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Context: The economy of Tibet is dominated by subsistence agriculture, though tourism has become a growing industry in recent decades. The dominant religion in Tibet is Tibetan Buddhism; in addition there is Bön, which is similar to Tibetan Buddhism, and there are also Tibetan Muslims and Christian minorities. Tibetan Buddhism is a primary influence on the art, music, and festivals of the region. Tibetan architecture reflects Chinese and Indian influences. Staple foods in Tibet are roasted barley, yak meat, and butter tea. Question: What is the economy of Tibet dominated by? Answer: subsistence agriculture Question: What has recently become a growing industry in Tibet? Answer: tourism Question: What is the dominant religion in Tibet? Answer: Tibetan Buddhism Question: What is a staple food in Tibet? Answer: yak meat Question: Which two cultures does Tibetan architecture reflect? Answer: Chinese and Indian Question: What is dominated by tourism? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What dominant system is Bon? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What are staple foods in Chinese areas? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the primary influence on staple foods in Tibet? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In time, some ideas from these experiments and paradigm challenges may be adopted as the norm in education, just as Friedrich Fröbel's approach to early childhood education in 19th-century Germany has been incorporated into contemporary kindergarten classrooms. Other influential writers and thinkers have included the Swiss humanitarian Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi; the American transcendentalists Amos Bronson Alcott, Ralph Waldo Emerson, and Henry David Thoreau; the founders of progressive education, John Dewey and Francis Parker; and educational pioneers such as Maria Montessori and Rudolf Steiner, and more recently John Caldwell Holt, Paul Goodman, Frederick Mayer, George Dennison and Ivan Illich. Question: Whos educatgion approach was introduced in Germany in the 19th century and is used in most Kindergartens? Answer: Friedrich Fröbel's Question: Who from Switzerland was an influential in education? Answer: Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi Question: Who were the founders of progressive education? Answer: John Dewey and Francis Parker Question: What happened in Germany in the 18th century? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When was Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi born? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When did Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi die? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who is not an American transcendentalist? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who was the founder of non-progressive education? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Before the reforms of the 19th and 20th centuries, the state organisation of the Ottoman Empire was a simple system that had two main dimensions, which were the military administration and the civil administration. The Sultan was the highest position in the system. The civil system was based on local administrative units based on the region's characteristics. The Ottomans practiced a system in which the state (as in the Byzantine Empire) had control over the clergy. Certain pre-Islamic Turkish traditions that had survived the adoption of administrative and legal practices from Islamic Iran remained important in Ottoman administrative circles. According to Ottoman understanding, the state's primary responsibility was to defend and extend the land of the Muslims and to ensure security and harmony within its borders within the overarching context of orthodox Islamic practice and dynastic sovereignty. Question: What was the highest ranked person in the Ottoman Empire until the 19th century? Answer: Sultan was the highest position Question: On type of system were the civil administrations of the empire based on? Answer: local administrative units based on the region's characteristics Question: Who had control over the clergy in the Ottoman empire? Answer: the state Question: What was the main responsibility of the Ottoman state as it relates to lands? Answer: to defend and extend the land of the Muslims Question: What type of practice guided the Ottoman state in its responsibilities? Answer: orthodox Islamic practice
Context: In all organisms, two steps are required to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies. First, the gene's DNA is transcribed to messenger RNA (mRNA).:6.1 Second, that mRNA is translated to protein.:6.2 RNA-coding genes must still go through the first step, but are not translated into protein. The process of producing a biologically functional molecule of either RNA or protein is called gene expression, and the resulting molecule is called a gene product. Question: How many steps are required to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the specified protein? Answer: two steps are required Question: What is the first step to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies? Answer: the gene's DNA is transcribed to messenger RNA (mRNA) Question: What is the second step to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies? Answer: mRNA is translated to protein Question: What step must RNA-coding genes still go through? Answer: the first step Question: What is the process of producing a biologically functional molecule of either RNA or protein called? Answer: gene expression
Context: Wood unsuitable for construction in its native form may be broken down mechanically (into fibers or chips) or chemically (into cellulose) and used as a raw material for other building materials, such as engineered wood, as well as chipboard, hardboard, and medium-density fiberboard (MDF). Such wood derivatives are widely used: wood fibers are an important component of most paper, and cellulose is used as a component of some synthetic materials. Wood derivatives can also be used for kinds of flooring, for example laminate flooring. Question: What material results from chemically breaking down wood? Answer: cellulose Question: What's the abbreviation for medium-density fiberboard? Answer: MDF Question: How is wood broken down into chips and fibers? Answer: mechanically Question: What type of flooring can be made from wood derivatives? Answer: laminate Question: What widely-used product is almost always made of wood fibers? Answer: paper
Context: The rise of port cities saw the clustering of populations caused by the development of steamships and railroads. Urbanization increased from 1700 to 1922, with towns and cities growing. Improvements in health and sanitation made them more attractive to live and work in. Port cities like Salonica, in Greece, saw its population rise from 55,000 in 1800 to 160,000 in 1912 and İzmir which had a population of 150,000 in 1800 grew to 300,000 by 1914. Some regions conversely had population falls – Belgrade saw its population drop from 25,000 to 8,000 mainly due to political strife. Question: The rise of ports caused what in populations? Answer: the clustering of populations Question: Steamships and railroads rose with what else? Answer: The rise of port cities Question: In what year did urbanization in the Ottoman empire begin to increase? Answer: 1700 Question: What were two improvements that made cities more desirable to live in? Answer: Improvements in health and sanitation Question: What was the population of Salonica in 1800? Answer: 55,000
Context: Collegiate athletics are a popular draw in the state. The state has four schools that compete at the highest level of college sports, NCAA Division I. The most prominent are the state's two members of the Big 12 Conference, one of the so-called Power Five conferences of the top tier of college football, Division I FBS. The University of Oklahoma and Oklahoma State University average well over 50,000 fans attending their football games, and Oklahoma's football program ranked 12th in attendance among American colleges in 2010, with an average of 84,738 people attending its home games. The two universities meet several times each year in rivalry matches known as the Bedlam Series, which are some of the greatest sporting draws to the state. Sports Illustrated magazine rates Oklahoma and Oklahoma State among the top colleges for athletics in the nation. Two private institutions in Tulsa, the University of Tulsa and Oral Roberts University; are also Division I members. Tulsa competes in FBS football and other sports in the American Athletic Conference, while Oral Roberts, which does not sponsor football, is a member of The Summit League. In addition, 12 of the state's smaller colleges and universities compete in NCAA Division II as members of four different conferences, and eight other Oklahoma institutions participate in the NAIA, mostly within the Sooner Athletic Conference. Question: How many NCAA Division I colleges does Oklahoma have? Answer: four Question: How many colleges does Oklahoma have in the Big 12? Answer: two Question: How many fans attend an average Oklahoma State University football game? Answer: over 50,000 Question: What is the rivalry between OSU and University of Oklahoma called? Answer: Bedlam Series Question: Where is Oral Roberts University? Answer: Tulsa
Context: Family history is a risk factor for asthma, with many different genes being implicated. If one identical twin is affected, the probability of the other having the disease is approximately 25%. By the end of 2005, 25 genes had been associated with asthma in six or more separate populations, including GSTM1, IL10, CTLA-4, SPINK5, LTC4S, IL4R and ADAM33, among others. Many of these genes are related to the immune system or modulating inflammation. Even among this list of genes supported by highly replicated studies, results have not been consistent among all populations tested. In 2006 over 100 genes were associated with asthma in one genetic association study alone; more continue to be found. Question: What else is a risk factor for asthma? Answer: Family history Question: If one identical twin has asthma, what are the odds of the other twin having asthma? Answer: approximately 25% Question: How many genes were associated with asthma by the end of 2005? Answer: 25 genes Question: What else are these genes closely related to? Answer: the immune system or modulating inflammation Question: How many genes were associated with asthma in 2006? Answer: over 100 genes Question: What is a risk factor for modulating inflammation? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is thought to be the cause of modulating inflammation? Answer: Unanswerable Question: In 2006 what percentage of genes were found to contribute to inflammation? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How many genes were associated with the immune system in 2006? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How many genes were associated with causing GSTM1 in 2005? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Political interest groups have stated that these laws remove important restrictions on governmental authority, and are a dangerous encroachment on civil liberties, possible unconstitutional violations of the Fourth Amendment. On 30 July 2003, the American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) filed the first legal challenge against Section 215 of the Patriot Act, claiming that it allows the FBI to violate a citizen's First Amendment rights, Fourth Amendment rights, and right to due process, by granting the government the right to search a person's business, bookstore, and library records in a terrorist investigation, without disclosing to the individual that records were being searched. Also, governing bodies in a number of communities have passed symbolic resolutions against the act. Question: When did the ACLU first challenge the Patriot Act? Answer: 30 July 2003 Question: What rights did the ACLU say the Patriot Act violated? Answer: First Amendment rights, Fourth Amendment rights, and right to due process Question: What did Section 215 of the Patriot Act allow the FBI to search? Answer: a person's business, bookstore, and library records Question: Who passed symbolic resolutions against the Patriot Act? Answer: governing bodies in a number of communities Question: What did the ACLU violate? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When was Section 215 written? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What has governmental authority said the laws remove restrictions from? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did Section 215 allow the ACLU to inspect? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who sued the ACLU? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Oklahoma City is served by two primary airports, Will Rogers World Airport and the much smaller Wiley Post Airport (incidentally, the two honorees died in the same plane crash in Alaska) Will Rogers World Airport is the state's busiest commercial airport, with over 3.6 million passengers annually. Tinker Air Force Base, in southeast Oklahoma City, is the largest military air depot in the nation; a major maintenance and deployment facility for the Navy and the Air Force, and the second largest military institution in the state (after Fort Sill in Lawton). Question: Which airport is the busiest? Answer: Will Rogers World Airport Question: How many people travel through Will Rogers World Airport each year? Answer: 3.6 million Question: What is the name of the largest military base in the nation? Answer: Tinker Air Force Base
Context: Located in the South Atlantic Ocean on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, more than 2,000 kilometres (1,200 mi) from the nearest major landmass, Saint Helena is one of the most remote places in the world. The nearest port on the continent is Namibe in southern Angola, and the nearest international airport the Quatro de Fevereiro Airport of Angola's capital Luanda; connections to Cape Town in South Africa are used for most shipping needs, such as the mail boat that serves the island, the RMS St Helena. The island is associated with two other isolated islands in the southern Atlantic, also British territories: Ascension Island about 1,300 kilometres (810 mi) due northwest in more equatorial waters and Tristan da Cunha, which is well outside the tropics 2,430 kilometres (1,510 mi) to the south. The island is situated in the Western Hemisphere and has the same longitude as Cornwall in the United Kingdom. Despite its remote location, it is classified as being in West Africa by the United Nations. Question: What is the nearest port to Saint Helena? Answer: Namibe Question: What is the closest international airport to Saint Helena called? Answer: the Quatro de Fevereiro Airport Question: What is the mail boat that serves the island called? Answer: RMS St Helena Question: What hemisphere is the island located in? Answer: Western Question: What area is the island classified as being in by the United Nations? Answer: West Africa
Context: The primary purpose of a web browser is to bring information resources to the user ("retrieval" or "fetching"), allowing them to view the information ("display", "rendering"), and then access other information ("navigation", "following links"). Question: What is the main use of a browser? Answer: to bring information resources to the user Question: What is the primary purpose of a computer having access? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How does display rendering function? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How does an OS access other information? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What lets an OS see information? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What lets an OS find other information? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Although the firearms used by the infantry, particularly machine guns, can be used to engage low altitude air targets, on occasion with notable success, their effectiveness is generally limited and the muzzle flashes reveal infantry positions. Speed and altitude of modern jet aircraft limit target opportunities, and critical systems may be armored in aircraft designed for the ground attack role. Adaptations of the standard autocannon, originally intended for air-to-ground use, and heavier artillery systems were commonly used for most anti-aircraft gunnery, starting with standard pieces on new mountings, and evolving to specially designed guns with much higher performance prior to World War II. Question: What did the muzzle flashes of the firearms used by the infantry reveal? Answer: infantry positions Question: Along with speed of the modern jet, what else limits target opportunities? Answer: altitude Question: Heavier artillery systems were typically used for what? Answer: most anti-aircraft gunnery
