Suppose Islamic rule govenrned the southern part of the Iberian peninsula for seven hundred years. In medieval history, "al-Andalus" (Arabic: الأندلس‎ ‎ ) was the name given to the parts of the Iberian Peninsula and Septimania governed by Arab and North African Muslims (given the generic name of Moors), at various times in the period between 711 and 1492.
Can we infer that "The term "al-Andalus" was the name given to parts of the Iberian Peninsula and Septimania that were governed by Arab and North African Muslims prior to 711."? Yes, no, or maybe?
Suppose Islamic rule govenrned the southern part of the Iberian peninsula for seven hundred years. In medieval history, "al-Andalus" (Arabic: الأندلس‎ ‎ ) was the name given to the parts of the Iberian Peninsula and Septimania governed by Arab and North African Muslims (given the generic name of Moors), at various times in the period between 711 and 1492. Can we infer that "The term "al-Andalus" was the name given to parts of the Iberian Peninsula and Septimania that were governed by Arab and North African Muslims prior to 711."? Yes, no, or maybe?