Given two non-trivial (not $\emptyset$ or $\Sigma^*$) languages $A$, $B$ over an alphabet $\Sigma$, which of the following is correct:a. There is a language $C$ such that $A\leq_pC$ and $B\leq_pC$.[..]c. There is a language $C$ such that $C\leq_pA$ and $C\leq_pB$.According to two different sources I've seen the correct answer seems to be (a), which is exactly why I'm trying to understand two things:Why is (a) a correct answer? Taking two languages in $EXP$, for example, I do not see why it's obvious they are polynomially reducible to each other.Why is (c) not a correct answer? Taking a language $C\in P$ since $A$ and $B$ are not trivial there are some $a\in A, a'\notin A$ and $b\in B, b'\notin B$, and therefore given a polynomial TM $M$ deciding $C$ I can define a reduction $f$ to $A$ by $f(x)=a$ if  $M(x)$ accepts and $f(x)=a'$ otherwise and similarly for $B$, so it seems to me that (c) is a correct answer.
For any non-trivial $A,B$, finding a language which both are polynomially reducible to
complexity theory;time complexity;reductions;polynomial time
Part (a) is correct since you can take the language$$ C = \{ 0x : x \in A \} \cup \{ 1y : y \in B \}. $$Here $0x$ is the concatenation of the strings 0 and $x$. This part works even when $A,B$ are trivial.Part (c) is correct by taking $C = \emptyset$ and using $A,B \neq \Sigma^*$, for example.