Context: Mandolin awareness in the United States blossomed in the 1880s, as the instrument became part of a fad that continued into the mid-1920s. According to Clarence L. Partee, the first mandolin made in the United States was made in 1883 or 1884 by Joseph Bohmann, who was an established maker of violins in Chicago. Partee characterized the early instrument as being larger than the European instruments he was used to, with a "peculiar shape" and "crude construction," and said that the quality improved, until American instruments were "superior" to imported instruments. At the time, Partee was using an imported French-made mandolin. Question: When did madolin awareness in the US become fluent? Answer: 1880s Question: When was the first madolin made in the US? Answer: 1883 or 1884 Question: Who made the first US mandolin? Answer: Joseph Bohm Question: Where was Joseph Bohmann from? Answer: Chicago Question: What type of madolin was Partee using ? Answer: French-made mandolin Question: When didn't madolin awareness in the US become fluent? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When was the first mandolin destroyed in the US? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who made the first UK mandolin? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of mandolin was Partee not using? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Due to the expansion of trade and its geographical proximity, Kiev became the most important trade centre and chief among the communes; therefore the leader of Kiev gained political "control" over the surrounding areas. This princedom emerged from a coalition of traditional patriarchic family communes banded together in an effort to increase the applicable workforce and expand the productivity of the land. This union developed the first major cities in the Rus' and was the first notable form of self-government. As these communes became larger, the emphasis was taken off the family holdings and placed on the territory that surrounded. This shift in ideology became known as the verv'. Question: How did the leader of Kiev gain political control? Answer: Due to the expansion of trade Question: From what did this new princedom emerge from? Answer: from a coalition of traditional patriarchic family communes Question: What type of government came from the coalition of traditional patriachic family? Answer: first notable form of self-government Question: What caused the decline of Kiev political power? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What emerged from a traditional matriarchal family communes? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Why did the patriarchic family communes not band together? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What became smaller with am emphasis on family holdings? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The second truth is that the origin of dukkha can be known. Within the context of the four noble truths, the origin of dukkha is commonly explained as craving (Pali: tanha) conditioned by ignorance (Pali: avijja). On a deeper level, the root cause of dukkha is identified as ignorance (Pali: avijja) of the true nature of things. The third noble truth is that the complete cessation of dukkha is possible, and the fourth noble truth identifies a path to this cessation.[note 7] Question: What does the second of the Four Noble Truths explain? Answer: that the origin of dukkha can be known Question: What is the origin of dukkha? Answer: craving (Pali: tanha) conditioned by ignorance (Pali: avijja) Question: What is the third of the Four Noble Truths explain? Answer: the complete cessation of dukkha is possible Question: What is the fourth of the Four Noble Truths explain? Answer: identifies a path to this cessation Question: What is the second truth? Answer: dukkha can be known. Question: How is the meaning of Dukkha explained? Answer: craving Question: What is a contributing factor to Dukkha? Answer: ignorance Question: The second truth is? Answer: the origin of dukkha can be known Question: The origin of dukkha is explained as craving conditioned by what? Answer: ignorance Question: The root cause of dukkha is identified as ignorance of what? Answer: true nature of things Question: The third noble truth is that the complete cessation of what is possible? Answer: dukkha
Context: In the past, those who were disabled were often not eligible for public education. Children with disabilities were repeatedly denied an education by physicians or special tutors. These early physicians (people like Itard, Seguin, Howe, Gallaudet) set the foundation for special education today. They focused on individualized instruction and functional skills. In its early years, special education was only provided to people with severe disabilities, but more recently it has been opened to anyone who has experienced difficulty learning. Question: What was a rule for disabled people in the past for education? Answer: not eligible for public education Question: Who denied children with disabilities to be unable to attend a public school? Answer: physicians or special tutors Question: Who were some of these early physicians? Answer: Itard, Seguin, Howe, Gallaudet Question: What would Special Education usually only apply to in the early years of schooling in the U.S? Answer: people with severe disabilities Question: What was a rule for non-disabled people in the past for education? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who didn't deny children with disabilities to be unable to attend a public school? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who were some of these modern physicians? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who does modern special education exclude? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Over the years, the Mughals began to have internal disputes which greatly distracted them at times. The Mughal Empire continued to weaken, and with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the 18th century, Rajputana came under the suzerainty of the Marathas. The Marathas, who were Hindus from the state of what is now Maharashtra, ruled Rajputana for most of the eighteenth century. The Maratha Empire, which had replaced the Mughal Empire as the overlord of the subcontinent, was finally replaced by the British Empire in 1818. Question: What group in the Rajasthan region started to have internal disputes? Answer: Mughals Question: In what century did the Mughal Empire come into decline? Answer: 18th century Question: The Maratharas gained what over Rajputana? Answer: suzerainty Question: Where were the Marathas from? Answer: the state of what is now Maharashtra Question: In what year did the British Empire replace the Maratha Empire? Answer: 1818 Question: How long did the Mughal Empire rule Marantha? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When did the Mughal Empire replace the British Empire? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did the British Empire gain over Rajputana? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did the British Empire have over time that was distracting? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What century marked the decline of the British Empire? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Subsequent to this decision, the Supreme Court has applied a three-pronged test to determine whether government action comports with the Establishment Clause, known as the "Lemon Test". First, the law or policy must have been adopted with a neutral or non-religious purpose. Second, the principle or primary effect must be one that neither advances nor inhibits religion. Third, the statute or policy must not result in an "excessive entanglement" of government with religion. (The decision in Lemon v. Kurtzman hinged upon the conclusion that the government benefits were flowing disproportionately to Catholic schools, and that Catholic schools were an integral component of the Catholic Church's religious mission, thus the policy involved the state in an "excessive entanglement" with religion.) Failure to meet any of these criteria is a proof that the statute or policy in question violates the Establishment Clause. Question: How many prongs is the Supreme COurt's test to determine if a government action comports with the Establishment Clause? Answer: three Question: What is the three-pronged test regarding the Establishment Clause know as? Answer: "Lemon Test" Question: To not violate the Establishment Clause, a law must be adopted with neutral or what purpose? Answer: non-religious Question: What much the primary effect of a law neither advance or inhibit? Answer: religion Question: Excessive entanglement occurs when a state policy results in a close relationship of what? Answer: government with religion Question: How many prongs is the Supreme COurt's test to determine if a government action comports without the Establishment Clause? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the four-pronged test regarding the Establishment Clause know as? Answer: Unanswerable Question: To violate the Establishment Clause, a law must be adopted with neutral or what purpose? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What much the primary effect of a law both advance and inhibit? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Excessive entanglement occurs when a state policy results in a distant relationship of what? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: 23-year-old Candice Glover won the season with Kree Harrison taking the runner-up spot. Glover is the first female to win American Idol since Jordin Sparks. Glover released "I Am Beautiful" as a single while Harrison released "All Cried Out" immediately after the show. Glover sold poorly with her debut album, and this is also the first season that the runner-up was not signed by a music label. Question: Who was the winner of American Idols twelfth season? Answer: Candice Glover Question: Which contestant came in second on season 12 of American Idol? Answer: Kree Harrison Question: What was the first song released by Candice Glover after winning American Idol? Answer: I Am Beautiful Question: What song did Kree Harrison first release after being on American Idol? Answer: All Cried Out Question: Who was the runner up? Answer: Kree Harrison Question: What was Glover's first single? Answer: I Am Beautiful Question: What was Harrison's first single? Answer: All Cried Out Question: This is the first season when what did not happen to the first runner up? Answer: not signed by a music label
Context: Radio St Helena, which started operations on Christmas Day 1967, provided a local radio service that had a range of about 100 km (62 mi) from the island, and also broadcast internationally on shortwave radio (11092.5 kHz) on one day a year. The station presented news, features and music in collaboration with its sister newspaper, the St Helena Herald. It closed on 25 December 2012 to make way for a new three-channel FM service, also funded by St. Helena Government and run by the South Atlantic Media Services (formerly St. Helena Broadcasting (Guarantee) Corporation). Question: What day did Radio Saint Helena start operations? Answer: Christmas Day 1967 Question: What was the range of Radio Saint Helena in miles? Answer: 62 Question: How many days a year was Radio Saint Helena broadcast internationally? Answer: 1 Question: What newspaper did Radio Saint Helena collaborate with? Answer: St Helena Herald Question: What day was Saint Helena Radio shut down? Answer: 25 December 2012
Context: An integrated approach to phonological theory that combines synchronic and diachronic accounts to sound patterns was initiated with Evolutionary Phonology in recent years. Question: What is Evolutionary Phonology an integrated approach to? Answer: phonological theory Question: What is combined to sound patterns by Evolutionary Phonology? Answer: synchronic and diachronic accounts Question: When did Evolutionary Phonology come into being? Answer: recent years. Question: What sort of approach did Evolutionary Phonology take? Answer: integrated Question: What is recent diachronic an integrated approach to? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is combined to sound patterns by recent patterns? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When did diachronic come into being? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What sort of approach did recent diachronic take? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What was initiated with sound accounts? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In 1995, Oklahoma City was the site of one of the most destructive acts of domestic terrorism in American history. The Oklahoma City bombing of April 19, 1995, in which Timothy McVeigh and Terry Nichols detonated an explosive outside of the Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building, killed 168 people, including 19 children. The two men were convicted of the bombing: McVeigh was sentenced to death and executed by the federal government on June 11, 2001; his partner Nichols is serving a sentence of life in prison without the possibility of parole. McVeigh's army buddy, Michael Fortier, was sentenced to 12 years in federal prison and ordered to pay a $75,000 fine for his role in the bombing plot (i.e. assisting in the sale of guns to raise funds for the bombing, and examining the Murrah Federal building as a possible target before the terrorist attack). His wife, Lori Fortier, who has since died, was granted immunity from prosecution in return for her testimony in the case. Question: When was the Oklahoma City Bombing? Answer: April 19, 1995 Question: Who committed the Oklahoma City Bombing? Answer: Timothy McVeigh and Terry Nichols Question: How many people died in the Oklahoma City Bombing? Answer: 168 Question: How many children died in the Oklahoma City Bombing? Answer: 19 Question: When was McVeigh executed? Answer: June 11, 2001
Context: Most browsers support HTTP Secure and offer quick and easy ways to delete the web cache, download history, form and search history, cookies, and browsing history. For a comparison of the current security vulnerabilities of browsers, see comparison of web browsers. Question: HTTP Secure is supported by what? Answer: Most browsers Question: Cache, download history, cookies, browsing and what else can be quickly deleted in browsers? Answer: form and search history Question: A comparison of browser must be seen to know what? Answer: current security vulnerabilities Question: What do most cookies support? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does comparing browsing history show about your computer? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does comparison of web browsers offer you to do quickly? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How do you know if your web cache is secure? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What do most web browser comparisons support? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Non-standard bit rates up to 640 kbit/s can be achieved with the LAME encoder and the freeformat option, although few MP3 players can play those files. According to the ISO standard, decoders are only required to be able to decode streams up to 320 kbit/s. Question: What is the highest bit rate the LAME encoder allows? Answer: 640 kbit/s Question: The LAME encoder allows bit rates that are what? Answer: Non-standard Question: Even though few MP3 players can play it, LAME also offers which option? Answer: freeformat Question: The ISO standard dictates that decoders only need to be able to decode streams that have how high of a bit rate? Answer: 320
Context: Napoleon continued to entertain a grand scheme to establish a French presence in the Middle East in order to put pressure on Britain and Russia, and perhaps form an alliance with the Ottoman Empire. In February 1806, Ottoman Emperor Selim III finally recognized Napoleon as Emperor. He also opted for an alliance with France, calling France "our sincere and natural ally." That decision brought the Ottoman Empire into a losing war against Russia and Britain. A Franco-Persian alliance was also formed between Napoleon and the Persian Empire of Fat′h-Ali Shah Qajar. It collapsed in 1807, when France and Russia themselves formed an unexpected alliance. In the end, Napoleon had made no effective alliances in the Middle East. Question: Napoleon's master plan was to establish a French presence in what part of the world? Answer: the Middle East Question: In 1806, what Ottoman ruler recognized Napoleon as Emperor? Answer: Selim III Question: In what year did Ottoman Emperor Selim III recognize Napoleon as Emperor? Answer: 1806 Question: Napoleon formed an alliance with the empire of which Persian ruler? Answer: Fat′h-Ali Shah Qajar Question: In what year did Napoleon's Franco-Persian alliance end? Answer: 1807
