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So you are saying that the first Kingdom of Israel (1020–931 B.C.), Northern Kingdom of Israel (931–722 B.C.), the Kingdom of Judah (931–586 B.C.), the Hasmonean/Maccabee religious Jewish religious kingdom (140–37 B.C.), the region of Judea, and the Roman province of Judaea never existed? Interesting how Arabs can several centuries later invade Judea in the seventh century A.D. and somehow become indigenous.

Here are the origins for the name of the so-called ""Palestinians"": H.H. Ben-Sasson, A History of the Jewish People, Harvard University Press, 1976, ISBN 0-674-39731-2, page 334: ""In an effort to wipe out all memory of the bond between the Jews and the land, Hadrian changed the name of the province from Iudaea to Syria-Palestina, a name that became common in non-Jewish literature.""

This describes how the so-called ""Palestinian"" Arabs invaded from Mecca and elsewhere in the Arabian peninsula and conquered Judea from the Byzantines (Greek Romans), who in turn had conquered the land from the Jews: Gil, Moshe; Ethel Broido (1997). A History of Palestine. Cambridge University Press, pp. 634–1099. ISBN 978-0-521-59984-9.

Clearly, the references cited by the Arabs on this page are inaccurate and not reliable. If indigenous peoples are the first known inhabitants of a land, then ""Palestinian"" Arabs are clearly not indigenous to Israel, unless the authors of the cited works are applying to ""indigenous"" a completely different and non-standard meaning."