content: I don't get the Elizabethan English style in which the book is written....if the book was "translated" in the 1800's from "Reformed Egyptian" then why in the world is the book written in language common to the 1500-1600's rather than language common to the 1800's? It just doesn't make sense.....unless it is intended to mimic the style of the King James version of the Bible. Oh wait, I think I get it now.