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What is 32 year old nulliparous comes to gynecology OPD, due to inability to conceive. On general examination, she is otherwise healthy. She has undergone uterine dilatation and curettage for menorrhagia not controlled medically, around 4 years ago. Which of the following investigation would be more appropriate in this patient? and explain in detail?
Asherman syndrome can be suspected from the history. Hysterosalpingographyis best among choices to analyse intrauterine cavity contour, adhesions, tubal status. Laparocopy being invasive is not advocated in place of HSG for initial infertility evaluation.