> this is only true if you think the principle of cause and effect is a universal natural law. this is unproven and seems to be false. laws of logic are by definition universal (they are true regardless of time and space), what you are insulating is the classic "errm, how do you know laws of logic apply outside of the universe" which is a statement as redundant as saying "how do you know 1+1 = 2 will be true on mars" or "how do you know that 1+1 = 2 tomorrow?" > that's not what infinity means, you retard. thats literally the aristotelian definition of "potential infinity" (which philosophers accept) as opposed to "real infinites" (or actual infinites) which most philosophers reject for the reasons i mentioned
Iraq