Context: Parthia was a north-eastern Iranian satrapy of the Achaemenid empire which later passed on to Alexander's empire. Under the Seleucids, Parthia was governed by various Greek satraps such as Nicanor and Philip (satrap). In 247 BC, following the death of Antiochus II Theos, Andragoras, the Seleucid governor of Parthia, proclaimed his independence and began minting coins showing himself wearing a royal diadem and claiming kingship. He ruled until 238 BCE when Arsaces, the leader of the Parni tribe conquered Parthia, killing Andragoras and inaugurating the Arsacid Dynasty. Antiochus III recaptured Arsacid controlled territory in 209 BC from Arsaces II. Arsaces II sued for peace became a vassal of the Seleucids and it was not until the reign of Phraates I (168–165 BCE), that the Arsacids would again begin to assert their independence. Question: When did Andragoras proclaim his independence? Answer: 247 BC Question: When did Andragoras' reign end? Answer: 238 BCE Question: Who killed Andragoras? Answer: Arsaces Question: What tribe was Arsaces the leader of? Answer: Parni Question: When did Antiochus III regain territory from Arsaces II? Answer: 209 BC
Context: Russia: On April 5 the Olympic torch arrived at Saint Petersburg, Russia. The length of the torch relay route in the city was 20 km, with the start at the Victory Square and finish at the Palace Square. Mixed martial arts icon and former PRIDE Heavyweight Champion Fedor Emelianenko was one the torch bearers. This gives him the distinction of the being the first active MMA fighter to carry the Olympic flame. Question: When did the torch arrive in Saint Petersburg? Answer: April 5 Question: Where was the start of the torch route in Saint Petersburg? Answer: Victory Square Question: Where did the torch route end in Saint Petersburg? Answer: Palace Square Question: Who is the first MMA fighter to participate in carrying the Olympic torch? Answer: Fedor Emelianenko Question: Where in Russia was the first stop for the relay? Answer: Saint Petersburg Question: What city location did the torch relay begin in Russia? Answer: Victory Square Question: What was the last location for the relay in Russia? Answer: Palace Square. Question: What is the name of the MMA fighter who carried the torch in Russia? Answer: Fedor Emelianenko
Context: The middle up segment is mainly occupied by Metro Department Store originated from Singapore and Sogo from Japan. 2007 saw the re-opening of Jakarta's Seibu, poised to be the largest and second most upscale department store in Indonesia after Harvey Nichols, which the latter closed in 2010 and yet plans to return. Other international department stores include Debenhams and Marks & Spencer. Galeries Lafayette also joins the Indonesian market in 2013 inside Pacific Place Mall. This department store is targeting middle up market with price range from affordable to luxury, poised to be the largest upscale department store. Galeries Lafayette, Debenhams, Harvey Nichols, Marks & Spencer, Seibu and Sogo are all operated by PT. Mitra Adiperkasa. Question: Where did the Metro Department store originally begin? Answer: Singapore and Sogo from Japan Question: When did Seibu, located in Jakarta, re-open? Answer: 2007 Question: Where did Galeries Lafayette open in 2013, inside Indonesia? Answer: Pacific Place Mall Question: Who operates the wide range of department stores in these areas? Answer: PT. Mitra Adiperkasa. Question: What store led the Indonesian markets until 2010 when it closed? Answer: Harvey Nichols Question: Where did the Metro Department store originally end? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When did Seibu, located in Jakarta, re-close? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Where did Galeries Lafayette open in 2003, inside Indonesia Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who operates the wide range of department stores in other areas? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What store led the Indonesian markets until 2000 when it closed? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Korea was ruled by Japan from 1910 until the closing days of World War II. In August 1945, the Soviet Union declared war on Japan and—by agreement with the United States—occupied Korea north of the 38th parallel. U.S. forces subsequently occupied the south and Japan surrendered. By 1948, two separate governments had been set up. Both governments claimed to be the legitimate government of Korea, and neither side accepted the border as permanent. The conflict escalated into open warfare when North Korean forces—supported by the Soviet Union and China—invaded South Korea on 25 June 1950. On that day, the United Nations Security Council recognized this North Korean act as invasion and called for an immediate ceasefire. On 27 June, the Security Council adopted S/RES/83: Complaint of aggression upon the Republic of Korea and decided the formation and dispatch of the UN Forces in Korea. Twenty-one countries of the United Nations eventually contributed to the defense of South Korea, with the United States providing 88% of the UN's military personnel. Question: What nation ruled Korea in 1910? Answer: Japan Question: What part of Korea did the Soviet Union occupy? Answer: north of the 38th parallel Question: Who occupied Korea south of the 38th parallel? Answer: U.S. forces Question: What United Nation's committee considered the invasion of Korea to be an act of aggression? Answer: United Nations Security Council Question: How many countries assisted in the defense of South Korea? Answer: Twenty-one
Context: Though Britain and the empire emerged victorious from the Second World War, the effects of the conflict were profound, both at home and abroad. Much of Europe, a continent that had dominated the world for several centuries, was in ruins, and host to the armies of the United States and the Soviet Union, who now held the balance of global power. Britain was left essentially bankrupt, with insolvency only averted in 1946 after the negotiation of a $US 4.33 billion loan (US$56 billion in 2012) from the United States, the last instalment of which was repaid in 2006. At the same time, anti-colonial movements were on the rise in the colonies of European nations. The situation was complicated further by the increasing Cold War rivalry of the United States and the Soviet Union. In principle, both nations were opposed to European colonialism. In practice, however, American anti-communism prevailed over anti-imperialism, and therefore the United States supported the continued existence of the British Empire to keep Communist expansion in check. The "wind of change" ultimately meant that the British Empire's days were numbered, and on the whole, Britain adopted a policy of peaceful disengagement from its colonies once stable, non-Communist governments were available to transfer power to. This was in contrast to other European powers such as France and Portugal, which waged costly and ultimately unsuccessful wars to keep their empires intact. Between 1945 and 1965, the number of people under British rule outside the UK itself fell from 700 million to five million, three million of whom were in Hong Kong. Question: How much money did the US loan to Britain after WW2? Answer: $US 4.33 billion Question: When did Britain finish paying back the US loan? Answer: 2006 Question: When did the US make a large loan to Britain? Answer: 1946 Question: Though the US and the Soviet Union were both against colonialism, what was the US more afraid of? Answer: communism Question: How many people outside the UK were under British rule in 1945? Answer: 700 million
Context: Some software assigned special meanings to ASCII characters sent to the software from the terminal. Operating systems from Digital Equipment Corporation, for example, interpreted DEL as an input character as meaning "remove previously-typed input character", and this interpretation also became common in Unix systems. Most other systems used BS for that meaning and used DEL to mean "remove the character at the cursor".[citation needed] That latter interpretation is the most common now.[citation needed] Question: What did some software do to the ASCII characters? Answer: assigned special meanings Question: What interpretation became common in Unix systmes? Answer: interpreted DEL as an input character as meaning "remove previously-typed input character" Question: What do most other systmes use the DEL to mean? Answer: remove the character at the cursor Question: What did other systmes us for "remove previously-typed input character"? Answer: BS Question: What did some software do to the Digital Equipment Corporation? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What interpretation became common in BS systems? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What other systems use for the terminal? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did the first systems use DEL to mean? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The distinctive characteristic of Italian Gothic is the use of polychrome decoration, both externally as marble veneer on the brick façade and also internally where the arches are often made of alternating black and white segments, and where the columns may be painted red, the walls decorated with frescoes and the apse with mosaic. The plan is usually regular and symmetrical, Italian cathedrals have few and widely spaced columns. The proportions are generally mathematically equilibrated, based on the square and the concept of "armonìa", and except in Venice where they loved flamboyant arches, the arches are almost always equilateral. Colours and moldings define the architectural units rather than blending them. Italian cathedral façades are often polychrome and may include mosaics in the lunettes over the doors. The façades have projecting open porches and occular or wheel windows rather than roses, and do not usually have a tower. The crossing is usually surmounted by a dome. There is often a free-standing tower and baptistry. The eastern end usually has an apse of comparatively low projection. The windows are not as large as in northern Europe and, although stained glass windows are often found, the favourite narrative medium for the interior is the fresco. Question: What is the unique characteristic of Italian Gothic design? Answer: the use of polychrome decoration Question: What color are the columns of Italian Gothic cathedrals often painted? Answer: the columns may be painted red Question: What type of arches do they love to use in Venice? Answer: they loved flamboyant arches Question: Instead of rose windows, what type of windows do Italian cathedral facades usually feature? Answer: occular or wheel windows Question: What is the preferred narrative medium for the interior of Italian cathedrals? Answer: the fresco Question: What is the worst characteristic of Italian Gothic design? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What color are the columns of Italian Gothic cathedrals always painted? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of arches do they never use in Venice? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of windows do Italian cathedral facades usually forbid? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the preferred narrative medium for the interior of Italian cinemas? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Philadelphia is home to many national historical sites that relate to the founding of the United States. Independence National Historical Park is the center of these historical landmarks being one of the country's 22 UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Independence Hall, where the Declaration of Independence was signed, and the Liberty Bell are the city's most famous attractions. Other historic sites include homes for Edgar Allan Poe, Betsy Ross, and Thaddeus Kosciuszko, early government buildings like the First and Second Banks of the United States, Fort Mifflin, and the Gloria Dei (Old Swedes') Church. Philadelphia alone has 67 National Historic Landmarks, the third most of any city in the country. Question: Which is the biggest historical sites? Answer: Independence National Historical Park Question: How many UNESCO sites does the U.S. have? Answer: 22 UNESCO World Heritage Sites Question: Where was the Declaration of Independence signed? Answer: Independence National Historical Park Question: What famous bell is in Philadelphia? Answer: the Liberty Bell Question: What famous writer has a house in Philadelphia? Answer: Edgar Allan Poe
Context: As an academic field, philosophy of education is "the philosophical study of education and its problems (...) its central subject matter is education, and its methods are those of philosophy". "The philosophy of education may be either the philosophy of the process of education or the philosophy of the discipline of education. That is, it may be part of the discipline in the sense of being concerned with the aims, forms, methods, or results of the process of educating or being educated; or it may be metadisciplinary in the sense of being concerned with the concepts, aims, and methods of the discipline." As such, it is both part of the field of education and a field of applied philosophy, drawing from fields of metaphysics, epistemology, axiology and the philosophical approaches (speculative, prescriptive, and/or analytic) to address questions in and about pedagogy, education policy, and curriculum, as well as the process of learning, to name a few. For example, it might study what constitutes upbringing and education, the values and norms revealed through upbringing and educational practices, the limits and legitimization of education as an academic discipline, and the relation between education theory and practice. Question: What can Philosophy education be when we talk about the process? Answer: philosophy of the process of education or the philosophy of the discipline of education Question: What defines Philosophy education? Answer: the philosophical study of education and its problems Question: What fields make up field education and a field applied philosophy? Answer: metaphysics, epistemology, axiology and the philosophical approaches Question: What does not define philosophy education? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What fields do not make up field education? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does not draw from fields of metaphysics? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What study does not constitute as upbringing and education? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Unmarked vehicles are used primarily for sting operations or apprehending criminals without alerting them to their presence. Some police forces use unmarked or minimally marked cars for traffic law enforcement, since drivers slow down at the sight of marked police vehicles and unmarked vehicles make it easier for officers to catch speeders and traffic violators. This practice is controversial, with for example, New York State banning this practice in 1996 on the grounds that it endangered motorists who might be pulled over by people impersonating police officers. Question: When do police often use unmarked cars? Answer: primarily for sting operations or apprehending criminals without alerting them to their presence Question: What use of unmarked cars is controversial? Answer: for traffic law enforcement Question: When did New York State ban unmarked cars for traffic cops? Answer: 1996 Question: Why did New York State ban unmarked cars for traffic cops? Answer: it endangered motorists who might be pulled over by people impersonating police officers Question: When do police often use marked cars? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What use of unmarked cars isn't controversial? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When did New York State ban marked cars for traffic cops? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Why did New York State allow unmarked cars for traffic cops? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Why did New York State ban marked cars for traffic cops? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: An ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy by Kautilya and Viṣhṇugupta, who are traditionally identified with Chāṇakya (c. 350–-283 BCE). In this treatise, the behaviors and relationships of the people, the King, the State, the Government Superintendents, Courtiers, Enemies, Invaders, and Corporations are analysed and documented. Roger Boesche describes the Arthaśāstra as "a book of political realism, a book analysing how the political world does work and not very often stating how it ought to work, a book that frequently discloses to a king what calculating and sometimes brutal measures he must carry out to preserve the state and the common good." Question: Who are Kautilya and Vishnugupta usually grouped with? Answer: Chāṇakya Question: What did the Arthasastra say a king must use? Answer: brutal measures Question: When was Chanakya alive? Answer: 350–-283 BCE
