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What is A 45-year-old male is suspected of having an amebic abscess of the liver. Serum bilirubin is mildly elevated. The WBC is 11,000 but there is eosinophilia. The initial line of treatment involves which of the following? and explain in detail?
Amebic liver abscess almost always responds to treatment with metronidazole (Flagyl). Occasionally, percutaneous aspiration is required when there is no response to Flagyl or if the abscess is secondarily infected. Amebic lever abscess affects mainly middle-aged men. Complications of amebic liver abscess include secondary infection in 20% and rupture into pleural, peritoneal, or pericardial cavity in 10% of cases.