> jesus' real name would have been spoken in aramaic lol how did they pronounce his real name "in" aramaic then? > either way no one called him "jesus" when he was alive the only way you can truthfully claim that is if you answer my question above but it's a red herring anyway because we know none of the languages in question had a "j" sound. that slowly evolved due to linguistics. nobody denies that.  the greek manuscripts phonetically pronounce his name as "yee-sous" so we should do our best to repeat those two syllables.    > he was preaching to the sheep of israel, and they did not receive him. this does not invalidate option 2 in your op
United States