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What is A 30 year old woman presented with secondary amenorrhoea for 3 years along with galactorrhoea. The most likely cause of her symptoms would be: and explain in detail?
Answer is B (Prolactinoma): Menstrual cycle disturbance in the form of amenorrhea along with galactorrhea suggests a diagnosis of hyperprolactinemia. Amongst the options provided the tumor most likely to produce above endocrine manifestation is a prolactinoma. Prolactinomas: Most common functional pituitary adenomas Q