Context: No satisfactory explanation can as yet be given for the exact mechanisms determining the formation of earlywood and latewood. Several factors may be involved. In conifers, at least, rate of growth alone does not determine the proportion of the two portions of the ring, for in some cases the wood of slow growth is very hard and heavy, while in others the opposite is true. The quality of the site where the tree grows undoubtedly affects the character of the wood formed, though it is not possible to formulate a rule governing it. In general, however, it may be said that where strength or ease of working is essential, woods of moderate to slow growth should be chosen. Question: What facet of wood is affected to some degree by the place where the tree grows? Answer: character Question: If you want wood that's easy to work with, what kind of growth would you want the tree to have? Answer: moderate to slow Question: What species of tree can be said to growth ring proportions that aren't determined just by their rate of growth? Answer: conifers Question: What counterpart of earlywood are scientists still trying to explain the formation of? Answer: latewood Question: While there is some relationship between where and how a tree grows, what can't anyone formulate to govern it? Answer: a rule
Context: One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM. Question: When was The Deccan Times founded? Answer: the 1780s Question: What is The Deccan Chronicle? Answer: major English papers Question: What type of paper is The Siasat Daily? Answer: major Urdu papers Question: What year was the first radio station in Hyderabad formed? Answer: around 1919 Question: On what date did the first public radio station in Hyderabad begin broadcasting? Answer: starting on 3 February 1935
Context: The IJM used the grant money to found "Project Lantern" and established an office in the Philippines city of Cebu. In 2010 the results of the project were published, in which the IJM stated that Project Lantern had led to "an increase in law enforcement activity in sex trafficking cases, an increase in commitment to resolving sex trafficking cases among law enforcement officers trained through the project, and an increase in services – like shelter, counseling and career training – provided to trafficking survivors". At the time that the results were released, the IJM was exploring opportunities to replicate the model in other regions. Question: What was the name of the project founded by the IJM Answer: The IJM used the grant money to found "Project Lantern Question: Where did project lantern open an office Answer: "Project Lantern" and established an office in the Philippines city of Cebu. Question: What did project lantern announce in 2010 Answer: IJM stated that Project Lantern had led to "an increase in law enforcement activity in sex trafficking cases Question: What services were also increased by project lantern Answer: increase in services – like shelter, counseling and career training – provided to trafficking survivors" Question: What was project Lantern exploring Answer: the IJM was exploring opportunities to replicate the model in other regions. Question: What was the name of the project founded in the Philippines? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What kinds of service increases has the project IJM led to? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did Project Lantern want to replicate? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What was the IJM committed to resolving as a result of Project Lantern? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What city was chosen by trafficking survivors to found Project Lantern? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The center of all mystical experience is, of course, Christ. English Dominicans sought to gain a full knowledge of Christ through an imitation of His life. English mystics of all types tended to focus on the moral values that the events in Christ's life exemplified. This led to a "progressive understanding of the meanings of Scripture--literal, moral, allegorical, and anagogical"—that was contained within the mystical journey itself. From these considerations of Scripture comes the simplest way to imitate Christ: an emulation of the moral actions and attitudes that Jesus demonstrated in His earthly ministry becomes the most significant way to feel and have knowledge of God. Question: How did the English order hope to gain knowledge of Christ? Answer: through an imitation of His life Question: Who is at the center of all mystical experiences? Answer: Christ Question: What is the most significant way to know Christ? Answer: emulation of the moral actions and attitudes that Jesus demonstrated in His earthly ministry Question: What did English mystics tend to focus on in their studies? Answer: the moral values that the events in Christ's life exemplified Question: What type of understanding of scripture did the English Order subscribe to? Answer: progressive Question: What was not at the center of all mystical experiences? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did English Dominicans not seek to gain? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did English mystics of all types not focus on? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the least significant way to know Christ? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of understanding of scripture did the French Order subscribe to? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The city is considered highly innovative for a variety of reasons, including the presence of academia, access to venture capital, and the presence of many high-tech companies. The Route 128 corridor and Greater Boston continue to be a major center for venture capital investment, and high technology remains an important sector. Question: The city is innovative becaus eit has access to what type of capital? Answer: venture capital Question: There is a high presence of what type of company in the city? Answer: high-tech companies Question: Route 128 and Greater Boston are centers for what type of investment? Answer: venture capital investment Question: What remains an important sector? Answer: high technology
Context: After years of foreign policy coordination and developing ties, Nasser, President Sukarno of Indonesia, President Tito of Yugoslavia, and Prime Minister Nehru of India founded the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in 1961. Its declared purpose was to solidify international non-alignment and promote world peace amid the Cold War, end colonization, and increase economic cooperation among developing countries. In 1964, Nasser was made president of the NAM and held the second conference of the organization in Cairo. Question: In what year was the Non-Aligned Movment formed? Answer: 1961 Question: Who was named leader of the NAM in 1964? Answer: Nasser Question: What global conflict was the NAM made to counter? Answer: Cold War
Context: With his mazurkas and polonaises, Chopin has been credited with introducing to music a new sense of nationalism. Schumann, in his 1836 review of the piano concertos, highlighted the composer's strong feelings for his native Poland, writing that "Now that the Poles are in deep mourning [after the failure of the November 1830 rising], their appeal to us artists is even stronger ... If the mighty autocrat in the north [i.e. Nicholas I of Russia] could know that in Chopin's works, in the simple strains of his mazurkas, there lurks a dangerous enemy, he would place a ban on his music. Chopin's works are cannon buried in flowers!" The biography of Chopin published in 1863 under the name of Franz Liszt (but probably written by Carolyne zu Sayn-Wittgenstein) claims that Chopin "must be ranked first among the first musicians ... individualizing in themselves the poetic sense of an entire nation." Question: Chopin was noted as introducing music to what? Answer: sense of nationalism Question: What year did Schumann review Chopin's piano concertos? Answer: 1836 Question: In his review Schumann made note of Chopin's emotions for what? Answer: Poland Question: Why did Schumann say the Poles were in mourning? Answer: the failure of the November 1830 Question: A biography on Chopin released under Franz Liszt's name was likely written by who? Answer: Carolyne zu Sayn-Wittgenstein Question: Chopin was able to bring about a new sense of nationalism with his music because of his mazurkas and what? Answer: polonaises Question: Who wrote a glowing review of Chopin's love for his country through his music in 1836? Answer: Schumann Question: Schumann described Chopin's music as cannons buried in what? Answer: flowers Question: Though Franz Liszt is credited with Chopin's 1863 biography, who probably actually wrote it? Answer: Carolyne zu Sayn-Wittgenstein
Context: Some of Nasser's liberal and Islamist critics in Egypt, including the founding members of the New Wafd Party and writer Jamal Badawi, dismissed Nasser's popular appeal with the Egyptian masses during his presidency as being the product of successful manipulation and demagoguery. Egyptian political scientist Alaa al-Din Desouki blamed the 1952 revolution's shortcomings on Nasser's concentration of power, and Egypt's lack of democracy on Nasser's political style and his government's limitations on freedom of expression and political participation. Question: What Egyptian party dismissed Nasser's popular appeal? Answer: New Wafd Party Question: Who blamed the 1952 revolution's failings on Nasser? Answer: Alaa al-Din Desouki Question: To what did critics attribute Nasser's popular appeal? Answer: successful manipulation and demagoguery
Context: There are 48 departments in Punjab government. Each Department is headed by a Provincial Minister (Politician) and a Provincial Secretary (A civil servant of usually BPS-20 or BPS-21). All Ministers report to the Chief Minister, who is the Chief Executive. All Secretaries report to the Chief Secretary of Punjab, who is usually a BPS-22 Civil Servant. The Chief Secretary in turn reports to the Chief Minister. In addition to these departments, there are several Autonomous Bodies and Attached Departments that report directly to either the Secretaries or the Chief Secretary. Question: How many departments does the Punjab administration have? Answer: 48 Question: Who heads each government department? Answer: a Provincial Minister (Politician) and a Provincial Secretary Question: Who do the Provincial Ministers report to? Answer: the Chief Minister Question: Who do the Provincial Secretaries report to? Answer: the Chief Secretary of Punjab Question: What rank is the Chief Secretary? Answer: usually a BPS-22 Civil Servant Question: What is the civil servant designation for the Chief Minister? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who does the Chief Minister report to? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the number of attached departments that report to secretaries? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the rank of a Provincial Minister? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does the Chief Minister send to the Chief Secretary? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: When a state limits its treaty obligations through reservations, other states party to that treaty have the option to accept those reservations, object to them, or object and oppose them. If the state accepts them (or fails to act at all), both the reserving state and the accepting state are relieved of the reserved legal obligation as concerns their legal obligations to each other (accepting the reservation does not change the accepting state's legal obligations as concerns other parties to the treaty). If the state opposes, the parts of the treaty affected by the reservation drop out completely and no longer create any legal obligations on the reserving and accepting state, again only as concerns each other. Finally, if the state objects and opposes, there are no legal obligations under that treaty between those two state parties whatsoever. The objecting and opposing state essentially refuses to acknowledge the reserving state is a party to the treaty at all. Question: When a state adds reservations to a treaty, other parties to the treaty can respond to those reservations in what ways? Answer: accept those reservations, object to them, or object and oppose them Question: Who remains unaffected when a party's reservation is accepted by a second party? Answer: other parties to the treaty Question: What happens to the parts of the treaty affected by a rejected reservation as they concern the reserving and rejecting parties? Answer: drop out completely Question: What legal obligations exist between two state parties if one objects and opposes the other's reservations? Answer: no legal obligations Question: If a state party objects and opposes another state's reservations it essentially refuses to acknowledge what? Answer: the reserving state is a party to the treaty
Context: Miami International Airport serves as the primary international airport of the Greater Miami Area. One of the busiest international airports in the world, Miami International Airport caters to over 35 million passengers a year. The airport is a major hub and the single largest international gateway for American Airlines. Miami International is the busiest airport in Florida, and is the United States' second-largest international port of entry for foreign air passengers behind New York's John F. Kennedy International Airport, and is the seventh-largest such gateway in the world. The airport's extensive international route network includes non-stop flights to over seventy international cities in North and South America, Europe, Asia, and the Middle East. Question: How many passengers use Miami International Airport annually? Answer: 35 million Question: What airline uses Miami International as its biggest international gateway? Answer: American Airlines Question: What airport is the largest international port of entry for overseas air travelers in the United States? Answer: John F. Kennedy International Airport Question: From Miami International Airport, to approximately how many non-American cities can one fly nonstop? Answer: seventy Question: How many pilots use Miami International Airport annually? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What airline uses Miami International as its smallest international gateway? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What airport is the smallest international port of entry for overseas air travelers in the United States? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What airport is the largest international port of entry for overseas sea travelers in the United States? Answer: Unanswerable Question: From Miami International Airport, to approximately how many American cities can one fly nonstop? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In 1964 Israel hosted and won the Asian Nations Cup; in 1970 the Israel national football team managed to qualify to the FIFA World Cup, which is still considered[by whom?] the biggest achievement of Israeli football.[citation needed] The 1974 Asian Games held in Tehran, were the last Asian Games in which Israel participated, and was plagued by the Arab countries which refused to compete with Israel, and Israel since ceased competing in Asian competitions. Israel was excluded from the 1978 Asian Games due to security and expense involved if they were to participate. In 1994, UEFA agreed to admit Israel and all Israeli sporting organizations now compete in Europe.[citation needed] Question: When did Israel host and win the Asian Nations Cup? Answer: 1964 Question: When did the Israel national football team qualify to the FIFA World Cup? Answer: 1970 Question: What were the last Asian Games that Israel participated in? Answer: 1974 Asian Games
Context: The term "Early Modern" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. Question: What term was created in the 1930's to separate the middle ages form the 1800's? Answer: Early Modern Question: The 1800"s are referred to as? Answer: time of the late Enlightenment Question: What do the terms "Early Modern" and 'Modern Ages" originate from? Answer: European history Question: What are the terms "Early Modern" and "Modern Ages" used for i other countries? Answer: in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery. Question: When was the term "Early Modern" implemented into the English language? Answer: 1930s Question: What does the term "Early Modern" mean? Answer: to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment Question: What time period is referred to as The Late Enlightenment? Answer: 1800 Question: Where do the terms "Middle Ages" and "Modern Ages" originate from? Answer: European history Question: What are the terms "Middle Ages" and "Modern Ages" used for in other countries? Answer: in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.
