title: Possible explanation for why lg(n!)=O(nlg(n))
body: <blockquote>
    <p><strong>Possible Duplicate:</strong><br>
    <a href="https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2095395/is-logn-nlogn">Is log(n!) = Θ(n&#183;log(n))?</a>  </p>
  </blockquote>
  
  
  
  <p>My "proof" for why lg(n!) is O(nlg(n)) is because n is polynomially larger than lg(n!), so therefore nlg(n) would always be polynomially larger than lg(n!). Is that an acceptable reason? or do you have to mathematically prove it (in which case I would not know how to deal with the factorial)</p>