass with a preoperative serum albumin concentration of<3.5 mg/dL, received either 5% HA (n = 25) or hydroxyethyl starch (6% HES 130/0.4) (n = 25). Volume was added to the priming (500 mL) and given until the morning of the second postoperative day to keep pulmonary capillary wedge pressure or central venous pressure between 12 and 14 mm Hg. Inflammatory response (interleukins-6, -10), endothelial activation (intercellular adhesion molecule-1), and kidney function (including glutathione transferase-alpha and neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin) were measured after induction of anesthesia, 5 h after surgery, and the first and second postoperative day. A follow-up, approximately 60 days after discharge from the hospital, was done. Two thousand nine hundred eighty +/- 430 mL of HA and 3060 +/- 680 mL of HES 130/0.4 were given. Serum albumin concentration was significantly increased by HA (to 4.5 +/- 0.3 mg/dL). Serum creatinine, glomerular filtration rate, and urinary levels of alpha-glutathione transferase and neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalin were not different in the HA-compared to the HES-treated patients. The inflammatory response was similar in both groups, whereas endothelial activation was less in the HES group. None of the patients developed renal failure requiring renal replacement therapy. | Use of HA in hypoalbuminemic cardiac surgery patients aged>80 yr was without benefit with regard to inflammatory response, endothelial activation, and renal function compared to 6% HES 130/0.4. | closed_qa |
Are new-generation bisphosphonates effective for the inhibition of calcium oxalate stone formation in a rat model? | The effects of bisphosphonates on prophylaxis of stone formation are unclear. We evaluated the outcome of two new-generation bisphosphonates in a lithogenic rat model. 36 male rats were divided into three groups of 12 animals each. Both calcium and creatinine levels of plasma and urine were measured. Zinc discs of about 40 mg each were surgically placed into the bladder. The first group received no treatment and the second and third groups were treated with an intraperitoneal injection of weekly clodronate (20 mg/kg) and zoledronic acid (7.5 microg/kg), respectively. At the end of the 8th week, the weight increase in discs and biochemical changes were analyzed comparatively. The mean weight of discs in the control, clodronate and zoledronic acid groups was 109.65 +/- 80.97, 79.82 +/- 17.99 and 72.91 +/- 19.29 mg, respectively (p>0.05). The percentage increase in weight of discs was 164% for control, 90% for clodronate and 71% for the zoledronic acid group. The increase of urinary calcium level in the zoledronic acid group was lower than the others (p<0.05). | When considering the percentage increase in weight of discs, the difference between control and bisphosphonate groups support the idea that these drugs may have a preventive role in stone formation. | closed_qa |
Is ineffective esophageal motility associated with gastropharyngeal reflux disease? | A total of 632 patients who underwent endoscopy, esophageal manometry and ambulatory 24-h dual-pH monitoring due to supraesophageal symptoms (e.g. globus, hoarseness, or cough) were enrolled. Of them, we selected the patients who had normal esophageal motility and IEM. The endoscopy and ambulatory pH monitoring findings were compared between the two groups. A total of 264 patients with normal esophageal motility and 195 patients with the diagnosis of IEM were included in this study. There was no difference in the frequency of reflux esophagitis and hiatal hernia between the two groups. All the variables showing gastroesophageal reflux and gastropharyngeal reflux were not different between the two groups. The frequency of GERD and GPRD, as defined by ambulatory pH monitoring, was not different between the two groups. | There was no association between IEM and GPRD as well as between IEM and GERD. IEM alone cannot be considered as a definitive marker for reflux disease. | closed_qa |
Survey of hospital healthcare personnel response during a potential avian influenza pandemic: will they come to work? | In order to prepare for pandemics, it is important to assess the likelihood that hospital personnel would report to work and to identify the issues that may affect this decision. To survey hospital personnel regarding their attendance at work in the hypothetical event of avian influenza pandemic, and what factors might influence this decision. A voluntary, confidential, institutional review board-approved survey was offered to a convenience sample of hospital workers regarding their willingness to report to work and what issues would be important in making this decision. Surveys not returned and individuals declining to participate were recorded. Of 187 surveys offered, 169 were completed (90% response rate): 34% were doctors, 33% were nurses, and 33% were clerical and other associates (other). The average age of the participants was 38 years, and 32% were males. Participants were asked: "In the event of an avian pandemic, and patients were being treated at this hospital, would you report to work as usual?". Of those who responded to the survey, 50% reported "yes", 42% reported "maybe", and 8% reported "no". Doctors were more likely than nurses or others to respond "yes" (73%), as were males (66%). For the "maybe" responders, the most important factor (83%) was: "How confident I am that the hospital can protect me". For 19% of the "maybe" responders, financial incentives would not make a difference for them to work, even up to triple pay. | Personnel absenteeism during a pandemic due to fear of contracting an illness may result in a significant personnel shortage. Ensuring worker confidence in adequate personal protection may be more important than financial incentives. | closed_qa |
Does age really matter? | To examine age- and age-related differences in recall of information provided during oncology consultations. Two hundred sixty patients with cancer diagnosed with heterogeneous cancers, seeing a medical or radiation oncologist for the first time, participated in the study. Patients completed questionnaires assessing information needs and anxiety. Recall of information provided was measured using a structured telephone interview in which patients were prompted to remember details physicians gave about diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment. Recall was checked against the actual communication in audio-recordings of the consultations. Recall decreased significantly with age, but only when total amount of information presented was taken into account. This indicates that if more information is discussed, older patients have more trouble remembering the information than younger ones. In addition, recall was selectively influenced by prognosis. First, patients with a poorer prognosis recalled less. Next, the more information was provided about prognosis, the less information patients recalled, regardless of their actual prognosis. | Recall is not simply a function of patient age. Age only predicts recall when controlling for amount of information presented. Both prognosis and information about prognosis are better predictors of recall than age. These results provide important insights into intervention strategies to improve information recall in patients with cancer. | closed_qa |
R1 resection by necessity for colorectal liver metastases: is it still a contraindication to surgery? | To compare long-term outcome of R0 (negative margins) and R1 (positive margins) liver resections for colorectal liver metastases (CLM) treated by an aggressive approach combining chemotherapy and repeat surgery. Complete macroscopic resection with negative margins is the gold standard recommendation in the surgical treatment of CLM. However, due to vascular proximity or multinodularity, complete macroscopic resection can sometimes only be performed through R1 resection. Increasingly efficient chemotherapy may have changed long-term outcome after R1 resection. All resected CLM patients (R0 or R1) at our institution between 1990 and 2006 were prospectively evaluated. Exclusion criteria were: macroscopic incomplete (R2) resection, use of local treatment modalities, and presence of extrahepatic disease. We aimed to resect all identified metastases with negative margins. However, when safe margins could not be obtained, resection was still performed provided complete macroscopic tumor removal. Overall survival (OS) and disease-free survival were compared between groups, and prognostic factors were identified. Of 840 patients, 436 (52%) were eligible for the study, 234 (28%) of whom underwent R0 resection, and 202 (24%) underwent R1 resection. Number and size of CLM were higher, and distribution was more often bilateral in the R1 group. After a mean follow-up of 40 months, 5-year OS was 61% and 57% for R0 and R1 patients (P = 0.27). Five-year disease-free survival was 29% in the R0 group versus 20% in the R1 group (P = 0.12). In the R1 group, intrahepatic (but not surgical margin) recurrences were more often observed (28% vs. 17%; P = 0.004). Preoperative carcinoembryonic antigen level>or =10 ng/mL and major hepatectomy, but not R1 resection, were independent predictors of poor OS. Size>or =30 mm, bilateral distribution, and intraoperative blood transfusions independently predicted positive surgical margins. | Despite a higher recurrence rate, the contraindication of R1 resection should be revisited in the current era of effective chemotherapy because survival is similar to that of R0 resection. | closed_qa |
Does obesity confer an increased risk and/or more severe course of post-ERCP pancreatitis? | Pancreatitis is the most common major complication of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). Recent studies have suggested that obesity may serve as a prognostic indicator of poor outcome in non-ERCP-induced acute pancreatitis. However, to our knowledge, no one has ever investigated the potential association of obesity and ERCP-induced pancreatitis. Thus, the purpose of our study was to determine whether obesity conferred an increased risk and/or more severe course of post-ERCP pancreatitis. A 160 variable database was prospectively collected by a defined protocol on patients undergoing diagnostic or therapeutic ERCP at 15 centers in the Midwest Pancreaticobiliary Group and participating in a randomized controlled study, evaluating whether prophylactic corticosteroids reduces the incidence of post-ERCP pancreatitis. Body mass indices (BMIs) were available on 964 of the 1115 patients from the original study. A BMI>or = 30 kg/m2 was defined as obese (World Health Organization) and used as a cutoff point in this study. BMIs were analyzed in a retrospective fashion to determine whether obesity confers an increased risk and/or more severe course of post-ERCP pancreatitis. Data were collected before the ERCP, at the time of procedure, and 24 to 72 hours after discharge. Standardized criteria were used to diagnose and grade the severity of postprocedure pancreatitis. Nine hundred sixty four patients were enrolled in the study. Pancreatitis occurred in 149 patients (15.5%) and was graded as mild in 101 (67.8%), moderate in 42 (28.2%), and severe in 6 (4.0%). The patients were categorized by BMI (kg/m2) using the following breakdowns: BMI<20, 20 to<25, 25 to<30, and>or = 30, as well as BMI<30 or>or = 30. The groups were similar with respect to the patient and procedure risk factors for post-ERCP pancreatitis except the group with BMI>or = 30 had a higher frequency of females, were younger, had less frequent chronic pancreatitis, a lower number of pancreatic duct injections, and fewer patients received more than 2 pancreatic duct injections. Of the patients with a BMI<30, 119 (16.4%) developed post-ERCP pancreatitis compared with 30 (12.5%) of those with a BMI>or = 30 (P=0.14). There was no association between the presence of obesity and the severity of pancreatitis (P=0.74). Patients with a BMI<20, 20 to<25, 25 to<30, and>or = 30 had a similar incidence of post-ERCP pancreatitis. | Obesity did not seem to confer an increased risk for ERCP-induced pancreatitis. A statistically significant association between obesity and the severity of ERCP-induced pancreatitis was not apparent. | closed_qa |
Laparoscopic and open inguinal hernia repair with alloplastic material: do the subjective and objective parameters differ in the long-term course? | Management with alloplastic materials has become the standard procedure in inguinal hernia surgery. The aim of this study was to evaluate the long-term results after laparoscopic and open groin hernia repair with alloplastic material in a large patient population. We included patients in the study who underwent elective laparoscopic total extraperitoneal (TEP) inguinal hernia repair or Lichtenstein surgery between January 1998 and December 2004 for either unilateral or bilateral inguinal hernia. Patient data were recorded by a prospective online data recording system and evaluated after a minimum follow-up time of 12 (12 to 103) months by standardized questionnaires. Both objective (chronic pain, chronic dysesthesia, recurrence, and postoperative recovery) and subjective (cosmetic result, scar formation, and the choice of surgical procedure) parameters were surveyed. Seven hundred eighty-two patients with 923 inguinal hernias underwent surgery in the study period. Five hundred fifty-three patients returned the questionnaire; 62 died during the follow-up. In the remaining 491 patients, TEP was used in 292 patients (375 hernias) and the Lichtenstein procedure in 199 patients (206 hernias). TEP was significantly superior to the Lichtenstein procedure for 2 objective parameters: chronic dysesthesia and return to normal work. Regarding the subjective parameters, TEP was superior in the cosmetic results and the choice of surgical procedure. 3.1% of the patients after TEP versus 8.5% after Lichtenstein were dissatisfied with the cosmetic result (P=0.008). If secondary inguinal hernia surgery were required, 89.4% of the patients would choose TEP again versus 76.1% the Lichtenstein procedure (P<0.001). | Whereas the Lichtenstein procedure was not significantly better in any of the evaluated parameters, TEP was superior especially in the subjective parameters. | closed_qa |
Introduction of a new incentive and target-based contract for family physicians in the UK: good for older patients with diabetes but less good for women? | To determine whether the recording of diabetes-related health indicators has increased and differences diminished between age, gender and deprivation groups, following the introduction of the new General Medical Services contract (nGMS), an incentive- and target-based contract for UK family physicians. A serial cross-sectional study set in 310 primary care practices in Scotland serving a population of 1.5 million registered patients, focussing on diabetic patients. Data were taken immediately before the introduction of the nGMS and after it had been in place for 1 year. One year after the introduction of the nGMS contract, there was a 54.2% relative increase in the number of patients electronically recorded as having diabetes. In addition, measurement of the quality indicators glycated haemoglobin (HbA(1c)), blood pressure, serum creatinine and cholesterol significantly increased (P<0.05). Women were less likely than men to have HbA(1c)[odds ratio (OR) 0.85, 95% confidence intervals (CI) 0.80-0.91], serum creatinine (OR 0.90, 95% CI 0.84-0.96) and cholesterol recorded (OR 0.83, 95% CI 0.77-0.90) or achieve HbA(1c) (<or= 10.0%; OR 0.87, 95% CI 0.82-0.91) and cholesterol targets (<or= 5.0 mmol/l; OR 0.83, 95%CI 0.77-0.90). | The introduction of the nGMS contract was associated with a rise in the recording of patients with diabetes and the recording of diabetes-related quality indicators. However, women have not benefited equally from the nGMS contract. Strategies are needed to further improve the ascertainment of quality measures and care for women with diabetes, to lessen the potential burden of morbidity amongst female patients in the community. | closed_qa |
Depth of invasion for appendiceal metastasis of ovarian cancers: does it have any clinical significance? | Sixty-nine patients with EOC treated at Hacettepe University were retrospectively analyzed. All of the patients had appendiceal metastasis. Pathological slides were re-reviewed by the same pathologist. Appendiceal metastases were defined as serosal (if tumoral spread involved only serosa of the appendix) or sero-mucosal (if tumoral spread also involved either muscular or mucosal surfaces of the appendix). Univariate and multivariate analysis did not reveal a significant difference with respect to the prognostic variables between the groups. Thirty-nine patients had serosal appendiceal metastasis (56.5%), while the remaining 30 patients (43.5%) had appendiceal metastasis extending toward the muscular layer (seromucosal metastasis: 16 within muscularis mucosa, 14 within the mucosa of the appendix). The mean age at the time of diagnosis was 54.58 years (range, 26-88 years), with no significant difference between the groups (P = 0.9). Comparison of the survival rates between the two groups did not reveal a significant difference. Three-year survival rates were 23.3% in the serosal metastasis and 27.9% in the seromucosal metastasis group (P = 0.9). This figure was 25% for patients with only muscular metastasis and 41.6% for patients with appendiceal metastasis extending to the mucosal layer (P = 0.2). | This is the first report to analyze the metastatic pattern of EOC on the appendix with respect to depth of invasion which could not reveal a significant difference. | closed_qa |
Can VISION 2020 be implemented in rural government settings? | To generate information on essential components and the cost recovery potential of VISION 2020 programmes in rural Africa. We took a structured approach to planning, training, implementation and supervision of programmes in Singida and Mara regions, Tanzania involving both government and non-government partners. Extensive mentoring was provided to monitor activities and costs. Annual numbers of patients receiving eye care increased sevenfold, cataract surgeries by a factor of 2.6 and spectacles dispensed by a factor of 16. Running costs were shared; the government provided 40-60%, non-government organisations (NGOs) 25-45%, and patient fees 15%. | Comprehensive eye care can be delivered with cooperation among partners. However, continued coordination and cooperation from government and NGOs are critical to reach VISION 2020 goals. | closed_qa |
Is muscle the best coverage for leg Gustilo IIIb fractures? | Well-vascularized muscle flaps have been the traditional gold standard for coverage of open fracture of the lower extremity. The last 15 years have brought the fasciocutaneous and perforator flaps and raised the issue of the type of coverage required for open fracture of the lower extremity. In recent years, in selected compromised patient, we have been using nonmuscular flaps for reconstruction. The goal of this study is to compare the results of fasciocutaneous reconstruction to those of classical muscular flaps. A comparative retrospective study, including all patients from 2002 to 2006 requiring a coverage of a Gustillo III b fracture of the lower extremity, is done. The type of flaps, the fracture localization, the infection rate, the time required for consolidation of the fracture and the complication rate are reviewed. An independent university laboratory verified the statistical analysis. Twenty patients have experienced coverage by muscular flaps and 18 by fasciocutaneous flaps. We found a skin fistula and a chronic infection in the muscular-flap group, and two skin fistulae in the fasciocutaneous flaps group. The overall surgical results were comparable, except the bony union delay shorter in the fasciocutaneous flaps group. | Muscle coverage is not mandatory to cover bone in the lower leg. The fasciocutaneous flaps can provide a good alternative for muscle-flap coverage. There is no significant difference as far as consolidation and infection are concerned, between the coverage by muscular or fasciocutaneous flaps. | closed_qa |