Context: The terms "language" and "dialect" are not necessarily mutually exclusive: There is nothing contradictory in the statement "the language of the Pennsylvania Dutch is a dialect of German". Question: The language of the Pennsylvania Dutch is a dialect of what language? Answer: German Question: Which terms are always mutually exclusive? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of relationship do the terms Pennsylvania and Dutch have? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Which dialect is the language of Germany? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of relationship do the terms dialect and Dutch have? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Sichuan was China's most populous province before Chongqing became a directly-controlled municipality; it is currently the fourth most populous, after Guangdong, Shandong and Henan. As of 1832, Sichuan was the most populous of the 18 provinces in China, with an estimated population at that time of 21 million. It was the third most populous sub-national entity in the world, after Uttar Pradesh, India and the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic until 1991, when the Soviet Union was dissolved. It is also one of the only six to ever reach 100 million people (Uttar Pradesh, Russian RSFSR, Maharashtra, Sichuan, Bihar and Punjab). It is currently 10th. Question: What are the three most populist provinces in China? Answer: Guangdong, Shandong and Henan Question: What was the population of Sichuan in 1832? Answer: 21 million Question: What is the tenth most populous sub-national entity in the world? Answer: Sichuan Question: How many sub-national entities have surpassed 100 million people in total? Answer: six Question: In what year was the Soviet Union disbanded? Answer: 1991 Question: What are the three most populous provinces in Russia? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What was the population of Maharashtra in 1832? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the tenth most populous sub-national entity in Henan? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How many sub-national entities have surpassed 21 million people in total? Answer: Unanswerable Question: In what year was China disbanded? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In 1972, in a mosque in the city of Sana'a, Yemen, manuscripts were discovered that were later proved to be the most ancient Quranic text known to exist at the time. The Sana'a manuscripts contain palimpsests, a manuscript page from which the text has been washed off to make the parchment reusable again—a practice which was common in ancient times due to scarcity of writing material. However, the faint washed-off underlying text (scriptio inferior) is still barely visible and believed to be "pre-Uthmanic" Quranic content, while the text written on top (scriptio superior) is believed to belong to Uthmanic time. Studies using radiocarbon dating indicate that the parchments are dated to the period before 671 AD with a 99 percent probability. Question: What is the term for recycled parchments used in ancient manuscripts? Answer: palimpsests Question: Before which year were the Sana'a manuscripts produced? Answer: 671 AD Question: In which city was evidence of pre-Uthmanic Quranic writing discovered in 1972? Answer: Sana'a, Yemen Question: What version of the Quran was the scriptio superior of the Sana'a manuscripts? Answer: Uthmanic Question: What is the term for recycled parchments unused in ancient manuscripts? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the term for recycled parchments used in modern manuscripts? Answer: Unanswerable Question: After which year were the Sana'a manuscripts produced? Answer: Unanswerable Question: In which city was evidence of pre-Uthmanic Quranic writing discovered in 1927? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What version of the Quran was the scriptio inferior of the Sana'a manuscripts? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Physiologically, the function of the brain is to exert centralized control over the other organs of the body. The brain acts on the rest of the body both by generating patterns of muscle activity and by driving the secretion of chemicals called hormones. This centralized control allows rapid and coordinated responses to changes in the environment. Some basic types of responsiveness such as reflexes can be mediated by the spinal cord or peripheral ganglia, but sophisticated purposeful control of behavior based on complex sensory input requires the information integrating capabilities of a centralized brain. Question: Hormones secreted are driven by what organ in the body? Answer: The brain Question: What type of responsiveness can be used without a brain? Answer: reflexes Question: Reflexes only require one of what two structures in a body? Answer: spinal cord or peripheral ganglia
Context: The Roman Catholic Church celebrates his feast day not on the date of his death, June 3, as is usual, nor even on the day of his papal inauguration (as is sometimes done with Popes who are Saints, such as with John Paul II) but on 11 October, the day of the first session of the Second Vatican Council. This is understandable, since he was the one who had had the idea for it and had convened it. On Thursday, 11 September 2014, Pope Francis added his optional memorial to the worldwide General Roman Calendar of saints' feast days, in response to global requests. He is commemorated on the date of his death, 3 June, by the Evangelical Lutheran Church in America and on the following day, 4 June, by the Anglican Church of Canada and the Episcopal Church (United States). Question: When is his feast day celebrated? Answer: 11 October Question: What is October 11? Answer: the day of the first session of the Second Vatican Council Question: When did Pope Francis added his optional memorial to the worldwide General Roman Calendar of saints' feast days? Answer: 11 September 2014 Question: Where did Pope Francis commemorate his death on 3 June? Answer: by the Evangelical Lutheran Church Question: Where did Pope Francis commemorate his death on 4 June? Answer: by the Anglican Church of Canada and the Episcopal Church (United States) Question: When does the United States celebrate his feast day? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What was added by the Evangelical Lutheran Church on Thursday, 11 Sept. 2014? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Why did the Evangelical Lutheran Church add this memorial to the calendar? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What group was created by Pope Francis? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What date was Pope John Paul inagurated? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Beginning in 2005, the CBC has contributed production funds for the BBC Wales revival of Doctor Who, for which it received a special credit at the end of each episode. This arrangement continued until the end of fourth season, broadcast in 2008. The CBC similarly contributed to the first season of the spin-off series, Torchwood. More recently, the network has also begun picking up Canadian rights to some Australian series, including the drama series Janet King and Love Child, and the comedy-drama series Please Like Me. Question: What year did the CBC begin contributing funds to the show Doctor Who? Answer: 2005 Question: When did CBC end its Doctor Who contributions? Answer: the end of fourth season, broadcast in 2008 Question: Which Doctor Who spinoff did CBC contribute to? Answer: Torchwood Question: Which Australian series has CBC taken interest in? Answer: Janet King and Love Child, and the comedy-drama series Please Like Me Question: What was the CBC's most popular show in 2005? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What Doctor Who spinoff only lasted 2 seasons? Answer: Unanswerable Question: The BBC stopped giving the CBC special credit for Doctor Who in what year? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Some of the Australian dramas that are currently very popular in Canada, include what shows? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The majority of contemporary people with dogs describe their pet as part of the family, although some ambivalence about the relationship is evident in the popular reconceptualization of the dog–human family as a pack. A dominance model of dog–human relationships has been promoted by some dog trainers, such as on the television program Dog Whisperer. However it has been disputed that "trying to achieve status" is characteristic of dog–human interactions. Pet dogs play an active role in family life; for example, a study of conversations in dog–human families showed how family members use the dog as a resource, talking to the dog, or talking through the dog, to mediate their interactions with each other. Question: How do most people describe the relationship with their dogs? Answer: part of the family Question: What television show uses a dominance model of dog and human relationships? Answer: Dog Whisperer. Question: Most people today describe their dogs as what? Answer: part of the family Question: What TV show promotes a dominance model for the relationships people have with their dogs? Answer: Dog Whisperer
Context: Romanesque architecture in Germany, Poland, the Czech Lands and Austria is characterised by its massive and modular nature. This is expressed in the Gothic architecture of Central Europe in the huge size of the towers and spires, often projected, but not always completed. The west front generally follows the French formula, but the towers are very much taller and, if complete, are surmounted by enormous openwork spires that are a regional feature. Because of the size of the towers, the section of the façade between them may appear narrow and compressed. The eastern end follows the French form. The distinctive character of the interior of German Gothic cathedrals is their breadth and openness. This is the case even when, as at Cologne, they have been modelled upon a French cathedral. German cathedrals, like the French, tend not to have strongly projecting transepts. There are also many hall churches (Hallenkirchen) without clerestory windows. Question: In Germany, Poland and Austria Romanesque architecture is defined by its massive size and what other design element? Answer: modular nature Question: What design style does Romanesque architecture in Germany, Poland, and Austria normally follow? Answer: the French formula Question: What does the eastern end of German Romanesque cathedrals typically emulate? Answer: follows the French form Question: What is the distinguishing design element in German Gothic cathedrals? Answer: their breadth and openness Question: What are hall churches in German cathedrals known as? Answer: Hallenkirchen Question: What design style does Romanesque architecture in Germany, Poland, and Australia rarely follow? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does the eastern end of German Romanesque cathedrals typically avoid? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the only design element in German Gothic cathedrals? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What are hall churches in German cathedrals no longer known as? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Fiame Mata'afa Faumuina Mulinu’u II, one of the four highest-ranking paramount chiefs in the country, became Samoa's first Prime Minister. Two other paramount chiefs at the time of independence were appointed joint heads of state for life. Tupua Tamasese Mea'ole died in 1963, leaving Malietoa Tanumafili II sole head of state until his death on 11 May 2007, upon which Samoa changed from a constitutional monarchy to a parliamentary republic de facto. The next Head of State, Tuiatua Tupua Tamasese Efi, was elected by the legislature on 17 June 2007 for a fixed five-year term, and was re-elected unopposed in July 2012. Question: What office was held by Fiame Mata'afa Faumuina Mulinu'u II? Answer: Prime Minister Question: What was the term of office for Samoa's first joint heads of state? Answer: life Question: What year did the first of the two heads of state die? Answer: 1963 Question: Who was the head of state in Samoa in 2006? Answer: Malietoa Tanumafili II Question: Before becoming a de facto parliamentary republic, what form of government did Samoa have? Answer: constitutional monarchy Question: When did Fiame Mata'afa Faumuina Mulinu'u II die? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When Mulinu'u II died in 1963 who was left as sole head of state? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Before it was a de facto parlimentary republic, what type of government did Tamasese have? Answer: Unanswerable Question: For how long of a term was Malietoa Tanumafili II elected in 2007? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What happened when Malietoa Tanumafili II ran again in 2012? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: All equipment must be suitable for a mixed-gender force. Combat helmets, rucksacks, combat boots, and flak jackets are designed to ensure women have the same level of protection and comfort as their male colleagues. The women's uniform is similar in design to the men's uniform, but conforms to the female figure, and is functional and practical. Women are also provided with an annual financial entitlement for the purchase of brassiere undergarments. Question: What is a requirement for equipment for the CAF? Answer: equipment must be suitable for a mixed-gender force Question: What are some of the equipment used by both men and women? Answer: Combat helmets, rucksacks, combat boots Question: What special entitlement are women provided as part of their service? Answer: an annual financial entitlement for the purchase of brassiere undergarments Question: What is a requirement for equipment for the CE? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What are some of the equipment used by neither men and women? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What special entitlement are men provided as part of their service? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Tobacco was one of the first major industries to develop after the Civil War. Many farmers grew some tobacco, and the invention of the cigarette made the product especially popular. Winston-Salem is the birthplace of R. J. Reynolds Tobacco Company (RJR), founded by R. J. Reynolds in 1874 as one of 16 tobacco companies in the town. By 1914 it was selling 425 million packs of Camels a year. Today it is the second-largest tobacco company in the U.S. (behind Altria Group). RJR is an indirect wholly owned subsidiary of Reynolds American Inc., which in turn is 42% owned by British American Tobacco. Question: What was one of the first growing industries to develope after the civil war? Answer: Tobacco Question: The invention of cigarettes made what popular? Answer: Tobacco Question: Winston Salem is the headquarters of what tobacco Company? Answer: R. J. Reynolds Tobacco Company Question: What year was RJ Reynolds Tobacco Company founded? Answer: 1874 Question: How many packs of camel cigarettes were sold per year in 1914? Answer: 425 million
Context: Now with NATO support in the form of air cover, the rebel militia pushed westward, defeating loyalist armies and securing control of the centre of the country. Gaining the support of Amazigh (Berber) communities of the Nafusa Mountains, who had long been persecuted as non-Arabic speakers under Gaddafi, the NTC armies surrounded Gaddafi loyalists in several key areas of western Libya. In August, the rebels seized Zliten and Tripoli, ending the last vestiges of Gaddafist power. On 25 August, the Arab League recognised the NTC to be "the legitimate representative of the Libyan state", on which basis Libya would resume its membership in the League. Question: What is another term for the Amazigh? Answer: Berber Question: What language did the Berbers living in the Nafusa Mountains not speak? Answer: Arabic Question: On what date did the NTC government enter the Arab League? Answer: 25 August Question: What were the last two cities to be controlled by Gaddafi's government? Answer: Zliten and Tripoli Question: What organization provided air support to the Libyan rebels? Answer: NATO
Context: On the other hand, the lack of an effective royal justice system in the Kingdom led to the social conflict known as the Guerras Irmandiñas ('Wars of the brotherhoods'), when leagues of peasants and burghers, with the support of a number of knights, noblemen, and under legal protection offered by the remote king, toppled many of the castles of the Kingdom and briefly drove the noblemen into Portugal and Castile. Soon after, in the late 15th century, in the dynastic conflict between Isabella I of Castile and Joanna La Beltraneja, part of the Galician aristocracy supported Joanna. After Isabella's victory, she initiated an administrative and political reform which the chronicler Jeronimo Zurita defined as "doma del Reino de Galicia": 'It was then when the taming of Galicia began, because not just the local lords and knights, but all the people of that nation were the ones against the others very bold and warlike'. These reforms, while establishing a local government and tribunal (the Real Audiencia del Reino de Galicia) and bringing the nobleman under submission, also brought most Galician monasteries and institutions under Castilian control, in what has been criticized as a process of centralisation. At the same time the kings began to call the Xunta or Cortes of the Kingdom of Galicia, an assembly of deputies or representatives of the cities of the Kingdom, to ask for monetary and military contributions. This assembly soon developed into the voice and legal representation of the Kingdom, and the depositary of its will and laws. Question: Social turmoil led to conflict? Answer: Guerras Irmandiñas Question: Which two royals were part of the dynastic conflict of the 15th century? Answer: Isabella I of Castile and Joanna La Beltraneja Question: The subsequent reforms were coined as "doma del Reino de Galicia" by who? Answer: Jeronimo Zurita Question: What was the name of the local government and tribunal? Answer: Real Audiencia del Reino de Galicia
