I was reading a proof that said that if $A \le_{m} \bar{A}$, then it can be inferred that $\bar{A} \le_{m} A$ as well. Is this a logical conclusion, and if so, why? I didn't think this followed with languages A and B, but if B is A's complement, can one make such a statement?
If A is reducible to its complement, is the converse true as well?
formal languages