Suppose "Child labor" is, generally speaking, work for children that harms them or exploits them in some way (physically, mentally, morally, or by blocking access to education).
Can we infer that ""Child labor" was invented by the United States."? Yes, no, or maybe?
Suppose "Child labor" is, generally speaking, work for children that harms them or exploits them in some way (physically, mentally, morally, or by blocking access to education). Can we infer that ""Child labor" was invented by the United States."? Yes, no, or maybe?