Secretory cells in adenomatoid odontogenic tumour: tissue induction or metaplastic mineralisation? | To undertake a detailed histological investigation of a large series of adenomatoid odontogenic tumours (AOT) to document the frequency and histomorphology of secretory cells which might indicate an inductive capacity. Haematoxylin and eosin stained sections of 51 cases of AOT were reviewed. Selected cases were stained with periodic acid-schiff (PAS) and Congo red. In five cases, secretory structures with a circular arrangement of tall columnar cells secreting enameloid-like matrix material were identified. Such structures have only very rarely been identified in AOT and their frequency, distribution and morphology have not been adequately documented. | We have documented the presence of tall secretory columnar cells, arranged in a circular configuration actively secreting enameloid-like material and believe that such an ordered arrangement of secretory cells is more likely a result of tissue induction rather than metaplasia. The origin of these secretory structures from the pseudo-ductular component is unlikely but cannot be ruled out. | closed_qa |
Liver transplantation in polycystic liver disease: a relevant treatment modality for adults? | Polycystic liver disease (PLD) is a rare, hereditary, benign disorder. Hepatic failure is uncommon and symptoms are caused by mass effects leading to abdominal distension and pain. Liver transplantation (LTX) offers fully curative treatment, but there is still some controversy about whether it is a relevant modality considering the absence of liver failure, relative organ shortage, perioperative risks and lifelong immunosuppression. The purpose of this study was to review our experience of LTX for PLD and to compare the survival with the overall survival of patients who underwent LTX from 1992 to 2005. A retrospective study of the journals of 440 patients, who underwent 506 LTXs between 1992 and 2005, showed that 14 patients underwent LTX for PLD. All patients had normal liver function. Three were receiving haemodialysis and thus underwent combined liver/kidney transplantation. One patient had undergone kidney transplantation 10 years earlier. Median follow-up was 55 months. One patient who underwent combined transplantation died after 5.4 months because of multiorgan failure after re-LTX, and one patient, with well-functioning grafts, died of lymphoma after 7 months. At present 12 patients are alive, relieved of symptoms and with good graft function. | We conclude that patients treated for PLD by LTX have a good long-term prognosis and excellent relief of symptoms and that LTX might be considered in severe cases of PLD, where conventional surgery is not an option. | closed_qa |
Are we missing diagnostic opportunities in cases of carcinoid tumours of the appendix? | Carcinoid tumour of appendix is an uncommon condition that can potentially give rise to a variation in management. We aimed to assess the occurrence and mode of presentation of carcinoid tumour of appendix, and any variation of its management. All appendicectomies that took place at North Middlesex University Hospital, London between 1995 and 2005 were considered for study. A total of 1941 appendicectomies took place. Sixteen (0.82%) patients had carcinoid tumours. The mean age of patients with carcinoid tumour (41.8 years) was significantly higher than those with non-carcinoid pathology (27.7 years) (p = 0.001). The incidence of female patients was higher than the male amongst the carcinoid tumour group (female/male ratio 2.2). None of the carcinoid tumours were identified at operation. Eight patients as well as their general practitioners (53.3%) were unaware of the diagnosis. Multidisciplinary team involvement or specialty referral took place in three cases (20%). One patient (6.6%) required right hemicolectomy. Three patients (20%) were followed-up in inconsistent manner. | Carcinoid tumour of the appendix remains an incidental diagnosis. Patients with carcinoids were significantly older than non-carcinoid conditions. There was a trend of increased occurrence of carcinoids amongst the females. Re-operation rate was low. There was a wide variation in involving the multidisciplinary team, conveying the diagnosis to patients as well as their general practitioners, and follow-ups. This can be perceived as a missed opportunity of selective screening of synchronous and metachronous lesions, raises clinical governance issues and has medicolegal implications. | closed_qa |
Does carbonate originate from carbonate-calcium crystal component of the human urinary calculus? | It gives important information in selecting the appropriate treatment for urolithiasis to confirm the component of urinary calculus. Presently component analysis of the urinary calculus is generally performed by infrared spectroscopy which is employed by companies providing laboratory testing services in Japan. The infrared spectroscopy determines the molecular components from the absorption spectra in consequence of atomic vibrations. It has the drawback that an accurate crystal structure cannot be analyzed compared with the X-ray diffraction method which analyzes the crystal constituent based on the diffraction of X-rays on crystal lattice. The components of the urinary calculus including carbonate are carbonate apatite and calcium carbonate such as calcite. Although the latter is reported to be very rare component in human urinary calculus, the results by infrared spectroscopy often show that calcium carbonate is included in calculus. The infrared spectroscopy can confirm the existence of carbonate but cannot determine whether carbonate is originated from carbonate apatite or calcium carbonate. Thus, it is not clear whether calcium carbonate is included in human urinary calculus component in Japan. In this study, we examined human urinary calculus including carbonate by use of X-ray structural analysis in order to elucidate the origin of carbonate in human urinary calculus. We examined 17 human calculi which were reported to contain calcium carbonate by infrared spectroscopy performed in the clinical laboratory. Fifteen calculi were obtained from urinary tract, and two were from gall bladder. The stones were analyzed by X-ray powder method after crushed finely. The reports from the clinical laboratory showed that all urinary culculi consisted of calcium carbonate and calcium phosphate, while the gallstones consisted of calcium carbonate. But the components of all urinary calculi were revealed to be carbonate apatite by X-ray diffraction. The components of gallstones were shown to be calcium carbonate (one calcite and the other aragonite) not only by infrared spectroscopy but by X-ray diffraction. | It was shown that component analysis of the calculus could be more accurately performed by adding X-ray diffraction method to infrared spectroscopy. It was shown that calcium carbonate existed in a gallstone. As for the carbonate in human urinary calculi, present study showed that it was not calcium carbonate origin but carbonate apatite origin. | closed_qa |
Does developmental canal stenosis influence surgical results of bilateral open-door laminoplasty for cervical spondylotic myelopathy? | The purpose of this study was to investigate the prevalence of developmental canal stenosis in patients with cervical spondylotic myelopathy (CSM), and the correlation between surgical results and degree of developmental canal stenosis. A total of 112 patients who eventually had surgical treatment for CSM were evaluated. Male patients whose sagittal spinal diameter was<14 mm and females whose sagittal diameter was<13 mm even at one level were classified as having developmental canal stenosis. Two groups of patients were used in this study; the "positive" group (57 cases) included patients with developmental canal stenosis preoperatively, whereas the "negative" group (55 cases) excluded such patients. Lateral functional radiographs obtained in patients in the 2 groups were compared for range of motion and clinical results. Developmental canal stenosis was found in 50.9% of all cases. Based on clinical results, there was no significant difference between the 2 groups. | Patients with CSM showed a high incidence of preoperative developmental canal stenosis. However, there were no significant differences in clinical results between patients with and without this disorder. These results indicate that developmental canal stenosis is not a factor that influences surgical results. | closed_qa |
Can measurement of basal calcitonin replace the pentagastrin test? | Serum calcitonin is used as a tumour marker in patients with medullary thyroid carcinoma. Traditionally, stimulation of calcitonin secretion with pentagastrin has been used. This may, however, cause significant discomfort for the patient. We studied whether measurements of basal calcitonin could replace the pentagastrin test. Forty-three patients were consecutively included. Pearson correlation coefficient (r(2)) was used for calculation of calcitonin values. We performed 104 pentagastrin tests in 43 patients. The squared correlation coefficient (r(2)) between calcitonin values before and after stimulation was between 0.662 and 0.919. One patient had very high and rather divergent calcitonin values. Exclusion of this patient increased r(2) to between 0.923 and 0.999. In 9 of 104 pentagastrin tests (8.7% , 95% CI: 3.3-14.1%), serum calcitonin was higher than the cut-off level in normal subjects after pentagastrin stimulation, but lower before (discrepancy). However, this would have no clinical consequences in any of the cases because serum calcitonin remained measurable, i.e. remnant thyroid tissue had to be present. | In conclusion, good agreement is present between calcitonin values before and after stimulation with pentagastrin. In some cases, the pentagastrin test may be replaced by point measurements of serum calcitonin. However, further studies are necessary. | closed_qa |
Gender differences in high-risk situations for drinking: are they mediated by depressive symptoms? | The purpose of the present study was to examine gender differences in the frequency of high-risk drinking situations and to investigate the extent to which depressive symptoms mediate the relationship. Participants were 143 outpatient alcohol treatment seekers. Each participant completed the Beck Depression Inventory-II and Inventory of Drug-Taking Situations (IDTS) at baseline prior to treatment. Multivariate analysis of variance was used to examine gender differences in drinking across eight categories of situations assessed on the IDTS. Mediational analyses tested whether gender differences on these IDTS subscales may be mediated by depressive symptoms. We found support for the hypothesis that women report drinking more than men in response to unpleasant emotions and conflict with others, and that these associations are significantly mediated by depression severity. | The current findings have important implications for appropriate treatment for alcohol-dependent women. In particular, such treatment should include training in affect regulation and interpersonal skills, as well as treatment for depression, when appropriate. | closed_qa |
Can evidence change belief? | In this study, we tested whether providing individuals, who described being sensitive to mobile phone signals, with accurate feedback about their ability to discriminate an active mobile phone signal from a sham signal had any impact on their subsequent symptom levels or their perceived sensitivity to mobile phones. Sixty-nine participants who reported sensitivity to mobile phones took part in a double-blind, placebo-controlled provocation study. Perceived sensitivity to mobile phones was assessed using a version of the Sensitive Soma Assessment Scale (SSAS) and the severity of any symptoms attributed to mobile phones was recorded. Both the overall ("negative") findings of the provocation study and the participant's own individual results ("correct" or "incorrect" at detecting a mobile phone signal) were then described to them. Six months later, perceived sensitivity and symptom severity were measured again. Fifty-eight participants (84%) received feedback and participated in the 6-month follow-up. No significant differences in SSAS scores or in symptom severity scores were found between individuals told that they were correct (n=31) or incorrect (n=27) in their ability to detect mobile phone signals in the provocation study. | The provision of accurate feedback was insufficient to change attributions or reduce symptoms in this study. However, an overtly negative reaction to feedback was not observed among most participants, and some participants were willing to consider that factors other than electromagnetic field may be relevant in causing or exacerbating their symptoms. Discussing possible psychological factors with electromagnetic hypersensitivity patients may be beneficial for some. | closed_qa |
Do the benefits of rigid internal fixation of mandible fractures justify the added costs? | Owing to its putative advantages over conventional maxillomandibular fixation (MMF), open-reduction and rigid internal fixation (ORIF) is used frequently to treat mandible fractures, particularly in noncompliant patients. The resource-intensive nature of ORIF, the large variation in its use, and the lack of systematic studies substantiating ORIF attributed benefits compel a randomized controlled investigation comparing ORIF to MMF treatment. The objective of this study was to determine whether ORIF provides better clinical and functional outcomes than MMF in noncomplying type of patients with a similar range of mandible fracture severity. From a total of 336 patients who sought treatment for mandible fractures, 142 patients with moderately severe mandible fractures were assigned randomly to receive MMF or ORIF and followed prospectively for 12 months. A variety of clinician and patient-reported measures were used to assess outcomes at the 1, 6, and 12 months follow-up visits. These measures included clinician-reported number of surgical complications, patient-reported number of complaints, as well as cumulative costs of treatment. Pain intensity was measured on a 10-point scale and the 12-item General Oral Health Assessment Index was used to assess the patients' oral health-related quality of life. Because the protocol allowed clinical judgment to overrule the randomly assigned treatment, outcomes were compared on an "intent-to-treat" basis as well as in terms of actual treatment received. The sociodemographic and clinical characteristics of the injury did not differ among the 2 groups. On an intent-to-treat basis, the difference in complication rates was not significant but favored MMF; 8.1% of patients developed complications with MMF versus 12.5% with ORIF. Differences in the rate of patient complaints were not significant on an intent-to-treat basis, but a significant between-group difference (P = .012) favoring MMF was noted on an as-treated basis at the 1 month recall, with 40% of ORIF patients reporting greater than 1 complaint versus 18.8% of MMF patients. No significant differences were detected between the 2 treatment groups at any time point with respect to oral health-related quality of life reflected by the General Oral Health Assessment Index scores. In-patient days and total costs did not differ significantly on an intent-to-treat basis, but on an as-treated basis, patients treated with MMF had fewer in-patient days on average (1.64 vs 5.50 for ORIF) and lower average costs of treatment ($7,206 vs $26,089 for ORIF). In the intent-to-treat analyses, patients receiving MMF treatment had significantly lower (P = .05) pain scores at the 12-month recall (mean = 0.58, SE = 0.30) compared with patients assigned to ORIF (mean = 1.78, SE = 0.52). | Our study did not show a clear overall benefit of the resource-intensive ORIF over conventional MMF treatment in the management of moderately severe mandible fractures in at-risk patients; our data instead suggest some cost as well as oral health quality-of-life advantages for the use of MMF in this patient population. | closed_qa |
Is UCP2 gene polymorphism associated with decreased resting energy expenditure in nondialyzed chronic kidney disease patients? | The deletion/deletion (del/del) polymorphism of uncoupling protein 2 (UCP2) was associated with decreased energy expenditure in diabetic and obese patients. There is evidence of decreased resting energy expenditure (REE) in chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients not yet on dialysis. However, whether REE is associated with the UCP2 polymorphism was not previously investigated in this population. This study evaluated whether the del/del polymorphism of the UCP2 gene is associated with lower REE in nondialyzed CKD patients. This was a cross-sectional study. Forty-four nondialyzed CKD patients (29 male; aged 52 +/- 12 years; creatinine clearance, 37 +/- 13 mL/min/1.73 m(2) [values are mean +/- SD unless otherwise noted]) were included. Their REE was assessed by indirect calorimetry, and body composition by bioelectrical impedance. High-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) was also evaluated. The insertion/deletion (ins/del) polymorphism of the UCP2 gene was determined in all participants. To test whether the deletion/deletion (del/del) polymorphism of the UCP2 gene was associated with lower REE, the REE of carriers of the del/del genotype (n = 24; group Del) was compared with that of carriers of the insertion and ins/del genotype (n = 20; group Ins). The main outcome measure was REE. The REE of group Del was similar to that of the group Ins (1379 +/- 239 kcal/day vs. 1360 +/- 289 kcal/day, respectively, P = NS). This result was maintained even after the REE was adjusted for lean body mass by analysis of covariance. In addition, in a multiple-regression analysis using REE as the dependent variable, only lean body mass and hs-CRP were significant predictors of REE. | The results suggest that the del/del polymorphism of the UCP2 gene is not associated with lower REE in nondialyzed CKD patients. | closed_qa |
Does dual-energy CT of lower-extremity tendons incur penalties in patient radiation exposure or reduced multiplanar reconstruction image quality? | The purposes of this study were to evaluate the quality and radiation exposure of data acquired with dual-energy CT compared with single-energy MDCT in the depiction of lower-extremity tendons and to assess whether a dual-energy CT voltage exists at which the quality of tendon depiction is optimal. Eleven healthy volunteers and seven clinically referred patients (10 men, eight women; mean age, 43.1 years; range, 20-71 years) underwent conventional single-energy CT and dual-energy CT examinations of both lower extremities with a dual-source CT scanner. Dual-energy reconstructions were made at combined tube voltages approximating 86, 98, 110, 122, and 134 kVp. Quantitative and qualitative analyses were performed on six tendons in each lower extremity, and the findings were compared with single-energy CT findings. The radiation dose involved was recorded in each case. A trend toward increasing tendon attenuation was observed with increasing reconstructed tube voltage. The group of single-energy CT reconstructions proved significantly superior to each of the dual-energy CT reconstructions with regard to signal-to-noise ratio (F = 35.25, p<0.0001) and contrast-to-noise ratio (F = 37.19, p<0.0001), although interobserver agreement in subjective ranking was poor. Dual-energy CT had a significantly higher radiation dose (p<0.05) than single-energy CT. | Dual-energy CT of lower-extremity tendons, irrespective of the reconstruction tube voltage chosen, yields multiplanar reformations inferior to those of single-energy CT with regard to signal-to-noise and contrast-to-noise ratios while involving significantly escalated patient exposure to ionizing radiation. Whether the tissue-differentiating promise of dual-energy CT is realized in future studies and warrants such concessions remains to be seen. | closed_qa |
