Suppose Gandhi was leader of the Indian independence movement in British-ruled India. Employing nonviolent civil disobedience, Gandhi led India to independence and inspired movements for civil rights and freedom across the world. Born on October 2, 1869, in Porbandar, India, he was famously known as Mahatma Gandhi and earned the honorific title of 'father of the nation' in India.
Can we infer that "Gandhi's method of resistance was always violent."? Yes, no, or maybe?