Do X and Y have the same state when using ~X にかぎらず Y?


Consider the following sentences.

  * > A: 女性に限らず、男性も化粧品を使うようになった。
>
> My translations:
>
> A'1: Using cosmetics is not limited to women but also has been started by
> men.
>
> A'2: Not only women but also men have started using cosmetics.

Who started first is ambiguous.

  * > B: コンビニは、若者に限らず、お年寄りにも利用者が多い。
>
> My translations:
>
> B'1: The end users of convenient stores are not only from young people but
> also **many** from old people.
>
> B'2: The end users of convenient stores are **many** not only from young
> people but also from old people.

Which group has more users is also ambiguous.

# Question

Do X and Y have the same state when using ~X にかぎらず Y?




> 「Aに[限]{かぎ}らずB」

When this expression is used, it is generally implied that A is more
significant than B. It uses "common sense" as the premise of the statement,
which is something humans always do in speaking to others.

To prove this, simply try swapping A for B in each of your sentences and see
how the new sentences "feel" to you.

> 「[男性]{だんせい}に[限]{かぎ}らず、[女性]{じょせい}も[化粧品]{けしょうひん}を[使]{つか}うようになった。」
>
> 「コンビニは、お[年寄]{としよ}りに[限]{かぎ}らず、[若者]{わかもの}にも[利用者]{りようしゃ}が[多]{おお}い。」

To me, a citizen of Japan, both sentences look to be talking about a
place/country so far away that I would not even know its name.




> 「Aに[限]{かぎ}らずB」

When this expression is used, it is generally implied that A is more
significant than B. It uses "common sense" as the premise of the statement,
which is something humans always do in speaking to others.

To prove this, simply try swapping A for B in each of your sentences and see
how the new sentences "feel" to you.

> 「[男性]{だんせい}に[限]{かぎ}らず、[女性]{じょせい}も[化粧品]{けしょうひん}を[使]{つか}うようになった。」
>
> 「コンビニは、お[年寄]{としよ}りに[限]{かぎ}らず、[若者]{わかもの}にも[利用者]{りようしゃ}が[多]{おお}い。」

To me, a citizen of Japan, both sentences look to be talking about a
place/country so far away that I would not even know its name.