Use of N-butyl cyanoacrylate in implantation of a port-catheter system for hepatic arterial infusion chemotherapy with the fixed-catheter-tip method: is it necessary? | The purpose of our study was to evaluate the usefulness of N-butyl cyanoacrylate (NBCA) in addition to microcoils in the percutaneous implantation of a port-catheter system for repeated hepatic arterial infusion chemotherapy with the fixed-catheter-tip method. We retrospectively studied 166 consecutive patients with unresectable advanced liver cancer for whom a port-catheter system was percutaneously implanted with its tip fixed at the gastroduodenal artery with microcoils. In 107 patients, NBCA was also used for catheter tip fixation. We compared this group with a control cohort of 59 patients who did not receive NBCA. Outcomes, including rate of success in implantation, details of embolic agents for fixation, and occurrence of complications related to catheter placement that would prohibit continuation of chemotherapy if not corrected, were compared. In all, port-catheter placement was successful. However, 38 complications occurred in 32 patients. Catheter dislocation occurred in nine. Hepatic artery obstruction or severe stenosis was seen in 10. Recanalization of a once-embolized gastroduodenal artery was found in two patients. The rate of dislocation did not differ significantly between patients in whom NBCA was and those in whom it was not used. However, hepatic artery obstruction appeared at a significantly higher rate, and recanalization of a gastroduodenal artery at a significantly lower rate, in patients in whom the catheter tip was fixed with NBCA. | The use of NBCA correlated with a higher rate of hepatic artery obstruction. The use of NBCA should not always be required in port-catheter implantation with the fixed-catheter-tip method. | closed_qa |
Parotid gland tumors: can addition of diffusion-weighted MR imaging to dynamic contrast-enhanced MR imaging improve diagnostic accuracy in characterization? | To determine the value of adding diffusion-weighted (DW) magnetic resonance (MR) imaging to dynamic contrast material-enhanced MR imaging when distinguishing between benign and malignant parotid tumors. This retrospective study was approved by the institutional review board, and the informed consent requirement was waived. The authors analyzed MR images of 50 lesions (36 benign, 14 malignant) in 47 patients. DW MR imaging and dynamic contrast-enhanced MR imaging were performed in all patients. Time-intensity curve (TIC) patterns were categorized as follows: type A, time to peak was more than 120 seconds; type B, time to peak was 120 seconds or less with high washout ratio (>or = 30%); type C, time to peak was 120 seconds or less with low washout ratio (<30%); and type D, flat. The apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) values were measured on DW MR images. Sensitivity, specificity, accuracy, and positive and negative predictive values were calculated for type A, B, and D tumors regarded as benign and for type C tumors regarded as malignant. On the basis of DW MR imaging results, ADC threshold values between pleomorphic adenomas and carcinomas and between Warthin tumors and carcinomas were selected. Diagnostic accuracy was compared before and after modification diagnosis referring to the ADC value obtained with the McNemar test. P<.05 was considered to indicate a significant difference. ADC threshold values were 1.4 x 10(-3) mm(2)/sec between pleomorphic adenomas and carcinomas and 1.0 x 10(-3) mm(2)/sec between Warthin tumors and carcinomas. Accuracy (82% vs 94%) and positive predictive value (67% vs 92%) significantly improved with the addition of ADC values in the evaluation of patients with type B or C tumors. | A persistent or flat TIC pattern on dynamic contrast-enhanced MR images indicates benign disease, but there is added value from including the ADC value in the evaluation of tumors that show a plateau or washout TIC pattern. | closed_qa |
Screening mammography: does ethnicity influence patient preferences for higher recall rates given the potential for earlier detection of breast cancer? | To prospectively survey the preferences of an underserved and predominantly minority population of women regarding their understanding of screening mammography, desire for recall and early detection, and willingness to continue with annual screening mammography once given a false-positive result. A total of 1011 women who were going to undergo mammography completed a HIPAA-compliant, Institutional Review Board-approved, validated survey in one of three languages: English, Spanish, or Haitian-Creole. Data were analyzed across three groups (ie, white, black, Hispanic) by using chi(2) analysis. Of 911 women included in the final analysis, 378 (41%) were white, 439 (48%) were black, and 94 (10%) were Hispanic. Income and education levels varied significantly across ethnicities (P<.0001). A higher percentage of white women (40%) correctly identified the sensitivity of mammography (P<.0001), while black (42%) and Hispanic (50%) participants thought mammography to have a higher sensitivity than it truly does. After a false-positive result, only 80% of black women and 71% of Hispanic women were likely to continue with screening in the future, compared with 93% of white women (P<.0001). Only 54% of black women and 59% of Hispanic women were willing to return for a second noninvasive procedure despite the possibility of a higher cancer detection rate, compared with 76% of white women (P<.0001). Black women (53%) were also more reluctant to be recalled for invasive studies, and Hispanic women (65%) were slightly less willing to take this risk than were white women (75%) (P<.0001). | Differences in ethnic background appear to influence women's understanding of mammography, compliance with recall, and preference for early detection of breast cancer. | closed_qa |
Expansion of HIV laboratory diagnostic services in Chennai, India 2001-2006: is the growth commensurate with the need? | To describe the changes in HIV services provided and the patient population utilizing voluntary counseling and testing (VCT) services at private testing laboratories in Chennai, India in 2001 and 2006. In 2001, a cross-sectional descriptive survey was conducted to assess the services provided and client population of 1,031 private laboratories. A subset of labs (9%) that had been surveyed in 2001 were also studied in 2006. In 2001, significantly more high volume labs (>10 HIV tests per month) offered HIV diagnostic tests than low volume labs (<10 HIV test per month) (p<0.001). More high volume labs (20.0%) provided pre-test counseling as part of HIV testing than low volume labs (11.1%) (p = 0.003). Between 2001 and 2006, the number of labs that provided HIV diagnostic tests significantly increased, including ELISA (87.8% vs. 40.0%), Western Blot (84.4% vs. 13.3%), and Tridot (98.9% vs. 72.2%) (p<0.001). Also the number of labs that reported greater than 10 women seeking HIV testing per month significantly increased from 14.5% to 79.0% (p = 0.006). More labs provided pre-test counseling in 2006 (34.4%) than in 2001 (21.1%) (p = 0.046). | Though HIV diagnostic testing services have increasingly become available, counseling services have not expanded commensurately. Further outreach and education is necessary to expand comprehensive HIV VCT services in both urban and rural India. | closed_qa |
Measurement of success of treatment for chronic back pain. Can general effects in an entire sample of patients with chronic back pain be transferred to specific effects in individuals? | The multimodal therapy has proved to be useful for the treatment of patients with chronic back pain. The aim of this methodical study was to test whether specific effects for the individual can be inferred from general effects of the entire sample, in order to define criteria for the success of treatment. These could be helpful when deciding to which patients the multimodal therapy can best be applied. A total of 408 patients with chronic back pain took part in a 3-week multimodal therapy program in a day hospital. The patients were questioned regarding parameters such as pain intensity, depression, functional back capacity and quality of life before therapy as well as 6 months after therapy. On average, a significant improvement of all parameters could be shown after 6 months. However, scatterplots and correlations showed that general results of the entire sample should not be transferred to the individual patient | Taking into account principles of classical test theory this study showed that sufficient systematic coherence of the data must be proven before changes can be calculated. As long as neither an adequate systematic nor useful criteria can be found, there seems to be no reason to exclude any patient from multimodal therapy using pre-selection criteria. | closed_qa |
Neural tube defects in Switzerland from 2001 to 2007: are periconceptual folic acid recommendations being followed? | Neural tube defects (NTDs) are common congenital anomalies. Their aetiology is complex, with both genetic and environmental factors implicated. The present study was performed to analyse the birth prevalence of NTD in Switzerland from 2001 to 2007 and to identify possible risk factors. Diagnosed cases of NTD in all paediatric units in Switzerland and four prenatal centres were reported to the Swiss Paediatric Surveillance Unit from January 2001 to December 2007. Patient, mother, and NTD characteristics were assessed prospectively with a questionnaire. Data of 140 newborns and foetuses with NTD were studied. The major group suffered from myelomeningocele (70%), followed by anencephaly (16%) and encephalocele (14%). The prevalence of NTD in live born children between 2001 and 2007 was 0.13 per thousand, corresponding to 9-10 affected newborns each year. About the same number of pregnancies was terminated annually. Correct periconceptual folic acid supplementation was taken by 5% of the women. Remarkably, 39% of the women with an affected pregnancy were not Swiss citizens - almost twice the proportion of foreigners living in Switzerland. | NTDs remain a frequent problem in Switzerland. Although correct periconceptual folic acid supplementation is effective in reducing the prevalence of NTD, women still do not follow these recommendations. Possible reasons are lack of awareness and communication problems. Consequently, only a public health policy that includes folic acid fortification of food is likely to result in significant prevention of NTD. | closed_qa |
Acute heart failure and preserved systolic function: can we explain all only by the diastolic dysfunction? | Heart failure with conserved systolic function is frequent and attributed to the diastolic dysfunction. The diagnosis of diastolic heart failure requires the association of clinical signs of heart failure, a conserved left ventricular systolic function and a diastolic dysfunction. To determine the proportion of cases of isolated diastolic heart failure among patients hospitalized for acute pulmonary edema. The left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF), the diastolic function and levels of NT-proBNP have been assessed at admission of 145 patients hospitalized for acute pulmonary edema. 49% of patients included were older than 80 years (mean age 78.6 + 0.9 years). Among the 83 patients with conserved LVEF, 25% had an ischemic heart disease, 24% a severe valvular disease, 22% an atrial fibrillation, 5% a severe bradycardia, 2% a severe hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy. Only 15 patients presented an isolated diastolic heart failure. The level of NT-proBNP was correlated to LVEF but was not able to identify those with isolated diastolic heart failure in the group with "conserved systolic function". | Among patients hospitalized for acute pulmonary edema, the prevalence of heart failure with conserved systolic function is high, but only 10% of them presented an isolated diastolic heart failure. The NT-proBNP levels do not permit to identify them. | closed_qa |
Is splenectomy a dyslipidemic intervention? | Spleen removal may be recommended during organ transplantation in ABO-incompatible recipients as well as for hypoperfusion of the grafted liver, besides conventional surgical indications, but elevation of serum lipids has been observed in certain contexts. Aiming to analyze the influence of two dietary regimens on lipid profile, an experimental study was conducted. Male Wistar rats (n = 86, 333.0 +/- 32.2 g) were divided in four groups: group 1: controls; group 2: sham operation; group 3: total splenectomy; group 4: subtotal splenectomy with upper pole preservation; subgroups A (cholesterol reducing chow) and B (cholesterol-rich mixture) were established, and diet was given during 90 days. Total cholesterol (Tchol), high-density lipoprotein (HDL), low-density lipoprotein (LDL), very-low-density lipoprotein (VLDL), and triglycerides were documented. After total splenectomy, hyperlipidemia ensued with cholesterol-reducing chow. Tchol, LDL, VLDL, triglycerides, and HDL changed from 56.4 +/- 9.2, 24.6 +/- 4.7, 9.7 +/- 2.2, 48.6 +/- 11.1, and 22.4 +/- 4.3 mg/dL to 66.9 +/- 11.4, 29.9 +/- 5.9, 10.9 +/- 2.3, 54.3 +/- 11.4, and 26.1 +/- 5.1 mg/dL, respectively. Upper pole preservation inhibited abnormalities of Tchol, HDL, VLDL, and triglycerides, and LDL decreased (23.6 +/- 4.9 vs. 22.1 +/- 5.1, P = 0.002). Higher concentrations were triggered by splenectomy and cholesterol-enriched diet (Tchol 59.4 +/- 10.1 vs. 83.9 +/- 14.3 mg/dL, P = 0.000), and upper-pole preservation diminished without abolishing hyperlipidemia (Tchol 55.9 +/- 10.0 vs. 62.3 +/- 7.8, P = 0.002). | After splenectomy, hyperlipidemia occurred with both diets. Preservation of the upper pole tended to correct dyslipidemia in modality A and to attenuate it in subgroup B. | closed_qa |
Near miss and minor occupational injury: Does it share a common causal pathway with major injury? | An essential assumption of injury prevention programs is the common cause hypothesis that the causal pathways of near misses and minor injuries are similar to those of major injuries. The rates of near miss, minor injury and major injury of all reported incidents and musculoskeletal incidents (MSIs) were calculated for three health regions using information from a surveillance database and productive hours from payroll data. The relative distribution of individual causes and activities involved in near miss, minor injury and major injury were then compared. For all reported incidents, there were significant differences in the relative distribution of causes for near miss, minor, and major injury. However, the relative distribution of causes and activities involved in minor and major MSIs were similar. The top causes and activities involved were the same across near miss, minor, and major injury. | Finding from this study support the use of near miss and minor injury data as potential outcome measures for injury prevention programs. | closed_qa |
Does limb angular motion raise limb arterial pressure? | Nine human subjects performed horizontal shoulder flexion ( approximately +/-90 degrees at 0.75 Hz for 30 s). We measured finger arterial pressure (photoplethysmography) in the moving (Trial 1) and non-moving arm (Trial 2) in separate trials along with the pressure (strain gauge) generated at the fingers within a length of water-filled tubing mounted on the moving arm in both trials. Arm swinging raised (P<0.05) the mean pressure measured in the tubing by 11 +/- 2 and 14 +/- 2 mmHg (Trials 1 and 2 respectively). In response to exercise, the rise in mean finger arterial pressure in the swinging limb (18 +/- 3 mmHg, Trial 1) exceeded (P<0.05) the rise in the resting limb (8 +/- 2 mmHg, Trial 2) by an amount similar to the 11 mmHg rise in pressure generated in the tubing in Trial 1. | We conclude that the swinging of a limb creates centrifugal force (a biomechanical centrifuge) which imparts additional pressure to the arteries, but not the veins owing to the venous valves, which further widens the arterial-venous pressure difference. | closed_qa |
Polymorphic light eruption and skin cancer prevalence: is one protective against the other? | Ultraviolet (UV) radiation (UVR) interacts with chromophores in cutaneous cells with consequent antigenicity. The normal response to this is a downregulation of immune responsiveness. Failure of the immune system to downregulate and to ignore transient photoantigens in human skin results in polymorphic light eruption (PLE), the commonest of the photodermatoses. UVR initiates and promotes skin cancer (SC): UV-induced immunosuppression permits the expansion of UV-mutated clones of cells which ultimately lead to SC. Because there is increased immune surveillance and resistance to immune suppression following UVR exposure in PLE one might expect a protective effect of PLE against SC and, conversely, a reduced risk of PLE among patients with SC. We therefore constructed a prospective case-control study to see if this were the case. Two groups were studied: a group comprising 214 patients with SC and 210 gender- and aged-matched controls, and a group comprising 100 patients with PLE and 155 gender- and aged-matched controls. Each participant answered a questionnaire aimed at establishing personal and family history of SC and photodermatoses. Skin type and exposure to UVR were also documented. The prevalence of PLE in people with SC was 7.5%, compared with 21.4% for controls (P<0.001). The prevalence of SC in patients with PLE was 4% compared with 7.1% for controls. | Our results show (i) strong evidence of reduced PLE in patients with SC, and (ii) a trend for reduced SC in patients with PLE. The immunological basis of PLE may therefore confer protection against SC. | closed_qa |
Pooled analysis of patients with thunderclap headache evaluated by CT and LP: is angiography necessary in patients with negative evaluations? | Severe, abrupt onset headache raises concern for aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). The current standard work-up is brain CT scan followed by LP if the CT is non-diagnostic in patients with a normal neurological exam. Some have suggested that angiography is also indicated in this common clinical situation. Is evaluation with brain CT and LP for thunderclap headache to rule out SAH sufficient and is angiography needed? We systematically searched for studies that followed neurologically-intact patients with thunderclap headache and normal CT and LP for at least 1 year. The primary outcome was SAH. We estimated the proportion of patients who developed SAH and the one-sided upper 95% confidence bound. Seven studies including 813 patients were identified. None of the patients developed SAH during follow-up (pooled proportion=0, upper 95% confidence bound=0.004). | Although our methods have important limitations, we believe that this analysis will give clinicians better tools to decide whether or not to pursue further work-up with angiography in patients with thunderclap headache and normal neurological exam, CT, and LP. | closed_qa |
