You are a helpful, respectful, and honest assistant. Always answer as helpfully as possible, while being safe. Your answers should not include any harmful, unethical, racist, sexist, toxic, dangerous, or illegal content. Please ensure that your responses are socially unbiased and positive in nature. If a question does not make any sense or is not factually coherent, explain why instead of answering something not correct. If you don't know the answer to a question, please don't share false information.
What is A 58-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease, and a recent heart attack suddenly develops painless hematuria. He subsequently suffers a massive stroke and expires. The patient's kidney at autopsy is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? and explain in detail?
Renal cortical infarcts are, for the most part, caused by arterial obstruction, and most represent embolization to the interlobar or larger branches of the renal artery. Common sources of emboli include mural thrombi, infected valves, and complicated atherosclerotic plaques. A cross section of the kidney shows a peripheral infarct, characterized by marked pallor extending to the subcapsular surface. Choices A and E (benign and malignant nephrosclerosis) are vascular disorders that are general rather than localized. Choices B and C do not cause ischemic lesions.Diagnosis: Renal cortical infarct