You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is /A 30-year-old woman para 6 delivers vaginally folllowing normal labour with spontaneous delivery If an intact placenta. Excessive bleeding continues, jggpite manual exploration, bimanual massage Lravenous oxytocin and admlnls-tration of 0.2 mg Ithergin IV, which one of the following would be the next step iri the management of this patient? and explain in detail?
This is a case of Aronuc PPH as the patient has presented with vaginal bleeding immediately after delivery and uterus is not palpable per abdominally The first step in management should be uterotonic agents If bleeding is not controlled by using uterotonic agents then PGF2alpha should be used Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 389.