Hepatic enzyme decline after pediatric blunt trauma: a tool for timing child abuse? | Previous research in adult patients with blunt hepatic injuries has suggested a pattern of serum hepatic transaminase concentration decline. Evaluating this decline after pediatric blunt hepatic trauma could establish parameters for estimating the time of inflicted injuries. Deviation from a consistent transaminase resolution pattern could indicate a developing complication. Retrospective review of pediatric patients with injuries including blunt liver trauma admitted to one of four urban level 1 trauma centers from 1990 to 2000. Cases were excluded for shock, death within 48 h, complications, or inability to determine injury time. Transaminase concentration decline was modeled by individual patients, by injury grade, and as a ratio with regard to injury time. One hundred and seventy-six patients met inclusion criteria. The rate of aspartate aminotransferase (AST) clearance changed significantly over time. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) fell more slowly. Of the 118 patients who had multiple measurements of AST, for 112 (95%) the first concentration obtained was the highest. When ALT was greater than AST, the injury was older than 12h (97% specificity (95% CI, 95-99%), sensitivity 42% (95% CI, 33-50%)). Patients with enzymes that rose after 14 h post-injury were more likely to develop complications (RR=24, 95% CI 10-58). | Hepatic transaminases rise rapidly after uncomplicated blunt liver injury, then fall predictably. Persistently stable or increasing concentrations may indicate complications. ALT>AST indicates subacute injury. | closed_qa |
Does exogenous nitric oxide influence tympanosclerosis? | We aimed to elucidate the effects of exogenous nitric oxide application via myrigotomized rat tympanic membranes on tympanosclerosis. Forty male rats were included in the study. After myringotomy, nitric oxide was given to the left tympanic cavities and saline was given to the right as the control group. The procedure was repeated 3 times with weekly intervals. Three months after the first procedure, otomicroscopic examination was made and the rats were sacrificed for histologic examination. Neither otomicroscopic examination, nor histologic examination of middle ears and tympanic membranes revealed any significant difference between the right and left sides. Tympanic membrane thicknesses were also similar on both sides without showing any significant difference. | Data from this study indicate that exogenous nitric oxide application did not change the occurence of tympanosclerosis in the rat model. Other cytokine interactions are needed to start the reaction sequence leading to tympanosclerosis. | closed_qa |
Does a bed rail system of alcohol-based handrub antiseptic improve compliance of health care workers with hand hygiene? | Hand hygiene is the cornerstone of prevention of nosocomial infections and a challenge for infection-control teams. Bed-rail dispensers of alcohol-based hand rub antiseptic (AHRA) were first initiated only in department A (period I), followed by department B (period II). Opportunities for hand hygiene (OHH) were recorded during periods I, II, and III (post-trial follow-up). Only application of AHRA before and after contacting each patient was considered as appropriate. Comparative evaluation between periods I and II, as well as II and III, was performed. Predictors of AHRA compliance were also assessed by regression analysis. HCWs' compliance was improved after the initiation of the bed-rail approach in department B (51.5%, vs 36.4% P = .005). In department A, where this system already existed, no changes were observed. The bed-rail AHRA system (P = .007 [OR 1.8(1.2-3.0)]) and nurses (P<.0001[OR 5.6 (3.1-9.9)]) were predictors of hand hygiene in department B. HCWs' compliance declined in department B (26.5% vs 51.5%, P<.0001) and department A (27.5% vs 35.9%, P = .1) during period III. | The bed-rail approach initially improved HCWs' compliance with AHRA but did not radically influence behavior in internal medicine settings. Multidisciplinary strategies are required to establish hand hygiene recommendations. | closed_qa |
Iatrogenic ureteral injury: can adult repair techniques be used on children? | Iatrogenic ureteral injury in children is a rare occurrence, with sparse literature available regarding optimal repair techniques. We reviewed our experience in the management of iatrogenic pediatric ureteral injuries, particularly with respect to initial versus delayed diagnoses. All pediatric iatrogenic ureteral injuries repaired by a single surgeon during 1986-2007 were reviewed. Ten injuries were repaired over 20 years. Median patient age was 12 years. Injuries occurred during five open tumor resections, three laparoscopic procedures and two ureteroscopies. Diagnosis was immediate in four patients. Median ureteral defect length was 4 cm (range 2-5). All underwent ureteral reimplantation and psoas hitch Boari flap. Median follow up was 1 year, with no obstruction noted. Diagnosis was delayed in six patients by a median of 21 days. Five children (83%) were managed by temporary percutaneous nephrostomy tube and one (17%) by ureteral stent. Delayed repair was performed 1-3 months later. In the patients with laparoscopic or ureteroscopic injuries the median ureteral defect length was 4 cm (range 3-6). All underwent ureteral reimplantation and psoas hitch Boari flap. Median follow up was 1 year, with no obstruction noted. One child had a proximal ureteral defect 8 cm long; delayed ileal ureter was performed with good results 4 years postoperatively. | Pediatric iatrogenic ureteral injuries are rare and may be repaired by both immediate and delayed techniques as circumstances demand. Standard techniques used in the adult population may be employed in children with the expectation of good long-term results. | closed_qa |
Can quantitative diffusion-weighted MR imaging differentiate benign and malignant cold thyroid nodules? | The characterization of cold nodules of the thyroid gland is mandatory because approximately 20% of these nodules are of malignant origin. The purpose of this study was to evaluate the distinction of cold thyroid nodules by using quantitative diffusion-weighted MR imaging (DWI). In 25 patients with cold nodules on scintigraphy and suggestive findings at fine-needle aspiration, thyroid carcinoma was suggested. In these patients, cold nodules and the normal parenchyma of the contralateral thyroid lobe were prospectively investigated with quantitative DWI (echo-planar imaging sequence; maximum b-value, 800 s/mm(2)) before surgery. The differences in the mean apparent diffusion coefficient (ADC) values in benign and malignant nodules were tested by using a Mann-Whitney U test. Histologically, there were 20 carcinomas with a minimum size of 8 mm and 5 adenomas. The mean ADC values (in 10(-3) mm(2)/s) differed significantly among carcinoma, adenoma, and normal parenchyma (P<.05). The ranges (95% confidence interval) of the ADC values for carcinoma (2.43-3.037), adenoma (1.626-2.233), and normal parenchyma (1.253-1.602) showed no overlap. When an ADC value of 2.25 or higher was used for predicting malignancy, the highest accuracy of 88%, with 85% sensitivity and 100% specificity, was obtained. | Quantitative DWI seems to be a feasible tool with which to differentiate thyroid carcinomas from adenomas; however, further studies are required including larger numbers of patients to confirm our results. | closed_qa |
Improved pregnancy outcome in type 1 diabetic women with microalbuminuria or diabetic nephropathy: effect of intensified antihypertensive therapy? | To describe pregnancy outcome in type 1 diabetic women with normoalbuminuria, microalbuminuria, or diabetic nephropathy after implementation of an intensified antihypertensive therapeutic strategy. Prospective study of 117 pregnant women with type 1 diabetes. Antihypertensive therapy, mainly methyldopa, was given to obtain blood pressure<135/85 mmHg and urinary albumin excretion<300 mg/24 h. Blood pressure and A1C were recorded during pregnancy. The pregnancy outcome was compared with recently published studies of pregnant women with microalbuminuria or diabetic nephropathy. Antihypertensive therapy was given in 14 of 100 women with normoalbuminuria, 5 of 10 women with microalbuminuria, and all 7 women with diabetic nephropathy. Mean systolic blood pressure during pregnancy was 120 mmHg (range 101-147), 122 mmHg (116-135), and 135 mmHg (111-145) in women with normoalbuminuria, microalbuminuria, and diabetic nephropathy, respectively (P = 0.0095). No differences in mean diastolic blood pressure or A1C were detected between the groups. No women with microalbuminuria developed preeclampsia. The frequency of preterm delivery was 20% in women with normoalbuminuria and microalbuminuria in contrast to 71% in women with diabetic nephropathy (P<0.01) where the median gestational age was 258 days (220-260). Compared with previous studies using less stringent antihypertensive therapeutic strategy and less strict metabolic control, gestational age was longer and birth weight was larger in our study. | With intensified antihypertensive therapy and strict metabolic control, comparable pregnancy outcome was seen in type 1 diabetic women with microalbuminuria and normoalbuminuria. Although less severe than in previous studies, diabetic nephropathy was associated with more adverse pregnancy outcome. | closed_qa |
Exposure to child and adolescent psychiatry for medical students: are there optimal "teaching perspectives"? | The ability to develop quality medical student exposures in child and adolescent psychiatry is critical to the professional development of these future physicians and to the growth of recruitment efforts into the field. This study identifies teaching perspectives among child and adolescent psychiatry faculty to determine whether there are optimal perspectives that positively influence medical student satisfaction. Eighty-eight third- and fourth-year students at an allopathic U.S. medical school assessed teacher performance over a 1-year period using a standard internal teacher evaluation. Three experienced faculty members teaching the medical student seminars each completed a Teaching Perspective Inventory. The authors compared the different teaching perspectives with student satisfaction scores on the standard teacher evaluation instrument. All teachers had two dominant perspectives and one recessive perspective. Each teacher had a predominant developmental perspective but they differed in other dominant and recessive perspectives. The transmission perspective was associated with significantly less favorable scores on the standard teacher evaluation compared to the apprenticeship and nurturing perspective. | The authors discuss the value of teaching perspective identification among child and adolescent psychiatry faculty for medical student education. | closed_qa |
Is child psychiatric service different when provided by attendings versus clinicians-in-training? | This study examines the clinical management characteristics of outpatient child and adolescent psychiatric care provided by attendings and clinicians-in-training in an academic institution. The authors hypothesized that no significant differences would exist between initial evaluations conducted by attendings and those conducted by clinicians-in-training. The amount of information obtained during an initial evaluation and the number and type of services recommended postevaluation were assessed for 429 patients treated in the child and adolescent psychiatry clinics at Stanford University by attending psychiatrists and clinicians-in-training. No significant differences were found for the evaluations conducted by attendings and clinicians-in-training for the amount of data collected during an evaluation of the number or type of recommendations made postevaluation. | These findings lend themselves to the conclusion that attendings and clinicians-in-training offer comparable services in the assessment of new patients. Study limitations and future areas of study are discussed. | closed_qa |
Case fatality of stroke and day of the week: is the weekend effect an artifact? | For stroke admissions, the 'weekend effect' has been associated with higher stroke fatality. However, it is unclear if stroke case fatality shows this pattern if the onset day is taken into account. Day of the week variation in stroke case fatality was examined using 16-year stroke registration data. Data were obtained from Takashima Stroke Registry in central Japan. There were 1,578 registered first-ever cerebral infarction and cerebral hemorrhage stroke cases during 1988-2003. We divided the days into 2 groups: 'weekend' and 'weekdays'. The 7-day and 28-day case fatality rates and 95% confidence intervals (95% CI) were calculated by gender, age and stroke subtype. For all strokes, the 7-day case fatality rate based on the hospital admission day was 9.5% (95% CI: 6.8-13.1) for weekend admissions and 7.3% (95% CI: 6.0-8.9) for weekday admissions. However, case fatality rates based on the onset day were 7.2% (95% CI: 5.1-10.0) for weekend onset and 8.0% (95% CI: 6.6-9.8) for weekday onset. The 28-day case fatality rate for the weekend admission group was 14.7% (95% CI: 11.3-18.8) and for the weekday admission group it was 10.1% (95% CI: 8.5-11.9). In contrast, the 28-day case fatality rate for the weekend onset group was 11.3% (95% CI: 8.6-14.7) and for the weekday onset group it was 11.0% (95% CI: 9.3-13.0). This phenomenon was observed mainly for cerebral infarction and to some extent for cerebral hemorrhage. | Stroke fatality rates based on the day of admission were higher during the weekend than weekdays, although the difference did not reach statistical significance. However, this trend disappeared when the fatality rate was based on the day of onset. | closed_qa |
Does anesthetic induction for Cesarean section with a combination of ketamine and thiopentone confer any benefits over thiopentone or ketamine alone? | The aim of this study was to evaluate the benefit of a combination of thiopentone and ketamine over either of these drugs alone as an induction agent for Cesarean section. Randomized prospective study of 3 groups of 20 patients (Group I: thiopentone alone; Group II: ketamine alone; Group III thiopentone and ketamine combination). Systolic blood pressure (BP) (as measured at baseline, after induction, at intubation, and at 5 min, 10 min, 15 min, 20 min, 25 min, 30 min): baseline BP did not differ significantly across groups. However, postinduction values were significantly higher for Group II (ketamine alone) (P>0.001), but these values normalized by 30 min postinduction. Diastolic BP (as measured at baseline, after induction, at intubation, and at 5 min, 10 min, 15 min, 20 min, 25 min, 30 min): baseline BP did not differ significantly across groups. After induction, diastolic BP increased significantly in all groups. In Group I and Group III, these values returned to baseline after 10 min, and in Group II at the 30 min postinduction stage. Heart rate (measured at the same time as BP): at rest, presented no significant difference in heart rate across groups. At induction, all groups showed a significant rise in heart rate. At intubation, Group I showed an increase in heart rate, Group II a decrease in heart rate, and Group III no change. These intergroup variations were statistically significant. Apgar scores and umbilical venous gas measurements: although there were intergroup variations, these were not statistically significant. Postoperative pain assessment (subjective) VAS scores: the VAS pain scores 3 h after surgery were significantly higher in Group I, both at rest and coughing, at 24 h after surgery the difference persisted for scores at rest, but equalized during coughing. Postoperative pain assessment (objective) time to first analgesic demand: the duration of time to demand for first analgesic was significantly longer in Group II (ketamine only). Postoperative pain assessment (objective) total consumption of analgesic: patients of Group I consumed a significantly higher amount of analgesics than the other groups. Intraoperative event recall, awareness: no patient reported any adverse events of this nature. | We conclude that though there were no adverse events and a significantly lower analgesic requirement, the use of ketamine alone as an induction agent in Cesarean section should be avoided, as it causes significant maternal hemodynamic changes. The addition of a reduced dose of ketamine to thiopentone in the induction cocktail confers the benefit of reducing analgesic requirement without side effects. The treatment is safe and effective for the mother and child. | closed_qa |
Can perioperative C-reactive protein and interleukin-6 levels predict atrial fibrillation after coronary artery bypass surgery? | To examine the relationship between proinflammatory cytokines, such as interleukin-6 (IL-6) and C-reactive protein (CRP) and atrial fibrillation after on-pump coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). Fifty-four patients with coronary artery disease undergoing elective CABG at the Mazandaran Medical University, Mazandaran, Iran were enrolled in our prospective study in the year 2007. Postoperatively, heart rate and rhythm were continuously monitored for 5 days. Fasting blood samples were taken from all patients to examine quantities of CRP and IL6 the day before surgery and on the second postoperative day in the intensive care unit. From 54 patients, 11 patients (20.4%) developed atrial fibrillation (AF) after CABG. The median age of patients with AF was 51.45 +/- 10.74 compared with 57.28 +/- 9.04 for patients with sinus rhythm (p=0.072). Cardioplegic time, cross clamp time, and pump time were higher in the AF group, but there was no significant difference between the 2 groups. Preoperative CRP and IL6 levels were higher in patients with AF. The CRP and IL6 increased after CABG in all patients, but it increased more in the AF group. | There was a significant relationship between preoperative IL6 and AF in patients who underwent on-pump CABG, but there was no relationship between CRP and AF. Therefore, administration of glucocorticoids, which significantly reduce plasma levels of IL6 can reduce the incidence of AF after on-pump CABG. | closed_qa |
Are endoscopic grading and scoring systems in inflammatory bowel disease the same? | To assess the correlation and difference between various endoscopic grades and indices for assessment of endoscopic disease activity in inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Eighty consecutive patients with ulcerative colitis (UC), and 31 patients with Crohn's disease (CD) were evaluated based on multiple endoscopic criteria between June 2006 and February 2007 at the Department of Gastroenterology of Renji Hospital, Shanghai, China. Two experienced endoscopists evaluated the endoscopic findings using various systems independently. Data were analyzed using Kendall;s coefficient of concordance and Spearman correlations. For the systems of UC and CD, Kendall's coefficients of concordance were 0.714 (p<0.001) and 0.342 (p<0.001). There was no significant difference between the 2 systems of UC (all p<0.01). However, no statistically significant concordances were found between Chinese Grading System of Crohn's Disease (CGSCD) and Crohn's Disease Endoscopic Index of Severity (CDEIS) (rs=0.323, p=0.076). Significant differences in frequencies were detected among endoscopic systems for UC (p=0.001). | It was suggested in our study that endoscopic grading and scoring systems of UC had satisfactory concordance, and CGSCD showed room for improvement. However, the modified Baron scale was tend to severe category, while Jeroen classification was tend to mild category. | closed_qa |
