title: Two Interpreters Without Translator
body: <p>I am having a hard time understanding this. <br>
  Let I_L^M be an interpreter for language L that runs on machine M. Suppose you have access to a program, I_K^L , written in language L ,which is an interpreter for language K. Are you now able (without writing any additional translators or interpreters) to write and run programs in language K? Please explain.<br>
  I was thinking that it isn't possible because interpreters output byte code or something. It's very hard to understand and I think I'm overthinking it. Any help would be great!</p>