Suppose The Lord of the Rings is a high-fantasy novel written by J.R.R. Tolkien which follows the quest of the hobbit Frodo Baggins to destroy the One Ring and defeat the Dark Lord Sauron. The novel was published in three volumes between 1954 and 1955 and has since become a classic of the genre.
Can we infer that "The Lord of the Rings was initially a single volume book"? Yes, no, or maybe?