Is HLA-B27 a useful test in the diagnosis of juvenile spondyloarthropathies? | Seronegative spondyloarthritis (SSA) is a type of arthritis that involves joints in the spine, as well as the hips, shoulders, knees and ankles. The diagnosis of juvenile spondyloarthritis is rarely entertained in young children who present with back and leg pain. The aim of the present study was to assess the role of HLA-B27 as a diagnostic marker in children with spondyloarthropathy, and correlation of HLA-B27 with radiological features and tuberculosis. Routine haematological and immunological tests were done by standard method and HLA-B27 typing was done by the lymphocytotoxicity method. A total of 70 cases of juvenile spondyloarthropathy were studied from May 2006 to September 2007. It included both males and females. Positivity of HLA-B27 in childhood SSA was only 71.4 percent (50/70). Gender-wise analysis showed that 76.7 percent (46/60) males and 20.0 percent (2/10) of the female patients were HLA-B27 positive. In HLA-B27-positive cases, the sacroiliac, hip, ankle, lower spine and knee joints were more involved. Urinary tract infection, diarrhoea and constipation were more common in HLA-B27-positive cases. None of the HLA-B27 cases were positive for rheumatoid factor; however, C-reactive protein was raised in 60.5 percent. In bilateral/unilateral sacroiliitis diagnosed by radiographs, only 81.5 percent patients were HLA-B27 positive. Tuberculosis was diagnosed in 14.3 percent (10/70) of total cases in which HLA-B27 positivity was seen in 60 percent of cases (6/10). | Our study concludes that both HLA-B27 and radiological tests should be done in male children suspected to have SSA, because it can indicate early cases of juvenile spondyloarthropathy when radiological changes are not present, and it produces a more severe disease. HLA-B27 positivity probably also predisposes to tuberculosis. | closed_qa |
Clinical insignificance of prostate cancer: are there morphological findings? | Overdiagnosis and overtreatment of microfocal nonpalpable and early-stage prostatic adenocarcinoma are currently a topic of strong discussion. We tried to find morphological findings of such insignificant carcinomas of the prostate. More than 1,000 consecutive core needle biopsy specimens of prostate carcinoma taken during 1 year (2007) were graded according to the modified Gleason scoring system. The results were correlated to serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and tumor extent in the cores. Cases with PSA<10 ng/ml and tumor extent<20% frequently (up to 55%) had Gleason scores of 6 or 7a. Cases with PSA>10 ng/ml or tumor extent>20% had higher Gleason scores (>7a). Cancers with tumor infiltration of<1 mm in one of up to 12 cores and PSA<10 ng/ml mainly had low Gleason scores (6 and 7a), but only 5% of the carcinomas in the studied specimens corresponded to such a parameter. Only 25% of such patients had a pT2a tumor after radical prostatectomy. | With a very restricted parameter of a microfocal adenocarcinoma of the prostate with a Gleason score<7a, tumor infiltration of<or=1 mm in only one core needle biopsy, and PSA of<or=10 ng/ml, clinical insignificance may be possible, and in agreement with the patient, active surveillance is feasible. However, such cases are rare. | closed_qa |
Can a computerized tracking system improve faculty compliance with medical student evaluations? | Retrospective review of collected data on evaluation rates before and after implementation of the computerized tracking system, with and without e-mail reminders. Written encounter cards were available during all phases of the study. The study was conducted at Wake Forest University School of Medicine. Evaluation rates between three separate 3-month periods were compared: (1) written cards alone, (2) PDAT alone and (3) PDAT plus e-mail reminders to the faculty (PDAT-e). The odds ratio (OR) for faculty completion of evaluations was 2.97 when electronic and paper submission were available compared to paper-only evaluations (95% CI: 2.10-4.22, p-value<0.0001). With the addition of e-mail reminders, the OR was 4.19 (95% CI: 2.98-5.88, p-value<0.0001). | PDAT significantly improved faculty compliance with medical student evaluations when compared with written cards alone. The addition of e-mail reminders further improved faculty compliance, but this was not statistically significant. The use of a PDAT appears to be an effective way to improve faculty compliance with medical student evaluations. | closed_qa |
Worldwide trends in dairy production and consumption and calcium intake: is promoting consumption of dairy products a sustainable solution for inadequate calcium intake? | Adequate calcium intake is critical for good health. Inadequate calcium intake is a worldwide problem and is more serious in countries where consumption of dairy products is low. To analyze worldwide trends in production and consumption of dairy products and in calcium intake. Data were taken from Food and Agriculture Organization food balance sheets, from published studies, and from surveys of four countries with large populations and large dairy production (China, India, the United States, and Russia). Linear regression models were fitted to estimate average annual changes and to project future trends. Overall global dairy production and supply (total and per capita) have increased since 1980, especially in developing countries. There are large between-region and between-country differences in the levels of production, supply, and consumption and in the trends. In 1997 India surpassed the United States to become the largest dairy producer. Consumption of dairy products in China has more than tripled since 1982 and has increased sevenfold among urban residents. The increase has been more dramatic during recent years. In spite of increases in dairy production and consumption in China and India, calcium intake has decreased in these countries. The average daily per capita consumption of dairy products was more than 200 g in the United States in 1999-2004 but less than 27g in China in 2002; the average daily per capita intake of calcium was 962 mg in US men and 756 mg in US women in 1999-2004, but less than 400 mg in China in 2002. | Global production and supply of dairy products have been increasing since 1980, which has an impact on the environment. Dairy consumption and calcium intake remain low in most countries examined as compared with recommended amounts of dairy products and calcium. Promotion of consumption of dairy products does not necessarily increase total calcium intake. | closed_qa |
Does miscarriage in an initial pregnancy lead to adverse obstetric and perinatal outcomes in the next continuing pregnancy? | To explore pregnancy outcomes in women following an initial miscarriage. Retrospective Cohort Study. Aberdeen Maternity Hospital, Aberdeen, Scotland. All women living in the Grampian region of Scotland with a pregnancy recorded in the Aberdeen Maternity and Neonatal Databank between 1986 and 2000. (A) Maternal outcomes: Pre-eclampsia, antepartum haemorrhage, threatened miscarriage, malpresenation, induced labour, instrumental delivery, Caesarean delivery, postpartum haemorrhage and manual removal of placenta. (B) Perinatal outcomes: preterm delivery, low birth weight, stillbirth, neonatal death, Apgar score at 5 minutes. Retrospective cohort study comparing women with a first pregnancy miscarriage with (a) women with one previous successful pregnancy and (b) primigravid women. Data were extracted on perinatal outcomes in all women from the Aberdeen Maternity and Neonatal Databank between 1986 and 2000. We identified 1561 women who had a first miscarriage (1404 in the first trimester and 157 in the second trimester), 10 549 who had had a previous live birth (group A) and 21 118 primigravidae (group B). The miscarriage group faced a higher risk of pre-eclampsia (adj OR 3.3, 99% CI 2.6-4.6), threatened miscarriage (adj OR 1.7, 99% CI 1.5-2.0), induced labour (adj OR 2.2, 99% CI 1.9-2.5), instrumental delivery (adj OR 5.9, 99% CI 5.0-6.9), preterm delivery (adj OR 2.1, 99% CI 1.6-2.8) and low birthweight (adj OR 1.6, 99% CI 1.3-2.1) than group A. They were more likely to have threatened miscarriage (adj OR 1.5, 99% CI 1.4-1.7), induced labour (adj OR 1.3, 99% CI 1.2-1.5), postpartum haemorrhage (adj OR 1.4, 99% CI 1.2-1.6) and preterm delivery (adj OR 1.5, 99% CI 1.2-1.8) than group B. | An initial miscarriage is associated with a higher risk of obstetric complications. | closed_qa |
Seizure recurrence following epilepsy surgery: is post-operative EEG helpful? | We examined whether the relationship between interictal epileptiform discharges (IED) on post-operative EEG and seizure recurrence after epilepsy surgery was different in patients with neocortical and mesiotemporal resections. We reviewed the records of 93 consecutive patients who underwent epilepsy surgery at our center and who had adequate post-operative follow-up and a post-operative EEG to determine the type of surgery, the recurrence of seizures and the presence of IED on post-operative EEG. Chi-square test revealed that for the entire group, there was a significant relationship between the presence of IED and seizure recurrence. However, this relationship was significant in neocortical surgery but not in mesiotemporal surgery. Time distribution of seizure recurrence revealed that in more than half the cases, seizures recurred with the first 3 months. Time distribution was not influenced by the presence of IED. | This study revealed that IED on early post-operative EEG correlate with seizure recurrence in neocortical but not mesiotemporal surgeries and may be used to guide patient counseling in this group of patients. | closed_qa |
Does stopping amiodarone after successfully treating atrial fibrillation occurring after cardiac surgery increase the risk of recurrence? | Atrial fibrillation (AF) following cardiac surgery is common and can complicate postoperative recovery. Amiodarone is a drug frequently used for cardioversion. Some clinicians advocate only in-hospital use of amiodarone until cardioversion, whereas others continue its use for several weeks following cardiac surgery. Inadvertent long-term administration of the drug could be harmful. This study assessed the risk of AF recurrence under 2 different regimens of amiodarone treatment. From January 2005 to July 2007, we reviewed 296 patients who developed postoperative AF. Group A consisted of 198 patients who were discharged on amiodarone treatment, and group B consisted of 98 patients who were discharged without amiodarone treatment. The patients were followed for 8 weeks after cardiac surgery and were observed for the development of symptoms such as palpitations, transient ischemic attack (TIA), stroke, and recurrence of or readmission for AF. In addition, we evaluated a control group of 145 patients with similar characteristics and no postoperative AF for the incidence of stroke and AF and compared the results with their rates in the study groups. Patients discharged on amiodarone therapy were more likely to experience episodes of palpitations than those not on amiodarone (13% versus 10%); however, the rates of AF recurrence were almost the same for the 2 groups (8% and 9%, respectively). The 2 groups also showed no difference in the incidence of TIA and stroke (5% versus 4%). A low incidence of stroke and AF (1%-2%) was observed in patients with no perioperative AF. | Long-term treatment of patients with amiodarone should be reconsidered, because it may not be as effective as previously thought in preventing symptoms and AF recurrence. The surprising incidence of neurologic events requires further investigation. | closed_qa |
Can health-related quality of life predict survival in adults with cystic fibrosis? | Advances in the management of cystic fibrosis have led to a significant improvement in survival, although marked differences between individuals are still observed. The value of patient-reported health-related quality of life scores in predicting survival in adults with cystic fibrosis is unknown. To evaluate whether patient-reported health-related quality of life could predict survival in cystic fibrosis. From 1996 to 1997 a consecutive series of 223 patients were recruited to evaluate the Cystic Fibrosis Quality of Life Questionnaire. Demographic (age, sex), clinical (FEV(1)% predicted, body mass index, diabetes, B. Cepacia complex, intravenous access device, nutritional and lung transplant status) and health-related quality of life variables were recorded (Cystic Fibrosis Quality of Life Questionnaire and the SF-36). These data were used as baseline measures to explore the prognostic association of health-related quality of life and subsequent survival. At the census date (December 31, 2006) 154 (69.1%) adults were alive, 66 (29.6%) had died, and three (1.3%) were lost to follow-up. Cox proportional hazards models and bootstrapping procedures examined if health-related quality of life domains predicted survival after adjusting for the demographic and clinical factors. The physical functioning domain of the Cystic Fibrosis Quality of Life Questionnaire and the pain domain of the Short Form-36 had the strongest statistical associations with survival. | Aspects of patient-reported quality of life serve as prognostic measures of survival beyond a number of previously known factors in cystic fibrosis. This needs to be investigated further in a larger longitudinal study. | closed_qa |
Does study enrollment delay treatment with intravenous thrombolytics for acute ischemic stroke? | Enrollment in acute stroke trials at a stroke center with multiple study protocols may delay the initiation of intravenous thrombolytics in patients who present within 3 hours of symptom onset. We studied all patients presenting with acute ischemic stroke over the past 3.5 years who qualified for thrombolysis within 3 hours of symptom onset. We collected demographics, baseline National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale scores, CT findings, and arrival-to-treatment times and compared patients treated with intravenous thrombolytics in a clinical trial with patients who received standard of care intravenous tissue plasminogen activator. Of 290 treated patients, 19 were enrolled in prelytic studies, 46 were enrolled in postlytic studies, and 225 were treated with standard intravenous tissue plasminogen activator. There was no significant difference in age, gender, National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale score, admission glucose, or changes on CT. There was no difference in onset-to-arrival time or arrival-to-treatment time between patients enrolled in clinical studies and those who received standard treatment. However, among study patients, prelytic randomization led to a significantly longer arrival-to-treatment time by 13 minutes (P=0.028). | We found that trials requiring prethrombolytic randomization can lead to a delay in the initiation of treatment. Future studies are needed to determine if such a delay is clinically significant and can be shortened by improved enrollment strategies. | closed_qa |
Stroke unit care in a real-life setting: can results from randomized controlled trials be translated into every-day clinical practice? | In randomized trials, acute stroke units are associated with improved patient outcomes. However, it is unclear whether this evidence can be successfully translated into routine clinical practice. We aimed to determine the effect of a coordinated rollout of funding for 22 stroke units on patient outcomes in Australia. A multicenter observational study was undertaken using health administrative data recording admissions for a primary diagnosis of ischemic stroke from July 2000 to June 2006. Analyses were stratified by hospital type (major principal referral, smaller nonprincipal referral hospitals). We analyzed 17 659 admissions for ischemic stroke. Among major principal referral hospitals with acute stroke units, the proportion of admissions resulting in death or discharge to home was unchanged after stroke unit rollout (10.7% vs 10.6% and 44.1% vs 45.0%, respectively; P=0.37). In contrast, significant differences in discharge destination were noted across time among smaller nonprincipal referral hospitals (P<0.001). Before the rollout of stroke units, 13.8% of admissions to smaller hospitals resulted in a death, decreasing to 10.5% after stroke units were implemented. Discharges to home increased from 38.8% to 44.5%. Discharges to nursing homes decreased from 6.3% to 4.9%. Differences across time remained significant when controlling for patient demographics, comorbidities, indicators of poor prognosis, and clustering of outcomes at hospital level. Improved outcomes were observed across all ages and among patients with indicators for a poor prognosis. | This multicenter analysis of a large Australian population of hospital stroke admissions demonstrates short-term benefits from implementing stroke units in nonprincipal referral hospitals. | closed_qa |
Cytoreductive surgery and perioperative intraperitoneal chemotherapy for isolated colorectal peritoneal carcinomatosis: experimental therapy or standard of care? | Cytoreductive surgery (CRS) combined with hyperthermic intraperitoneal chemotherapy (HIPEC) has been demonstrated to have an improved survival over systemic chemotherapy for patients with colorectal peritoneal carcinomatosis (CRPC) in a randomized controlled trial. Despite the increasing clinical evidence, controversies still exist regarding the standard treatment for these patients. Between January 1997 and October 2007, 50 patients with isolated CRPC underwent CRS and HIPEC at the St. George Hospital, Sydney. All patients underwent preoperative chest, abdominal and pelvic computed tomography scans, and positron emission tomography. All clinicopathologic and treatment-related data were obtained prospectively and computed in univariate and multivariate analyses to determine their prognostic significance for overall survival. The mean age at the time of CRS was 55 (SD = 14) years. There were 19 (38%) male patients. The overall median survival was 29 months (range 1-102) with a 3-year survival rate of 39%. Three clinicopathologic factors were found to be significant for overall survival: tumor differentiation (P<0.001), peritoneal cancer index (P = 0.021), and completeness of cytoreduction (P<0.001). In the multivariate analysis of overall survival, 2 factors were identified to be independently associated with an improved survival: well-differentiated tumor (P = 0.045) and complete cytoreduction (P = 0.023). | CRPC patients with low tumor volume, well/moderately differentiated tumors and complete cytoreduction may potentially benefit from the combined treatment. The combined treatment for patients with isolated colorectal peritoneal carcinomatosis should be considered to be the current standard of care. | closed_qa |
