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What is A 40-year-old woman presents with abnormal cervical cytology on PAP smear suggestive of CIN (III). The next best step in management is: and explain in detail?
Ans. is b, i.e. Colposcopy and LEEP.The patient in the question has CIN (III) on pap smear. PAP smear is only a screening procedure and not diagnostic. Hence for confirming the diagnosis, we will have to do colposcopy followed by LEEP to treat it, if it is confirmed. This can be done in 2 steps or single step.