Suppose The Lord of the Rings is a high fantasy novel by English author J.R.R. Tolkien. It takes place in the fictional world of Middle-earth and follows the quest to destroy the One Ring, which was created by the Dark Lord Sauron. The novel was originally published as three separate volumes, but is commonly published as one book.
Can we infer that "J.R.R. Tolkien is the author of The Lord of the Rings."? Yes, no, or maybe?