The combined organ effect: protection against rejection? | To further our understanding of the potential protective effects of one organ allograft for another in combined organ transplants by comparing rejection-free survival and the 1-year rejection rate of each type of combined organ transplant. Liver allografts have been thought to be immunoprotective of other donor-specific allografts. Recent observations have extended this property to other organs. Analysis of data from the United Network of Organ Sharing included recipients 18 years or older (except those receiving intestinal transplants) transplanted between January 1, 1994, and October 6, 2005, and excluded those with a previous transplant (n = 45,306), live-donor transplant (n = 80,850), or insufficient follow-up (n = 4304). Patients were followed from transplant until death (n = 41,524), retransplantation (n = 4649), or last follow-up (n = 87,243). A total of 133,416 patients were analyzed. Rejection rates for allografts co-transplanted with donor-specific primary liver, kidney, and heart allografts are significantly lower than rejection rates for allografts transplanted alone. Allografts accompanying primary intestinal or pancreatic allografts did not have reduced rejection rates. A decreased rate of rejection was seen in interval kidney-heart transplants when allografts shared partial antigenic identity. Decreased rates of rejection were also seen in transplants of 2 donor-specific organs of the same type. | In combined simultaneous transplants, heart, liver, and kidney allografts are themselves protected and protect the other organ from rejection. Analysis of interval heart-kidney allografts suggests the need for partial antigenic identity between organs for the immunoprotection to take effect. This was not demonstrated in interval liver-kidney transplants. Increased antigen load of identical antigens, as seen in double-lung and double-kidney transplants, also offers immunologic protection against rejection. | closed_qa |
Is mass treatment the appropriate schistosomiasis elimination strategy? | In the year 2000, the Philippines' Department of Health adopted mass chemotherapy using praziquantel to eliminate schistosomiasis. Mass treatment was offered to an eligible population of 30 187 residents of 50 villages in Western Samar, the Philippines, in 2004 as part of an ongoing epidemiological study, Schistosomiasis Transmission and Ecology in the Philippines (STEP), aimed at measuring the effect of irrigation on infection with schistosomiasis. This paper describes the mass-treatment activities and factors associated with participation. Advocacy, information dissemination and social mobilization activities were conducted before mass chemotherapy. Village leaders were primarily responsible for community mobilization. Mass treatment was offered in village meeting halls and schools. Participation proportions were estimated based on the 2002-2003 census. Community involvement was measured using a participation index. A Bayesian hierarchical logistic regression model was fitted to estimate the association between sociodemographic factors and residents coming to the treatment site. A village-level average of 53.1% of residents (range: 21.1-85.3) came to the treatment site, leading to a mass-treatment coverage with an average of 48.3% (range: 15.8-80.7). At the individual level, participation proportions were higher among males, preschool and school-age children, non-STEP participants and among those who provided a stool sample. At the village-level, better community involvement was associated with increased participation whereas a larger census was associated with decreased participation. | The conduct of mass treatment in the 50 villages resulted in far lower participation than expected. This raises concern for the ongoing mass-treatment initiatives now taking place in developing countries. | closed_qa |
Quality of life of children with cerebral palsy treated with botulinum toxin: are well-being measures appropriate? | Two QOL evaluation tools, translated into Portuguese, were used: Pediatric Outcomes Data Collection Instrument (PODCI) and Child's Caregiver Questionnaire (CCQ). Questionnaires were answered by caregivers on two occasions. Patients were divided into 3 groups: I--patients who had been previously treated with BTXA and who underwent a session of BTXA; II--patients who used BTXA for the first time; III--patients previously treated with BTXA but did not in this interval. Sixty-eight patients were evaluated. In group I (n=26) the functional ability had improvement for all types of CP (p=0.04), and tetraplegic increased interaction/communication (p=0.02). In group II (n=14) positioning improved (p=0.02). Group III (n=28) showed no change in QOL. | PODCI and CCQ are able to capture outcome in children with CP. | closed_qa |
Hepatic metastasectomy for soft-tissue sarcomas: is it justified? | Except for patients with gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST), systemic chemotherapy in patients with liver metastasis of soft-tissue sarcoma (STS) is not effective. Therefore, all patients with resectable liver metastases underwent surgical therapy. We present our experience with this approach during the last 13 years. All patients (n=45) with liver metastasis of STS undergoing surgical therapy were prospectively analyzed. Clinical and histopathological parameters as well as the postoperative course were recorded. Survival data were analyzed by using the Kaplan-Meier method and the log-rank test. Twenty-seven of 45 patients with liver metastasis underwent hepatic resection; 59% of these patients had a solitary metastasis, 22% had two metastases, and 18% had three or more metastatic nodules. The surgical perioperative mortality was 7%. The median survival was 44 (range, 1-123) months, and the 5-year survival was 49%. Repeated resection for recurrent tumor was performed in eight patients, which yielded a median survival of 76 months. | Patients who have hepatic metastases that are functionally and technically resectable should be considered for surgery because this treatment offers the chance for long-term survival (>5 years). | closed_qa |
Is complicated gallstone disease preceded by biliary colic? | Cholecystectomy in cases of "warning" episodes of biliary colic may prevent biliary pancreatitis. We aimed to determine which proportion of patients with biliary pancreatitis, compared to other complicated and uncomplicated symptomatic gallstone disease, experienced "warning" episodes of colic and why these episodes did not lead to early cholecystectomy. One hundred seventy-five patients with complicated gallstone disease [pancreatitis (n = 53), symptomatic common bile duct (CBD) stones (n = 64), and acute cholecystitis (n = 58)] and 175 patients with symptomatic uncomplicated gallstones were interviewed at admission. Fifty-seven percent (100 of 175) of patients with complicated disease (95% confidence interval = 50-65%) experienced "warning" episodes of biliary colic (pancreatitis 58%, CBD stones 67%, cholecystitis 45%) vs 96% (164 of 175) in uncomplicated disease. Eighty-seven percent of patients with "warning" episodes and complicated disease experienced patient's and general practitioner's delays. General practitioner's delay was more frequent if pain was located in the epigastric region compared to the right upper quadrant (51% vs 38%, P = 0.03). | Half of patients with biliary pancreatitis experience "warning" episodes of biliary colic, similar to other gallstone complications. In symptomatic patients, complications are often not prevented because of significant delays in diagnosis and treatment. | closed_qa |
Septated cystic tumors of the pancreas: is it possible to treat them by endoscopic ultrasonography-guided intervention? | Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)-guided intervention has recently been tried in the treatment of cystic tumors of the pancreas. Factors that can influence the treatment response include cyst wall thickness and the presence of septation and mural nodules. This study aimed to evaluate the effectiveness of EUS-guided ethanol lavage with paclitaxel injection (EUS-EP) in the treatment of septated cystic tumors of the pancreas. Ten patients with oligolocular septated cystic tumors underwent EUS-EP and the treatment response was analyzed by measuring cyst volume before and more than 6 months after treatment. The 10 patients comprised 7 women and 3 men, of mean age 38.4 years (range 22-54 years). Median tumor diameter was 29.5 mm (range 20-68 mm), while median tumor volume was 5.07 ml (range 1.51-68.74 ml). Median carcinoembryonic antigen and amylase concentrations in the cyst fluid were 39.2 ng/ml (range 1-8,190 ng/ml) and 115.5 U/L (range 5-75,633 U/L), respectively. Three tumors were diagnosed as mucinous cystic neoplasms, four as serous cystadenomas, and three as indeterminate cysts. Median tumor volume had decreased to 0.54 ml (range 0.00-12.42 ml). Complete resolution was achieved in six patients and partial resolution in two, whereas two patients had persistent cysts. Two patients with persistent cysts underwent surgical resection, and focal remnant neoplastic epithelial lining was observed on the resected specimens. | EUS-EP resulted in complete resolution in 6 of 10 patients with septated cystic tumors. Careful patient selection and tailored intervention are required to maximize the therapeutic efficacy of this procedure. | closed_qa |
Does radiosurgery have a role in the management of oligodendrogliomas? | In this study the authors evaluated the role of stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) in the management of progressive or newly diagnosed small-volume oligodendrogliomas. Tumor control, survival, and complications were assessed in patients with oligodendroglioma who underwent Gamma Knife radiosurgery as a primary or adjuvant procedure. The authors retrospectively reviewed 30 patients with oligodendroglioma (12 Grade II and 18 Grade III) who underwent SRS between 1992 and June 2006 at the University of Pittsburgh. The median patient age was 43.2 years (range 10.8-75.4 years). Twenty-four patients had previously undergone resection of the tumor, whereas tumors in 6 were diagnosed based on biopsy findings. The SRS was performed in 25 patients who had imaging-defined tumor progression despite prior fractionated radiation (22 patients) and/or chemotherapy (20 patients). The median target volume was 15.4 cm(3) (range 0.07-48.7 cm(3)) and the median margin dose was 14.5 Gy (range 11-20 Gy). At an average of 39.2 months of follow-up (range 12-133 months), 17 patients were dead and 13 were living. The overall survival rates from diagnosis to 5 and 10 years were 90.9 and 68.2%, respectively, for Grade II and 52.1% at 5 years and 26.1% at 10 years for Grade III. Factors associated with an improved progression-free survival included lower tumor grade and smaller tumor volume. In 13 patients who had loss of heterozygosity testing, patients with 1p19q loss of heterozygosity had a significantly improved survival after diagnosis (p = 0.04). | The SRS modality is a minimally invasive additional option for patients with residual or recurrent oligodendrogliomas. It may also be considered as an alternative to initial resection in small-volume tumors located in the cortical brain region. | closed_qa |
Postoperative pain control for primary cleft lip repair in infants: is there an advantage in performing peripheral nerve blocks? | Primary cleft lip repair is performed in infants under 1 year of age. The efficacy of an infraorbital nerve block vs intravenous fentanyl was compared in our prospective, randomized controlled trial. Forty-six infants scheduled for primary cleft lip repair were prospectively randomized to one of two groups: group F that received 2 mcg x kg(-1) of fentanyl intravenously and an infraorbital nerve block with 0.5 ml on each side of preservative-free normal saline, and, group B that received bilateral infraorbital nerve blocks with 0.5 ml on each side of 0.25% bupivacaine and 2 ml of preservative-free saline solution intravenously after induction of anesthesia but prior to surgical incision. Patients were observed by a blinded observer for (i) pain scores using neonatal infant pain score; (ii) need for rescue medication in the anesthesia care unit (PACU), in the short stay unit (SSU) and at home and (iii) feeding parameters including difficulty in feeding, time to first feeding and volume of feeds in the PACU, SSU and at home. There were no significant differences in pain scores between the two groups over time (P = 0.98); there were no differences between groups in the number of rescue medications in the PACU, in the SSU as well as at home; however, the time to first rescue medication was greater in the block group compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.07). There were no significant differences in feeding volumes between groups in the PACU (P = 0.46), SSU (P = 0.57) and at home (P = 0.15). There were no differences in time to initiate feeding between the two groups (P = 0.81). However, there was difficulty with feeding in the block groups compared with the fentanyl group (P = 0.01). | The infraorbital nerve block can be effectively used for pain control in infants undergoing primary cleft lip repair. Although children undergoing a nerve block experienced minor difficulties in feeding, there were no differences in feeding volumes or other feeding parameters. This study has shed light into postoperative outcomes besides pain control on children undergoing cleft lip repairs. | closed_qa |
Is there a role for second-look capsule endoscopy in patients with obscure GI bleeding after a nondiagnostic first test? | Long-term follow-up data on patients with obscure GI bleeding subjected to capsule endoscopy (CE) are missing. Our purpose was to follow up patients with a nondiagnostic test and determine whether a second-look CE would be beneficial. We enrolled 293 subjects. CE studies were classified as diagnostic (positive findings) or nondiagnostic (findings of uncertain significance/no findings). Patients were followed up for a mean (SD) 24.8 (5.2) months. Outcome was defined as continued or complete resolution of bleeding. Patients with a nondiagnostic test were subjected to a repeat CE if they manifested a new bleeding episode or a drop in hemoglobin>or=2 g/dL. Positive findings, findings of uncertain significance, and no findings were identified in 41.6%, 16.0%, and 42.3% of our patients, respectively. Therapeutic intervention was possible in 72.1% of those with positive findings and in 30% of those with findings of uncertain significance. Complete resolution of bleeding occurred more often in patients with a diagnostic test (65.2%) compared with those with a nondiagnostic test (35.4%, P<.001). Second-look CE was performed in a subgroup of our patients (n = 76) and was diagnostic in those whose presentation changed from occult to overt or those whose hemoglobin dropped>or=4 g/dL. | In patients with obscure GI bleeding, a diagnostic CE leads to therapeutic interventions and a favorable outcome. Patients with a nondiagnostic test would definitely benefit from a second-look CE if the bleeding presentation changes from occult to overt or if the hemoglobin value drops>or=4 g/dL. | closed_qa |
Can tyrosine kinase inhibitors be discontinued in patients with metastatic renal cell carcinoma and a complete response to treatment? | Discontinuation of treatment with tyrosine kinase inhibitors (TKIs) and readministration in case of recurrence could improve quality of life (QoL) and reduce treatment costs for patients with metastatic renal cell carcinoma (mRCC) in which a complete remission (CR) is achieved by medical treatment alone or with additional resection of residual metastases. To evaluate whether TKIs can be discontinued in these selected patients with mRCC. A retrospective analysis of medical records and imaging studies was performed on all patients with mRCC treated with TKIs (n=266) in five institutions. Patients with a CR under TKI treatment alone or with additional metastasectomy of residual disease following a partial response (PR), in which TKIs were discontinued, were included in the analysis. Outcome criteria analysed were time to recurrence of previous metastases, occurrence of new metastases, symptomatic progression, improvement of adverse events, and response to reexposure to TKIs. Sunitinib 50mg/day for 4 wk on and 2 wk off, sorafenib 800mg/day. Response according to Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumours (RECIST). We identified 12 cases: 5 CRs with sunitinib, 1 CR with sorafenib, and 6 surgical CRs with sunitinib followed by residual metastasectomy. Side-effects subsided in all patients off treatment. At a median follow-up of 8.5 mo (range: 4-25) from TKI discontinuation, 7 of 12 patients remained without recurrence and 5 had recurrent disease, with new metastases in 3 cases. Median time to progression was 6 mo (range: 3-8). Readministration of TKI was effective in all cases. The study is limited by small numbers and retrospective design. | Discontinuation of TKI in patients with mRCC and CR carries the risk of progression with new metastases and potential complications. Further investigation in a larger cohort of patients is warranted before such an approach can be regarded as safe. | closed_qa |
Goniometry and linear assessments to monitor movement outcomes: are they reliable tools in burn survivors? | Despite common use and theoretical construct validity, goniometry is not reported to be reliable for the measurement of burn-affected joint range of motion. Similarly, a number of simple objective measures commonly used to document hand mobility have eluded this rigour. This study aimed to examine the within sessions of intra-rater and inter-rater reliability of active joint range of motion measurement in patients with burns. Intra-rater reliability: One physical therapist (PT) recorded duplicate measurements on each burn-affected joint after a 5-min interval in a subset of patients (n=21). Inter-rater reliability: Four qualified PTs took part in repeated measures testing of 45 patients on the same day. Intra-rater reliability was excellent with intraclass correlation coefficients (ICCs>.99) and 95% confidence intervals (CIs)=.99-1.0. Inter-rater reliability was also excellent with ICCs>.94 (95% CIs=.90-.99). The minimum detectable change using goniometry at the ankle was>or =5 degrees and for all other joints tested was>or =9 degrees. For linear hand measures a change of>1cm and thumb opposition>or =1/2 of one scale point indicated measurable difference. | This study demonstrated excellent intra-rater and inter-rater reliability and measurement of clinically relevant change for all measurements when applied with a standardised protocol. Therefore, assessing joint range of motion (ROM) with a goniometer or hand movement with linear or scale measurements can provide accurate, objective measures in the burns population. | closed_qa |
Do United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) scores predict in-training test performance for emergency medicine residents? | Residency selection committees commonly utilize USMLE scores as criteria to screen residency applicants. The purpose of this study is to evaluate the relationship between United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) and American Board of Emergency Medicine (ABEM) in-training examination scores (ITEs). In an Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education-accredited emergency medicine residency program, data were collected for this retrospective cohort study for the classes of 2002-2006. USMLE Step 1 and 2 scores and the ABEM ITEs were recorded for each post-graduate year (PGY) within the aforementioned time frame. Step 1 and 2 scores were compared to consecutive PGY ABEM ITEs to evaluate for an association. There were 51 USMLE Step 1 and 39 Step 2 scores available for comparison with 153 ABEM ITEs. The mean USMLE Step 1 and Step 2 scores were 228.9 (range 197-252) and 228.4 (range 168-259), respectively. The mean in-training percentiles for the PGY 1, 2, and 3 years were 40.4, 68.3, and 81.7, respectively. The R-squared values for the Step 1 scores compared to the PGY 1, 2, and 3 years' ITEs were 0.25, 0.18, and 0.16, respectively. The R-squared values for Step 2 scores as compared to the ABEM ITEs for the PGY 1, 2, and 3 years were 0.43, 0.44, and 0.38, respectively. Residents who scored below 200 on either USMLE Step 1 or Step 2 had significantly lower mean ABEM ITEs than residents who scored above 200 (p<0.05) and were 10-fold more likely than residents who scored above 220 to score below the 70th percentile in their PGY3 ABEM ITE. | USMLE Step 1 scores are mildly correlated and Step 2 scores are moderately correlated with ABEM ITEs. Scoring below 200 on either test is associated with significantly lower ABEM ITEs. | closed_qa |
