Given $X_1,\ldots,X_k$ (i.i.d. gaussians with mean $0$ and variance $1$), is it possible (how?) to sample (for $m=k^2$) $Y_1, \ldots, Y_m$ such that $Y_i$'s are pairwise independent gaussians with mean $0$ and variance $1$. 
Pairwise independent gaussians
derandomization;pr.probability