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What is A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of:- and explain in detail?
The patient had a manic episode in past and currently he is in severe depression. The complete diagnosis would be bipolar disorder. hence, this patient should receive both mood stabilizers and antidepressants.