Do microspheres with narrow or standard size distributions localize differently in vasculature? | To compare standard embolization microspheres (SMS) with microspheres of very narrow size distribution in terms of physical properties and relative distribution within sheep kidney and uterine artery models of embolization. Standard microspheres (SMS; 500-700 mum and 700-900 mum) were compared with narrow microspheres (NMS) of the same material made with a microfluidic method that produced a much narrower size distribution (600 mum and 800 mum). Characterization of both microspheres was performed in vitro (ie, bead size, water content, and compressive modulus). In the sheep model of kidney and uterus embolization, histopathologic analysis was performed to determine the average vessel size occluded, the number of microspheres per vessel, and the deformation in vivo, with a focus on the localization of the products within the different vascular zones of the organ tissues. In vitro testing showed the physical properties of NMS to be similar to those of SMS. SMS and NMS also possessed the same degree of deformation in vivo. In both embolization models, there were no major differences in the localization of SMS compared with NMS of equivalent mean bead diameters. | Compared with SMS with a normal distribution in size range, NMS with a narrow size distribution did not exhibit a very different distribution within the vasculature of the sheep kidney or uterus. | closed_qa |
Self-expandable metal stents and trans-stent light delivery: are metal stents and photodynamic therapy compatible? | Obstructive non-small cell lung cancer and obstructive esophageal cancer are US FDA approved indications of photodynamic therapy (PDT). The usefulness of PDT for the treatment of cholangiocarcinoma is currently under clinical investigation. Endoscopic stenting for lumen restoration is a common palliative intervention for those indications. It is important to assess whether self-expandable metal stents are compatible with trans-stent PDT light delivery.STUDY DESIGN/ Direct effects of various components of metal biliary (n = 2), esophageal (n = 2), and bronchial (n = 1) stents on PDT light transmittance and distribution were examined using a point or linear light source (630 or 652 nm diode laser). Resected pig biliary duct and esophageal wall tissues were used to examine the feasibility of PDT light delivery through the fully expanded metal stents. While using a point light source, the metal components (thread and joint) of the stent could cause a significant shadow effect. The liner material (polytetrafluoroethylene or polyurethane) could cause various degrees of light absorption. When the stent was covered with a thin layer of biliary duct and esophageal tissues containing all wall layers, the shadow effect could be mitigated due to tissue scattering. | This study clearly demonstrates that it is feasible to combine stenting and PDT for the treatment of luminal lesions. PDT light dose should be adjusted to counteract the reduction of light transmittance caused by the metal and liner materials of stent. | closed_qa |
Can the thick drop/smear examination for malaria be replaced by a rapid diagnostic test in first intention? | Malaria is a public health problem in the French island of Mayotte (160,000 inhabitants) in the Indian Ocean. In the late 1990, resistance to chloroquine greatly increased, and so did the number of malaria cases, so that a new health policy had to be adopted. Since 2001, the initial smear/thick drop examination, the results of which took too long to obtain, has systematically been replaced by a rapid diagnosis test (Optimal IT Diamed) in all hospitals and public health centers. Epidemiological data of malaria on the island was collected and a prospective study was made from March 2005 to February 2006, on two sites (the emergency department of the main hospital and a rural health centre) on all patients presenting with malaria (104 and 139 cases respectively). The first Optimal IT test diagnosed the condition accurately in 88 and 96% of the cases, respectively. Every time symptoms would persist after negative test results and an Optimal IT test was repeated within three days, the parasitemia level was low (0.08 to 0.66%). Very low parasitemia level was very likely to account for a false negative (test result). | These results concerning malaria (and its epidemiological data) in Mayotte show that the initial use of an Optimal IT test instead of the thin/thick blood smear results in a faster management of patients with malaria, although the Optimal IT test is slightly less sensitive and requires training/practice. | closed_qa |
Is there more than one proctitis syndrome? | We sought to categorize longitudinal radiation-induced rectal toxicity data obtained from men participating in a randomised controlled trial for locally advanced prostate cancer. Data from self-assessed questionnaires of rectal symptoms and clinician recorded remedial interventions were collected during the TROG 96.01 trial. In this trial, volunteers were randomised to radiation with or without neoadjuvant androgen deprivation. Characterization of longitudinal variations in symptom intensity was achieved using prevalence data. An integrated visualization and clustering approach based on memetic algorithms was used to define the compositions of symptom clusters occurring before, during and after radiation. The utility of the CTC grading system as a means of identifying specific injury profiles was evaluated using concordance analyses. Seven well-defined clusters of rectal symptoms were present prior to treatment, 25 were seen immediately following radiation and 7 at years 1, 2 and 3 following radiation. CTC grading did not concord with the degree of rectal 'distress' and 'problems' at all time points. Concordance was not improved by adding urgency to the CTC scale. | The CTC scale has serious shortcomings. A powerful new technique for non-hierarchical clustering may contribute to the categorization of rectal toxicity data for genomic profiling studies and detailed patho-physiological studies. | closed_qa |
Thyroid cancer: is the incidence rise abating? | The aim of the present study was to determine recent trends in thyroid cancer incidence rates and to analyze histopathological characteristics and geographical distribution. Histologically proven 5367 cases were collected over the period 1998-2006 in France from the Rhône-Alpes thyroid cancer registry. Geographical variations of incidence were analyzed using a mixed Poisson model. The average incidence rates, age standardized to the world population, were 3.9/100,000 in men and 12.3/100,000 in women, higher than those previously reported in France. After an initial increase during the first 3 years, a steady level of incidence was observed for the period 2001-2006. The annual incidence rate of microcarcinomas was correlated with that of all cancers in men and women (r=0.78 and 0.89; P<0.01) respectively. Papillary microcarcinomas represented 38% of tumors and two-thirds of them measured less than 5 mm in diameter. They were fortuitously discovered after thyroidectomy for benign diseases in 64% of cases. Histological marks of aggressiveness differed according to the size of the tumor. Despite recent advances in diagnosis, 13% of tumors were diagnosed at advanced stage especially in men. Geographical distribution of incidence based on subregional administrative entities showed lower incidence rates in rural than in urban zones in men (relative rate: 0.72; 95% CI: 0.62-0.84) and women (relative rate: 0.85; 95% CI: 0.73-0.93). | The present study suggests that the rise in thyroid cancer incidence is now abating. It could reflect standardization in diagnostic procedures. Further studies, performed on a more prolonged period, are necessary to confirm these data. | closed_qa |
Can cognitive biases during consumer health information searches be reduced to improve decision making? | To test whether the anchoring and order cognitive biases experienced during search by consumers using information retrieval systems can be corrected to improve the accuracy of, and confidence in, answers to health-related questions. A prospective study was conducted on 227 undergraduate students who used an online search engine developed by the authors to find health information and then answer six randomly assigned consumer health questions. The search engine was fitted with a baseline user interface and two modified interfaces specifically designed to debias anchoring or order effect. Each subject used all three user interfaces, answering two questions with each. Frequencies of correct answers pre- and post- search and confidence in answers were collected. Time taken to search and then answer a question, the number of searches conducted and the number of links accessed in a search session were also recorded. User preferences for each interface were measured. Chi-square analyses tested for the presence of biases with each user interface. The Kolmogorov-Smirnov test checked for equality of distribution of the evidence analyzed for each user interface. The test for difference between proportions and the Wilcoxon signed ranks test were used when comparing interfaces. Anchoring and order effects were present amongst subjects using the baseline search interface (anchoring: p<0.001; order: p = 0.026). With use of the order debiasing interface, the initial order effect was no longer present (p = 0.34) but there was no significant improvement in decision accuracy (p = 0.23). While the anchoring effect persisted when using the anchor debiasing interface (p<0.001), its use was associated with a 10.3% increase in subjects who had answered incorrectly pre-search, answering correctly post-search (p = 0.10). Subjects using either debiasing user interface conducted fewer searches and accessed more documents compared to baseline (p<0.001). In addition, the majority of subjects preferred using a debiasing interface over baseline. | This study provides evidence that (i) debiasing strategies can be integrated into the user interface of a search engine; (ii) information interpretation behaviors can be to some extent debiased; and that (iii) attempts to debias information searching by consumers can influence their ability to answer health-related questions accurately, their confidence in these answers, as well as the strategies used to conduct searches and retrieve information. | closed_qa |
Does ascorbic acid supplementation affect iron bioavailability in rats fed micronized dispersible ferric pyrophosphate fortified fruit juice? | Food iron (Fe) fortification is an adequate approach for preventing Fe-deficiency anemia. Poorly water-soluble Fe compounds have good sensory attributes but low bioavailability. The reduction of the particle size of Fe fortificants and the addition of ascorbic acid might increase the bioavailability of low-soluble compounds. The present work aims to compare the Fe absorption and bioavailability of micronized dispersible ferric pyrophosphate (MDFP) (poorly soluble) to ferrous sufate (FS) (highly soluble) added to a fruit juice in presence or absence of ascorbic acid (AA) by using the hemoglobin repletion assay in rats. After a hemoglobin depletion period, four fruit juices comprised of (1) FS, (2) MDFP, (3) FS + AA, (4) MDFP + AA were produced and administered to a different group of rats (n = 18) over 21 days. During the repletion period, Fe balance, hemoglobin regeneration efficiency (HRE), relative bioavailability (RBV) and Fe tissue content were determined in the short, medium and long term. Fe absorption and bioavailability showed no significant differences between fortifying the fruit juice with FS or MDFP. The addition of AA to the juice enhanced Fe absorption during the long-term balance study within the same Fe source. HRE and Fe utilization increased after AA addition in both FS and MDFP groups in every period. | Fe absorption and bioavailability from MDFP were comparable to FS added to a fruit juice in rats. Further, the addition of AA enhanced Fe absorption in the long term, as well as Fe bioavailability throughout the repletion period regardless of the Fe source employed. | closed_qa |
Metabolic syndrome in carbon disulfide-poisoned subjects in Korea: does chemical poisoning induce metabolic syndrome? | Mass carbon disulfide (CS(2)) poisoning was reported at a viscose rayon factory in Korea. We evaluated the association between CS(2) poisoning and the prevalence of metabolic syndrome. The cases (n = 170) involved CS(2)-poisoned subjects, who participated in a health examination conducted at a hospital in Korea in 2005. The controls (n = 170) were selected randomly from the participants in the third Korean National Health and Nutrition Examination Survey. Metabolic syndrome was defined as having at least three of following metabolic abnormalities: abdominal obesity, elevated triglyceride, reduced high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, elevated blood pressure, and elevated fasting glucose levels. After adjusting for covariates (age, gender, education, marital status, alcohol consumption, and smoking), CS(2)-poisoned subjects had an increased risk of metabolic syndrome (prevalence ratio 1.57, 95% CI 1.25-1.98). | The findings suggest that CS(2) poisoning may increase the risk of metabolic syndrome. | closed_qa |
Does nasal irrigation enter paranasal sinuses in chronic rhinosinusitis? | Nasal irrigation is widely used in treating sinonasal diseases. Not only does it remove static secretions and promote mucociliary clearance, but, in chronic rhinosinusitis, nasal flush is also a potential route for topical drug administration into paranasal sinuses. A clinical study was conducted to investigate how well nasal irrigation could reach paranasal sinuses with the ostiomeatal units blocked in chronic rhinosinusitis. This study was performed to (1) assess the ability of a nasal douche and spray to deliver a solution into the paranasal sinuses in chronic rhinosinusitis and (2) compare the performance of the two techniques. Fourteen patients, with bilateral chronic rhinosinusitis, underwent nasal irrigation with 140 mg/mL of iodinated contrast solution by 40 mL of douching using an irrigation syringe in one side, and 10 mL of spraying in the other side. A computed tomography scan was undertaken for each patient to determine the volume and the distribution of staining in the nose and paranasal sinuses. Only two patients had any staining, with a small amount present in a total of three maxillary sinuses (0.10 mL, 0.04 mL, and 0.13 mL). The mean volumes of paranasal sinus staining by nasal douche and nasal spray were 0.0093 and 0.01 mL, respectively. We found that the two techniques had a similar performance. Both of them delivered only a small amount of the solution, if any, into the sinuses (with a mean difference of -0.0007 mL; 95% CI, -0.02-0.02 mL; p = 0.94). | Nasal douche and spray is not effective in delivering a nasal irrigation solution into paranasal sinuses in chronic rhinosinusitis. | closed_qa |
Is aortic wall degeneration related to bicuspid aortic valve anatomy in patients with valvular disease? | Patients with bicuspid aortic valve are at increased risk for aortic complications. A total of 115 consecutive patients with bicuspid aortic valve disease underwent surgery of the ascending aorta. We classified the cusp configuration by 3 types: fusion of left coronary and right coronary cusps (type A), fusion of right coronary and noncoronary cusps (type B), and fusion of left coronary and noncoronary cusps (type C). Histopathologic changes in the ascending aortic wall were graded (aortic wall score). We observed type A fusion in 85 patients (73.9%), type B fusion in 28 patients (24.3%), and type C fusion in 2 patients (1.8%). Patients with type A fusion were younger at operation than patients with type B fusion (51.3 +/- 15.5 years vs 58.7 +/- 7.6 years, respectively; P = .034). The mean ascending aorta diameter was 48.9 +/- 5.0 mm and 48.7 +/- 5.7 mm in type A and type B fusion groups, respectively (P = .34). The mean aortic root diameter was significantly larger in type A fusion (4.9 +/- 6.7 mm vs 32.7 +/- 2.8 mm; P<.0001). The aortic wall score was significantly higher in type A fusion than in type B fusion (P = .02). The prevalence of aortic wall histopathologic changes was significantly higher in type A fusion. Moreover, there were no statistically significant differences between type A and type B fusion in terms of prevalence of bicuspid aortic valve stenosis, regurgitation, or mixed disease. | In diseased bicuspid aortic valves, there was a statistically significant association between type A valve anatomy and a more severe degree of wall degeneration in the ascending aorta and dilatation of the aortic root at younger age compared with type B valve anatomy. | closed_qa |
Should lung transplantation be performed using donation after cardiac death? | We compared 1) survival after lung transplantation of recipients of donation after cardiac death (DCD) versus brain death donor organs in the United States and 2) recipient characteristics. Data were obtained from the United Network for Organ Sharing for lung transplantation from October 1987 to May 2007. Follow-up after DCD lung transplantation extended to 8.6 years, median 1 year. Differences among recipients of DCD versus brain death donor organs were expressed as a propensity score for use in comparing risk-adjusted survival. A total of 14,939 transplants were performed, 36 with DCD organs (9 single, 27 double). Among the 36 patients, 3 have died after 1 day, 11 days, and 1.5 years. Unadjusted survival at 1, 6, 12, and 24 months was 94%, 94%, 94%, and 87%, respectively, for DCD donors versus 92%, 84%, 78%, and 69%, respectively, for brain death donors (P = .04). DCD recipients were more likely to undergo double lung transplantation and have diabetes, lower forced 1-second expiratory volume, and longer cold ischemic times. Once these were accounted for and propensity adjusted, survival was still better for DCD recipients, although the P value equals .06. | Concern about organ quality and ischemia-reperfusion injury has limited the application of lung DCD. However, DCD as practiced in the United States results in survival at least equivalent to that after brain death donation. It also demonstrates selection bias, particularly in performing double lung transplantation, making generalization regarding survival difficult. Nevertheless, the data support the expanded use of DCD. | closed_qa |
'Do not attempt resuscitation'--do standardised order forms make a clinical difference above hand-written note entries? | A prospective, observational study in two UK Hospitals, comparing numbers, demographics and survival rates from CPR attempts for 2 years prior to and 2 years after the introduction of SOFs (the only change in DNAR policy). There were 133 CPR attempts, representing 0.30% of the 44,792 admissions, pre SOFs and 147 CPR attempts representing 0.32% of the 45,340 admissions following the SOFs (p=0.46). The median duration of a CPR attempt was 11min prior to and 15min following the SOFs (p=0.02). Of the CPR attempts, there was no change in mean age (p=0.34), proportions occurring outside working hours (p=0.70) or proportions presenting with an initial shockable rhythm (p=0.30). Survival to discharge following CPR was unchanged (p=0.23). | The introduction of SOFs for DNAR orders was associated with a significantly longer duration of CPR (on average by 3-4min) but no difference in overall number, demographics or type of arrest or survival in the remaining CPR attempts. | closed_qa |
