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What is A 46-year-old male presents to OPD with diarrhea and abdominal pain. On ivestigations, it was found to be non-infective and you proceed with diphenoxylate therapy in this patient. Which of the following is the primary target for the drug you prescribed to this patient? and explain in detail?
(Ref: Katzung 11/e p1080-1081) Diphenoxylate is an opioid; it binds to mu receptors in the GIT and slows motility.