> because 'complete verses' isn't a cognizable concept when i posted the entire verse cited. more like because posting a fragment of it allows me to misrepresent its meaning as an anti-semitic verse. > why? because context is what defines the meaning of a text. > no paul writing to another christian church wouldn't be writing negatively about his church. lol yet he describes a behavior that would be seen as negative in any society in the world.  > the text is about the jewish people being the subject of god's wrath, which is factual. they were wiped out as people shortly thereafter. nope. has nothing to do with that and no serious theologian in the last 2000 years has interpreted it this way. you should try actually reading the book for once. and that line verse is the only time jews are mentioned in the entire book, i think.
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