so you are using one piece of art that is perhaps exaggerating the circumcised nature of jews to say that the accepted history of periah style circumcision happened hundreds of years before where scholars put it now at 140 ad? remember i did not really specify how much foreskin was removed in the old style circumcision as first of all i believe it varied greatly, but the purpose of it was to open the foreskin to be washed, and you can see that when moses begs the lord to allow his brother in law aaron to join him because he was "circumcised of mouth" so open of mouth and in the new testament where we are commanded to be circumcised of heart "open heart". unless jews have foreskins over their mouths and hearts im not aware of
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