Suppose Legalization would eliminate the harms caused by prohibition, but it would not eliminate the harms caused by drug use.
Can we infer that "Legalization reduces harms from using drugs "? Yes, no, or maybe?
Suppose Legalization would eliminate the harms caused by prohibition, but it would not eliminate the harms caused by drug use. Can we infer that "Legalization reduces harms from using drugs "? Yes, no, or maybe?