You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 31-year-old male patient complains of fatigue, yeast infection in his mouth, and enlarged lymph nodes under his arms. He said that he was involved in "high-risk" behavior 6 years ago while on a trip to eastern and southern Africa. He also indicated that his "HIV test" was negative. Which one of the following options would be most appropriate? and explain in detail?
HIV-2 is present in Africa, the Far East, and some pas of the Caribbean area. Many of the screening tests for HIV-1 will not detect antibodies to HIV-2. Either a separate HIV-2 antibody test or a combination HIV-1/2 is necessary. While HTLV disease is also seen in the same geographic areas, the symptoms are more akin to HIV disease. While an HIV-1 RNA PCR is a useful test for monitoring the results of HIV therapy, it is not approved for diagnosis nor will it detect HIV-2 nucleic acid. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition