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What is A 37-year-old G2P1 woman at 38 weeks' gestation presents to the obstetrics clinic for a prenatal visit. The patient had difficulty becoming pregnant but was successful after using in vitro fertilization. She has a history of recurrent herpes outbreaks, and her first pregnancy was complicated by failure to progress, which resulted in a cesarean birth. Routine rectovaginal culture at 36 weeks was positive for Group B streptococci.Which of the following would be an absolute indication for delivering the child by LSCS: and explain in detail?
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