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What is 62-year-old woman has postmenopausal bleeding after 13 years of menopause. She has hypeension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? and explain in detail?
The patient has been diagnosed endometrial adenocarcinoma on biopsy The next step is to perform a staging laparotomy which involves the following Total abdominal hysterctomy + bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy Peritoneal cytology Omentectomy + appendicectomy + peritoneal biopsy: for non endometroid cancer Selective pelvic and para aoic lymphadenectomy