Context: LE: Life expectancy at birth MYS: Mean years of schooling (Years that a person 25 years-of-age or older has spent in schools) EYS: Expected years of schooling (Years that a 5-year-old child will spend in schools throughout his life) GNIpc: Gross national income at purchasing power parity per capita Question: What does LE stand for? Answer: Life expectancy at birth Question: What does MYS stand for? Answer: Mean years of schooling Question: What does EYS stand for? Answer: Expected years of schooling Question: What does GNIpc stand for? Answer: Gross national income at purchasing power parity per capita Question: What does LI stand for? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does MIS stand for? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does EYES stand for? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does GNLpc stand for? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In 1758, the general of the Hindu Maratha Empire, Raghunath Rao conquered Lahore and Attock. Timur Shah Durrani, the son and viceroy of Ahmad Shah Abdali, was driven out of Punjab. Lahore, Multan, Dera Ghazi Khan, Kashmir and other subahs on the south and eastern side of Peshawar were under the Maratha rule for the most part. In Punjab and Kashmir, the Marathas were now major players. The Third Battle of Panipat took place on 1761, Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded the Maratha territory of Punjab and captured remnants of the Maratha Empire in Punjab and Kashmir regions and re-consolidated control over them. Question: Who was Raghunath Rao? Answer: the general of the Hindu Maratha Empire Question: Who did Rao conquer in 1758? Answer: Lahore and Attock Question: When was the Third Battle of Panipat? Answer: 1761 Question: Who ruled most of the eastern part of Peshawar? Answer: Maratha Question: Who captured part of the Maratha Empire in 1761? Answer: Ahmad Shah Abdali Question: When did Timur conquer Lahore? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who was the son of Timur Shah Durrani? Answer: Unanswerable Question: When was the Second Battle of Panipat? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did Ahmad Shah Abdali invade in 1758? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who captured Multan in 1761? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In the English language, the capitalized form of God continues to represent a distinction between monotheistic "God" and "gods" in polytheism. The English word God and its counterparts in other languages are normally used for any and all conceptions and, in spite of significant differences between religions, the term remains an English translation common to all. The same holds for Hebrew El, but in Judaism, God is also given a proper name, the tetragrammaton YHWH, in origin possibly the name of an Edomite or Midianite deity, Yahweh. In many translations of the Bible, when the word LORD is in all capitals, it signifies that the word represents the tetragrammaton. Question: What differentiates God from gods? Answer: the capitalized form of God Question: What belief has many gods? Answer: polytheism Question: What does it mean to read the word LORD in all capitals in the Bible? Answer: signifies that the word represents the tetragrammaton Question: What is the tetragrammaton gor God? Answer: YHWH Question: No matter which religion, what is usually used as the name for the Supreme Being? Answer: God Question: What form of the word God refers to polytheistic gods? Answer: gods Question: What is the name of God in Judaism? Answer: YHWH Question: What does the all caps word LORD used in some bibles represent? Answer: YHWH Question: In Edom what does the capitalized form of God represent? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How is the Midianite word for God normally used? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Related to the Midianite deity, what does the word remain in Edom? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What proper name is God given in Midian? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does the word El signify in English? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Several works from the Golden Age of Animation matched the action to classical music. Notable examples are Walt Disney's Fantasia, Tom and Jerry's Johann Mouse, and Warner Bros.' Rabbit of Seville and What's Opera, Doc?. Question: Works from the Golden Age of music matches action to what? Answer: classical music Question: Who produced Fantasia? Answer: Walt Disney Question: Who starred in Johann Mouse? Answer: Tom and Jerry Question: Who produced Rabbit of Seville? Answer: Warner Bros Question: Who produced What's Opera, Doc? Answer: Warner Bros
Context: When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish–American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil. Question: Who did the central Junta fall to? Answer: the French Question: What king died in 1833? Answer: king Ferdinand VII Question: After King Ferdinand died, who remained under Spanish rule? Answer: Cuba and Puerto Rico Question: When did the Spanish-American war occur? Answer: in 1898 Question: Where were the Portuguese capacities centralized? Answer: Salvador
Context: Dell committed to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from its global activities by 40% by 2015, with 2008 fiscal year as the baseline year. It is listed in Greenpeace’s Guide to Greener Electronics that scores leading electronics manufacturers according to their policies on sustainability, climate and energy and how green their products are. In November 2011, Dell ranked 2nd out of 15 listed electronics makers (increasing its score to 5.1 from 4.9, which it gained in the previous ranking from October 2010). Question: What emissions did Dell strive to reduce? Answer: greenhouse gas Question: By 2015, how much did Dell slate to reduce its emissions? Answer: 40% Question: What year did Dell rank 2nd for product greenness? Answer: 2011 Question: What organization scores electronics manufacturers based on how environmentally friendly their products are? Answer: Greenpeace Question: What emissions didn't Dell strive to reduce? Answer: Unanswerable Question: By 2016, how much did Dell slate to reduce its emissions? Answer: Unanswerable Question: By 2015, how much did Dell slate to increase its emissions? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What year did Dell rank 1st for product greenness? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What organization scores electronics manufacturers based on how environmentally damaging their products are? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: With the extension of Turkish dominion into the Balkans, the strategic conquest of Constantinople became a crucial objective. The empire had managed to control nearly all former Byzantine lands surrounding the city, but in 1402 the Byzantines were temporarily relieved when the Turco-Mongol leader Timur, founder of the Timurid Empire, invaded Anatolia from the east. In the Battle of Ankara in 1402, Timur defeated the Ottoman forces and took Sultan Bayezid I as a prisoner, throwing the empire into disorder. The ensuing civil war lasted from 1402 to 1413 as Bayezid's sons fought over succession. It ended when Mehmed I emerged as the sultan and restored Ottoman power, bringing an end to the Interregnum, also known as the Fetret Devri. Question: What was an objective of Turkey after its expansion into the Balkans? Answer: conquest of Constantinople Question: What empire were the controlled lands surrounding Constantinople formerly controlled by? Answer: Byzantine Question: What leader invaded Anatolia from the east? Answer: Timur Question: Timur was the founder of what? Answer: Timurid Empire Question: What battle between Timur and the Ottoman empire took place in 1402? Answer: Battle of Ankara
Context: Although dissertations on clothing and its function appear from the 19th century as colonising countries dealt with new environments, concerted scientific research into psycho-social, physiological and other functions of clothing (e.g. protective, cartage) occurred in the first half of the 20th century, with publications such as J. C. Flügel's Psychology of Clothes in 1930, and Newburgh's seminal Physiology of Heat Regulation and The Science of Clothing in 1949. By 1968, the field of environmental physiology had advanced and expanded significantly, but the science of clothing in relation to environmental physiology had changed little. While considerable research has since occurred and the knowledge-base has grown significantly, the main concepts remain unchanged, and indeed Newburgh's book is still cited by contemporary authors, including those attempting to develop thermoregulatory models of clothing development. Question: What century do dissertation on clothing first appear from? Answer: 19th Question: What year was J. C. Flügel's Psychology of Clothes published? Answer: 1930 Question: Whose book entitled Physiology of Heat Regulation and The Science of Clothing was published in 1949? Answer: Newburgh's Question: How much had the science of clothing in relation to environmental factors changed by 1968? Answer: little Question: What have remained unchanged while the knowledge has grown? Answer: the main concepts Question: What led to the first dissertation on clothing in the eighteenth century Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who published psychology of close in 1920? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What field is not spending significantly since 1968? Answer: Unanswerable Question: The science of clothing in relation to what changed a lot by 1968? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Considerable research has been done changing what? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In December 1941, Japan launched, in quick succession, attacks on British Malaya, the United States naval base at Pearl Harbor, and Hong Kong. Churchill's reaction to the entry of the United States into the war was that Britain was now assured of victory and the future of the empire was safe, but the manner in which British forces were rapidly defeated in the Far East irreversibly harmed Britain's standing and prestige as an imperial power. Most damaging of all was the fall of Singapore, which had previously been hailed as an impregnable fortress and the eastern equivalent of Gibraltar. The realisation that Britain could not defend its entire empire pushed Australia and New Zealand, which now appeared threatened by Japanese forces, into closer ties with the United States. This resulted in the 1951 ANZUS Pact between Australia, New Zealand and the United States of America. Question: Which country attacked British Malaya in 1941? Answer: Japan Question: Which country attacked Hong Kong in 1941? Answer: Japan Question: When was the ANZUS Pact formed? Answer: 1951 Question: Which countries were in the ANZUS Pact? Answer: Australia, New Zealand and the United States Question: Which territory had been compared to Gibraltar? Answer: Singapore
Context: When performing lossy audio encoding, such as creating an MP3 file, there is a trade-off between the amount of space used and the sound quality of the result. Typically, the creator is allowed to set a bit rate, which specifies how many kilobits the file may use per second of audio. The higher the bit rate, the larger the compressed file will be, and, generally, the closer it will sound to the original file. Question: A typical trade off when creating an MP3 file is between the amount of space used and what other factor? Answer: sound quality of the result Question: What would an example of lossy audio encoding be? Answer: creating an MP3 file Question: Who gets to set the bit rate for an MP3 file? Answer: the creator Question: What does the bit rate of the file actually mean? Answer: how many kilobits the file may use per second of audio Question: If the bit rate is higher, the size of the compressed file will be what? Answer: larger
Context: People of Ashkenazi descent constitute around 47.5% of Israeli Jews (and therefore 35–36% of Israelis). They have played a prominent role in the economy, media, and politics of Israel since its founding. During the first decades of Israel as a state, strong cultural conflict occurred between Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews (mainly east European Ashkenazim). The roots of this conflict, which still exists to a much smaller extent in present-day Israeli society, are chiefly attributed to the concept of the "melting pot". That is to say, all Jewish immigrants who arrived in Israel were strongly encouraged to "melt down" their own particular exilic identities within the general social "pot" in order to become Israeli. Question: What percentage of Israeli Jews are people of Ashkenazi descent? Answer: 47.5% Question: When Israel was in its infancy as a state, there were cultural conflicts between which two groups? Answer: Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews Question: What was the conflict between Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews attributed to? Answer: the concept of the "melting pot" Question: What percentage of all Israelis are thought to be of Ashkenazi descent? Answer: 35–36% Question: When Israel was in its infancy as a state, the Ashkenazi Jews involved in conflicts with Sephardic Jews were mainly what type of Jews? Answer: east European Ashkenazim
Context: Since LED efficacy is inversely proportional to operating temperature, LED technology is well suited for supermarket freezer lighting. Because LEDs produce less waste heat than incandescent lamps, their use in freezers can save on refrigeration costs as well. However, they may be more susceptible to frost and snow buildup than incandescent lamps, so some LED lighting systems have been designed with an added heating circuit. Additionally, research has developed heat sink technologies that will transfer heat produced within the junction to appropriate areas of the light fixture. Question: LED efficacy is inversely proportional to what? Answer: operating temperature Question: Where is LED lighting very well suited? Answer: supermarket freezer Question: LEDs produce less waste heat than what other device? Answer: incandescent lamps Question: What is LED lighting more susceptible to than incandescent light? Answer: frost Question: LED efficacy is not inversely proportional to what? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Where is LED lighting not very well suited? Answer: Unanswerable Question: LEDs produce less waste cold than what other device? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is non-LED lighting more susceptible to than incandescent light? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: On 24 April 2014, it was reported in the Italian magazine Credere that the late pope could possibly be beatified on 19 October 2014. This report from the magazine further stated that several cardinals and bishops would meet on 5 May to confirm the miracle that had previously been approved, and then present it to Pope Francis who may sign the decree for beatification shortly after that. The Congregation for the Causes of Saints held that meeting and positively concluded that the healing was indeed a miracle that could be attributed to the late pope. The matter shall now soon be presented to the pope for approval. Question: What magazine broke the story of Paul VI pending saint hood? Answer: Credere Question: What type of miracle was attributed to Pope Paul VI? Answer: healing Question: What group declared the healing a miracle by Paul VI? Answer: The Congregation for the Causes of Saints Question: Who needed to approve the Congregation for the Causes of Saints conclusion that Paul VI performed a miracle? Answer: pope Question: Who was required to sign a decree declaring Paul VI a saint? Answer: Pope Francis
Context: Before the 1997 war, about 9,000 Europeans and other non-Africans lived in Congo, most of whom were French; only a fraction of this number remains. Around 300 American expatriates reside in the Congo. Question: Prior to the civil war in '97, how many non-Africans lived in the Republic of the Congo? Answer: about 9,000 Question: What was the dominant nationality among Europeans living in the Congo prior to the civil war? Answer: French Question: How many Americans live in the Congo? Answer: Around 300 Question: How many Americans lived in the Congo before 1997? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How many French expatriates reside in the Congo? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How many Congolese expatriates live in America? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Where did 9000 Europeans and other non-Africans live after the 1997 war? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: At a general level, self-psychology is compelled to investigate the question of how the personal self relates to the social environment. To the extent that these theories place themselves in the tradition of "psychological" social psychology, they focus on explaining an individual's actions within a group in terms of mental events and states. However, some "sociological" social psychology theories go further by attempting to deal with the issue of identity at both the levels of individual cognition and of collective behavior. Question: Self-psychology is compelled to investigate how personal self relates to what? Answer: the social environment Question: What two factors are focused on when explaining an individual's actions within a group? Answer: mental events and states Question: What are individual cognition and collective behavior are levels of? Answer: identity Question: What is compelled to investigate how social self relates to the social environment? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What two factors are focused on explaining an individual's actions towards a group? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What are collective cognition and individual behavior levels of? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What focuses on explaining the group's actions? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The band have released a total of eighteen number one albums, eighteen number one singles, and ten number one DVDs worldwide, making them one of the world's best-selling music artists. Queen have sold over 150 million records, with some estimates in excess of 300 million records worldwide, including 34.5 million albums in the US as of 2004. Inducted into the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame in 2001, the band is the only group in which every member has composed more than one chart-topping single, and all four members were inducted into the Songwriters Hall of Fame in 2003. In 2009, "We Will Rock You" and "We Are the Champions" were inducted into the Grammy Hall of Fame, and the latter was voted the world's favourite song in a global music poll. Question: How many number one albums has Queen released? Answer: eighteen Question: How many number one singles did Queen release? Answer: eighteen Question: How many number one DVD's has Queen released? Answer: ten Question: How many albums has Queen sold worldwide? Answer: over 150 million Question: When was Queen inducted into the Hall of Fame? Answer: 2001
