title: Intuition behind why NP could be equals to co-NP , if we "assume" P not equals NP
body: <p>if we &quot;assume&quot; P not equals NP , <a href="https://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/9795/is-the-open-question-np-co-np-the-same-as-p-np">this</a> and <a href="https://www.scottaaronson.com/democritus/lec6.html" rel="nofollow noreferrer">this</a> suggests NP could be equals to co-NP .</p>
  <p>I searched a lot , and went through a lot of materials . I can't seem to quite intuitively understand why this could be true . It would be really helpful if someone can lead me to any resource or help me intuitively understand why this could be true .</p>