Does anonymity increase response rate in postal questionnaire surveys about sensitive subjects? | The aim of the study was to determine whether complete anonymity improves the response rates to a postal questionnaire. The study derived from a series of postal surveys on AIDS knowledge conducted on six different dates in 1986 and 1987. The sample was randomly divided into two, each group being sent the same questionnaire. One group was informed that the replies were anonymous, the other that they were not. The latter were sent reminders. Recipients of the questionnaires were drawn from the Southampton electoral rolls. 300 people in each survey (total 1800) were sent questionnaires, representing on each occasion a different 1:500 systematic sample. Response rate was 49% for the anonymous questionnaires and 51% for the numbered questionnaires. Reminders boosted the response in the numbered group to 72%. | There is no evidence that anonymity improves response to postal questionnaires, but the use of reminders may do so. | closed_qa |
Audit of amniocentesis from a district general hospital: is it worth it? | To audit all mid-trimester amniocenteses performed by obstetricians at a district general hospital to see whether experience improved the outcome. Retrospective review of medical records. Royal Gwent Hospital, south Wales. All 469 amniocenteses carried out in 1985-7. Number of attempts at withdrawal of amniotic fluid; number with bloodstained liquor; and number of subsequent miscarriages, terminations, and congenital abnormalities. Of the 469 amniocenteses, 411 were performed by one obstetrician, and initial comparisons with those performed by the rest of the hospital team showed no significant differences in outcome of pregnancy. The main difference between the two groups was in the number of attempts at withdrawal of amniotic fluid and the number with bloodstained liquor. The single obstetrician failed to obtain amniotic fluid on 1% of occasions compared with 10% for the other operators by the end of the second attempt. The costs of carrying out the audit were considerable. The review of fewer than 500 case records cost the equivalent of 2000 pounds in staff time and took over 200 hours to complete, equivalent to 63 sessions of one person's time. | The audit was useful in that it provided information on complication rates, which could be compared with published data, and comparisons between obstetricians who perform large and small numbers of procedures. | closed_qa |
Infection with Ureaplasma urealyticum: is there a specific clinical and radiological course in the preterm infant? | Despite having mild early respiratory disease, many preterm babies develop chronic lung disease (CLD). Intrauterine infection with Ureaplasma urealyticum has been associated with preterm labour and CLD. To test the hypothesis that infection with U urealyticum results in a specific clinical and radiological picture in the first 10 days of life. Retrospective study of 60 ventilated babies<30 weeks gestation, who had tracheal secretions tested for U urealyticum. Placental histology was reviewed by a paediatric pathologist for signs of chorioamnionitis. Chest radiographs were independently reviewed by two paediatric radiologists according to previously agreed criteria. All reviewers were blinded to the infection status of the babies. Twenty five babies were U urealyticum positive. These were more likely to experience chorioamnionitis (p = 0.004), premature rupture of membranes (p = 0.01), and spontaneous vaginal delivery (p = 0.09). U urealyticum positive babies had fewer signs of respiratory distress syndrome on early chest radiographs (p = 0.038), and they could be weaned from their ventilation settings (fraction of inspired oxygen (FIO(2)) and mean airway pressure) more quickly in the first few days. Subsequently U urealyticum positive babies deteriorated clinically and radiologically. More often they required ventilation to be restarted (p = 0.051), a higher proportion being ventilated on day 10 (p = 0.027) with higher FIO(2) (p = 0.001) and mean airway pressure (p = 0.002). Their chest radiographs showed more emphysematous changes as early as day 5 (p = 0.045), with a pronounced difference by day 10 (p = 0.009). | Preterm ventilated babies with U urealyticum in their tracheal secretions have a different clinical and radiological course, with less acute lung disease but early onset of CLD, compared with those with negative cultures. | closed_qa |
Can throat swab after physiotherapy replace sputum for identification of microbial pathogens in children with cystic fibrosis? | To compare cultures throat swab after physiotherapy with results of sputum culture in identification of lower airway pathogens in children with cystic fibrosis. 387 samples of sputum cough swabs, throat swab and throat swab after physiotherapy were collected from 48 patients of cystic fibrosis and cultured for aerobic bacteria. The results of cultures of cough swabs, throat swab and throat swab after physiotherapy were compared with results of sputum culture. There was good concordance between culture results of sputum and other methods. Over all concordance was 70%, 81% and 92% with cough swab, throat swab and throat swab after physiotherapy. Sensitivity for isolation of Pseudomonas aeruginosa by throat swab, cough swab and throat swab after physiotherapy was 40%, 42% and 82% respectively. Specificity for isolation of Pseudomonas by throat swab, cough swab and throat swab after physiotherapy was 99%, 100% and 99% respectively. Sensitivity for isolation of Staphylococcus aureus by throat swab, cough swab and throat swab after physiotherapy was 57%, 50% and 100% respectively. Specificity for isolation of Staphylococcus by throat swab, cough swab and throat swab after physiotherapy was 99% for all these methods. | It is concluded that throat swab after physiotherapy in a child with CF can be used reliably for identification of lower airway pathogens. | closed_qa |
Does initial and delayed heart rate predict mortality in patients with acute coronary syndromes? | Lower admission heart rate (HR) is known to predict favorable outcome in ST-elevation acute myocardial infarction. However, there are limited short-term and no long-term data available regarding the prediction value of the initial HR in patients with the full spectrum of acute coronary syndromes (ACS). In addition, it is unknown whether the HR obtained later during hospitalization for ACS (i.e., Day 2 or 3) remains prognostically valuable. The aim of this study was to investigate the utility of the initial and delayed HR in predicting outcome in patients with ACS. We examined mortality at 30 days and 10 months in 10,267 patients with ACS enrolled in the oral glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibition with Orofiban in Patients with Unstable coronary Syndromes-Thrombolysis In Myocardial Infarction (OPUS-TIMI) 16 trial. Patients were stratified by HR and day from onset of ACS into the following groups: (1) HR<60 beats/min, (2) HR 60-80 beats/min, (3) HR 80-100 beats/min, (4) HR>100 beats/min; and HR obtained on (1) Day 1, (2) Day 2, and (3) Day 3. By univariate analysis, mortality at 30 days and at 10 months increased progressively with higher HR strata (1.4 vs. 1.6 vs. 2.3 vs. 5.6%, p<0.001, and 2.6 vs. 4.2 vs. 6.5 vs. 11.8%, p<0.001, respectively). Elevated HR remained associated with mortality irrespective of time from onset of ACS. | Higher initial and delayed HR is highly predictive of higher short- and long-term mortality in patients with ACS. This is a simple marker that could be easily used in risk assessment. | closed_qa |
Do the right precordial leads during exercise testing contribute to detection of coronary artery disease? | It is still unknown whether or not the additional right precordial leads (RPL) during exercise testing contribute to detection of coronary artery disease (CAD). The aim of this study was to evaluate the RPL during exercise testing for the detection of CAD. The study included 157 consecutive patients (116 men and 41 women, mean age 66 years) suspected of having CAD, who underwent conclusive treadmill exercise testing (heart rate reached at least 85% of the predicted maximum or positive electrocardiogram [ECG] changes were exhibited) and coronary angiography. During exercise testing, the ECG was recorded with the standard 12 leads and 4 RPL (V3R, V4R, V5R, V6R). Of the 157 patients, 67 had CAD (>75% stenosis in at least one major coronary artery), and 64 had positive ST changes in the standard ECG leads during exercise testing. Using the conventional 12-lead method, sensitivity and specificity were 76 and 86%, respectively. Only three patients exhibited positive changes in the RPL leads; all had>0.1 mV ST elevation in one of the RPL leads with>0.1 mV ST elevation in aVR. Two of these patients had significant right coronary artery lesions and the other had a lesion of the left anterior descending artery which perfused the inferior as well as the anteroseptal area. In the standard 12 leads, one of the patients with an abnormal RPL and a right coronary lesion was negative, while the other two patients were positive. Combining RPL with the conventional 12-lead method, sensitivity and specificity were 78 and 86%, respectively. Therefore, RPL did not improve the accuracy of the exercise ECG. | The use of RPL during exercise testing may contribute to the detection of ischemia perfused by the right coronary artery; however, it does not improve the diagnostic accuracy of the exercise test. | closed_qa |
Two-day length of stay following open Roux-En-Y gastric bypass: is it feasible, safe and reasonable? | As our bariatric program matured, we noted that length of stay (LOS) steadily decreased. This led us to analyze our experience to identify factors contributing to this abbreviated LOS and to evaluate the safety of discharging patients with only a 2-day LOS. All patients undergoing open Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGBP) from March, 1998 to December 31, 2002 were evaluated. Contrast swallow study was performed on Day 1. Patient demographics, complications, and readmission rates were reported for all patients. Discharge criteria included adequate oral intake, pain control with oral analgesia, and an adequate understanding of the operation and its effects demonstrated by a written test before discharge. 316 patients underwent open RYGBP with mean BMI 52.3. Operative time decreased from 241 minutes in 1998 to 156 minutes in 2002. No patient was discharged at 2 days during the first 2 years of the program. In 2000, 1 of 52 patients (2%) went home on the second day. In 2001, the year we fully enacted our multidisciplinary approach, 14 of 96 patients (15%) returned home on the second day. In 2002, 73 of 145 patients (50%) were discharged on the second postoperative day, with no increase in readmission rates. Three of the 73 patients (4.1%) required readmission within 30 days of discharge. No difference in co-morbid diseases or BMI was noted between groups. | Our data support the hypothesis that patients undergoing open RYGBP can be discharged safely at Day 2, provided that aggressive preoperative education and screening are performed. | closed_qa |
Is routine cholecystectomy required during laparoscopic gastric bypass? | Routine cholecystectomy is often performed at the time of gastric bypass for morbid obesity. The aim of this study was to determine the incidence of gallstone formation requiring cholecystectomy following a laparoscopic Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (LRYGBP). 289 LRYGBP were performed between November 1999 and May 2002. 60 patients (21%) who had prior cholecystectomy were excluded. If gallstones were identified by intra-operative ultrasound (IOUS), simultaneous cholecystectomy was performed. Patients without gallstones were prescribed ursodiol for 6 months and scheduled for follow-up with transabdominal ultrasound. During LRYGBP, gallstones were detected in 40 patients using IOUS (14%) and simultaneous cholecystectomy was performed. Of 189 patients with no stones identified by IOUS, 151 patients (80%) had a postoperative ultrasound after 6 months. 33 patients developed gallstones (22%) and 12 developed sludge (8%) as demonstrated by ultrasound at the time of follow-up. 11 patients had gallstone-related symptoms and subsequently underwent cholecystectomy (7%). 106 patients (70%) were gallstone-free at the time of ultrasound follow-up. Ursodiol compliance was found to be significantly lower for patients who developed stones than for gallstone-free patients (38.9% vs 58.3%, z =-2.00, P = 0.045). | There is a low incidence of symptomatic gallstones requiring cholecystectomy after LRYGBP. Prophylactic ursodiol is protective. Routine IOUS and selective cholecystectomy with close patient follow-up is a rational approach in the era of laparoscopy. | closed_qa |
Trastuzumab in the treatment of advanced non-small-cell lung cancer: is there a role? | Multiple non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC) cell lines and 20% to 50% of pathologic specimens express HER-2/neu, the target of trastuzumab, and HER-2/neu expression has proven to be an independent, unfavorable prognostic factor in resected patients with NSCLC. Trastuzumab, in vitro, has demonstrated growth-inhibiting synergy with platinating agents, and additivity with paclitaxel. The Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group therefore launched a phase II study evaluating combination carboplatin, paclitaxel, and trastuzumab in patients with advanced NSCLC. Eligibility stipulated the following: measurable tumor, HER-2/neu positivity (1+ to 3+ by Herceptest [Dako Corp, Carpinteria, CA], confirmed by central review), Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group PS 0 to 1, adequate marrow, hepatic and renal function, and left ventricular ejection fraction>or= 45%. Patients received paclitaxel 225 mg/m(2)/3 hours, and carboplatin (area under the curve, 6) every 3 weeks, and trastuzumab 4 mg/kg intravenously on day 1, then 2 mg/kg weekly for<or= 1 year. Between August 1999 and May 2000, 139 patients were screened; seven specimens (5%) were indeterminate. Fifty patients (36%) were HER-2/neu negative, 38 (27%) were HER-2/neu 1+, 31 (22%) were 2+, and 13 (9%) were 3+. Fifty-six patients were enrolled; 53 were eligible (22 [42%] were 1+, 23 (43%) were 2+, and eight (15%) were 3+). Thirteen (24.5%) of 52 assessable patients (95% CI, 13.8 to 38.3) responded. The incidence of grade>or= 3 neutropenia and thrombocytopenia was 57% (34%) and 16% (2%), respectively. Asymptomatic grade<or= 2 reduction in left ventricular ejection fraction occurred in 7%. Other nonhematologic toxicities, including nausea, fatigue, arthralgias, and peripheral sensory neuropathy, were mild to moderate and matched those expected with carboplatin and paclitaxel alone. Eighteen patients (35%) received maintenance trastuzumab. Median progression-free survival was 3.3 months; median survival was 10.1 months, and 1-year survival rate was 42%. | Combination paclitaxel, carboplatin, and trastuzumab is feasible. Toxicity appears no worse than cytotoxic therapy alone. Overall survival is similar to historical data using carboplatin and paclitaxel alone. However, patients with 3+ HER-2/neu expression did well in contrast to historical data suggesting potential benefit for trastuzumab in this rare subset of NSCLC. Critical assessment of trastuzumab's role in advanced NSCLC will require phase III trials. | closed_qa |
Does atorvastatin influence serum C-reactive protein levels in patients on long-term hemodialysis? | The increase in serum C-reactive protein (CRP) levels is an independent determinant of cardiovascular events in long-term hemodialysis (HD) patients. Recently, statins have shown anti-inflammatory properties in addition to their lipid-lowering effect. We designed a 6-month, prospective, randomized, controlled study to assess the safety and efficacy of atorvastatin in reducing serum CRP levels in long-term HD patients. Patients on HD therapy for at least 6 months, with autologous vascular access, were included. Patients presenting with illnesses and/or use of drugs that may affect CRP levels were excluded. After randomization, group A included 16 patients treated with atorvastatin (10 mg/d orally), and group B included 17 patients treated with placebo. Body mass index, Kt/V, normalized protein catabolic rate, mean blood pressure, and levels of hemoglobin, serum CRP, albumin, creatinine, lipids, and enzymes were recorded at baseline and after 6 months. Qualitative/quantitative parameters were homogeneous between the groups at baseline. In group A, median serum CRP levels decreased from 9 mg/L (range, 5 to 22 mg/L) at baseline to 5 mg/L (range, 3 to 16 mg/L) after 6 months (P = 0.004). In group B, values were 8 mg/L (range, 4 to 14 mg/L) at baseline and 7 mg/L (range, 3 to 17 mg/L) after 6 months (P = 0.98). Serum CRP levels were lower in group A than group B at month-4 (5 mg/L; range, 3 to 11 mg/L versus 7 mg/L; range, 3 to 10 mg/L, respectively; P = 0.054) and month-6 evaluations (5 mg/L; range, 3 to 16 mg/L versus 7 mg/L; range, 3 to 17 mg/L, respectively; P = 0.060). After 6 months, only in group A was there a significant decrease in serum cholesterol levels (P = 0.041) and a significant increase in serum albumin levels (P = 0.004). Enzyme levels were stable during the study in both groups. | Administration of atorvastatin is safe in patients on long-term HD therapy and, in addition to its beneficial effects on lipid levels, induces a significant decrease in serum CRP levels, with a consequential increase in serum albumin levels. | closed_qa |
Do the British Guidelines for Asthma Management facilitate concordance? | Asthma is an example of a common, chronic illness in which clinicians are encouraged to promote concordance and adhere to guidelines. Some existing research suggests that these aims may be incompatible. To describe patient goals for life and for asthma management in order to inform concordance with people with asthma. A cross-sectional, qualitative survey. A purposive sample of 47 adults with asthma from Dundee, UK. The subjects were identified from general practice asthma registers and had a range of ages and asthma severity but no significant comorbidity. Tape-recorded semi-structured interviews. The topic guide was based on the literature and had been piloted in a previous study. The participants focussed on improving their lives, only aiming to improve their asthma as a means of improving their lives. Three aspects of asthma were reported to help or hinder improving life: the use of asthma medication, trigger avoidance and exercise. People integrated these three aspects of asthma in order to maximize life. | The study supports the more individualized goals of the recently revised British Guidelines for Asthma Management but highlights the need to develop this further in future revisions. It also provides an explanation for patients' acceptance of less than 'perfect' asthma control and it suggests that shared goals may be achieved in practice by considering the advantages and disadvantages of medication and allergen avoidance on everyday life rather than on asthma. | closed_qa |
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