Context: Jobs expanded so rapidly that 400,000 people were attracted to the city from 1941 to 1943, including 50,000 blacks in the second wave of the Great Migration, and 350,000 whites, many of them from the South. Some European immigrants and their descendants feared black competition for jobs and housing. The federal government prohibited discrimination in defense work but when in June 1943, Packard promoted three blacks to work next to whites on its assembly lines, 25,000 whites walked off the job. The Detroit race riot of 1943 took place three weeks after the Packard plant protest. Over the course of three days, 34 people were killed, of whom 25 were African American, and approximately 600 were injured, 75% black people. Question: How many people were killed in the race riot of 1943? Answer: 34 Question: How many people came to Detroit between 1941 and 1943? Answer: 400,000 Question: After which event did the 1943 race riot happen? Answer: Packard plant protest Question: What care company promoted black workers to work alongside white workers? Answer: Packard
Context: Mainstream AC itself has evolved in a similar fashion over the years; traditional AC artists like Barbra Streisand, the Carpenters, Dionne Warwick, Barry Manilow, John Denver, and Olivia Newton-John found it harder to have major Top 40 hits as the 1980s wore on, and due to the influence of MTV, artists who were staples of the Contemporary Hit Radio format, such as Richard Marx, Michael Jackson, Bonnie Tyler, George Michael, Phil Collins, and Laura Branigan began crossing over to the AC charts with greater frequency. Collins has been described by AllMusic as "one of the most successful pop and adult contemporary singers of the '80s and beyond". However, with the combination of MTV and AC radio, adult contemporary appeared harder to define as a genre, with established soft-rock artists of the past still charting pop hits and receiving airplay alongside mainstream radio fare from newer artists at the time. Question: Along with Richard Marx, Bonnie Tyler, George Michael, Phil Collins, and Laura Branigan, what artist was also frequently played on Contemporary Hit Radio stations? Answer: Michael Jackson Question: What television station was responsible for the increasing success of Contemporary Hit Radio artists on the AC charts? Answer: MTV Question: Along with Barbra Streisand, the Carpenters, Dionne Warwick, Barry Manilow and Olivia Newton-John, what adult contemporary staple found it more difficult to score chart hits in the 1980s? Answer: John Denver Question: Who did Allmusic refer to as "one of the most successful pop and adult contemporary singers of the '80s and beyond"? Answer: Phil Collins
Context: An unexpected adverse effect of daylight saving time may lie in the fact that an extra part of morning rush hour traffic occurs before dawn and traffic emissions then cause higher air pollution than during daylight hours. Question: Do emissions from vehicle exhaust cause lower or higher pollution before dawn? Answer: higher Question: Does DST mean more rush hour traffic is on the road before dawn or after? Answer: before dawn Question: What kind of pollution is caused by emissions from cars while they're sitting in traffic? Answer: air pollution
Context: When paying a state visit to Britain, foreign heads of state are usually entertained by the Queen at Buckingham Palace. They are allocated a large suite of rooms known as the Belgian Suite, situated at the foot of the Minister's Staircase, on the ground floor of the north-facing Garden Wing. The rooms of the suite are linked by narrow corridors, one of them is given extra height and perspective by saucer domes designed by Nash in the style of Soane. A second corridor in the suite has Gothic influenced cross over vaulting. The Belgian Rooms themselves were decorated in their present style and named after Prince Albert's uncle Léopold I, first King of the Belgians. In 1936, the suite briefly became the private apartments of the palace when they were occupied by King Edward VIII. Question: Where do foreign heads of stay usually stay in Buckingham Palace? Answer: the Belgian Suite Question: What floor are the Belgian Suites located? Answer: ground floor Question: The Belgian Suite is located at the foot of which staircase? Answer: the Minister's Staircase Question: How are the rooms of the Belgian Suites linked? Answer: by narrow corridors Question: What is the style of the saucer domes in the Belgian Suite? Answer: the style of Soane Question: Where do foreign heads of stay at Buckingham Palace? Answer: the Belgian Suite Question: The Belgian Suite is located at the bottom of which staircase? Answer: Minister's Staircase Question: On which floor is the Belgian Suite located? Answer: the ground floor Question: How are the rooms in the Belgian Suite connected? Answer: by narrow corridors Question: The saucer domes are in whose style? Answer: the style of Soane Question: Where do foreign heads of stay usually avoid in Buckingham Palace? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What floor are the Belgian Suites burned? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How are the rooms of the Belgian Suites separated? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Where do foreign heads paint at Buckingham Palace? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Which floor is the Belgian Suite restricted? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: As the Ottoman state attempted to modernize its infrastructure and army in response to threats from the outside, it also opened itself up to a different kind of threat: that of creditors. Indeed, as the historian Eugene Rogan has written, "the single greatest threat to the independence of the Middle East" in the nineteenth century "was not the armies of Europe but its banks." The Ottoman state, which had begun taking on debt with the Crimean War, was forced to declare bankruptcy in 1875. By 1881, the Ottoman Empire agreed to have its debt controlled by an institution known as the Ottoman Public Debt Administration, a council of European men with presidency alternating between France and Britain. The body controlled swaths of the Ottoman economy, and used its position to insure that European capital continued to penetrate the empire, often to the detriment of local Ottoman interests. Question: What historian wrote that banks were the single greatest threat to mid-east independence? Answer: Eugene Rogan Question: In what year did the Ottoman Empire declare bankruptcy? Answer: 1875 Question: What was the administration that the empire used to control its debt called? Answer: Ottoman Public Debt Administration Question: Who served on the debt controlling administration of the Ottoman Empire? Answer: European men with presidency alternating between France and Britain. Question: European capital in the Ottoman empire resulted in what? Answer: the detriment of local Ottoman interests
Context: The referee may punish a player's or substitute's misconduct by a caution (yellow card) or dismissal (red card). A second yellow card at the same game leads to a red card, and therefore to a dismissal. A player given a yellow card is said to have been "booked", the referee writing the player's name in his official notebook. If a player has been dismissed, no substitute can be brought on in their place. Misconduct may occur at any time, and while the offences that constitute misconduct are listed, the definitions are broad. In particular, the offence of "unsporting behaviour" may be used to deal with most events that violate the spirit of the game, even if they are not listed as specific offences. A referee can show a yellow or red card to a player, substitute or substituted player. Non-players such as managers and support staff cannot be shown the yellow or red card, but may be expelled from the technical area if they fail to conduct themselves in a responsible manner. Question: Which card does a referee use to signal a caution to a player? Answer: yellow card Question: How many yellow cards lead to a red card? Answer: A second Question: What does a red card mean? Answer: dismissal Question: A referee gives out a yellow card and writes down the players name in his notebook which is called being what? Answer: booked Question: Managers and support staff is considered what and thus cannot be shown a card? Answer: Non-players Question: Which card does a referee avoid to signal a caution to a player? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How many yellow cards lead to a blue card? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What does a blue card mean? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is it called when a referee gives out a green card? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who can always be shown a card? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Islamic political philosophy, was, indeed, rooted in the very sources of Islam—i.e., the Qur'an and the Sunnah, the words and practices of Muhammad—thus making it essentially theocratic. However, in the Western thought, it is generally supposed that it was a specific area peculiar merely to the great philosophers of Islam: al-Kindi (Alkindus), al-Farabi (Abunaser), İbn Sina (Avicenna), Ibn Bajjah (Avempace), Ibn Rushd (Averroes), and Ibn Khaldun. The political conceptions of Islam such as kudrah (power), sultan, ummah, cemaa (obligation)-and even the "core" terms of the Qur'an—i.e., ibadah (worship), din (religion), rab (master) and ilah (deity)—is taken as the basis of an analysis. Hence, not only the ideas of the Muslim political philosophers but also many other jurists and ulama posed political ideas and theories. For example, the ideas of the Khawarij in the very early years of Islamic history on Khilafa and Ummah, or that of Shia Islam on the concept of Imamah are considered proofs of political thought. The clashes between the Ehl-i Sunna and Shia in the 7th and 8th centuries had a genuine political character. Question: The clashes between Ehl-i Sunna and Shia had what kind of character? Answer: political Question: Islamic political philosophy was rooted in what sources? Answer: Islam Question: What is taken as the basis of an analysis? Answer: The political conceptions of Islam Question: What political philosophy was rooted in theology? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What are the religious conceptions of Islam? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What clashed up until the seventh and eighth century? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the religious conception of Islam taken as? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What kind of character did the clashes between Bajjah and Rushd have in the 7th and 8th centuries? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What sources are Avicenna based on? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How did the ilah generally suppose Islamic philosophy was rooted? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did Ehl-i-Sunna and Shia pose regarding Islam? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What do the ideas of general political character give proof of in early Islamic history? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The first time "affirmative action" is used by the federal government concerning race is in President John F. Kennedy's Executive Order 10925, which was chaired by Vice President Johnson. At Johnson's inaugural ball in Texas, he met with a young black lawyer, Hobart Taylor Jr., and gave him the task to co-author the executive order. He wanted a phrase that "gave a sense of positivity to performance under the order." He was torn between the words "positive action" and "affirmative action," and selected the later due to its alliterative quality. The term "active recruitment" started to be used as well. This order, albeit heavily worked up as a significant piece of legislation, in reality carried little actual power. The scope was limited to a couple hundred defense contractors, leaving nearly $7.5 billion in federal grants and loans unsupervised.:60 Question: Which Executive Order first contained the phrase "affirmative action"? Answer: Executive Order 10925 Question: Who chaired the committee created by Executive Order 10925? Answer: Vice President Johnson Question: Who co - authored the executive order? Answer: Hobart Taylor Jr. Question: What was the alternative phrase to "affirmative action" that was being considered? Answer: positive action Question: What was the main reason that "affirmative action" was chosen over "positive action"? Answer: alliterative quality Question: Which Executive Order didn't contain the phrase "affirmative action"? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who chaired the committee destroyed by Executive Order 10925? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who co - authored the non-executive order? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What was the alternative phrase to "non-affirmative action" that was being considered? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What was the main reason that "non-affirmative action" was chosen over "positive action"? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Archaeologist Louis Binford criticised the idea that early hominids and early humans were hunters. On the basis of the analysis of the skeletal remains of the consumed animals, he concluded that hominids and early humans were mostly scavengers, not hunters, and this idea is popular among some archaeologists and paleoanthropologists. Robert Blumenschine proposed the idea of confrontational scavenging, which involves challenging and scaring off other predators after they have made a kill, which he suggests could have been the leading method of obtaining protein-rich meat by early humans. Question: What is Louis Binford's profession? Answer: Archaeologist Question: What idea did Binford take issue with? Answer: that early hominids and early humans were hunters Question: What did Binford conclude humans were instead of hunters? Answer: scavengers Question: What idea did Blumenschine propose? Answer: idea of confrontational scavenging Question: What does confrontational scavenging involve doing to other predators after they've made a kill? Answer: challenging and scaring off Question: Who is the archaeologist that does not believe early humans were hunters? Answer: Louis Binford Question: Louis Binford concluded what based on skeletal remains of consumed animals? Answer: hominids and early humans were mostly scavengers Question: What did Robert Blumenschine propose? Answer: confrontational scavenging Question: Louis Binford's idea is popular among whom? Answer: archaeologists and paleoanthropologists Question: Confrontational scavenging involves doing what to other predators? Answer: challenging and scaring off Question: What idea was criticized by Robert Blumenschine? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What did Robert Blumenschine analyze to reach his conclusion that humans were hunters? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What group is the idea of humans being hunters popular with? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the first step humans would use when hunting an animal? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What would early humans be able to obtain when hunting? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: As of the 2000 United States Census there were 40,517 people, 15,848 households, and 8,700 families residing in the city. The population density was 3,569.8 people per square mile (1,378.3/km2). There were 20,219 housing units at an average density of 1,781.4 per square mile (687.8/km2). The racial makeup of the city was 44.16% black or African American, 26.68% White, 0.48% Native American, 10.40% Asian, 0.06% Pacific Islander, 13.76% other races, and 4.47% from two or more races. 24.95% of the population were Hispanic or Latino of any race. 19.44% of the population was non-Hispanic whites. Question: According to the 2000 United States Census, how many people were living in Atlantic City? Answer: 40,517 Question: According to the 2000 United States Census, what was the population density? Answer: 3,569.8 people per square mile Question: According to the 2000 United States Census, how many housing units were there in Atlantic City? Answer: 20,219 Question: According to the 2000 United States Census, what percentage of the population of Atlantic City were Hispanic or Latino? Answer: 24.95% Question: According to the 2000 United States Census, what percentage of the population of Atlantic City were white? Answer: 26.68%
Context: In contrast, some emerging software disciplines such as extreme programming and the agile software development movement, adhere to a "test-driven software development" model. In this process, unit tests are written first, by the software engineers (often with pair programming in the extreme programming methodology). Of course these tests fail initially; as they are expected to. Then as code is written it passes incrementally larger portions of the test suites. The test suites are continuously updated as new failure conditions and corner cases are discovered, and they are integrated with any regression tests that are developed. Unit tests are maintained along with the rest of the software source code and generally integrated into the build process (with inherently interactive tests being relegated to a partially manual build acceptance process). The ultimate goal of this test process is to achieve continuous integration where software updates can be published to the public frequently. Question: Which two current movements adhere to the "test-driven software development"? Answer: extreme programming and the agile software development Question: Under the development of agile software and extreme programing what is written first? Answer: unit tests are written first Question: What is the goal of Unit testing? Answer: achieve continuous integration where software updates can be published to the public frequently Question: Which two old movements adhere to the "test-driven software development?" Answer: Unanswerable Question: Under the development of fragile software and extreme programming what is written first? Answer: Unanswerable Question: The goal of unit testing is to achieve discontinuous integration where software updates can be what? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The output of goods and services produced by labor and property located in the United States—decreased at an annual rate of approximately 6% in the fourth quarter of 2008 and first quarter of 2009, versus activity in the year-ago periods. The U.S. unemployment rate increased to 10.1% by October 2009, the highest rate since 1983 and roughly twice the pre-crisis rate. The average hours per work week declined to 33, the lowest level since the government began collecting the data in 1964. With the decline of gross domestic product came the decline in innovation. With fewer resources to risk in creative destruction, the number of patent applications flat-lined. Compared to the previous 5 years of exponential increases in patent application, this stagnation correlates to the similar drop in GDP during the same time period. Question: What was the annual rate of decrease for the output of goods and services produced by labor and property in 4Q 2008 and 1Q 2009? Answer: 6% Question: What was the U.S. unemployment rate in October 2009? Answer: 10.1% Question: The U.E. employment rate was 10.2% in October 2009, which was the highest rate since what year? Answer: 1983 Question: What was the average hours per work week in October 2009? Answer: 33 Question: The decline of gross domestic product also caused a decline in innovation, evidenced by the flat-lining of what? Answer: patent applications
Context: In modern-day Germany, the Holy Roman Empire continued to rule, but the elective nature of the imperial crown meant there was no enduring dynasty around which a strong state could form. Further east, the kingdoms of Poland, Hungary, and Bohemia grew powerful. In Iberia, the Christian kingdoms continued to gain land from the Muslim kingdoms of the peninsula; Portugal concentrated on expanding overseas during the 15th century, while the other kingdoms were riven by difficulties over royal succession and other concerns. After losing the Hundred Years' War, England went on to suffer a long civil war known as the Wars of the Roses, which lasted into the 1490s and only ended when Henry Tudor (r. 1485–1509 as Henry VII) became king and consolidated power with his victory over Richard III (r. 1483–85) at Bosworth in 1485. In Scandinavia, Margaret I of Denmark (r. in Denmark 1387–1412) consolidated Norway, Denmark, and Sweden in the Union of Kalmar, which continued until 1523. The major power around the Baltic Sea was the Hanseatic League, a commercial confederation of city states that traded from Western Europe to Russia. Scotland emerged from English domination under Robert the Bruce (r. 1306–29), who secured papal recognition of his kingship in 1328. Question: Along with Poland and Hungary, what Eastern European state grew in power? Answer: Bohemia Question: During what century did Portugal devote itself to overseas expansion? Answer: 15th Question: What nation lost the Hundred Years' War? Answer: England Question: What was the regnal name of Henry Tudor? Answer: Henry VII Question: Along with Denmark and Sweden, what country was part of the Union of Kalmar? Answer: Norway
Context: Strasbourg features a number of prominent parks, of which several are of cultural and historical interest: the Parc de l'Orangerie, laid out as a French garden by André le Nôtre and remodeled as an English garden on behalf of Joséphine de Beauharnais, now displaying noteworthy French gardens, a neo-classical castle and a small zoo; the Parc de la Citadelle, built around impressive remains of the 17th-century fortress erected close to the Rhine by Vauban; the Parc de Pourtalès, laid out in English style around a baroque castle (heavily restored in the 19th century) that now houses a small three-star hotel, and featuring an open-air museum of international contemporary sculpture. The Jardin botanique de l'Université de Strasbourg (botanical garden) was created under the German administration next to the Observatory of Strasbourg, built in 1881, and still owns some greenhouses of those times. The Parc des Contades, although the oldest park of the city, was completely remodeled after World War II. The futuristic Parc des Poteries is an example of European park-conception in the late 1990s. The Jardin des deux Rives, spread over Strasbourg and Kehl on both sides of the Rhine opened in 2004 and is the most extended (60-hectare) park of the agglomeration. The most recent park is Parc du Heyritz (8,7 ha), opened in 2014 along a canal facing the hôpital civil. Question: Who designed the Parc de l'Orangerie? Answer: André le Nôtre Question: What park has a small zoo in it? Answer: Parc de l'Orangerie Question: What park is built close to the Rhine by Vauban? Answer: Parc de la Citadelle Question: What year was the Observatory of Strasbourg built? Answer: 1881 Question: What is the oldest park in the city? Answer: Parc des Contades Question: In what year was the Parc de Pourtales laid out? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How big is the Parc de Pourtales? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the oldest park in Strasbourg? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What style of park is the Parc du Heyritz? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who designed the Parc du Heyritz? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: Advertising is common in healthcare journals as well as through more mainstream media routes. In some countries, notably the US, they are allowed to advertise directly to the general public. Pharmaceutical companies generally employ sales people (often called 'drug reps' or, an older term, 'detail men') to market directly and personally to physicians and other healthcare providers. In some countries, notably the US, pharmaceutical companies also employ lobbyists to influence politicians. Marketing of prescription drugs in the US is regulated by the federal Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987. Question: "Drug reps" are usually hired by what type of firms? Answer: Pharmaceutical companies Question: What law regulates drug marketing in the US? Answer: Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987 Question: Who do drug reps market to? Answer: directly and personally to physicians Question: "US reps" are usually hired by what type of firms? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What law regulates drug marketing in some countries? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who do US reps market to? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who do US companies generally employ? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is marketing of media in the US regulated by? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In 1970 Margaret Thatcher became Secretary of State for Education of the new Conservative government. She ended the compulsion on local authorities to convert, however, many local authorities were so far down the path that it would have been prohibitively expensive to attempt to reverse the process, and more comprehensive schools were established under Mrs Thatcher than any other education secretary. Question: Who was made Secretary of State for Education in 1970? Answer: Margaret Thatcher Question: What kind of school did Thatcher end the compulsion for existing schools to convert to? Answer: comprehensive Question: What party was in power when Margaret Thatcher was made Secretary of State for Education? Answer: Conservative Question: Who wasn't made Secretary of State for Education in 1970? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who was made Secretary of State for Education in 1972? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What kind of school didn't Thatcher end the compulsion for existing schools to convert to? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What kind of school did Thatcher start the compulsion for existing schools to convert to? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What party wasn't in power when Margaret Thatcher was made Secretary of State for Education? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The Alaska State Troopers are Alaska's statewide police force. They have a long and storied history, but were not an official organization until 1941. Before the force was officially organized, law enforcement in Alaska was handled by various federal agencies. Larger towns usually have their own local police and some villages rely on "Public Safety Officers" who have police training but do not carry firearms. In much of the state, the troopers serve as the only police force available. In addition to enforcing traffic and criminal law, wildlife Troopers enforce hunting and fishing regulations. Due to the varied terrain and wide scope of the Troopers' duties, they employ a wide variety of land, air, and water patrol vehicles. Question: In what year did Alaskan State Troopers become an official organization? Answer: 1941 Question: What is different about a "Public Safety Officer" that distiguishes the position from a policeman? Answer: have police training but do not carry firearms Question: What do wildlife enforcers regulate? Answer: hunting and fishing regulations Question: What type of vehicles do Troopers operate? Answer: a wide variety of land, air, and water patrol vehicles Question: In what year did Alaskan State Troopers become an unofficial organization? Answer: Unanswerable Question: In what year didn't Alaskan State Troopers become an official organization? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the same about a "Public Safety Officer" that distiguishes the position from a policeman? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What don't wildlife enforcers regulate? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of vehicles don't Troopers operate? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: The act of predation can be broken down into a maximum of four stages: Detection of prey, attack, capture and finally consumption. The relationship between predator and prey is one that is typically beneficial to the predator, and detrimental to the prey species. Sometimes, however, predation has indirect benefits to the prey species, though the individuals preyed upon themselves do not benefit. This means that, at each applicable stage, predator and prey species are in an evolutionary arms race to maximize their respective abilities to obtain food or avoid being eaten. This interaction has resulted in a vast array of adaptations in both groups. Question: At most there are how many step of predator-prey interaction? Answer: maximum of four stages Question: What is the first step of the predator-prey interaction? Answer: Detection of prey Question: How does the prey improve their evolutionary abilities through predator-prey interaction? Answer: array of adaptations Question: Who doesn't benefit from the predator-prey interaction? Answer: the individuals preyed upon Question: How many stages can predation be divided into? Answer: maximum of four stages Question: What are the four stages of predation? Answer: Detection of prey, attack, capture and finally consumption Question: What dilemma has resulted in many predatory adaptations? Answer: obtain food or avoid being eaten Question: In predation's four stages, in what stage is consumption? Answer: final Question: How many categories can prey be divided into? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What group seems to have changed the most through evoulution? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What term is used to describe how prey evades a predator? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What is the first stage called when prey notices a predator? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What charactheristics help divide prey into four groups? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: As the number and size of agricultural societies increased, they expanded into lands traditionally used by hunter-gatherers. This process of agriculture-driven expansion led to the development of the first forms of government in agricultural centers, such as the Fertile Crescent, Ancient India, Ancient China, Olmec, Sub-Saharan Africa and Norte Chico. Question: Who expanded into the territory of hunter-gathers? Answer: agricultural societies Question: What did the increase in agricultural areas produce? Answer: first forms of government Question: What were the Fertile Crescent and Ancient India ? Answer: agricultural centers Question: What type of expansion was it in places like the Fertile Crescent? Answer: agriculture-driven Question: Why did agricultural societies push into hunter-gatherer areas? Answer: agricultural societies increased Question: What were some of the second forms of government in agricultural centers? Answer: Unanswerable Question: As the number and size of agricultural societies decreased, what happened? Answer: Unanswerable Question: The process of fores-driven expansion led to what? Answer: Unanswerable Question: The lands traditionally used by hunter-gatherers were overtaken by what forms of government? Answer: Unanswerable Question: What type of development led to agricultural expansion? Answer: Unanswerable
Context: In addition to strictness in character size and shape, Chinese characters are written with very precise rules. The most important rules regard the strokes employed, stroke placement, and stroke order. Just as each region that uses Chinese characters has standardized character forms, each also has standardized stroke orders, with each standard being different. Most characters can be written with just one correct stroke order, though some words also have many valid stroke orders, which may occasionally result in different stroke counts. Some characters are also written with different stroke orders due to character simplification. Question: What are written with very precise rules? Answer: Chinese characters Question: What has standardized character forms? Answer: Chinese characters Question: What are also written with different stroke orders due to character simplification? Answer: characters
Context: In the United States, August Vollmer introduced other reforms, including education requirements for police officers. O.W. Wilson, a student of Vollmer, helped reduce corruption and introduce professionalism in Wichita, Kansas, and later in the Chicago Police Department. Strategies employed by O.W. Wilson included rotating officers from community to community to reduce their vulnerability to corruption, establishing of a non-partisan police board to help govern the police force, a strict merit system for promotions within the department, and an aggressive recruiting drive with higher police salaries to attract professionally qualified officers. During the professionalism era of policing, law enforcement agencies concentrated on dealing with felonies and other serious crime, rather than broader focus on crime prevention. Question: Who introduced education requirements for US police? Answer: August Vollmer Question: Who was O.W. Wilson a student of? Answer: August Vollmer Question: Where did Wilson reduce police corruption? Answer: Wichita, Kansas, and later in the Chicago Police Department Question: Why did Wilson rotate officers between communities? Answer: to reduce their vulnerability to corruption Question: How did Wilson recruit more qualified police? Answer: an aggressive recruiting drive with higher police salaries Question: Who never introduced education requirements for US police? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Who was W.O. Wilson a student of? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Where did Wilson increase police corruption? Answer: Unanswerable Question: Why did Wilson rotate officers between communities? Answer: Unanswerable Question: How did Wilson recruit more unqualified police? Answer: Unanswerable

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